Scientific Investigations1. The factors that are held constant throughout an experiment are called the _______.

A.controlled variables B. samples C.changed variables D.measured variables

2. Rebecca has samples of different types of metal. She wants to find out the density of each metal. First, she measures the samples' volumes. Now she needs to measure the samples' masses. Which of the following tools should she use to make her measurements?

A.measuring tape B.balance C.calipers D.graduated cylinder

3. When we use one or more of our five senses to gather information, we are making ______.

A.observations B. inferences C.predictions D.all of these

4. When conducting an experiment, which of the following is generally true?

A.Performing a smaller number of experimental trials makes the results more dependable. B. It is unsafe to perform a large number of experimental trials. C.Performing a larger number of experimental trials makes the results more dependable. D.The number of trials performed does not affect the validity of the results.

5. Yusef is doing an experiment to find out how the amount of sunlight affects the growth of a seedling. He has three identical pots containing grass seeds he planted at the same time. He puts them in windows that receive different amounts of sunlight each day. Every day, Yusef looks at the pots and records his observations. What is the changed variable in Yusef's experiment?

A.amount of water B.amount of sunlight C. type of seedling D. type of soil

6. Nick hypothesizes that wax has a higher melting point than chocolate. How can Nick test his hypothesis?

A.Use Mohs Hardness Scale to test how easily wax and chocolate can be scratched.

B.Heat equal masses of wax and chocolate and measure their temperatures when they start to melt. C.Heat samples of wax and chocolate and use a stopwatch to time how long it takes until they start to melt. D.Measure the volume and weight of samples of wax and chocolate and calculate their densities.

7. Sara wanted to do a scientific investigation that involved people and their sleep. She hypothesized that all people feel happier if they take a one-hour afternoon nap each day. Is her hypothesis valuable?

A.Yes; it will finally prove that everyone should have an afternoon nap time. B.No; hypotheses must not involve humans. C.Yes; it will lead to new information on the results of napping. D.No; feelings are not testable.

8. The factor that is changed throughout an experiment is called the _______.

A.controlled variable B.changed variable C.hypothesis D.measured variable

9. A hiker is walking through an apple orchard growing two varieties of apple trees – Festival and Cool Crisp. This person notices that the leaves of all the trees are curled. This person wonders, “Are all apple leaves curled?”

In order to answer the hiker’s question, which of the following would be the most useful hypothesis?

A.Apple leaves may be curled. B. If a leaf is from a fruit tree, then it will be curled. C.All apple leaves are curled. D.Some apple leaves are curled and others are not.

10. Vanessa is conducting an experiment to see how exposure to different types and amounts of light affects the growth of plants. Her results are shown in the data table below.

Light Source Type of Plant Growth (inches)

Sunlight Pea Plant 1.09375

Partial Sunlight Daffodil 0.81250

Artificial Light Lima Bean Plant 0.78125

No Light Sunflower 0.18750

Did Vanessa make an error in the design of her experiment?

A.Yes; Vanessa should have measured with metric units. B.No; Vanessa designed her experiment correctly. C.Yes; plants cannot grow in artificial light. D.Yes; there are too many changed variables in her experiment.

11. In school, Jarrett learned that salt lowers the freezing point of water. He wants to test this in a home experiment. He adds an equal amount of salt and room-temperature water into three identical containers. Which of the following steps should Jarrett perform next?

A.Place the containers in the same freezer. B.Place the containers in separate freezers with different freezing temperatures. C.Place all three containers outside on a hot day. D.Place one container in the freezer, one in the refrigerator, and one at room temperature.

12. A hypothesis is best described as

A.a detailed list. B.a conclusion based upon evidence. C.a summary. D.an educated guess.

13. Jobi read in his science textbook that when a laser is shined into a diamond in a dark room, the diamond will scatter the light, throwing many separate, focused beams of light on the walls and ceiling. Jobi hypothesized that any clear, cut stone would have the same effect on a laser. He collected samples of quartz and tried it out, but the quartz did not have the same effect.

Jobi decided that his hypothesis and experiment were a waste. Was Jobi correct about this?

A.No; his hypothesis was useless, but his experiment was valuable. B.Yes; he chose an untestable hypothesis. C.No; hypotheses are valuable whether or not they are correct. D.Yes; spending time on an experiment that fails is a waste.

14. Jeff is investigating factors that affect the growth rate of potted bean plants. Which of the following experimental variables would not be relevant to his investigation?

A. the amount of water given B. the color of the pot C. the amount of light exposure D. the type of soil used

15. Juan wants to see how air expands when it is heated. He has a balloon, a heat lamp, a spring scale, and a meter stick. Which is the best procedure to follow for the experiment?

A.Measure the mass of the deflated balloon, inflate the balloon, heat the balloon with the heat lamp, then measure the inflated balloon's width.

B. Inflate the balloon, measure the width of the balloon, heat the balloon using the heat lamp, and then measure the width again.

C.Use the spring scale to measure the mass of the balloon before and after it is blown up. D. Inflate the balloon, heat the balloon using the heat lamp, and measure the mass of the balloon with the

spring scale.

16. When we use information or data to make an educated guess about future events, we are making a(n) ______.

A.error

B. inference

C.prediction

D.observation

17. Which of the following sentences is the best example of a hypothesis?

A.How many types of organisms are there?

B. Chickens lay more eggs when they are happy.

C.Why does the Earth orbit around the sun?

D.UV radiation does not cause skin cancer.

18. Arthur is testing how well various types of disinfectants can kill E. coli bacteria. He starts with a Petri dish that is covered with a colony of E. coli. He puts exactly one milliliter of each different disinfectant at a different location on the Petri dish.

If a disinfectant works, it will eliminate the bacteria in the area in which it was placed. Two days later, Arthur will measure the amount of bacteria that has been cleared out by each disinfectant.

Which of the following is the changed variable in this experiment?

A.The type of bacteria used B.The Petri dish used C.The length of time that the disinfectant is used D.The type of disinfectant used

19. In school, Jarrett learned that salt lowers the freezing point of water. He wants to test this in a home experiment. He adds an equal amount of salt and room-temperature water into three identical containers. Which of the following is a control of his experiment?

A. the type of container used B. the amount of salt in each container C. the amount of water in each container D.all of these

20. Vanessa is conducting an experiment to see how exposure to different types and amounts of light affects the growth of plants.

In this experiment, "light source" is likely to be the _______ of the experiment, and "plant height" is likely to be the _______ of the experiment.

A.measured variable; changed variable B.changed variable; measured variable C.measured variable; controlled variable D.changed variable; controlled variable

21. Which of the following best completes the hypothesis?

Increasing the salt concentration in a solution…

A.makes the solution taste saltier. B.will not have an effect. C.may be harmful or helpful. D.will decrease the amount of bacteria in the solution.

22. Tina is conducting an investigation on bicycle helmet aerodynamics. She is trying to find out what kind of helmet causes the least amount of air resistance. She tested three different helmets, using the same rider each time. She recorded the time it took for the rider to complete one circuit on a track in the table below.

Helmet Time in Seconds

A 35

B 28

C 41How could Tina get more reliable data for this experiment?

A.She could have a second rider try Helmet A. B.She could include more trips with each helmet and average the result. C.She could have the rider use a different bicycle for each circuit. D.She could have the rider wear only one helmet rather than three different helmets.

23. Dan wants to test the effects of different amounts of antibiotic on bacteria. While setting up his experiment he makes sure to use the same type of antibiotic, the same type of bacteria, and the same type of incubator for each trial. Which phrase below best describes this part of the experiment?

A.analyzing results B. forming a hypothesis C.collecting data D.choosing controlled variables

24. When we draw conclusions based on collected information, we are making ______.

A.observations B.predictions C. inferences D.all of these

25. Denise wants to find out how the steepness of a hill's slope affects the amount of soil that erodes from it. She will use soil, a long pan, and several 4-inch-tall wooden blocks to build a model hillside. She will use a watering can to simulate rainfall. In her experiment, which factor should be Denise's changed variable?

A. the location she uses to test her model B. the amount of water she pours on the model hillside C. the type of soil with which she fills the pan D. the number of blocks holding up the end of the pan

Laboratory Tools & Units1. Which of the following is not a measurable property of matter?

A.density B. taste C.mass D. size

2. What is the reading shown on the triple beam balance below?

A.310.6 g B.310.3 g C.313.6 g D.424.6 g

3. 

Martina is using a ruler to measure the length of a leaf in centimeters. To measure the leaf most accurately, at which position should she place the end of the leaf?

A.position Y B.position W C.position Z D.position X

4. Which of the following measures the amount of matter in a given object?

A.mass B.volume C.weight D.density

5. Of the choices below, which unit of measurement would be most appropriate for measuring the volume of a bottlecap?

A.grams B.milliliters C. liters D.millimeters

6. Density can be calculated by dividing an object's mass by its volume. If the mass of an object is 10 grams and its volume is 2 milliliters, what is its density?

A.5 g/mL B.5 N

C.0.2 mL/g D.20 g-mL

7. Which of the following is a unit of temperature?

A. liters B.milliseconds C.degrees Celsius D.newtons

8. Temperature is a measurable property of matter. Temperature measures...

A. the amount of matter in an object per unit volume. B. the amount of space an object takes up. C. the force exerted upon an object due to gravity. D. the hotness or coldness of an object or environment.

9. Density is a measurable property of matter. How can the density of a substance be determined?

A.measure the mass and volume of the substance, then divide the volume by the mass

B.measure the length, width, and height of the substance, then multiply these values together

C.measure the length and weight of the substance, then multiply the length by the weight

D.measure the mass and volume of the substance, then divide the mass by the volume

10. Andy is using a graduated cylinder to measure the volume of water. Which of the following are correct procedures for reading the volume of water in a graduated cylinder?

I.He should hold the graduated cylinder in his hand so that the surface of the water is at eye level.

II.He should place the graduated cylinder on a flat surface and bend down so that the surface of the water is at eye level.

III.He should take the reading from the bottom of the curve of the surface of the water.

IV. He should take the reading from the highest point of the surface of the water.

A. I and IV B. II and IV C. I and III D. II and III

11. Of the choices below, which unit of measurement would be most appropriate for measuring the mass of a dime?

A. liters B.grams C.milligrams D.kilograms

12. Of the choices below, which unit of measurement would be most appropriate for measuring the volume of a barrel?

A.milliliters B. liters C.grams D.millimeters

13. As part of an experimental procedure, Tom must measure exactly 15 milliliters of distilled water. Which of the following tools should Tom use for this task?

A.a 20-mL graduated cylinder

B. a 250-mL graduated cylinder

C.a teaspoon

D.a small paper cup

14. Which of the following shows the abbreviation for a unit of density?

A.g/mL B.L/kg C.g/cm D. lb/mL

15. Sachiko wants to measure the temperature of ice water in a beaker. The thermometer she will be using is at room temperature. After she places the thermometer in the beaker, what should she do to obtain the most accurate measurement?

A.Wait five seconds, then take the reading on the thermometer. B.Take the reading on the thermometer immediately. C.Take the reading immediately after the mercury level in the thermometer becomes stable. D.Wait until the water warms to room temperature, then take the reading on the thermometer.

16. Of the choices below, which unit of measurement would be most appropriate for measuring the mass of a nickel?

A.milligrams B. liters C.kilograms D.grams

17. Amy is testing different designs of paper airplanes to find out which type of paper airplane can glide for the longest amount of time. She plans to lightly toss each paper airplane and measure the time it takes for each plane to reach the ground.

Which of the following instruments should Amy use to measure time in this experiment?

A.a mechanical balance B.a stopwatch C.a barometer D. the minute hand of a clock

18. Which of the following is a unit of mass?

A.pound B.kilogram C. liter D.centimeter

19. Of the choices below, which unit of measurement would be most appropriate for measuring the length of the Great Wall of China?

A.kilometers B.millimeters C.meters D.centimeters

20. Of the choices below, which unit of measurement would be most appropriate for measuring the length of time it takes to take a shower?

A.days B.minutes C.hours D. seconds

Properties of Matter1. Which of the following is the most basic building block of matter?

A.atom B.crystal C.gene D.cell

2. If a liquid is heated, which of the following happens to both its energy content and the speed of its particles?

A.The energy remains the same; speed remains the same. B.The energy remains the same; the speed increases.

C.The energy increases; the speed increases. D.The energy increases; the speed decreases.

3. Jeremy had a set of 500 lego blocks. At first, he used all the blocks to build a small house. Later, he rearranged all the blocks to build a small car. How did the mass of the house compare to the car?

A.There is no way to tell from the information given. B.The masses were the same. C.The car had a greater mass than the house. D.The house had a greater mass than the car.

4. 

Looking at the chart provided, in which of the following phases will the molecules of a substance fill whatever size container they are placed in?

A.Heated B.Solid C.Gas D.Liquid

5. In which of the following phases of matter do molecules have the highest amount of energy?

A.Solid B.Liquid C.Gel D.Gas

6. If a liquid is heated, which of the following happens to both its energy content and the speed of its particles?

A.The energy increases; the speed decreases. B.The energy increases; the speed increases. C.The energy remains the same; the speed increases. D.The energy remains the same; speed remains the same.

7. In which of the following phases of matter do molecules have the highest amount of energy?

A.Gel B.Solid C.Gas D.Liquid

8. Cynthia is holding a sheet of paper that has a mass of 2 grams. She tears the sheet of paper into many small pieces. Which of the following is true?

A.The sum of the mass of all the pieces of paper is more than 2 grams. B.Each piece of paper has a mass of 2 grams. C.The sum of the mass of all the pieces of paper is 2 grams. D.The sum of the mass of all the pieces of paper is less than 2 grams.

9. In which of the following states of matter will a substance take on the shape of its container, but not expand to fill the container?

A.Gas B.Solid C.Gel D.Liquid

10. An element is made up of…

A.a mixture of different types of atoms. B.only one type of atom. C.different types of cells. D.different types of atoms that have been combined chemically.

11. 

Looking at the chart provided, in which of the following phases will the molecules of a substance fill whatever size container they are placed in?

A.Solid B.Gas C.Liquid D.Heated

12. If a liquid is heated, which of the following happens to both its energy content and the speed of its particles?

A.The energy remains the same; speed remains the same. B.The energy increases; the speed decreases. C.The energy remains the same; the speed increases. D.The energy increases; the speed increases.

13. In which of the following phases of matter are molecules arranged in a matrix and close together?

A.Liquid B.Solid C.Gas D.Light

14. Complete the following analogy.letters of the alphabet : words

as

                        : elements

A.mixtures B.compounds C.atoms D. solutions

15. Four glasses were placed on a lab table. Each glass contained 250 mL of a clear liquid. The properties of each glass are listed below.

color volume taste density

clear 250 mL none 1.0 g/mL

clear 250 mL salty 2.0 g/mL

clear 250 mL sweet 10.0 g/mL

clear 250 mL sour 2.7 g/mL

What does this information suggest?

A.The individual particles can easily be seen with the human eye. B.The liquids must be made of different particles. C.Nothing can be deduced from this information. D.The liquids must be made of the same particles.

16. In which of the following phases of matter do molecules have the highest amount of energy?

A.Liquid B.Gas C.Solid D.Gel

17. Eddie has a container of water. The water in the container has a mass of 25 grams. He places the container in the freezer and the water freezes. Which of the following is true?

A.The ice has a mass of 25 grams. B.The mass of the ice is less than 25 grams. C.The mass of the ice is more than 25 grams. D.There is no way to determine the mass of the ice.

18. In which of the following phases of matter are molecules arranged in a matrix and close together?

A.Gas B.Solid C.Light D.Liquid

19. Scientists have discovered just over _____ different elements with unique properties.

A.200 B.400 C.50 D.100

20. Rina took a small ice cube and heated it in a large, closed container. First, the ice cube melted, and then the water boiled into steam. According to the information given, how would the volume of the water and the volume of the steam compare to the volume of the original ice cube?

A.water: much greater; steam: much greater B.water: about the same; steam: about the same C.water: remains about the same; steam: much greater D.water: much greater; steam: about the same

Physical & Chemical Changes1. A solution of salt water is boiled. The water evaporates and solid salt remains. Which

statement is true?

A.The salt has undergone a chemical change, and the water has undergone a physical change. B. The salt has undergone a physical change, and the water has undergone a chemical change. C.The salt and the water have both undergone a physical change. D.The salt and the water have both undergone a chemical change.

2. An oil skimmer is a machine used to separate a mixture of oil and water. After an oil spill in a body of water, skimmers are used to remove the floating oil from the water.Which property is being used to separate oil and water in this way?

A.density B. chemical reactivity C.melting point D.boiling point

3. Roads often have to be repaved because they crack over time. Sometimes this cracking is due to the fact that the roads (as well as other objects) have a tendency to expand when heated and contract when cooled. Thermal expansion and contraction are examples of...

A.physical and chemical changes. B. chemical changes. C.neither physical nor chemical changes. D.physical changes.

4. Which of the following is a physical change?

A.a copper skillet tarnishing B. an iron bar rusting C. the sublimation of dry ice D.oil floating on water

5. Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?

A.water evaporating from a swimming pool on a hot day B. an icicle melting and making a puddle on the sidewalk C.clumps of salt crystals being broken up to form a powder D.mixing baking soda and vinegar to make lava for a model volcano

6. An ice cube melts into liquid water. Then, the liquid water evaporates into water vapor. The ice cube melting is an example of a                         , and the water evaporating is an example of a                          .

A.chemical change; physical change B. physical change; physical change C.physical change; chemical change D.chemical change; chemical change

7. Which of the following is a physical change?

A. roasting marshmallows on a campfire B. milk souring C.an antacid neutralizing stomach acid D.magnetizing an iron rod

8. Which of the following are examples of chemical properties?

A.volume and density B. flammability and pH C.color, shape, hardness, and texture D.mass and weight

9. Which of the following best describes the difference between a mixture and a pure substance?

A.A mixture has the same properties throughout; a pure substance has the different properties throughout.

B. A mixture has different properties throughout; a pure substance has the same properties throughout. C.A mixture is made up of more than one type of atom; a pure substance is made up of only one type

of atom. D.A mixture is made up of only one type of atom; a pure substance is made up of more than one type

of atom.

10. Physical changes in water are most often caused by __________.

A.chemical reactions B. temperature C.combustion D.oxidation

Heat & Light

HOT

During the summer a student noticed the color of the clothes she wore affected how hot she felt.  The student designed an experiment to test this.

The student obtained four identical samples of sand. Each sample was covered with a different  color of cotton fabric. Each sample was then placed directly under a 110-watt lightbulb. The  student recorded the initial temperatures of the sand, then turned on the lamps. At one-minute  intervals, for six minutes total, the student measured the temperature of each sample. The data is  shown in the graph below.

1. According to the graph, which sample had the lowest final temperature?

A.pink B. black C.purple D.white

2. What is radiation?

A.The percentage of the amount of water vapor in the air compared to the amount needed to saturate it at a given temperature and pressure

B. The bending of light rays as they pass from one medium to another C.The flow of heat as a result of nuclear fusion D.The flow of energy in the form of rays or waves, which does not need a material medium to

transfer heat

3. Which of the following is a true statement about heat transfer?

A.Heat ALWAYS flows from warmer objects to cooler objects. B. Heat is NOT related to temperature differences. C.Heat NEVER travels in a similar pattern. D.Heat ALWAYS flows from cooler objects to warmer objects.

4. The colors of the visible spectrum are determined by how long the wavelength of the light wave is. Which color has the shortest wavelength?

A. red B. violet C.green D.yellow

5. 

The most light absorbed by this plant is

A.blue and green. B. violet and red. C.violet and yellow. D.green and yellow.

6. Which of the following is true about the relationship between heat and light?

A.Dark colors absorb more heat than light colors. B. There is no relationship between light and heat. C.Light colors and dark colors absorb heat equally D.Light colors absorb more heat than dark colors.

7. Which of the following is true about the relationship between heat and light?

A.There is no relationship between light and heat.

B. Areas that are in full view of the sun tend to be warmer than areas in the shade. C.Areas that are in full view of the sun tend to be the same temperature as areas in the shade. D.Areas that are in full view of the sun tend to be cooler than areas in the shade.

8. 

According to this chart the longer the wavelength

A. the larger the amplitude of the wave. B. the faster the wave travels. C. the greater the frequency of the wave. D. the less energy the wave has.

9. What is the transfer of heat through a solid as a result of molecular action called?

A.magnetism B. conduction C.convection D. radiation

10. Solar collectors are used to absorb energy from the Sun. This energy is then used to heat homes. What color should solar collectors be to maximize energy absorption?

A.purple B. white C.black D.pink

11. What is convection?

A.When fog is produced as warm, humid air moves across cold ground or water and cools below its dewpoint.

B. The transfer of heat in a fluid or gas that happens when the substance warms, expands, and rises.C.A coastal breeze blowing from cool land to warmer sea.

D.The process that occurs in subfreezing air when water vapor changes directly into ice without first becoming a liquid.

12. The colors of the visible spectrum are determined by how long the wavelength of the light wave is. Which color has the longest wavelength?

A.yellow B. blue C.green D. red

13. Select the choice that best completes the following sentence:

A ______ is an object that separates visible light into the many different colors the light is made up of.

A.mirror B. convex lens C.concave lens D.prism

14. Put the colors of visible light in relative order, from shortest wavelength to longest.blue, yellow, green, red, violet, orange

A.violet, red, blue, green, yellow, orange B. red, yellow, orange, green, violet, blue C. red, orange, yellow, green, blue, violet D.violet, blue, green, yellow, orange, red

15. Which of the following statements is true?

A.Visible light makes up only a small part of the electromagnetic spectrum. B. Visible light makes up the majority of the electromagnetic spectrum. C.Visible light makes up about half of the electromagnetic spectrum. D.Visible light does not make up any of the electromagnetic spectrum.

16. 

Which of these arrows would represent the path of a refracted ray of light?

A.X B. Y C.Z D.W

17. These two figures show a flashlight beam being reflected off of a mirror and waves being reflected off of the side of a pool, respectively. What scientific property is illustrated by these two figures?

A.The exact angle at which the beam and wave strike the surface is the same angle at which they are reflected.

B. The angles at which both the flashlight and the waves reflect are always perfectly straight. C.The reflected beam and wave possess more electrical energy as they've impacted an object. D.There is no way of predicting the angle at which a wave is reflected.

18. These two figures show a flashlight beam being reflected off of a mirror and waves being reflected off of the side of a pool, respectively. What scientific property is illustrated by these two figures?

A.There is no way of predicting the angle at which a wave is reflected. B. The exact angle at which the beam and wave strike the surface is the same angle at which they are

reflected. C.The reflected beam and wave possess more electrical energy as they've impacted an object. D.The angles at which both the flashlight and the waves reflect are always perfectly straight.

19. Which of the following produces or transfers heat?

A. friction B. light C.conduction D.all of these

20. Which of the following is a true statement about heat transfer?

A.Heat ALWAYS flows from cooler objects to warmer objects. B. Heat NEVER travels in a similar pattern. C.Heat is NOT related to temperature differences. D.Heat ALWAYS flows from warmer objects to cooler objects.

Waves1. What is a general name for the different substances or materials through which a

wave moves?

A.media B. wavelength C.energy D.current

2. If there was an unusually windy month, one might anticipate

A. lower tides. B. unpredictable currents. C.higher tides. D. increased wave size.

3. Which characteristic measurement of a wave is identified by the letter A on the diagram below?

A.amplitude

B. frequency C. loudness D.wavelength

4. Radio stations identify themselves by their position on the radio dial such as 90.1 and 93.3. This number is based on the number of waves or cycles that pass a fixed point in a specific unit of time. To which property of a sound wave does this identification number refer?

A.amplitude B. wavelength C. loudness D. frequency

5. Which of the following word pairs correctly completes the sentence below?

Mechanical waves travel faster through ___________ than ________________.

A.a vacuum, air B. liquids, solids C.air, liquids D. solids, liquids

6. As wind travels across the water's surface, it pushes against the water, and energy in the wind is absorbed by the water. What does the interaction between the wind's energy and the water form?

A.waves B. currents C. icebergs D. tides

7. The pitch of a sound is the highness or lowness of a tone. The higher the frequency of a sound wave, the higher its pitch. Which of the following waves would have the highest pitched sound?

W. X.

Y. Z.

A.W B. X C.Y D.Z

8. A tsunami is an usually large wave caused by

A. increased gravitational pulls when the sun and moon line up. B. an earthquake or volcano. C.extreme winds. D.a heat wave.

9. If sound waves are moving through the air from a drum that vibrates at a frequency of 500 Hz, at what frequencies would the first and second particles disturbed by the drum vibrate?

A.500 Hz, 500 Hz B. 400 Hz, 300 Hz C.250 Hz, 125 Hz D.500 Hz, 250 Hz

10. Which of the following word pairs correctly completes the sentence below?

Mechanical waves travel faster through ___________ than ________________.

A. liquids, solids B. air, liquids C.a vacuum, air D. solids, liquids

Object Motion1. If you need to drive from Dallas, Texas, to Salt Lake City, Utah, (about 1500 miles),

and the speed limit is 60 miles per hour most of the way, what is the least amount of time you will need?

A.25 hours

B. 90,000 hours C.2.5 hours D.90 hours

2. The position vs. time graph below shows the motion of Mr. Diaz's car.

Based on the graph, which of the following is true?

A.The car is accelerating. B. The car is slowing down. C.The car's speed is constant. D.The car is driving up a hill.

3. The position vs. time graph below represents the motion of Marcus' school bus.

Based on the graph, which of the following is true?

A.The speed of the bus is decreasing suddenly. B. The speed of the bus is steady. C.The bus is traveling downhill. D.The bus is accelerating.

4. Which the following is a unit of speed?

A.m/s2 B. m/s C.kg/hr D.km/hr2

5. A wooden block slides down a ramp that is 6 meters long in 2 seconds. What was the

average speed of the wooden block?

A.2 m/s B. 3 m/s C.12 m/s D.4 m/s

6. _______ measures an object's change in position per unit time.

A.Acceleration B. Speed C.Force D.Distance

7. The ticker tape diagram below shows the motion of a train during part of its trip.

Based on the diagram, which of the following is true?

A.The train is accelerating. B. The train's speed is constant. C.The train is not moving. D.The train is slowing down.

8. We know that the Earth is rotating on its axis. Why can we not feel it moving?

A.because we are rotating with it B. because it isn't really rotating at all C.because of the gravitational pull of the moon D.because it is moving very slowly

9. 

Choose the best description of the motion of the object from t=4.0 s to t=9.0 s.

A.The object is speeding up. B. The position of the object is not changing. C.The object is at a constant velocity. D.The object is slowing down.

10. 

What does the slope of this graph represent?

A. the positive acceleration of a steel bob B. the deceleration of a steel bob C. the position of a steel bob D. the speed of a steel bob

Force & Motion1. Which of the following situations demonstrates balanced forces?

A.a car driving on a straight freeway at 60 miles per hour B. a rock in freefall, going straight down C.a child on a moving seesaw D.a clock's pendulum in motion

2. 

How would the forces on the book best be described?

A.The forces on the book cause a change in the book's motion. B. The forces on the book are balanced. C.The forces on the book do not cancel each other out. D.The forces on the book are unbalanced.

3. Which of the following is true about positive and negative charges?

A.Like charges attract each other and opposite charges attract each other. B. Like charges repel each other and opposite charges attract each other. C.Positive and negative charges have no effect on each other. D.Like charges attract each other and opposite charges repel each other.

4. Tom is teaching Jenny how to ice skate. Both skaters, who are about the same size, are on the ice and wearing their skates. To help Jenny get started, Tom gives her a gentle push from behind. Which of the following best describes what will happen next?

A.Tom will move backward. B. Jenny will move forward and Tom will move backward. C. Jenny will move backward and Tom will move forward. D. Jenny will move forward.

5. 

Which of the following will be affected by the electromagnet shown above?

A.a compass B. a book C.a light bulb D.a candle

6. 

Hannah just finished building a house of cards that stands four-stories high. She is worried that it will fall down. Which of the following statements must be true?

A.As long as nobody touches the house of cards, it will remain standing. B. If Hannah adds another card to the house of cards, then it will fall down. C.A house of cards is too fragile and must fall down eventually. D. If no unbalanced force acts upon the house of cards, then it will remain standing forever.

7. Lindsey created a magnetic field using the setup shown below.

What could Lindsey pick up using this setup?

A.pieces of plastic

B. glass shards

C.paper scraps

D. iron filings

8. Jim and David decide to arm wrestle to determine who is stronger. Jim uses all of his strength but David wins and is able to push Jim's hand to the table. The forces acting on Jim's hand during the match

A.have a net force of zero. B. are balanced.

C.are unbalanced. D.are unaffected by David.

9. An example of an unbalanced force is

A.a bridge. B. a car parked in a garage. C.a roller coaster going down the first drop. D.a tug of war game in which no one wins.

10. An example of an unbalanced force is

A.a roller coaster going down the first drop. B. a car parked in a garage. C.a tug of war game in which no one wins. D.a bridge.

11. 

What is the magnitude (size) and direction of the cumulative force acting on the car shown in the picture above?

A.2500 N up B. 30 N to the right C.30 N to the left D.2500 N down

12. Flynn and his sister were rolling a ball back and forth on the floor. Flynn rolled the ball to his sister, but it stopped before it got to her. What caused the ball to stop rolling?

A. the ball's momentum B. the friction between the ball and the floor C. the ball's inertia D.Flynn pushed it too hard.

13. Marie rubs a balloon against a small piece of wool for about 30 seconds, causing negative charges on the wool to transfer to the balloon. She then places the piece of wool against the balloon. Which of the following best describes what will happen next?

A.The negatively-charged wool will stick to the negatively-charged balloon. B. The negatively-charged wool will repel the positively-charged balloon. C.The positively-charged wool will repel the negatively-charged balloon. D.The positively-charged wool will stick to the negatively-charged balloon.

14. Bjorn is going to take a 10-pound bowling ball and roll it across four different surfaces to test the force of friction. Across which surface will the ball travel the farthest?

A.a carpeted hallway B. a grass lawn C.a cement sidewalk D.an ice hockey rink

15. Amyx is building a treehouse in his backyard. He notices that every time he strikes a nail with the hammer, the hammer bounces back just a little bit as the nail goes farther into the wood. This is because when the hammer strikes and exerts a force on a nail, the nail

A.exerts an equal and opposite force back on the hammer.

B. creates a balanced force.

C. is stuck and won't go any further into the wood.

D.disperses the force of the impact throughout the wood.

Rocks & Minerals1. If you are told by your teacher that one of the physical properties of a mineral you

have been given is that its fundamental structural unit is an octahedron, which physical properties would it be describing?

A. streak B. fracture C.color D. shape

Mineral Hardness Shape Crystal System Color Luster Streak Cleavage Fracture Specific

Gravity

Graphite[C] 1 lamellar veins to

earthy masses hexagonal steel gray metallic black Yes Yes-flaky 2.2

Talc[Mg3Si4O10(OH)2]

1 flattened or tabular monoclinic white to green non-metallic white Yes-basal Yes-uneven 2.7-2.8

Gypsum[CaSO4· 2H2O] 2 tabular, bladed or

blocky monoclinicwhite to

colorless to gray

non-metallic white Yes Yes-uneven 2.3

Hematite 6 tabular hexagonal steel gray metallic reddish- No Yes-uneven 5.1

[Fe2O3] brown

Pyrite[FeS2]

6 cube, octahedron and pyritohedron isometric golden yellow metallic greenish

black No Yes-conchoidal 5.1

Quartz[SiO2]

7 two rhombohedrons hexagonalcolorless to

several other shades

non-metallic white Yes-weak

rhombohedralYes-

conchoidal 2.65

2. If you find a pale gray mineral that you are able to scratch with your fingernail, which of the following minerals are you most likely to be holding?

A.hematite B. pyrite C.quartz D. talc

3. Imagine that a sample of sediments are cemented together to form a sedimentary rock. Then, that rock is heated and compressed into a metamorphic rock. The metamorphic rock is then melted to form an igneous rock. Which of the following statements is true regarding the mass of the rocks?

A.The masses of the sedimentary rock, the metamorphic rock, and the igneous rock are the same.

B. The mass of the igneous rock is less than the masses of the metamorphic rock and the sedimentary rock.

C.The masses of the igneous rock and the metamorphic rock are less than the mass of the sedimentary rock.

D.The masses of the igneous rock and the metamorphic rock are greater than the mass of the sedimentary rock.

Mineral Hardness Shape Crystal System Color Luster Streak Cleavage Fracture Specific

Gravity

Galena[PbS] 2 cube, octahedron isometric silver gray metallic grey-black Yes-cubes No 7.5

Gold[Au] 2.5 nuggets, grains isometric golden

yellow metallic golden yellow No Yes-jagged 19.3

Lazurite[Na8Al6Si6O24S] 5 dodecahedral isometric brilliant

bluenon-

metallic bright blue No Yes-uneven 2.3

Pyrite[FeS2]

6 cube, octahedron and pyritohedron isometric golden

yellow metallic greenish black No Yes-

conchoidal 5.1

4. When looking for gold in California, which of the following characteristics below would be the best way to distinguish gold from pyrite?

A. luster

B. streak

C.cleavage

D.color

5. What name is given to the dust that is left on a surface after a mineral has been scraped across it?

A. luster B. streak

C.cleavage D. stress

6. Which of the following is the raw material from which sedimentary rocks are formed?

A.weathered remains of other rocks B. magma from the mantle C. lava from volcanic eruptions D.none of these

7. _________ is the way in which the surface of a mineral reflects light.

A.Hardness B. Streak C.Cleavage D.Luster

8. What are the two main factors in the mantle that contribute to the rock cycle?

A. layering and pressure B. pressure and heat C.weathering and layering D.heat and weathering

9. Which of the following are most important for the formation of sedimentary rock?

A.eruption and fossilization B. high temperatures C.wind and crystallization D.compaction and cementation

10. Which of the following is true about rocks and minerals?

A.A rock has the same structure throughout, while a mineral has different structures throughout. B. Rocks and minerals are both pure substances. C.Neither rocks nor minerals are pure substances. D.A mineral has the same structure throughout, while a rock has different structures throughout.

ENvironmental Impact1. Tornadoes are rotating, funnel-shaped clouds that often appear with little to no

warning. Wind speeds in a tornado can reach up to 300 miles per hour, and damage paths can extend for miles. Which of the following is the cause of most of the injuries and deaths from tornadoes?

A. flying debris B. poor visibility C.heavy rain D. lightning strikes

2. Centerville has a population of 10,000 people. The town is currently experiencing a severe drought. The city council has decided to require all toilets to be fitted with a device that causes it to use 1.5 fewer gallons of water every time the toilet is flushed. An average person flushes a toilet eight times a day. What will be the probable outcome of the town's new policy?

A.The town will save about 44 million gallons of water each year. B. The town will lose about 15,000 gallons of water each month. C.The town will save about 15,000 gallons of water each month. D.The town will lose around 44 million gallons of water each year.

3. A person painting his house dumps the unused paint on the ground. Which of the following resources will this most likely pollute?

A.wildlife B. air C.groundwater D. solar energy

4. The most direct hazard posed by earthquakes is ground shaking/movement, which can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. Another hazard associated with earthquakes is flooding. Which of the following are ways in which earthquakes can be associated with flooding?

I. An earthquake may destroy dams and levees.II. An earthquake may alter weather patterns and produce severe rainstorms.

III. A seafloor shift can cause an earthquake and a tsunami, which can produce flooding.

A. I and II B. II and III C. I, II, and III D. I and III

5. A company fills in a swamp to build a shopping mall. How will this affect the dynamics of the local ecosystem?

A. It will eliminate the habitats of many organisms. B. It will encourage more organisms to live in the habitat. C. It will improve the quality of the habitat. D. It will not affect the dynamics of the local ecosytem.

6. Most of the world’s energy supply comes from burning fossil fuels. Fossil fuels are nonrenewable resources. If people continue to burn fossil fuels at the same rate, which of the following events will most likely happen?

A.Fossil fuels will quickly reform underneath the ocean’s floor.

B. Fossil fuel deposits will be found on the moon. C.All of the world’s fossil fuel reserves will be used up. D.No changes will be made to the world’s fossil fuel reserves.

7. A construction company cuts down a forest and builds a new neighborhood. The residents of the neighborhood begin planting nectar-rich flowers and putting out hummingbird feeders. How will this most likely affect the population of hummingbirds that migrate through the area?

A.The likelihood of the population's survival will be threatened. B. The likelihood of the population's survival will be enhanced. C.This will not affect the population of hummingbirds in any way. D.The size of the population will dramatically decrease.

8. Karen knows that trees use energy from the Sun to make food. She wants to plant several trees in her backyard, but she is worried that she will use up the Sun's energy. Is Karen correct?

A.Yes, planting more trees will use up the Sun's energy. B. No, trees do not use sunlight. C.No, the Sun's energy cannot be used up. D.Maybe; if she plants more than ten trees, the Sun's energy will be used up.

9. Which of the following actions can a person take in order to best conserve fossil fuel resources?

A. recycle newspapers B. reuse a paper sack as gift wrap C. turn the faucet off while brushing your teeth D. ride a bike to school

10. Which statement shows an example of how human activities can directly change the equilibrium of an ecosystem?

A.The ozone layer helps prevent harmful radiation from reaching the surface of Earth. B. Water pollution causes a decrease in the fish population of a lake. C.A cold front moving in causes increased winds which increases water evaporation from

plants. D.A hurricane causes a river to overflow its banks.

Atmosphere, Weather, & Climate1. As winds approach the Equator from the south, the

tangential speed of the Earth’s surface increases. This means that the speed of the rotation of the Earth increases. What influences does this have on the wind?

A.The wind strength increases and the wind is deflected to the west.

B. The wind strength decreases and the wind becomes erratic. C.The wind strength increases and the wind becomes cooler. D.The wind strength decreases and the wind is pushed downward.

2. When does a cold front develop?

A.when a cold air mass invades a warm air mass B. when two masses of warm air meet C.when two masses of cold air meet D.when a warm air mass invades a cold air mass

3. Which of the following correctly shows the four most abundant gases in the Earth's atmosphere in order from most abundant to least abundant?

A.oxygen, nitrogen, argon, carbon dioxide B. nitrogen, oxygen, argon, carbon dioxide C.nitrogen, oxygen, carbon dioxide, argon D.carbon dioxide, oxygen, nitrogen, argon

4. On the windward side of a mountain, moist air is forced to rise higher as it approaches the top of the mountain. As the air is lifted higher, it cools and this leads to rain. What is this type of precipitation known as?

A. stratiform precipitation

B. orographic precipitation

C.convection precipitation

D. frictional precipitation

5. Large scale changes in climate caused the level of the oceans to rise and fall, causing which of the following events?

A.a change in the distribution of living things B. a decrease in radiant light C.an increase in tsunamis D.all of these

6. Currents caused by differences in water density are most often the result of

A.uniform salinity and wind. B. uniform temperature and salinity. C.differences in temperature and salinity. D.differences in salinity and wind.

7. In winter in the Northern hemisphere, what is the lake effect most likely to cause in

an area that is south of a large lake?

A. sun shower B. thunderstorm C. snow blizzard D.hail storm

8. If two ancient types of plants, one that grows in the winter and one that grows in the summer, appear together as fossils for two periods of the geologic time scale and then one suddenly is missing in the fossil record, which of the following is the best explanation of an event that would cause the disappearance of one plant type and not the other?

A.volcanic eruption B. hunting C.pollution D.climate change

9. A severe thunderstorm, known as a supercell, forms. It begins in an area where cold, dry, polar air meets warm, moist, tropical air, and the atmosphere is unstable. The wind coming into this storm begins to swirl, creating a swirling area of very low pressure. Which of the following is likely to occur in these conditions?

A.hurricane

B. lightning

C. tornado

D.cold front

10. A thunderstorm starts to form when water evaporates to form clouds. Which of the following best explains why thunderstorms usually form on warm days?

A.The water vapor in the air is warmed and this prevents it freezing. B. The warm air over the Earth's surface rises and pushes the clouds higher. C.The ocean and the land is heated evenly, which forces the clouds to move upwards. D.The warm air produces a high pressure system, which causes unstable conditions.

11. In regions near the Equator, the ocean absorbs large amounts of heat from the Sun during the day. Which of the following would this be most likely to result in?

A.afternoon showers B. morning dew C.hailstorms D.gale force winds

12. Based on the chart below, when would we expect to have a sea breeze?

Time Sea Temperature (°F) Land Temperature (°F)

A 81 83

B 78 78

C 82 81

A.Time C B. Time B C.Times A and C D.Time A

13. Which of the following word pairs correctly completes the sentence below?

Lightning forms when ___________ charges drop to the lower parts of a cloud and _________ charges build up on the ground below.

A.negative, negative B. positive, negative C.positive, positive D.negative, positive

14. Large scale changes in climate caused the level of the oceans to rise and fall, causing which of the following events?

A.a decrease in radiant light

B. an increase in tsunamis

C.a change in the distribution of living things

D.all of these

15. The sun heats the Earth’s water. This warm water turns into a vapor, and rises into the atmosphere, where it cools off. What happens to this water vapor?

A.The water vapor condenses as it cools, and forms clouds. It later returns to the Earth as precipitation.

B. The water vapor pushes clouds out of the way as it rises. This causes overcast conditions to clear. C.The water vapor evaporates and escapes into space. New water is formed by precipitation. D.The water vapor only rises for a very short time, then settles back into the ocean unnoticed.

16. During the night when there is no solar radiation entering the atmosphere, there are several different mechanisms that keep the Earth warm. One such mechanism is the greenhouse effect. How does the greenhouse effect work?

A.Greenhouse gases release heat energy as they decay in the atmosphere. B. Greenhouse gases produce and radiate heat energy down to the Earth. C.Greenhouse gases store heat energy during the day and release it at night. D.Greenhouse gases trap heat energy in the Earth’s atmosphere.

17. How would the Coriolis Effect influence a wind traveling north from the Equator?

A. It would be deflected to the right. B. It would be deflected to the left. C. It would be deflected to the south. D. It would be deflected to the north.

18. Which of the following statements is true about the composition of the atmosphere?

A.The atmosphere produces ultraviolet radiation in its ozone layer. B. The atmospheric conditions are uniformly even as latitude and altitude changes. C.The atmosphere is composed of two gases, oxygen and carbon dioxide. D.The atmospheric conditions vary as one changes latitude and altitude.

19. Which of these describes the main influence of jet streams on weather patterns?

A. Jet streams cause hurricanes to form over warm tropical waters. B. Jet streams separate high pressure systems from low pressure systems. C.Weather systems, such as storms, steer along jet streams. D.Surface ocean water is pushed toward land by jet streams.

20. Currents caused by differences in water density are most often the result of

A.differences in salinity and wind. B. uniform salinity and wind. C.differences in temperature and salinity. D.uniform temperature and salinity.

Earth, Sun, & Moon Motion1. The different phases of the Moon refer to...

A.changes in seasons on the Moon. B. changes in the Moon's visibility. C.changes in the Moon's shape. D.changes in the Moon's rotation.

2. During what type of tide is the high tide the highest and the low tide the lowest?

A.neap tide B. gibbous tide C. spring tide D.new tide

3. Which diagram correctly represents the relationship between the Earth and Sun that causes the changes in seasons on Earth?

W. X.

Y. Z.

A.W B. X C.Y D.Z

4. The Moon completes one orbit around the Earth in approximately _______ and completes one cycle of its phases in approximately _______.

A.24 hours, 24 hours B. 27 1/3 days, 29 1/2 days C.24 hours, 29 1/2 days D.27 1/3 days, 24 hours

5. Tides are caused by...

A. the gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon. B. large storm systems over oceans. C. the rotation of the Moon on its axis. D.earthquakes on the ocean floor.

6. The Earth's axis is tilted ____ degrees from the line that is perpendicular to the Earth's plane of orbit around the Sun.

A.23.5 B. 90 C.60 D.74.5

7. Which of the following phases of the Moon produces the highest and lowest tides on Earth?

A.Gibbous Moon B. New Moon C.Crescent Moon D.Third Quarter Moon

8. What type of eclipse would occur if the Earth, Moon, and Sun were in the below order?

A. lunar eclipse B. planetary eclipse C.martian eclipse D. solar eclipse

9.  Full MoonOne of the phases of the moon is named above. Which phase comes next?

A.Waning Crescent Moon B. New Moon C.Third Quarter Moon D.Waning Gibbous Moon

10. During a total lunar eclipse, when the Moon is completely dark, what is the order of the Sun, Moon, and Earth?

A.Earth, Moon, Sun

B. Moon, Sun, Earth

C.Sun, Earth, Moon

D.Sun, Moon, Earth

Solar System, Galaxy, & Universe1. 

Look at the picture of the galaxy, above. What type of galaxy is this?

A.barred spiral B. spiral C. irregular D.elliptical

2. We often associate geysers with hot springs and volcanoes, but one of this planet's moon has cold geysers. Which planet is it?

A. Jupiter B. Uranus C.Neptune D.Earth

3. Which of the following best estimates the number of galaxies in the universe?

A.hundreds B. billions C.millions D. thousands

4. A galaxy is a grouping of many stars. What force keeps the stars in all galaxies together so that the galaxies don't break up into isolated stars?

A.gravity B. magnetism C.none of these D. friction

5. What would change about life on Earth if this planet were as far away as Jupiter is from the Sun?

A. It would snow a lot more. B. All of the icecaps would melt. C.There would be an ice age. D. It would be too cold to live on Earth.

6. Which of the following correctly describes the big bang theory?

A.The entire universe was formed in a massive explosion that threw all the material that makes up the universe out in all directions at a great speed.

B. The large explosions in the universe that are constantly happening are what allows it to keep expanding. Without these "big bangs," the universe would all crunch together.

C.The majority of the universe was formed in a giant explosion that threw material out in all directions. Only a few galaxies already existed at the time of this explosion.

D.When a large star grows old and runs out of fuel, it is thought that the result is a very large explosion. This explosion is called the "big bang."

7. Which of the following planets is classified as a gas giant?

A.Neptune B. Mercury C.Mars D.Venus

8. Which of the following are unique characteristics of Earth that allow life to exist?

A. the composition of Earth's atmosphere B. Earth's distance from the Sun C. the presence of water D.all of these

9. What is most important about Earth's atmosphere?

A.Without it, there would be no air to breathe. B. It always makes airplane rides smooth. C. It makes beautiful sunsets. D.Because there is too much atmosphere, some of it is always leaking into space.

10. Which planet is most likely to have acid rain?

A.Mars B. Mercury C.Uranus D.Venus

Cells1. Once it has passed through the plasma membrane, this simple sugar is broken down

to make a form of energy needed by the cell. What is the name of the simple sugar?

A.water B. protein C. fat D.glucose

2. A multicellular organism is made of many different kinds of cells performing specialized functions that contribute to the life and growth of the organism. Which organism below is considered multicellular?

A.bacteria B. mouse C.protist D.all of these

3. Cell division is related to which of the following processes of an organism?

A. reproduction B. repair C.growth D.all of these

4. What type of organism is a one-celled organism that functions as a single unit?

A.precellular B. bicellular

C.multicellular D.unicellular

5. While playing soccer, Sam falls down and scrapes his knee. Which form of cell division will result in the repair of the damaged skin tissue?

A. replication B. mitosis C. translation D.meiosis

6. Which form of cell division plays a key role in sexual reproduction?

A.budding B. conjugation C.mitosis D.meiosis

7. In a living organism, what is an organ?

A. the shell or skin of an organism B. a group of similar cells that perform a common function C. functional unit, or building block, of all organisms; smallest unit that can carry on the activities of

life D.a structure composed of a number of tissues that work together to perform a specific task

During science class, a group of students went on a field trip to a nearby pond where they collected samples of pond water and pond plants. The students used a microscope to study cells in their samples. They also took samples of their own cheek cells and studied them with the microscope. The results are shown in the following table.

Sample Nucleus CellMembrane

Cell Wall Cytoplasm Chloroplast Vacuole

cheek cells X X   X   X

pond plant cells X X X X X X

pond organism #1 X X X X X X

pond organism #2 X X   X   X

8. According to the table provided, which pond organism was an animal?

A.Pond organism 1 and 2 B. Neither pond organism

C.Pond organism 1 D.Pond organism 2

9. In order to grow and survive, cells need information from their DNA and nutrients from their environment. When a cell gets too big, however, what does it tend to do?

A. It no longer receives information from the DNA. B. It explodes and is consumed by lysosomes. C. It closes its pores so it cannot take in any more nutrients. D. It divides into more cells.

During science class, a group of students went on a field trip to a nearby pond where they collected samples of pond water and pond plants. The students used a microscope to study cells in their samples. They also took samples of their own cheek cells and studied them with the microscope. The results are shown in the following table.

Sample Nucleus CellMembrane

Cell Wall Cytoplasm Chloroplast Vacuole

cheek cells X X   X   X

pond plant cells X X X X X X

pond organism #1 X X X X X X

pond organism #2 X X   X   X

10. Looking at the chart provided, the students need to develop a classification scheme to distinguish plant and animal cells. The presence of which of the following structures/organelles would be most useful for this purpose?

A.cell wall B. plasma membrane C.nucleus D.vacuole

11. Using the table provided, determine which of the following pairs of organelles or structures can be found in both plant and animal cells.

A.vacuole and chloroplast B. cell membrane and nucleus C.cell wall and chloroplast D.cell wall and nucleus

12. What do cells use to help transport other nutrients within the cell?

A.proteins in the nucleus

B. the watery environment of the cytoplasm C. the energy made from carbohydrates D. the fats in the plasma membrane

13. Which type of organism is made of specialized cells that work closely together to keep an organism alive?

A. single-celled B. multi-celled C.none of these D. specialized

14. What are the most basic building blocks of all organisms?

A.blood B. organs C.cells D. tissue

15. Which of the following statements correctly describes a single-celled organism?

A.perform all life processes from one cell B. perform all life processes using cells with special functions C.coordinate all life processes using several cells D.do not need to perform life processes

16. Most organisms on Earth today are single-celled. Which of the organisms below is single-celled?

A.human B. moss C.bacteria D.all of these

17. In a living organism, what is tissue?

A. the shell or skin of an organism B. a group of similar cells that perform a common function C.a group of cells that regulates the body's responses to internal and external stimuli D. functional unit, or building block, of all organisms smallest unit that can carry on the activities of

life

18. Some unicellular organisms are similar to _____________ because they have the ability to ____________.

A. reptiles, lay eggs B. birds, fly C.animals, move D.plants, produce sound

19. Select the group of organelles that is common to both plant cells and animal cells.

A.nucleus, cytoplasm, ribosomes, chloroplasts B. cytoplasm, mitochondria, cell wall, nucleus C.cell wall, ribosomes, cell membrane, mitochondria D. ribosomes, cell membrane, mitochondria, cytoplasm

20. Most of the activities of a cell, including growth and division, are carried out by...

A. the production of proteins. B. the storage of water. C. the movement of fats. D. the use of carbohydrates.

21. Which of the following cell structures is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

A.chloroplast B. cytoplasm C.cell membrane D. ribosome

22. 

Which of the following structures would normally be found in a plant cell but not in an animal cell?

A.plasma membrane B. cell wall

C.nucleus D.mitochondrion

23. How do the nutrients that enter our cells compare with the food we eat?

A.The nutrients that enter our cells are exactly the same as the food we eat, just smaller pieces. B. The nutrients that enter our cells do not come from the food we eat. C.The nutrients that enter our cells are in the same form as the food we eat. D.The food we eat is broken down into individual, microscopic nutrient molecules which enter the

cell.

24. What type of organism is a worm?

A.none of these B. multi-celled C.plant D. single-celled

25. Which of the following is a difference between plant cells and animal cells?

A.Animal cells carry out photosynthesis; plant cells do not. B. Animal cells undergo cell division; plant cells do not divide. C.Plant cells have a rigid structure, while animal cells have a more flexible structure. D. In plant cells, DNA is stored in the mitochondria; in animal cells, the DNA is stored in the nucleus.

Human Body Systems1. When a person exercises, the cells of the body need more oxygen. This is achieved

by the ______ system increasing the amount of oxygen that is supplied to the blood and the ______ system increasing the rate of delivery of the blood to the cells of the body.

A. respiratory; cardiovascular B. cardiovascular; respiratory C.circulatory; digestive D.digestive; circulatory

2. Diabetes mellitus is a disease that occurs when the body either cannot produce the hormone insulin or produces an insufficient amount of insulin. The disease is caused by a disruption in the ______ system.

A.excretory

B. digestive C.endocrine D. immune

3. The skin functions as part of the ______ system because it provides a physical barrier that prevents microorganisms from entering the body.

A.endocrine B. immune C. skeletal D.nervous

4. The brain is divided into three major regions that perform hundreds of functions. The region called the _____________ controls ______________.

A.cerebrum; balance B. brainstem; posture C.cerebrum; behavior D.cerebellum; respiration

5. The main function of the excretory system is to eliminate _______ from the body.

A.oxygen B. energy C.disease D.waste

6. An organism's ability to maintain a stable internal environment in the midst of external environmental change is known as

A.homeostasis. B. reproduction. C.metabolism. D.commensalism.

7. The ________ controls the intake of air to the ________.

A.artery; heart B. nerve; brain C.diaphragm; lungs D.bronchial tube; kidneys

8. Homeostatic ______ occurs when there is a disturbance in one or more of the body’s systems.

A.activity B. imbalance C. failure D.overload

9. 

Brain, Spinal Cord

Which organ system do the organs above belong to?

A.endocrine B. cardiovascular C.excretory D.nervous

10. 

Mouth, Esophagus, Stomach, Intestines

Which organ system do the organs above belong to?

A.endocrine B. excretory C.digestive D.musculoskeletal

11. When a person eats, a hormone is released which signals the stomach to start breaking down the food. Which two systems are involved in this process?

A.excretory and endocrine

B.endocrine and digestive

C.digestive and immune

D. immune and excretory

12. The ________ filters blood to remove waste products. Blood arrives at this organ “dirty” through the ________ and leaves “clean” through the ________.

A. lung; bronchial tubes; bronchioles B. heart; vein; artery C.kidney; renal artery; renal vein D. stomach; esophagus; large intestine

13. The heart uses three layers of ________ to pump blood throughout the body.

A.ventricles B. muscles C.arteries D. skin

14. The nose is an organ that acts as an airway for oxygen to enter the body. The nose also contains hairs that trap small foreign objects and stop them from entering the body. Which two systems does the nose play a role in?

A.digestive and excretory B. immune and digestive C.excretory and respiratory D. respiratory and immune

15. The level of organization in living things is cells, tissues, organs, and...

A. systems. B. organelles. C. functions. D.ecosystems.

16. Which of these is a waste material that is removed from the human body by the respiratory system?

A. sodium chloride B. oxygen C.carbon dioxide D.water

17. The ________ plays a central role in the circulatory system. It consists of four ________: two for receiving blood and two for pumping blood.

A.kidney, veins B. heart, chambers C.kidney, chambers D.heart, veins

18. The nervous system is the major ______ system of the body.

A.protective B. transport C.output

D.control

19. A person touches a hot surface with his hand and his hand springs back. Which two systems are operating?

A.nervous system and cardiovascular system B. nervous system and musculoskeletal system C.musculoskeletal system and endocrine system D.cardiovascular system and endocrine system

20. The muscles of the body are part of the musculoskeletal system but would not operate without the _____________ system providing the impulses that cause the muscles to act.

A.nervous B. reproductive C. respiratory D.cardiovascular

21. The purpose of the ______ system is to prevent foreign substances from entering the body and to attack foreign substances that are in the body.

A.excretory B. nervous C.endocrine D. immune

22. The ______ system plays the key role in allowing organisms to have offspring and pass on their unique genetic information.

A.nervous B. cardiovascular C.musculoskeletal D. reproductive

Classification

Animal Groups

1. Looking at the two groups of animals provided, which of the following features of Group 1 makes it unique from Group 2?

A. feet B. feathers C.claws D.eyes

2. A moving, multicellular organism that cannot make its own food most likely belongs to which kingdom?

A.Animalia B.Monera C.Fungi D.Plantae

3. Which of the following lists the levels of biological classification in the correct order from the largest grouping to the smallest grouping?

A. species, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus B.kingdom, phylum, species, class, order, family, genus C.kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species D. family, phylum, class, order, genus, species, kingdom

Species Characteristics

Trait Flowering Plants Ferns Conifers

Have true leaves, stems, and roots Yes Yes YesAre often found in dry places Yes No Yes

Have sharp, needle-like leaves Some species No YesSeeds develop in a cone No No Yes

Seeds are enclosed in a fruit Yes No No4. Using the characteristic chart provided, which of the following characteristics would

absolutely identify a flowering plant and eliminate the other species?

A.The seeds are enclosed in a fruit.

B. Its seeds are often developed in a cone. C. It has true leaves, stems, and roots. D. It's often found in dry places.

5. Use the characteristic chart provided to answer the question.

An unknown species has true leaves, stems, and roots, and its seeds are not enclosed in a fruit. If this unknown species is often found in dry places, what species is it?

A.Conifer B.Flowering Plant C.Cotton Tree D.Weeping Willow

6. Use the following dichotomous key to identify an irregular blue flower with five petals and a fruit that is a ripened flower ovary or follicle.

Dichotomous Key of Ranunculaceae

#1. a. Fruit is a group of akenes. (go to step 2)

b. Fruit is a group of follicles. (go to step 4)

#2. a. Petals are not present. (go to step 3)b. Petals are present. (Ranunculus)

#3. a. The flower has 4 sepals. (Clematis)

b. The flower has 5 sepals. (Anemone)

#4. a. The flowers are regular. (Aquilegia)b. The flowers are irregular. (Delphinium)

The flower is a:

A.Delphinium B.Ranunculus C.Aquilegia D.Anemone

Two scientists traveled to a remote island in the ocean. While on the island, they discovered several animals never before seen. The scientists identified and recorded several characteristics of each of the different animals. Those data are given in the table below.

Animal Number of legs Tail Food HabitatA 4 yes meat mountain

B 4 yes plants jungleC 6 yes plants jungleD 6 no plants cavesE 8 no meat waterF 8 no meat water

The scientists needed this information in order to group the organisms. One way to do this is to create a classification system such as the one shown in the figure below.

7. Which of the following pairs of animals CANNOT be separated into two different categories in the classification system shown in the figure?

A.animals A and C B.animals E and F C.animals B and D D.animals C and F

8. 

Birds can be classified into four different groups: flightless birds, such as ostriches; water birds, such as ducks; birds of prey, such as eagles; and perching birds, such as

robins. Examine the bird above. In which bird group do you think this bird belongs?

A.water birds B.perching birds and birds of prey C.perching birds D.birds of prey

9. The Kingdom Protista contains which of the following organisms?

A.algae B. fungi C.moss D. fish

Animal Groups

10. Looking at the two groups of animals provided, which of the following features of Group 1 makes it unique from Group 2?

A. teeth B. feathers C.claws D. feet

Ecosystems1. What nonliving component of its environment can a fish not live without at any time?

A.algae B.water C. sunshine D. soil

2. 

Look at the diagram above of a food web. What would happen to the food chain if a drought occurred, and the vegetation did not grow?

A.The fox would only be able to live off of energy from the sun. B.All of the animals in this web would starve. C.The caterpillar, partridge, and rabbit would not survive. D.The fox would not survive.

3. All ecosystems contain at least one population of organisms. Which of the following could be considered a population?

A.a pile of clamshells B.a mockingbird and its nest C.a grove of apple trees D.a group of deer and mice

4. Which of the following would likely impact the population of small birds in an ecosystem the most?

A. increase in the fish population B.decrease in the number of daylight hours C.decrease in the rabbit population D. increase in the insect population

5. Ecosystems are made up of both living and non-living factors. Which of the following organizational levels of an ecosystem include all of the ecosystem's living factors?

A.biosphere B. trophic level C.population D.community

6. An area with a moist climate has been undergoing the stages of ecological succession for over 500 years. Which of the following types of ecosystems most likely exists in

the area?

A.a chaparral B.a grassland C.a desert D.a forest

7. A glacier recedes and exposes bare rock. Which of the following will most likely occur next?

A.Trees will start to grow over the bare rock. B.Lichen will colonize the bare rock. C.Small animals will move into the area. D.The bare rock will quickly break down into soil.

8. The carrying capacity of an ecosystem describes the maximum number of organisms that can be supported by the water, food, shelter, etc., that is available in that ecosystem. What will be the most likely result if an ecosystem tries to exceed its carrying capacity?

A.The death rate will increase. B.More houses will be built to shelter people. C.More food will be grown to meet the demand. D.The birth rate will increase.

9. Examine the drawing of the environment below:

Which of the following organisms could most likely live in this type of environment?

A. toucan B. scorpion C.beaver D.grizzly bear

10. Examine the organism below.

Which of the following types of environments would best support this organism?

A. taiga B. tundra C.marsh D.desert

Genes & Inheritance1. In fruit flies, the allele for white eyes (W) is dominant to the allele for red eyes (w).

Two heterozygous fruit flies are crossed, resulting in many offspring.

Which of the following would best describe the population of offspring?

A.All of the offspring population is white-eyed. B.The majority of the offspring population is red-eyed. C.About half of the offspring population is red-eyed, and the other half of the population is white-eyed. D.The majority of the offspring population is white-eyed.

2. Which of the following scenarios would provide the best evidence that human traits are a result of lifestyle choices?

A.Matt had been naturally right-handed since birth. In high school, he decided to start throwing left-handed

after reading that there was a shortage of left-handed pitchers in the major leagues. Matt is now left-handed.

B.Tanya's mother has blonde hair. Tanya's father has black hair. Tanya's hair is brown.

C.Arnold's parents and grandparents all have heart disease. Although Arnold has always exercised, avoided unhealthy foods, and followed doctor's instructions, he also has heart disease.

D.Lisa and Anita are identical twin sisters. Lisa went to college in New York; Anita went to college in Florida. Both sisters used to catch cold easily but now, Lisa does not. Both sisters used to sunburn easily but now, Anita does not.

3. Which of the following are true?

I. A single gene can control a single trait.II. A single gene can influence multiple traits.

III. A single trait can be controlled by multiple genes.

A. II and III only B. I and II only C. I and III only D. I, II, and III

4. Which of the following statements about homologous chromosomes is likely to be true?

A.Homologous chromosomes typically have the same genes in the same locations. B.Homologous chromosomes are found in diploid cells. C.The genes of homologous chromosomes may interact with each other to influence traits. D. all of these

5. Sarah and Jim are siblings. They both have brown eyes. Their mom and dad, grandparents, uncles, aunts, and cousins have brown eyes, as well. This example provides evidence that human traits can be...

A. learned. B. inherited. C. influenced by one's lifestyle. D. influenced by the environment.

6. Which of the following scenarios would provide the best evidence that human traits are a result of inheritance?

A.Lisa and Anita are identical twin sisters. Lisa went to college in New York; Anita went to college in Florida. Both sisters used to catch cold easily but now, Lisa does not. Both sisters used to sunburn easily but now, Anita does not.

B.Arnold's parents and grandparents all have heart disease. Although Arnold has always exercised, avoided unhealthy foods, and followed doctor's instructions, he also has heart disease.

C.Matt had been naturally right-handed since birth. In high school, he decided to start throwing left-handed after reading that there was a shortage of left-handed pitchers in the major leagues. Matt is now left-handed.

D.Tanya's mother has blonde hair. Tanya's father has black hair. Tanya's hair is brown.

7. A ________ can be defined as a basic unit of hereditary information which refers to a specific segment of DNA that influences a particular trait or group of traits.

A.gene B.nucleus C.genome D.chromosome

8. In the cell of a sexually-reproducing organism, a pair of similar chromosomes with the same genes in the same locations is known as a _______ pair.

A.homozygous B.homologous C.heterozygous D.heterologous

9. _________ can be described as alternate forms of a particular gene.

A.Chromatids B.Chromosomes C.DNA molecules D.Alleles

10. The instructions, or code, that is responsible for all the inherited traits of an organism...

A. is stored within the mitochondria of cells. B. is passed from the offspring to the parent. C. is formed after an organism is fully-grown. D. is held in genetic material called DNA.

11. An organism that contains two different alleles for a trait is said to be __________ for that trait.

A. recessive B.heterozygous

C.dominant D.homozygous

12. Which of the following is true about genes?

A. In humans, genes are passed to an offspring from two parents. B.Genes are responsible for all the traits of an organism. C.The genes of a particular organism can never change throughout its lifetime. D.Genes are made up of smaller molecules known as chromosomes.

13. 

In humans, the allele for attached ear lobes (e) is recessive to the allele for free ear lobes (E).

If both of Lisa's parents have attached ear lobes, then...

A.Lisa must have attached ear lobes. B.Lisa must have free ear lobes. C.Lisa may have either attached ear lobes or free ear lobes. D.Lisa must have her ears pierced.

14. Select the choice below that best shows various types of genetic material in order from simplest to most complex.

A.gene genome chromosome B.chromosome genome gene C.gene chromosome genome D.genome gene chromosome

15. A molecule of DNA is "packaged" and carried by a larger molecule called a __________.

A.vacuole B.nucleus C.gamete D.chromosome

16. Huntington's disease is a genetic disorder that can result in memory loss and abnormal body movements. Huntington's disease results from a defective gene (H) that is dominant to the allele that produces normal function (h). This means that...

I. if someone is heterozygous for Huntington's disease, then he/she will be a carrier but will not have the disease.

II. if a child has Huntington's disease, then at least one of his/her parents has the disease.

III. if two parents do not have Huntington's disease, then their children will not have the disease.

A. I only B. I, II, and III C. II and III only D. III only

17. Select the choice that best completes the following sentence:

A normal human body cell has a total of ___ chromosomes: ___ chromosomes come from the mother and ___ chromosomes come from the father.

A.23, 11, 12 B.23, 12, 11 C.50, 25, 25 D.46, 23, 23

18. Which of the following scenarios would provide the best evidence that human traits are a result of environmental factors?

A.Arnold's parents and grandparents all have heart disease. Although Arnold has always exercised, avoided

unhealthy foods, and followed doctor's instructions, he also has heart disease.

B.Lisa and Anita are identical twin sisters. Lisa went to college in New York; Anita went to college in Florida. Both sisters used to catch cold easily but now, Lisa does not. Both sisters used to sunburn easily but now, Anita does not.

C.Tanya's mother has blonde hair. Tanya's father has black hair. Tanya's hair is brown.

D.Matt had been naturally right-handed since birth. In high school, he decided to start throwing left-handed after reading that there was a shortage of left-handed pitchers in the major leagues. Matt is now left-handed.

19. In a particular type of cat, coat color follows the dominant/recessive pattern of inheritance. The allele for a brown coat (B) is dominant to the allele for a white coat (b).

A cross between two white-coated cats would result in...

A.white-coated kittens or brown-coated kittens. B.brown-coated kittens only. C.white-coated kittens only. D.white-coated kittens with brown spots.

20. A widow's peak is a V-shaped area of the hairline in the center of the forehead. The allele for having a widow's peak is dominant to the allele for not having a widow's peak. If two parents do not have widow's peaks, what is the probability that their child will have a widow's peak?

A.0% B.75% C.50% D.25%

Fossils & Extinction1. What does the fossil record reveal about new species of organisms?

A.They evolved over time from older species. B.They changed into warm-blooded organisms. C.They became larger over time. D.They developed without any relation to other organisms.

2. Which of the following fossil discoveries best demonstrates a change in the Earth's climate?

A.Scientists find a large amount of fossils of tropical plants and animals in a desert.

B.Scientists find an area that contains a variety of plant fossils but no animal fossils. C.Scientists discover fossils of straight teeth buried below fossils of curved teeth. D.Scientists discover a large amount of fossils of marine life near the shore.

3. What information do fossils provide about plants and animals?

A.Animals and plants have changed over time. B.Animals and plants have changed recently. C.Animals and plants have not changed over time. D.Animals and plants have not developed together.

4. Fossils are most commonly found in which type of rock?

A. igneous B.metamorphic C. sedimentary D.paleolithic

5. Scientists decide the age of different rock layers by the things that they uncover in the rock. Which of the items below could scientists use to date a layer of rock?

A.a fossilized fish B.a green leaf that fell off of a tree C.an insect flying near the dig site D.a raindrop on the rock

6. Which of the following are natural causes of extinction?

I. competitionII. climate changes

III. predationIV.pollution

A. I, III, and IV only B. I, II, and III only C. I and IV only D. II only

7. Which of the following parts of an organism is most likely to become fossilized?

A. tooth B.heart C. skin D. lung

8. What is the main way we are able to learn about animals, like dinosaurs, that were extinct before humans existed?

A. fossils B.weather patterns C.cave paintings D.meteorites

9. The main cause of extinction today is...

A.climate change. B.pollution by humans. C.competition among animals. D.habitat destruction by humans.

10. Which of the following are human causes of extinction?

I. pollutionII. habitat destruction

III. huntingIV.habitat division

A. I and II only B. I, II, III, and IV C. II and IV only D. II and III only

Biological Change1. 

The bird shown above has a long, sharp beak known as a spear beak. Knowing this, what type of food is the bird most likely to eat?

A. seeds B.nectar C. fish D.berries

2. Scientists know that organisms that are more closely related will have DNA sequences more similar to each other than organisms that are distantly related. Which two organisms below would most likely have the most similar nucleotide sequences in a given gene?

A.Venus’ fly trap and frog B.dog and wolf C.elephant and rhinoceros D.oak tree and mushroom

3. Examine the evolutionary diagram below. What does the diagram imply about the peafowl and the chicken?

A.They descended from early mammals. B.They did not evolve from older forms of life. C.They are unrelated. D.They share a recent common ancestor.

4. Some organisms that appear to be very different from other organisms are in fact quite similar anatomically. Scientists believe whales evolved from land mammals for many reasons including a few internal functionless hind-limb bones found in whales’ bodies. What is the term for a functionless anatomical structure that is evidence of an organism’s evolutionary past?

A.absorbed structure B.vestigial structure C.homologous structure D. trace structure

5. Scientists can learn how species change over time by directly observing certain types of organisms. Which of the following types of organisms would a scientist most likely observe to gain an understanding of how populations can evolve?

A. turtles B.bacteria C.elephants D. trees

6. During the winter months, the groundwater in an area freezes, the rivers freeze, and there is little sunlight available. Which of the following processes would allow plants to survive the winter conditions?

A.migration B.hibernation C.pollination D.dormancy

7. Which of the following would provide the best evidence that Species A and Species B have a common ancestor?

A.The limbs of Species A perform a function that is similar to the limbs of Species B, but have a different structure.

B.Species A has limbs and Species B does not have limbs. C.The limbs of Species A have a similar structure to the limbs of Species B, but perform a different

function. D.The limbs of Species A and Species B have a different structure and function.

8. After the last major ice age, sea levels around the world rose. As it did, the rising waters divided what was once a single island in the North Sea into two different islands. A population of rabbits was separated on the two islands. Ten thousand years passed with no contact between the two rabbit groups. At the end of the 10,000 years, a scientist attempted unsuccessfully to breed individuals from the two groups. Why were rabbits from the two groups unable to produce offspring together?

A.The groups had evolved into separate species. B.The groups belonged to different breeds of rabbits. C.The groups were not able to recognize each other. D.The groups were adapted to very different climates.

9. Scientists know that organisms that are more closely related will have DNA sequences more similar to each other than organisms that are distantly related. Which two organisms below would most likely have the fewest similar nucleotide sequences

in a given gene?

A. scorpion and tarantula B. lion and horse C.alligator and earthworm D.orangutan and howler monkey

10. The monarch butterfly is toxic to birds. Over time, viceroy butterflies have adapted a wing color and pattern that is very similar to the appearance of monarch butterflies. What is the most likely advantage of this adaptation?

A.The viceroys will also be toxic to birds. B.The viceroys will be able to fly faster to flee possible predators. C.There is no advantage of this adaptation. D.Birds will mistake viceroys for monarchs and thus will not eat the viceroys.

Photosynthesis1. The roots of plants are important to photosynthesis because they:

A.provide the carbon dioxide needed B. remove sugar from the plant C.provide the water needed D. remove oxygen from the plant

2. Which of the following is a product of the photosynthesis reaction?

A. sunlight B. sugar C.carbon dioxide D.water

3. Photosynthesis is a process through which...

A.plants eat other plants as a source of food. B.plants produce food for themselves. C.animals eat plants as a source of food. D.animals produce food for themselves.

4. There are three essential items that plants need in order to make sugar through the process of photosynthesis. Plants need carbon dioxide, water, and...

A. light energy. B.kinetic energy. C.mechanical energy.

D.chemical energy.

5. Photosynthesis reactions mainly occur in the ______________ of plants.

A. stems B. leaves C. roots D. flowers

6. Photosynthesis is a chemical process that converts _____ energy to _____ energy.

A.chemical, light B. light, chemical C.chemical, sugar D. sunlight, light

7. What happens to the sugar that is produced by photosynthesis?

A. It is stored by the plant until the plant needs energy. B. It develops into fruit. C. It combines with carbon dioxide to form water. D. It is released into the atmosphere.

8. What chemicals does a plant need to perform photosynthesis?

A.nitrogen and sugar B. sugar and oxygen C. light energy and oxygen D.water and carbon dioxide

9. Plants obtain food through the process of...

A.agriculture.

B.mitosis.

C.photosynthesis.

D. respiration.

10. Which of the following statements is true?

A.Photosynthetic plants are heterotrophs. B.Photosynthetic plants can only obtain energy from the Sun and the soil. C.All plants are photosynthetic and use carbon dioxide and water to make sugar and oxygen. D.Not all plants are photosynthetic; some obtain nutrients in other ways.

Energy in Ecosystems

1. Some organisms feed on other organisms without immediately killing the organism. What term describes this act?

A.predation B.parasitism C.commensalism D.mutualism

2. 

In the food web above, where does "decayed matter" come from?

A.volcanic eruptions B.precipitation C.weathered rocks D.dead plants and animals

3. 

Which food chain below correctly represents information shown in the food web above?

A.Grass Grasshopper Frog Duck B.Grasshopper Frog Snake Lizard C.Sunlight Grass Ant Lizard D.Duck Tadpole Algae Sunlight

4. An organism that feeds upon primary consumers is known as a _______.

A.decomposer B.host C. secondary consumer D.producer

5. The food web for a particular ecosystem is shown below.

What would most likely happen if the algae were removed from this ecosystem?

A.The ant population would increase. B.The amount of sunlight would decrease. C.The snake population would increase. D.The tadpole population would decrease.

6. 

Which of the following is a producer in the food web shown above?

A. snake B.ant C.algae D. sunlight

7. A flea may live on the skin of a dog and feed on the dog's blood. This relationship between the flea and the dog is an example of ________.

A.parasitism B.competition C.mutualism D.commensalism

8. 

Which of the following is a primary consumer in the food web shown above?

A.earthworm B. lizard C.ant D.duck

9. 

Sunlight Rose Honeybee Skunk Eagle

Which of the following is a primary consumer in the food chain shown above?

A.Honeybee B.Skunk C.Rose D.Eagle

10. The Antarctic food web is less complex than other food webs around the world. There are fewer different species that are part of it. However, there are more of each species.

According to the food web shown, which organism is both a primary consumer and a secondary consumer?

A.krill B.other herbivorous zooplankton C.other seals D.baleen whale

Disease1. Which of the following is a noncommunicable disease?

A.cancer B.common cold C. small pox D.whooping cough

2. Marcy became ill last winter with strep throat. How did Marcy get this illness?

A.Her throat tissues had an allergic reaction to something she ate. B.Her throat tissues were infected with bacteria. C.Her throat tissues were infected with viruses. D.Her throat tissues developed a curable form of cancer.

3. Albert's foot became red and itchy. Albert's doctor told him that he had a disease known as athlete's foot. Athlete's foot is caused by pathogenic fungi. The doctor said that Albert was probably infected with the fungi when he was walking barefoot in his gym's locker room. What type of disease is athlete's foot?

A.communicable B.noncommunicable C.genetic D.bacterial

4. Mr. Smith has found a lump under his arm. He goes to his doctor, and the doctor confirms that the lump is cancer. How are cancerous cells different from normal cells?

A.carcinogens change cancer cells to normal cells B.cancer cells occur in adults but not in children C.cancer cells are found in the lymph; normal cells are not D. the growth-regulating genes of cancer cells have mutated

5. Nick just went to the doctor for his annual physical. The doctor took a blood sample and called Nick a week later to tell him that Nick had developed diabetes. What is diabetes?

A.a bacterial infection of the lungs B.a communicable disease transmitted by HIV C.a noncommunicable disease characterized by uncontrolled cell growth D.a noncommunicable disease characterized by high blood sugar

6. Which of the following diseases can be classified as noncommunicable?

A.osteoporosis B.herpes C. influenza D.chickenpox

7. Cole feels dizzy, and his stomach hurts. Cole has already vomited twice today and has diarrhea. Which of the following health problems does Cole most likely have?

A.multiple sclerosis B.an ear infection C. food poisoning D. strep throat

8. Doug likes to eat foods that are high in cholesterol. Also, Doug does not often exercise. Because of this, Doug is overweight and has problems climbing stairs. What disease is Doug most likely in danger of developing?

A.Parkinson’s disease B.malaria C. influenza D.heart disease

9. Jill got a case of chicken pox when she was three years old. After she got it, Jill’s sister came down with chicken pox. What is chicken pox?

A.a type of allergy B.an immune disorder C.a type of egg D.a communicable disease

10. For a pathogen to cause harm, it must attack a particular part of the body. Usually, though, only a small percentage of the pathogens ever make it past the body’s first line of defense. What is the first line of defense against pathogens?

A. the skin B. the stomach C. the bloodstream D. the kidneys

11. Which of the following is the cause of the disease AIDS?

A. the inability of cells to regulate their growth B.mutation of a person's DNA C. infection by a bacterium D. infection by a virus

12. Gillian read that there are pathogens everywhere. What are pathogens?

A.bacteria from plants B.bacteria that live in water C.noncommunicable organisms D.viruses and microorganisms that cause disease

13. Robert feels ill and goes to the doctor. Robert is told that he has a communicable disease. Which of the following is a communicable disease?

A.asthma B.common cold C.allergies D. rheumatoid arthritis

14. T cells are the immune system cells that fight pathogens in the body. When a person is infected with the AIDS virus, the amount of T cells in his or her body begins to fall. What does AIDS do to a person’s immune system?

A.AIDS tricks the T cells into moving out of the blood stream into the lymphatic system. B.AIDS helps a person fend off communicable diseases. C.AIDS attacks the T cells and makes it difficult for the person’s immune system to work. D.AIDS speeds up the immune system so that the immune system works more efficiently.

15. Tom's friend, Ali, was home sick from school yesterday. Ali's mother told you that she has a communicable disease. Which of the following might she have?

A. strep throat B.arthritis C.osteoporosis D.cancer

16. AIDS is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). HIV attacks the immune system, making a person unable to fight off other communicable diseases. In which of the following ways can a person become infected with HIV?

A.hugging an infected person B.getting a blood transfusion from an infected person C. shaking hands with an infected person D. sharing food with an infected person

17. Look at the chart below.

Disease Classification

sickle cell anemia noncommunicable

common cold communicable

lung cancer

Which of the following terms best belongs in the blank box?

A.communicable B. infectious C.genetic D.noncommunicable

18. Influenza, strep throat, measles, and the common cold are all communicable diseases. Which of the following methods can be used to avoid getting communicable diseases?

A.petting a sick animal B.not washing fruit before eating it C. sharing a drink only with family members D.washing your hands before eating

19. Antibiotics are a type of medicine that kills bacteria. Antibiotics can be used to fight bacterial infections. Which of the following diseases could antibiotics be used to treat?

A. strep throat B. rabies C. influenza D.common cold

20. Eric is sneezing and has nasal congestion, an itchy nose, and irritated eyes. Which of the following noncommunicable diseases does Eric most likely have?

A. food poisoning B.allergies C.multiple sclerosis D.an ear infection