[ 1-a ] haryana superior judicial service preliminary ... · (c) v. venkata subbarao v. state...

Haryana Superior Judicial Service Preliminary Examination-2013

[ 1-A ]

1. Law of evidence is- (a) Lex tallienis (b) Lex fori (c) Lex loci solutionis (d) Lex situs

2. Identification of a suspect by photo is- (a) Admissible in evidence (b) Not admissible in evidence (c) Section 9 of the Indian Evidence Act excludes identification by

photo (d) Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act excludes identification by

photo

3. Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused- (a) If they are tried jointly for the same offences (b) If they are tried jointly for the different offences (c) If they are tried for the same offences but not jointly (d) If they are tried for different offences and not jointly

4. A dying declaration is admissible : (a) Only in criminal proceedings (b) Only in civil proceedings (c) Neither in criminal proceedings nor in civil proceedings (d) In civil as well as criminal proceedings both

5. Contents of a document under Section 59 of the Indian Evidence Act- (a) Can be proved by oral evidence (b) Cannot be proved by oral evidence (c) May or may not be proved by oral evidence

(d) Can only be proved by oral evidence under the order of the court

6. Section 79 of the Indian Evidence Act contains-

(a) An irrebuttable presumption of law (b) A rebuttable presumption of law (c) A presumption of fact (d) No presumption either of fact or of law.

7. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act provides for : (a) Presumption of life (b) Presumption of marriage (c) Presumption of death (d) Presumption of legitimacy


[ 2-A ]

8. Zahira Shekh was prime witness in- (a) Sukh Ram disproportionate assets case(2005) (b) Gujjar killings case (2003) (c) Best Bakery case (2004) (d) Best Bakery retrial case (2006)

9. An arrested person has a right to consult a legal practitioner of his choice. The consultation with the lawyer- (a) May not be in the presence of the police officer (b) May be in the presence of the police officer but not within his

hearing (c) May be in the presence of the police officer and within his

hearing (d) Both (a) & (b).

10. Under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, a Magistrate- (a) Has the power to grant interim maintenance & the expenses

of the proceedings (b) Has no power to grant interim maintenance & the expenses

of the proceedings (c) Has power to grant interim maintenance but no power to

grant expenses of the proceedings (d) Has no power to grant interim maintenance but has the

power to grant expenses of the proceedings. 11. Cognizance of offence of defamation under Chapter XXI of IPC can be

taken- (a) On a police report (b) Suo motu (c) On a complaint made by an aggrieved person (d) All the above

12. Under Section 437 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, on a mere fact that an accused person may be required for being identified by witnesses during investigation- (a) Bail can be refused (b) Bail should be refused (c) Bail can be and should be refused (d) Bail cannot be refused

13. When the approver willfully suppresses material facts or gives false evidence- (a) The Court itself has inherent power to proceed against

Approver (b) The Court does not have inherent power to proceed against

Approver (c) Police can take action against him (d) On the request of police, Court can take action against

Approver


[ 3-A ]

14. As per sec. 2 (ix) of NDPS Act, convention and protocol held at which place is included in the meaning of ‘International Convention’- (a) New York (b) Geneva (c) Vienna (d) All above

15. The Schedule attached with the NDPS Act 1985 is in reference to- (a) Sec. 3 (ii) (b) Sec. 2 (xiv) (c) Sec. 2 (xxiii) (d) None of these

16. Which statement is correct for presumption of culpable mental state under sections 35 of NDPS Act- (a) Court shall presume culpable mental state as defense for the

accused to prove the fact that he had no such mental state with respect to the act charged of an offence in that prosecution.

(b) Culpable mental state includes intention, motive, knowledge of a fact and belief in or reason to believe, a fact.

(c) Both a & b (d) None of the above

17. Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal

Procedure 1973 offences triable by Special courts are-

(a) All offences under NDPS Act punishable with imprisonment up to three years

(b) All offences under NDPS Act punishable with imprisonment more than three years, and may also try an offence other than this act with which the accused may, under the Cr.P.C. be charged at the same trial.

(c) All offences under NDPS Act punishable with imprisonment

up to three years (d) None of the above

18. Against the order passed by an officer under the NDPS Act, for refusal

of licence for the cultivation of the opium poppy a suit or proceeding

shall be entertained by which Civil Court u/s 73-

(a) Civil Judge Class I (b) Additional District Judge (c) District Judge (d) None of the above.


[ 4-A ]

19. As per sec 2 (xiv) “coca leaf, cannabis (hemp), opium, poppy straw

including all manufactured goods” means-

(a) Psychotropic substance

(b) Narcotic substance

(c) Narcotic drug

(d) None of the above 20. The punishment for contravention in relation to psychotropic

substances is provided under

(a) Section 23

(b) Section 22

(c) Section 24

(d) Section 25

21. Under NDPS Act the Special Courts shall try offences where the

punishment is

(a) More than five years but less than three years

(b) More than three years

(c) More than two years

(d) Less than five years

22. To establish section 34 of IPC

(a) Common intention is to be proved but not overt act be proved

(b) Common intention and overt act both have to be proved

(c) Common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved

(d) All the above


[ 5-A ]

23. In which of the following case(s), the offence of abetment is committed:-

(a) X widow prepares herself for sati and proceeds towards the pyre of her husband. X, Y and Z follow her by shouting repeatedly: “Ram, Ram.”

(b) X and Y attend reception of bride who was only of 13 years.

(c) M officiates as Priest or Pandit in the marriage of a girl aged 15 years and a boy aged 18 years.

(d) Only in (a) and (c).

24. Three persons A, B and C went to a Post Office. While A stood inside the post office, B and C entered the post office and asked post master to hand over money. C fired pistol at him, as a result he was shot dead-

(a) All of them will be guilty of causing death.

(b) Only C is liable for murder

(c) Both B and C liable for murder

(d) None of these is correct

25. An injury may be called grievous if-

(a) It endangers life

(b) It happens to be caused on a vital part of the body.

(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

(d) None of the above.

26. The right of private defence of the body extends to causing death-

(a) In five situations

(b) In six situations

(c) In seven situations

(d) In eight situations


[ 6-A ]

27. A person can be prosecuted and held liable under IPC for-

(a) Voyeurism

(b) Stalking

(c) Attempting to through acid

(d) All of the above

28. The appeal and revision from the decision of a special Judge for an

offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act shall lie-

(a) In the High Court

(b) In the Sessions Court

(c) In the Supreme Court

(d) All the above

29. Under what circumstances can CBI take over the investigation of a

criminal case registered by the State Police?

(a) The concerned State Government makes a request to that effect and the Central Government agrees to it

(b) The State Government issues notification of consent under section 6 of the DSPE Act and the Central Government issues notification under section 5 of the DSPE Act

(c) The Supreme Court or High Courts orders CBI to take up such investigations.

(d) All the above.

30. Voluntarily giving or offering bribe to a public servant is a punishable

offence under which provision of Prevention of Corruption Act

(a) Section 7

(b) Section 9

(c) Section 12

(d) Section 19


[ 7-A ]

31. In which of the following case the Supreme Court held that mere

recovery of tainted currency notes from the accused is enough to draw

presumption under section 20 of the Prevention of Corruption Act-

(a) CM Girish Babu v. CBI, Cochin, High Court of Kerala

(b) Sat Pal v. State of Punjab

(c) V. Venkata Subbarao v. State represented by Inspector of Police, AP

(d) Gian Singh v. State of Punjab

32. The predecessor of the present Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988

was amended in 1964 based on the recommendations of

(a) Sachar Committee

(b) Santhanam Committee

(c) Raghavan Committee

(d) None of the Above

33. Section 5 of The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 provides-

(a) Cases triable by special Judges

(b) Power to appoint special judges

(c) Public servant

(d) Procedure and powers of special judge

34. As per section 21 of The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988-

(a) Accused person to be a competent witness

(b) Accused person is not a competent witness

(c) Accused person is will never be a witness

(d) None of the above


[ 8-A ]

35. A Special Judge as per The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 is a

Judge-

(a) Appointed under section 3

(b) Appointed under criminal law amendment Act 1952

(c) Both a & b


36. The provisions of The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 shall not

affect -

(a) Army Act 1950

(b) National Security Guard Act 1986

(c) Coast Guard Act 1978

(d) All above

37. A person who institutes a suit in a foreign court and claims a decree

in personam, after the judgment is pronounced against him-

(a) Can always challenge the judgment on the ground of competency

(b) Can never challenge the judgment on the ground of competency

(c) Has the option to change it at any time


38. Compensatory costs can be imposed for-

(a) False or vexatious claims or defences

(b) Improbable claims or defences

(c) Either (a) or (b)



[ 9-A ]

39. Right to lodge a caveat has been provided under

(a) Section 147 of CPC

(b) Section 148A of CPC

(c) Section 149 of CPC

(d) Section 148 of CPC

40. Who amongst the following is not a legal representative -

(a) A trespasser

(b) An intermeddler

(c) A creditor

(d) Both (a) and (c)

41. In India, a person who is stranger to the consideration- (a) Cannot sue the contract

(b) Depends on the conditions

(c) Can sue the contract


42. If a contract is based on personal skill or confidence of parties, the

death of a party in such a case- (a) Does not put an end to the contract (b) The representatives of the deceased can be made liable to

perform such a contract (c) Put an end to the contract (d) None of the above

43. The doctrine of frustration is covered by which Section of the Indian Contract Act-

(a) Section 56 (b) Section 48 (c) Section 46 (d) None of these Sections

44. An advertisement inviting tender is-

(a) A promise (b) An invitation for negotiations (c) An invitation for proposal (d) A proposal


[ 10-A ]

45. If X renders some service to Y at Y’s desire after a month Y promise to compensate X for the service rendered to him, it is a-

(a) Future consideration (b) Past consideration (c) Present consideration (d) None of the above

46. Voidable contract is one-

(a) Which is invalid (b) Which is valid so long it is not avoided by the party entitled to

do so (c) Which is lawful (d) None of the above

47. According to Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, living person includes-

(a) Individual human being only (b) Company or association or body of individuals (c) Only important company or associations (d) None of the above

48. The rule of election under the Transfer of Property Act as applied to Will is enacted in Sections 180 and 192 of the:

(a) The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 (b) The Indian Registration Act, 1908 (c) The Indian Succession Act, 1925 (d) The General Clauses Act, 1897

49. Two elements of charge are provided in Section 100 of the Transfer of

Property Act : (1) Charges created by act of parties; and (2) Charges arising by operation of law. Hence, a compromise decree creating a charge is an :- (a) Act of parties within the meaning of Section 100 (b) Is not an act of parties within the meaning of Section 100 (c) Is not substantial charge (d) Is a defective charge

50. A gift to two or more donees, of whom one does not accept, it is :

(a) Valid as to the interest which he would have taken had he accepted

(b) Void as to interest which he would have taken had he accepted (c) Voidable at the option of donor (d) Valid at the option of heir


[ 11-A ]

51. The Limitation Act, 1963 contains-

(a) 32 Sections and no Articles (b) 31 Sections and 137 Articles (c) 33 Sections and 137 Articles (d) 31 Sections and no Articles

52. The maximum period of limitation prescribed in the Act is-

(a) 12 years (b) 3 years (c) 30 years (d) 35 years

53. Period of Limitation means-

(a) period of limitation prescribed for any suit, appeal or applicable by the schedule

(b) period of limitation computed according to the provisions of the Limitation Act

(c) both (a) and (b) (d) None of the above

54. Any claim by way of a set off or a counter claim shall be treated as-

(a) a separate suit (b) the same suit (c) may be separate or same suit (d) None of the above

55. Legal disability means-

(a) Minority and Idiocy (b) Insanity and Idiocy (c) Insanity and Minority (d) Minority, Insanity and Idiocy

56. The provisions of Section 3 of Limitation Act, 1963 are-

(a) Mandatory (b) Directory (c) Discretionary (d) Optional


[ 12-A ]

57. Section 13 of Limitation Act applies to:

(a) Suit filed in forma pauperis (b) Appeal filed in forma pauperis (c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

58. Which scientist discovered the radioactive element radium-

(a) Isaac Newton (b) Albert Einstein (c) Benjamin Franklin (d) Marie Curie

59. Acknowledgment after the period of limitation-

(a) Is of no effect (b) Gives rise to an independent and enforceable contract (c) Depends upon the discretion of the parties (d) Increases the time

60. Which can be considered as immovable property as defined in the

Registration Act, 1908- (a) Land (b) Hereditary allowances (c) Only (a) (d) Both (a) and (b)

61. Which of the following is an immovable property within the meaning

of Section 2(6) of the Registration Act, 1908 as benefit arising out of

land-

(a) A transfer of future rents in respect of land (b) A transfer of rents which have already accrued (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)


[ 13-A ]

62. Which of the following statement is true with regard to Section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882-

(a) It provides an exception to Section 17(l)(a) of the Registration

Act (b) It is supplemental to Section 17(1)(a) of the Registration Act (c) It provides an exception to Section 17(l)(b) of the Registration

Act (d) It is supplemental to Section 17(l)(b) of the Registration Act

63. Who invented the BALLPOINT PEN-

(a) Biro Brothers

(b) Waterman Brothers

(c) Bicc Brothers

(d) Write Brothers

64.

Which of the following is compulsorily registrable- (a) Gift in lieu of dower (b) Hiba-bil-iwaz (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

65.

The share of a partner in the partnership / property which includes movable and immovable assets, for the purposes of the Registration Act is- (a) A movable property (b) An immovable property (c) A movable property in respect of movable assets and an

immovable property in respect of immovable assets (d) Either (b) or (c)

66. An award on mortgage declaring amount due and merely stating that on default property might be sold is- (a) Optionally registrable (b) Compulsorily registrable (c) Depends on the award (d) None of the above


[ 14-A ]

67. A deed of adoption requires-

(a) Compulsory registration (b) Optional registration (c) No registration (d) Either (b) or (c)

68. The records made by the Panches about the division of properties are- (a) Optionally registrable (b) Compulsorily registrable (c) Depends on the document (d) Either (a) or (c)

69.

A suit by person dispossessed of immovable property can't be brought- (a) after one year from the date of dispossession (b) against the government (c) after 6 months from the date of dispossession (d) both (b) and (c)

70.

The prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award was conferred upon Ms. Kiran Bedi for her excellent contribution to which of the following fields –

(a) Literature

(b) Community Welfare

(c) Government Service

(d) Journalism

71.

Specific Relief Act applies to- (a) Only Immovable Property (b) Only Moveable Property (c) Both moveable and immovable property (d) None of the above


[ 15-A ]

72. The liability of a person in possession, not as owner, to deliver to persons entitled to immediate possession arises- (a) when the thing claimed is held by the defendant as the agent of

trustee of the plaintiff (b) when it is extremely difficult to ascertain the actual damage

caused by its loss (c) when compensation in money is not an adequate relief (d) all of the above

73.

Proviso to Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 relates to- (a) suits for injunctions (b) suits for declaration (c) suits for specific performance (d) all of the above

74. World's busiest airport by passenger traffic is – (a) Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International Airport, USA (b) Lhasa Airport, Tibet (c) King Abdul Aziz International Airport, Saudi Arabia (d) Chicago O' Hare International Airport, USA

75. Void marriages have been described under- (a) Section 9 of Hindu Marriage Act (b) Section 10 of Hindu Marriage Act (c) Section 11 of Hindu Marriage Act (d) Section 12 of Hindu Marriage Act

76. In which year was Pulitzer Prize established-

(a) 1917 (b) 1918 (c) 1922 (d) 1928

77. Order of permanent alimony under Section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act can be varied, modified or rescinded-

(a) If the party in whose favour the order has been passed re-marries.

(b) If the party in whose favour the order has been passed is the wife, she has not remained chaste

(c) If the party in whose favour the order has been passed is the husband, he has had sexual intercourse with any other woman.

(d) All the above


[ 16-A ]

78. A married Hindu woman has the capacity to adopt if-

(a) Her husband has ceased to be a Hindu (b) Her husband has finally and completely renounced the world (c) Her husband has been declared to be a person of unsound

mind by a Court of competent jurisdiction (d) Either (a) or (b) or (c)

79. Section 14 of Hindu Succession Act applies to-

(a) Movable property (b) Immovable property (c) Only immovable property and not movable property (d) Both movable and immovable properties

80. India has largest deposits of ____ in the world- (a) gold (b) copper (c) mica (d) None of the above

81. Section 30 of Hindu Succession Act authorises a Hindu to dispose of,

by will, his-

(a) Self-acquired property (b) Undivided share in the Mitakshara coparcenary property (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Only (a) and not (b)

82. The question of closure of minority institution whether permissible if

being run against public interest or national interest was considered

in-

(a) Madarsa-e-darul v. State of Bihar (2010) 8 SCC 49 (b) Sindhi Education Society v. Govt of (NCT of Delhi) (2010) 8 SCC

49 (c) Urdu Education Society v. Govt of (NCT of Delhi) (2010) 8 SCC

49 (d) Ramdas Athawael v. Union of India (2010) 8 SCC 49


[ 17-A ]

83. In which case the administration approached the High Court seeking order for termination of pregnancy of an orphan women of the age 19-20 year, suffering from mild mental retardation, found pregnant (allegedly on having been raped)-

(a) Savita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Admn. (2009) 9 SCC 1 (b) Suchita Krishnan v. Delhi Admn. (2009) 9 SCC 1 (c) Orphan society v. Delhi Admn. (2009) 9 SCC 1 (d) Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Admn. (2009) 9 SCC 1

84. The chief purpose of crop rotation is to check the loss of top soil-

(a) by water erosion

(b) by wind erosion

(c) by weathering

(d) of its mineral content

85.

In which year of First World War Germany declared war on Russia and France-

(a) 1914

(b) 1915

(c) 1916

(d) 1917

86.

The unit of electric current is:-

(a) ohm

(b) watt

(c) ampere



[ 18-A ]

87. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act 1904 for the purpose of which article creates obligation for the state- (a) Article 39 (b) Article 48-A (c) Article 49-A (d) Article 49

88. UN General Assembly elects a President and how many Vice Presidents at the start of its each regular session-

(a) Seven

(b) Fifteen

(c) Twenty one

(d) Two 89.

The definition of ‘Money Bill’ is provided under-

(a) Article 109 (b) Article 110 (c) Article 111 (d) Article 112

90. Article 131-A was inserted in the Constitution by-

(a) Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act 1976 (b) Constitution (Forty-Third Amendment) Act 1977 (c) Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act 1978 (d) Constitution (Forty-Sixth Amendment) Act 1980

91.

The chief constituent of gobar gas is-

(a) ethane

(b) methane

(c) hydrogen

(d) carbon dioxide


[ 19-A ]

92. Right to Information, prior to enactment of Right to information Act, 2005, was an essential part of Article -

(a) 19 (1) (a) (b) 21 (c) 19 (1) (g) (d) None of these

93.

The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India is-

(a) Appellate only (b) Original only (c) Original as well as appellate (d) Original, appellate and advisory

94.

Hitler’s party which came into power in 1933 is known as-

(a) Labour Party

(b) Nazi Party

(c) Ku-Klux-Klan

(d) Democratic Party

95.

What is the minimum age to become a member of Rajya Sabha- (a) 18 years (b) 21 years (c) 25 years (d) 30 years

96.

The case which relates to the right to fly National flag is- (a) Union of India v. Maneka Gandhi (1978) (b) P. V. Imanual v. Union of India (2011) (c) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India (1991) (d) Union of India v. Naveen Jindal (2004)


[ 20-A ]

97. Which Article of the Constitution enables the State to have a special drive for unfilled reserved vacancies of a year - (a) Article 14 (b) Article 15(4) (c) Article 16(4) (d) Article 16 (4B)

98. Which of the following case deals with right against handcuffing:- (a) Prem Shankar vs. Delhi Admn. (1980) (b) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978) (c) M.H. Hoskot vs. State of Maharashtra (1978) (d) Sunil Batra vs. Delhi Admn. (1978)

99. Garampani sanctuary is located at (a) Junagarh, Gujarat (b) Diphu, Assam (c) Kohima, Nagaland (d) Gangtok, Sikkim

100. The golden rule of construction of statute is-

(a) Literal

(b) Harmonious

(c) Purposive

(d) Mischief

101. Courts on finding a casus omissus in a Statute can-

(a) Supply the casus omissus

(b) Not supply the casus omissus

(c) Overlook its existence

(d) Direct the legislature to supply it

102. Grand Central Terminal, Park Avenue, New York, is world’s- (a) Largest Railway Station (b) Highest Railway Station (c) Longest Railway Station (d) None of the above.


[ 21-A ]

103. In determining the liability of a subject, a taxing statute must be interpreted-

(a) Strictly

(b) Expansively

(c) With regard to its consequences

(d) By Examining its purpose 104.

The Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973 extends to- (a) All urban areas of Haryana (b) All rural areas of Haryana (c) All urban areas of Haryana except cantonment area (d) All areas of Haryana

105. A person can convert a residential building into a non-residential building- (a) Without the permission of the tenant (b) With the permission in writing of the Controller (c) With the permission in writing of the tenant (d) With the permission of the registrar

106. A tenant may be asked for eviction on the ground- (a) If he transferred his right under the lease (b) Sublet the entire building, or any portion (c) Used the building or rented land for a purpose other than for

which it was leased (d) Any of them

107. The Union government of India on 8 June 2013 decided to launch National Higher Education Campaign, named_______________, to focus on equity based development, improvement in teaching-learning quality and research-

(a) Rashtriya Ucchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

(b) Rashtriya Ucchatam Shiksha Abhiyan

(c) Rashtriya Uccha Shiksha Abhiyan

(d) Rashtriya Shiksha Abhiyan


[ 22-A ]

108. Who has bagged a bronze medal in the 60 kilogram freestyle category at the World Wrestling Championships in Budapest, Hungary on 17 September 2013-

(a) Bajrang Kumar

(b) Sushil Kumar

(c) Vijender Singh

(d) Manoj Kumar 109. Agreement in restraint of marriage has been defined in-

(a) Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act (b) Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act (c) Section 26 of the Indian Contract Act (d) Section 25 of the Indian Contract Act

110. According to Section 5 of the Transfer of Property Act, living person includes:

(a) Individual human being only (b) Company or association or body of individuals (c) Only important company or associations (d) None of the above

111. According to the amendment to the Transfer of Property Act the period, within the principle of Section 106 of the Act shall commence from :

(a) Date of receipt of notice (b) Date of issue of notice (c) Date of summoning of notice (d) 15 days from the expiry of notice

112. Burden to prove adverse possession is on-

(a) Court (b) Plaintiff (c) Defendant (d) None of the above

113. An adoption validly made can be cancelled by :- (a) The adopter (b) The natural parents (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)


[ 23-A ]

114. Under Section 6 of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act the

natural guardian of a minor child is :-

(a) Mother (b) Father (c) Both mother and father (d) Either mother or father

115. Under Article 129 of the Constitution of India, Supreme Court –

1. Shall be a court of record

2. Shall have the power to punish for contempt of itself

(a) Only 1 is correct

(b) Only 2 is correct

(c) 1 & 2 both correct

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct 116. Breakdown theory of divorce was introduced in the Hindu Marriage

Act in the year : (a) 1979 (b) 1976 (c) 1973 (d) 1964

117. Special Provisions for the State of Maharashtra and Gujarat are provided under Article________ of the Constitution-

(a) 370 (b) 371B (c) 371F (d) 371

118. The normal function of a proviso to a Section is to:-

(a) Except something out of the Section

(b) Add to the Section

(c) Substitute the clear words of the Section

(d) Travel beyond the Section to which it is a proviso


[ 24-A ]

119. The ratio of width of our National flag to its length is- (a) 3:5 (b) 2:3 (c) 2:4 (d) 3:4

120. 20th August is celebrated as- (a) Earth Day (b) Sadbhavana Divas (c) No Tobacco Day (d) None of these

121. The centenary of Mahatma Gandhi's arrival in South Africa was celebrated in-

(a) May 1993 (b) August 1993 (c) July 1993 (d) September 1993

122. The territory of Porus who offered strong resistance to Alexander was situated between the rivers of-

(a) Sutlej and Beas (b) Jhelum and Chenab (c) Ravi and Chenab (d) Ganga and Yamuna

123. The percentage of irrigated land in India is about-

(a) 45 (b) 65 (c) 35 (d) 25

124. Who among the following decides the oil price in India- (a) Government of India. (b) Government of respective states (c) Oil Companies (d) Ministry of Petroleum

125. The sportswear Company `Adidas’ belongs to which country- (a) Japan (b) Russia (c) China (d) Germany

[ 1-a ] haryana superior judicial service preliminary ... · (c) v. venkata subbarao v. state...

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