-public-images-epapers-24587_ibps clerk preliminary practice question paper 25

IBPS ClerkPractice Set No 25

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Sections Number of questions Marks Duration of Exam

1. English Language 30 30 60 minutes 2. Reasoning 35 35

3. Quantitative Aptitude 35 35

Total = 100 Qs. Total Marks = 100

1. English Language

Direction (Q. 1 - 10): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The

error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no

error, the answer is (5) i.e. 'No Error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

1. 1) It was clear from the way /2) they were behaving /3) that they had been /4) lost their senses /5) No

error

2. 1) That boy possess /2) three beautiful pens /3) but he would not /4) show them to anyone /5) No

error

3. 1) A small piece /2) of bread is /3) better than /4) having nothing to eat /5) No error

4. 1) Families are /2) fortunate enough to own /3) a house in the city /4) are very few /5) No error

5. 1) Though I had been /2) his friend for quite a long time, /3) I refused to help him /4) because his ill

nature /5) No error

6. 1) When he had been /2) walked along the road /3) a wild and ferocious dog /4) hit him hard and

knocked him down /5) No error

7. 1) I am grateful to you /2) and all your friends /3) for showing sympathy /4) and kindness with me /5)

No error

8. 1) The leader was so shrewd /2) that he could not deceive /3) by the words of /4) the sycophant

courtiers /5) No error

9. 1) He is the man /2) who I know /3) has helped my son /4) in the final examination /5) No error

10. 1) I have been /2) living Hyderabad /3) at my uncle /4) since my birth /5) No error

Direction (Q. 11 - 15): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in proper sequence

to from a meaningful paragraph: then answer the questions given below them.

(A) He felt that his honest ways were responsible for the poverty and starvation of his family.

(B) Sixteen miles away from Mysore, there is a dense forest.

(C) He told them how his honesty was useless and asked if he should try an alternative.


(D) They told him that they would prefer starving to dishonesty.

(E) Once there lived a poor but honest woodcutter in the forest.

(F) So he wanted to discuss his feeling with his wife and children.

11. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

12. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

13. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

14. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

15. Which of the following should he the THIRD sentence?

(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D) (5) (E)

Direction (Q. 16 - 20): Pick out most effective word from the give words to fill in the blank to make

sentence meaningfully complete.

16. It is desirable to take________ in a business if you want to make pr it.

(1) advice (2) risk (3) loan (4) recourse (5) perseverance

17. The rocket________ the target and did not cause any casualty.

(1) sensed (2) reached (3) missed (4) exploded (5) aimed

18. You must ensure the correctness of the information before________ to conclusion.

(1) drawing (2) enabling (3) leaning (4) jumping (5) examining

19. They wasted all the money on purchase of some________ items.

(1) excellent (2) important (3) significant (4) quality (5) trivial

20. When he found the wallet his face glowed but soon it faded as the wallet was________ .

(1) empty (2) vacant (3) recovered (4) stolen (5) expensive


Direction (Q. 21 - 30): In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.

These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which

fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Jamshedji Tata is (21) to be the path-finder of modern industrial builders. He is known as the grand-

father of the Indian industry for his acumen and enthusiasm. Nobody else could have (22) of the new

industries started by Jamshedji at the time when industrial (23) and revolution was yet to come to India.

Jamshedji's father Nasarvanji Tata used to trade in jute with China and Britain. He started (24) from

India. Jamshedji started a cloth mill in Nagpur more than hundred years ago. At that time almost all the

(25) used to come from Lancashire in England. What Jamshedji (26) was praiseworthy?

Jamshedji (27) very well that an industrial revolution can only be brought in the country by setting up

iron and steel industry. (28) He did not live to see the industry he had in mind, he had done all (29)

work. In fact, he laid the ground work for it. He had planned the entire steel city now known as

Jamshedpur, complete with streets, roads, schools, parks, play grounds, temples, mosques, churches,

etc. His (30) was fulfilled by his sons, Sir Dorabji Tata and Sir Rattan Tata, when they started the Tata

Iron & Steel Factory in 1907 just after three years of his death.

21. (1) agreed (2) empowered (3) determined (4) considered (5) rewarded

22. (1) thought (2) ventured (3) set (4) planned (5) absolved

23. (1) acts (2) machinery (3) awakening (4) factories (5) imports

24. (1) industries (2) import (3) trade (4) dispatch (5) export

25. (1) imports (2) cloth (3) machines (4) industries (5) goods

26. (1) dreamt (2) agreed (3) told (4) meant (5) did

27. (1) advocated (2) planned (3) thought (4) knew (5) felt

28. (1) Although (2) Surprisingly (3) Luckily (4) Even (5) Because

29. (1) complete (2) trivial (3) preliminary (4) external (5) insignificant

30. (1) task (2) dream (3) industry (4) sentiment (5) need

Answers: -

1. (3); Past Perfect Tense will be used. The structure is :

Subject + had + past participle


2. (1); That boy possesses' is the correct usage, as the verb must agree with its subject in number and

person.

3. (5); No error

4. (1); Error is in Part (1)

5. (4); 'Because of is the correct idiomatic form.

6. (2); The structure of Past Perfect Continuous is

Subject + had been + verb + ing

7. (4); The preposition 'with' should be replaced by 'to'.

8. (2); Passive voice will be used. i.e. That he could not be deceived', is the correct form.

9. (3); Simple Past is used for an action happened in the past and showing past time.

10. (3); The preposition 'at' should be replaced by 'with'.

11. (4); (D)

12. (2); (B)

13. (3); (C)

14. (5); (E)

15. (1); (A)

16. (2); risk

17. (3); missed

18. (4); jumping

19. (5); trivial

20. (1); empty

21. (4); considered

22. (1); thought

23. (3); awakening

24. (5) export

25. (2); cloth


26. (5); did

27. (4) knew

28. (1); Although

29. (3); preliminary

30. (2); dream

2. Reasoning

1. 'Day' is related to 'Night' in the same way 'White' is related to?

(1) Black (2) Color (3) Ray (4) Red (5) None of these

2. Mohan is thirteenth from the left end in a row of children. Prabir is twelfth from the right end and

eighteenth from the left end. How many children are towards the right of Mohan in that row?

(1) 12 (2) 18 (3) 17 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

3. In a certain code, TERMINAL is written as SDQLJOBM. How is CREDIBLE written in that code?

(1) BQDCJCMF (2) DSFEJCMF (3) BQDCHAKD (4) DSFEHAKD (5) None of these

4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does

not belong to that group?

(1) 17 (2) 23 (3) 37 (4) 13 (5) 73

5. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the second, the third, the sixth and the eighth

letters of the word FRAGMENT using each only once, which of the following will be the third letter of

that word ? If no such word can be formed, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can

be formed, give 'Y' as the answer.

(1) A (2) E (3) T (4) X (5) Y

6. Among P, M, R, T and J, M is older than R and T. J is older than M and is not the oldest. Who is the

oldest?

(1) R (2) P (3) R or T (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

7. A is sister of B. C is brother of D. D is a sister of A. How is B related to D?

(1) Brother (2) Brother or Sister (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

8. 'Mango' is related to 'Fruit' in the same way as 'Potato' is related to?


(1) Fruit (2) Stem (3) Flower (4) Root (5) None of these

9. In a certain code PEAK is written as '3512' and DINE is written as '6895'. How is KIND written in that

code?

(1) 2396 (2) 2986 (3) 2896 (4) 2596 (5) None of these

10. How many such letters are there in the word ORIENTAL each of which is as far away from the

beginning of the word as when they are arranged alphabetically?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three



(1) Rose (2) Lily (3) Lotus (4) Marigold (5) Apple

12. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 93264187 are interchanged. Similarly the

positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of the following will be

the third digit from the right end after the rearrangement?

(1) 8 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 6 (5) None of these



(1) Fruit (2) Leaf (3) Flower (4) Tree (5) Trunk

14. 'School' is related to 'Education' in the same way as 'Hospital' is related to — ?

(1) Treatment (2) Patient (3) Doctor (4) Nurse (5) None of these

15. Five friends M, K, T, P and N are sitting around a circle facing towards the centre. K is sitting between

M and P. N is to the immediate right of M. Who is to the immediate right of T?

(1) K (2) P (3) N (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

16. If each of the odd digits in the number 54638 is decreased by ' 1' and each of the seven digits is

increased by T, which of the following will be the sum of the digits of the new number?

(1) 26 (2) 29 (3) 25 (4) 28 (5) None of these

17. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series?

AC FH KM PR ?

(1) VW (2) VX (3) VW (4) TV (5) None of these


18. In a certain code language LABOUR is written as KBAPTS. How is CANDID written in that code

language?

(1) DBOEJE (2) DZDCJC (3) BBMCHC (4) BBMEHE (5) None of these

19. Navin walked 20 metres towards East, took a left term and walked 10 metres and again took a left

turn and walked 20 metres. How far, he is from his starting position?

(1) 10 metres (2) 50 metres (3) 40 metres (4) 30 metres (5) None of these

20. Pointing to Meena, Swarup says "she is the daughter of my grandfather's only child". How is Meena

related to Swarup?

(1) Cousin (2) Sister (3) Aunt (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Direction (Q. 21 - 25): In each of the questions below are given two statements followed by the

conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if. they seem to be

at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows

from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

(1) if only conclusion I follows

(2) if only conclusion II follows

(3) if either I or II follows

(4) if neither I nor II follows

(5) if both I and II follow.

21. Statements:

All pens are roads.

All roads are houses.

Conclusions:

I. All houses are pens.

II. Some houses are pens.

22. Statements:

Some books are bags.

All bags are trees.

Conclusions:


I. Some books are trees.

II. Some trees are books.

23. Statements:

Some windows are doors.

No door is chair.

Conclusions:

I. Some windows are chairs.

II. All doors are windows.

24. Statements:

All forests are figures.

Some figures are houses.

Conclusions:

I. Some houses are forests.

II. No house is forest.

25. Statements:

Some buses are trains.

Some trains are boats.

Conclusions:

I. Some trains are buses.

II. Some boats are buses.

Direction (Q. 26 - 30): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:

W 1 5 E J R 2 M A 9 T K U N 4 B I 8 D H 3 F 6 P Z 7 Q

26. How many such consonants are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and

immediately followed by a vowel?


27. Which of the following is the seventh to the left of 4?


(1) M (2) A (3) F (4) 3 (5) None of these

28. How many such vowels are there, each of which is immediately preceded and also immediately

followed by a consonant?


29. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between 9 and H?

(1) U (2) B (3) N (4) 4 (5) None of these

30. How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel?


Direction (Q. 31 - 35): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Among M, B, T, W, D and H, three works in factory X and three work in factory Y. Each of them earns

different amount. T works in factory Y and earns the least. W and D do not work in factory Y and none of

them earns the maximum. B earns less than H and W. M does not work in the same factory in which T

works and the earns more than D but less than B.

31. In which factory does B work?

(1) X (2) Y (3) X or Y (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

32. Who earns the maximum?

(1) H (2) W (3) D (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

33. Who earns less than M?

(1) D only (2) T only (3) B only (4) D and T only (5) None of these

34. W earns more than which of the following groups?

(1) BMDT (2) BMD (3) BDT (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

35. Which of the following groups work in factory X?

(1) TBH (2) WDH (3) WDM (4) TBM (5) None of these

Answers: -

1. (1);

Day is antonym of Night. Similarly, Black is antonym of White.


2. (5);

Total number children in the

Row = 12 + 18 – 1 = 29

Thus, there are 29 – 13 = 16 children to the right of Mohan.

3. (1);

4. (2); The sum of digit is even number in case of all the numbers except in the case of 23.

5. (5);

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

F R A G M E N T

Meaningful words

= RATE, TEAR, TERA, TARE etc

6. (2);

M > R, T

J > M

P is the oldest.

7. (2);

A is sister of B.

D is sister of A.

B is either brother or sister of D.

8. (2); Mango is a fruit. Similarly population is a modified stem.


9. (3);

10. (3);

O R I E N T A L

A E I L N O R T

11. (5); Expect apple, all others are flowers.

12. (2);

New number after rearrangement

13. (4); All others are parts of a tree.

14. (1);

Education is provided in school.

Similarly, treatment is given in hospital.

15. (2);

Sitting arrangement

P is to the immediate right of T.


16. (5);

17. (1);

18. (4);

19. (1);

Required distance = 10 m

20. (2);

Swarup grandfather only child means mother or father of Swarup.

Meena is daughter Swarup mother or father.

Therefore, Meena is sister of Swarup.

21. (2);


Both the Premises are universal Affirmative (A-type)

Both the premises are already aligned:

All pens are roads

All roads are houses.

We know that,

A + A = A-type Conclusion

Thus, our derived Conclusion Would be:

All pens are houses.

Conclusion II is the converse of this derived Conclusion

22. (5);

First Premises is Particular Affirmative (I-type)

Second Premises is Universal Affirmative (A-type)

Both the Premises are already aligned:

Some books are bags.

All bags are trees.

We, know that

I + A = I-type Conclusion

Thus, our derived Conclusion

Would be:

Some books are trees.

This is the first Conclusion

Second Conclusion is Converse of this Conclusion.

23. (4);

First Premises is Particular Affirmative (I-type)

Second Premises is Universal Negative (E-type)



Some windows are doors.

No door is chair.

We know that,

I + E = O-type Conclusion

Thus, our derived Conclusion

Would be:

Some windows are not chairs.

24. (3);

First Premises is Universal Affirmative (A-type)

Second Premise is Particular Affirmative (I-type)


All forests are figures.

Some figures are houses.

We know that

A + I = No Conclusion

Both Conclusion form Complementary Pair. Therefore, either I or II follows.

25. (1);

Both the Premises are particular Affirmative (I-type)

Both the Premises are already aligned. We know that no Conclusion follows from Particular Premises.

Conclusion I is the Converse of the first Premises.

26. (3);

Number Consonant Vowel

Such Combination are:

2MA, 4BI


27. (1);

28. (2);

Consonant Vowel Consonant

There is only one such combination = KUN

29. (4);

9 T K U N 4 B I 8 D I I

Middle

30. (3);

Vowel Number

Such combinations are:

A9, I8

(31 - 35):

D, M and W work in factory X.

Therefore, B, H and T work in factory Y.

Ascending order according to their incomes:

T < D < M < B < W < H

31. (2); B works in factory Y.

32. (1); H earns maximum

33. (4); T and D earn less than M.

34. (1); W earns more than T, D, M, B.

35. (3); D, M and W work in factory X.

3. Quantitative Aptitude


Direction (Q. 1 - 5): What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following

questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)

1. (

)2 x

÷

= ?

1) 1600 2) 1650 3) 1700 4) 1550 5) 1750

2. 67.99% of 1401 – 13.99% of 1299 = ?

1) 700 2) 720 3) 770 4) 800 5) 740

3. 5466.97 – 3245.01 + 1122.99 = ? + 2309.99

1) 1130 2) 1000 3) 1100 4) 1030 5) 1060

4. 5998 - 9.98 + 670.99 - 139.99 = ?

(1) 1080 (2) 1280 (3) 1180 (4) 1130 (5) 1230

5. (4.99)3 + (29.98)2 - (3.01)4 = ?

(1) 550 (2) 590 (3) 620 (4) 650 (5) 690

Direction (Q. 6 - 10): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series.

6. 1 7 49 343 (?)

(1) 16807 (2) 1227 (3) 2058 (4) 2401 (5) None of these

7. 13 20 39 78 145 (?)

(1) 234 (2) 244 (3) 236 (4) 248 (5) None of these

8. 12 35 81 173 357 (?)

(1) 725 (2) 715 (3) 726 (4) 736 (5) None of these

9. 3 100 297 594 991 (?)

(1) 1489 (2) 1479 (3) 1478 (4) 1498 (5) None of these

10. 112 119 140 175 224 (?)

(1) 277 (2) 276 (3) 287 (4) 266 (5) None of these

Direction (Q. 11 - 15): Study the following graph carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Number of Soldiers recruited (in thousands) in three different forces in six different years


11. What was the average number of soldiers recruited in the Navy over all the years together?

(1) 25,000 (2) 24,000 (3) 2,400 (4) 28,000 (5) None of these

12. Number of soldiers recruited in Navy in the year 2009 was what percentage of soldiers recruited in

Army in the year 2006?

(1) 140 (2) 150 (3) 160 (4) 180 (5) None of these

13. If 30 percent of soldiers recruited in Air force in the year 2010 were females- then what is the

number of males recruited in Air force in that year?

(1) 63,000 (2) 6.300 (3) 61,000 (4) 6,100 (5) None of these

14. What was the respective ratio between the number of soldiers recruited for Air force in the year

2005 and the number soldiers recruited in Army in the year 2009?

(1) 2:15 (2) 5:13 (3) 2:17 (4) 15:4 (5) None of these

15. What was approximate percentage decrease in number of soldiers recruited in Army in the year

2008 as compared to the previous year?

(1) 20 (2) 23 (3) 38 (4) 30 (5) 33

Direction (Q. 16 - 20): Study the Mowing Pie-chart carefully to answer these questions.

Total Students = 6500

Percentage distribution of Students in different courses

16. What 13 the value of the difference between the number of students in MBA and MBBS?


(1) 800 (2) 1600 (3) 1300 (4) 650 (5) None of these

17. How much more percentage (approximately) of students are in MBA as compared to students in

B.Ed.?

(1) 49 (2) 53 (3) 59 (4) 41 (5) 44

18. What is the total number of students in B.Ed., Pharmacy and MBBS together?

(1) 2465 (2) 2565 (3) 2405 (4) 2504 (5) None of these

19. What is the respective ratio between the number of students in Pharmacy and the number of

students in B.Tech?

(1) 11:13 (2) 13:6 (3) 13:7 (4) 6:13 (5) None of these

20. Number of students in B.Sc. is approximately what percentage of the number of students in B.Ed.?

(1) 167 (2) 162 (3) 157 (4) 153 (5) 150

Direction (Q. 21 - 25): Study the following table carefully to answer the questions that follow:

Amount earned (in laks) by five persons in six different years

Year

Person

A B C D E

2005 2.24 4.33 5.64 3.73 1.69

2006 1.44 3.34 6.93 5.52 5.52

2007 4.63 2.79 7.52 5.68 4.28

2008 6.65 6.63 5.83 6.74 6.83

2009 5.34 4.50 5.94 8.42 5.53

2010 7.38 5.36 7.84 9.45 9.94

21. What was the average of the earning of Person-B in the year 2006, that of person C in the year 2008

and E in the year 2005 together?

(1) ? 3.62 laks (2) ? 2.64 laks (3) ? 3.64 laks (4) ? 10.86 laks (5) None of these

22. What was the respective ratio between the amount earned by Person-B in the year 2007 and

Person-D in the year 2010?

(1) 32 : 107 (2) 31 : 105 (3) 29 : 107 (4) 32 : 105 (5) None of these

23. What is the approximate percent increase in the amount earned by Person-D in the year 2010 as

compared to the previous year?


(1) 7 (2) 21 (3) 18 (4) 15 (5) 12

24. Whose earning increased consistently from the year 2005 to the year 2010?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

25. Total amount earned by Person-A in the year 2006 and Person-C in the year 2010 together was

approximately what percent of the amount earned by Person-E in the year 2009?

(1) 151 (2) 155 (3) 168 (4) 174 (5) 162

26. The cost of five chairs and three tables is Rs. 3,110. Cost of one chair is Rs. 210 less than cost of one

table. What is the cost of two tables and two chairs?

(1) Rs. 1,660 (2) Rs. 1,860 (3) Rs. 2,600 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

27. The respective ratio between the present ages of Ram, Rohan and Raj is 3 : 4 : 5. If the average of

their present ages is 28 years then what would be the sum of the ages of Ram and Rohan together after

5 years?

(1) 45 years (2) 55 years (3) 52 years (4) 59 years (5) None of these

28. The total area of a circle and a rectangle is equal to 1166 sq.cm. The diameter of the circle is 28 cms.

What is the sum of the circumference of the circle and the perimeter of the rectangle if the length of the

rectangle is 25 cm?

(1) 186 cm (2) 182 cm (3) 184 cm (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

29. Raman scored 456 marks in an exam and Sita got 54 percent marks in the same exam which is 24

marks less than Raman. If the minimum passing marks in the exam is 34 percent, then how much more

marks did Raman score than the minimum passing marks?

(1) 184 (2) 196 (3) 190 (4) 180 (5) None of these

30. Smallest angle of a triangle is equal to two-third of the smallest angle of a quadrilateral. The ratio

between the angles of the quadrilateral is 3 : 4 : 5 : 6. Largest angle of the triangle is twice its smallest

angle. What is the sum of second largest angle of the triangle and largest angle of the quadrilateral?

(1) 160° (2) 180° (3) 190° (4) 170° (5) None of these

31. A 320 metre long train moving with an average speed of 120 km/hr crosses a platform in 24 seconds.

A man crosses the same platform in 4 minutes. What is the speed of man in metre/second?

(1) 2.4 (2) 1.5 (3) 1.6 (4) 2.0 (5) None of these

32. The simple interest accrued on a sum of certain principal is ? 7,200 in six years at the rate of 12

p.c.p.a. What would be the compound interest accrued on that principal at the rate of 5 p.c.p.a. in 2

years?


(1) Rs. 1,020 (2) Rs. 1,055 (3) Rs. 1,050 (4) Rs. 1,025 (5) None of these

33. Sum of square of first number and cube of second number together is 568. Also square of the

second number is 15 less than square of 8. What is the value of three-fifth of the first number?

(assuming both the numbers are positive)

(1) 18 (2) 8 (3) 9 (4) 16 (5) None of these

34. The sum of 8 consecutive odd numbers is 656. Also average of four consecutive even numbers is 87.

What is the sum of the smallest odd number and second largest even number?

(1) 165 (2) 175 (3) 163 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

35. Seema purchased an item for Rs. 9,600 and sold it for a loss of 5 percent. From that money she

purchased another item and sold it for a gain of 5 percent. What is her overall gain/loss?

(1) Loss of Rs. 36 (2) Profit of Rs. 24 (3) Loss of Rs. 54 (4) Profit of Rs. 36 (5) None of these

Answers:

1. (1);

? = (

)2 x

x

= 1600

2. (3);

? =

-

= 950 – 182 = 770

3. (4);

5466.97 – 3245.01 + 1122.99

= ? + 2309.99

= 3344.95 = ? + 2309.99

= ? = 3344.95 – 2309.99

= 1034.96 = 1030

4. (4);

? = 6000 ÷ 10 + 671 – 140


= 600 + 671 – 140 = 1131

∴ Required answer = 1130

5. (5);

? = - (5)3 + (30)2 – (3)4

= - 125 + 900 – 81 = 694

∴ Required answer = 690

6. (4);

The pattern of the number series is:

1 x 7 = 7

7 x 7 = 49

49 x 7 = 343

343 x 7 =

7. (4);


13 ÷ 7 = 20

20 + 19 (= 7 + 12) = 39

39 + 39 (= 19 + 20) = 78

78 + 67 (= 39 + 28) = 145

145 + 103 (= 67 + 36) =

8. (1);


12 + 1 x 23 = 35

35 + 2 x 23 = 35 + 46 = 81

81 + 2 x 46 = 81 + 92 = 173

173 + 2 x 92 = 173 + 184 = 357


357 + 2 x 184 = 357 + 368 =

9. (5);


3 + 97 = 100

100 + 197 = 297

297 + 297 = 594

594 + 397 = 991

991 + 497 =

10. (3);


112 + 1 x 7 = 119

119 + 3 x 7 = 119 + 21 = 140

140 + 5 x 7 = 140 + 35 = 175

175 + 7 x 7 = 175 + 49 = 224

224 + 9 x 7 = 224 + 63 =

11. (1);

Average number of soldiers recruited in the navy

=

=

= 25000

12. (3);

Required percentage

=

x 100 = 160

13. (1);

Number of males recruited in the Air force in 2010


=

= 63000

14. (1);

Required ratio = 10:75 = 2:15

15. (5);

Percentage decrease

=

x 100 =

= 3

16. (4);

Difference between the number of students in MBA and MBBS

= (26 - 6)% of 6500

=

= 1300

∴ Required answer

=

= 650

17. (5);

Required percentage

=

x 100 = 44

18. (3);

Required number of student

= (18 + 13 + 6)% of 6500

=

= 2405

19. (3);

Required ratio = 13:7

20. (1);

Required percentage

=

x 100 = 167


21. (1);

Required average amount

= Rs. (

) laks

= Rs. (

) laks

= Rs. 3.62 laks

22. (2);

Required ratio = 2.79:9

= 31:105

23. (5);

Required percentage income

=

x 100

=

= 12

24. (4); It is obvious from the table.

25. (3);

Required percentage

=

x 100

=

x 100 = 168

26. (1);

If the C.P. of 1 chair be

Rs. X then C.P of 1 table

= Rs. (x + 210)

∴ 5x + 3 (x + 210) = 3110

= 5x + 3x + 630 = 3110

= 8x = 3110 – 630 = 2480


∴ x =

= 310

∴ CP of two tables and two chairs

= 2 (x + x + 210) = 4x + 420

= 4 x 310 + 420 = Rs. 1660

27. (4);

Let the present ages of Ram, Rohan and Raj be 3x, 4x and 5x years respectively.

∴ 3x + 4x + 5x = 3 x 28

= 12x = 84 = x =

= 7

Sum of the ages of Ram and Rohan after 5 years

= 3x + 4x + 10 = 7x + 10

= 7 x 7 + 10 = 59 years

28. (2);

Area of circle = πr2

=

x 14 x 14 = 616 sq.cm

∴ Area of rectangle = 1166 – 616

= 550 sq.cm

Breadth of rectangle

=

= 22 cm.

∴ Circumference of circle

= π x diameter

=

x 28 = 88 cm.

Perimeter of rectangle

= 2 (length + breadth)

= 2 (25 + 22) = 88 + 94 = 182 cm.

29. (1);


If total maximum marks be x. then

X x

= 456 – 24 = 432

= x =

= 800

∴ Minimum passing marks

=

= 272

∴ Required answer

= 456 – 272 = 184

30. (2);

Sum of the angles of quadrilateral = 360o

∴ 3x + 4x + 5x + 6x = 360

= 18x = 360

= x =

= 20

∴ Smallest angle of quadrilateral

= 3 x 20 = 60o

Largest angle of quadrilateral

= 6 x 20 = 120o

∴ Smallest angle of triangle

= 60 x

= 40o

Largest angle of triangle

= 2 x 40 = 80o

∴ Third angle of triangle

= 180o – 40o – 80o = 60o

∴ Required answer

= 60 + 120 = 180o

31. (4);


Speed of train = 120 kmph

=

=

m/sec

∴

=

=

=

Where x = length of platform

=

= 320 + x

= 800 = 320 + x

= 800 = 320 + x

= x = 800 – 320 = 480m

∴ Man’s speed

=

= 2 m/sec

32. (4);

Principal =

=

= Rs. 10000

∴ C.I. = P[(1 +

)T - 1]

= 10000 [(1 +

)2 - 1]

= 10000 [(

)2 - 1]

= 10000 (

- 1)

=

= Rs. 1025

33. (3);

Let the first number be x and the second number be y.

∴ y2 = 82 – 15 = 64 – 15 = 49


∴ y =

∴ x2 + 73 = 568

= x2 + 343 = 568

= x2 = 568 – 343 = 225

∴ x = = 15

∴ x

= 9

34. (3);

Average of 8 consecutive odd

Numbers =

= 82

∴ Fourth number = 82 – 1 = 81

∴ First number = 75

Average of 4 even numbers = 87

∴ Second even number

= 87 – 1 = 86

Second largest even number = 88

∴ Required sum = + = 63

35. (5);

First S.P =

= Rs. 9120.

Second S.P

=

= Rs. 9576

Loss = 9600 – 9576 = Rs. 24

-public-images-epapers-24587_ibps clerk preliminary practice question paper 25

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