013-33241269 hiva-network€¦ · which two statements about san port channels configured on cisco...

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Hiva-network.com 013-33241269

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QUESTION 1 FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learning B. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame field C. STPl independence D. 10 Gbps bandwidth E. Layer 2 extensions between data centers Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 2 A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What is the reason for this? A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type. B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules. C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only. D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the system. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 3 Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true? (Choose two.) A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration. B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created. C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the channel group. D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate " across peer ports in an ISL. E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel. Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 4

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Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core? (Choose three.) A. virtualization B. unified I/O C. support for 48-port Gb/s line card D. support for Data Center Service Modules E. high performance F. high availability Correct Answer: BEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 5 Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct? A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or FCoE NPV mode. B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch. C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot function as a complete Fibre Channel Forwarder. D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features such as IVR. E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarder and Fibre Channel Bridge functions. Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces. B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces. C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID and destination ID load balancing are used. D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches. E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remain inactive. Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 7 Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager? A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switches B. save and copy configuration files and software images C. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channels

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D. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEX E. configure FCoE Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 8 What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.) A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switches B. Faster throughput C. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environment D. Support for increased number of VSANs E. Support for SAN port channels Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when a module that does not match the resource type is installed? A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state. B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated. C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0. D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 10 What is the mechanism that is used to allocate MAC addresses that are assigned to the VDC for the system MAC address? A. NX-OS uses a random MAC address from the IEEE OUI block that is assigned to Cisco. B. The VDC system MAC is pulled from the active supervisor and concatenated through a hash to ensure uniqueness. C. NX-OS uses a value that is based on a range that is assigned to the SPROM of the system backplane. D. The VDC system MAC is based on a range that is allocated to the first line card that is installed in the switch. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation: QUESTION 11 Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.) A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Enabled B. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Desired C. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: Disabled D. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: Desired E. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 12 In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configure full remote access via management 0? A. two IP addresses, one for each supervisor B. three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisor C. one IP address that is shared among supervisors D. none--management 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 13 VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods? (Choose two.) A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin status, from one device to another. B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs. C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes. D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled. E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings. Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 14 Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which method? A. changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216 B. using the command system jumbomtu 9216 C. using the command interface MTU 9216 D. configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoS policy map

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Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 15 Which two statements about authentication settings for DCNM-LAN are true? (Choose two.) A. If none of the authentication servers that are configured for the current authentication mode responds to an authentication request, the DCNM-LAN server falls back to local authentication. B. DCNM-LAN only supports TACACS+. C. Each DCNM-LAN server will have the same device credentials. D. Administering DCNM-LAN authentication settings requires an authentication license. E. DCNM-LAN server users are local to the DCNM-LAN server. Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 16 DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primary areas of this operation? A. analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoring B. DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device manager C. definition of flows, information collection, and data presentation D. SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender? A. The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo. B. The service policy must be applied to the system QoS. C. The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required. D. The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU 9216. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 18

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DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of these? (Choose three.) A. collecting the running configuration B. raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirement C. discovering all devices by default D. discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level accounts E. using LLDP to discover network adaptors Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 19 You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems? (Choose two.) A. Microsoft Windows Server B. Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise Server C. Oracle Enterprise Linux D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux E. VMware ESX Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20 Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features, including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.) A. GLBP B. HSRP C. IRDP D. VRRP Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 21 The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets that are addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. This feature enables local forwarding of such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link. Which statements are true about the vPC peer-gateway? (Choose two.) A. The vPC peer-gateway feature is enabled by default. B. The vPC peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vPC domain submode.

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C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect messages for packets switched through the peer gateway router. D. The vPC peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol. Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 22 Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and event notification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools. Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.) A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLI B. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XML C. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmt D. SoL and NX-OS E. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 23 A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device. Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.) A. Enable feature vPC B. Define domains C. Establish peer keepalive connectivity D. Create a peer link E. Configure the peer link as a trunk port F. Create port channels and vPCs G. Define port channel load-balancing method H. Make sure configurations are consistent Correct Answer: ABCDFH Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Answer: A,B,C,D,F,H Explanation: QUESTION 24 When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of operations that a role will allow the user to perform.

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Which two of these parameters cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.) A. port-profile B. command C. access-list D. feature-group E. OID Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 25 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast- capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user and where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.) A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface. B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain. C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface. D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain. Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 26 Refer to the exhibit.

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The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which two actions would reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.) A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time. B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time. C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over as the HSRP active router. D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over as the HSRP active router. E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150. F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50. Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 27 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network. Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.) A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 port channel, or Layer 3 port channel subinterface. B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay. C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface. D. Join interface can be a loopback interface. E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one. Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none)

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 28 Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 provides secure access to devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features are provided in Cisco NX-OS SNMPv3? (Choose three.) A. encryption--scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized sources B. password--a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for added protection C. authentication--determines that the message is from a valid source D. message integrity--ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transit E. user--to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 29 The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What are the differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain. B. Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain. C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links. D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport mode fabricpath). E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain. Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 30 Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of message formats are available for compatibility with pager services, standard email, or XML- based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when sending notifications. Which of these are predefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX- OS Software? (Choose three.) A. short-text-destination B. prerecorded audio alerts C. CiscoTAC-1 D. dial911 E. full-text-destination Correct Answer: ACE

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 31 After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog: %STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking port port-channel100 on VLAN0010. What is the cause of this message? A. STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled. B. STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled. C. An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port. D. A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2 communications? A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain. B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain. C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous ports. D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 33 On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automatically select root switches for each multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID. Which statements are true about system ID? (Choose two.) A. System ID is a unique 12-bit SID. B. System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address. C. Higher system ID is preferred. D. Lower system ID is preferred. Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 34 Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)

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A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices. B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices. C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions. D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers are down. Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC? A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a checkpoint B. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture enablement C. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP configuration D. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 36 What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration? A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface. B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface. C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface. D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 37 In a virtual port channel (vPC) configuration, VRRP exhibits which characteristic? A. VRRP does not work with vPC due to industry standard requirements B. VRRP works with vPC in traditional active/standby modes C. VRRP works with vPC in an active/active mode D. VRRP work with vPC as long as vPC peer-gateway is configured to address non-standard replies to the physical MAC address Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 38 On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, and what is the main purpose of virtual output queues? A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basis B. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16 queues C. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to other egress ports D. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual output queues E. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 39 On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component? A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU B. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU C. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU D. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 40 2012 Feb 23 23:00:08.676710 pim: [16132] (default-base) Received unauthenticated hello- message from 10.1.1.2 on Ethernet1/18, message discarded 2012 Feb 23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on Ethernet1/18 from 10.1.1.1, holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1 You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the command show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIM neighbor on the interface. What is the problem based on the debug output? A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18. B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18. C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18. D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18. E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18. Correct Answer: D Section: (none)

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 41 What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy? A. Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checks B. Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methods C. Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topology D. Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) configuration Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 42 Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on Cisco Nexus switches? A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors. B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration. C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying the "Pass Any Exam. Any Time." - configuration against the hardware and software resources available before applying it. D. Configuration sessions can be saved and resumed at any time, even after upgrading NX-OS Software on the switch with ISSU. E. Configuration sessions are global for all VDCs on the Nexus 7000. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 43 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform which tasks? A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site can transmit multicast and broadcast. B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network. C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a given VLAN within a site. D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 44

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Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose three.) A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature dhcp- snooping command. B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining the DHCP snooping binding database. C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until DHCP snooping is enabled globally and for each specific VLAN. D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the switch. E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration or the configuration of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP snooping feature. Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.) A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing, and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect on user accounts on managed devices. B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to managed devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on the discovered device has the network operator role. C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM-LAN server settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/write privileges on the discovered devices. D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use default credentials when you do not configure unique credentials for a device. E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are supported. Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 46 Nexus# conf t Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z. Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10 % Permission denied Nexus(config)# ? no Negate a command or set its defaults username Configure user information. end Go to exec mode exit Exit from command interpreter What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands?

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A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode. B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the creation of Layer 3 interfaces. C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator. D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode. E. The AAA server is currently not responding. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 47 Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM LAN? (Choose three.) A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are supported with any Cisco NX-OS Software managed device. B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by the DCNM server, and the administrator can supply the device management IP address and credentials. C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device. D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with configuration change management. E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived version. Correct Answer: CDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 48 Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose three.) A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required. B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled. C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts while providing the default router redundancy. D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration. E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is also removed. Correct Answer: ACE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 49

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Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB counters are collected and reported individually per VDC. B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration is possible. C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled. D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption. E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 50 Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is only compatible with other Cisco routers. B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart. When OSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA, which includes a grace period that tells NSF helpers to keep all LSAs that originated from the restarting interface. C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if it experiences a cold reboot. D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace period, or if the network experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2 neighbors tear down adjacency with the restarting OSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart. E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 51 Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software? A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config. B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session. C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions. D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software. E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for communication with the device. Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

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QUESTION 52 Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol bridges? A. C84C.75FA.6000 B. 0100.5E11.02FD C. C84C.76FA.6000 D. 4000.0000.0001 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 53 Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches? A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchange MAC reachability across the overlay network. You must enable IS-IS with the feature isis command before OTV adjacencies can be established. B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability with other OTV edge peers. C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically join the overlay network. D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast packets that are then sent to the other sites. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 54 How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vPC peers? A. IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peers B. Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vPC peer link C. IP ARP synchronization under the vPC domain configuration also synchronizes IGMP D. IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vPC peers Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 55 Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches? A. admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operator B. admin, read-only, network-admin, and network-operator C. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator D. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator (for Nexus 7000) and network- admin and network-operator (for other Nexus

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switches) E. admin and read-only Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 56 What does the command "IP ARP synchronize" do in a vPC configuration? A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutes B. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondary C. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restored D. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 57 Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120 IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120 IGMP snooping disabled Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled IGMP querier none Switch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled Link Local Groups suppression enabled Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0 Number of groups: 0 Active ports: Po100 Po111 Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output? A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command. B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state. C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI. D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode. E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 58 What is the default Time to Live (TTL) valuse in Cisco FabricPath? A. 128 B. 32 C. 64 D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 59 Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2, which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus 7000 switch? A. feature pim ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1 ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4 B. feature pim ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.1 2.2.2.2 ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.2 2.2.2.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4 C. interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode

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! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1 ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2 ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4 D. feature pim feature msdp ! interface loopback1 ip address 10.0.0.1/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! interface loopback2 ip address 2.2.2.2/32 ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0 ip pim sparse-mode ! ip msdp originator-id loopback1 ip msdp peer 10.0.0.2 connect-source loopback1 ip msdp description 10.0.0.2 To 7010-2 ip msdp password 10.0.0.2 mypassword ! ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 60 When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the overlay? A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control-group multicast address for transport B. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlay C. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group multicast address for transport D. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 61 Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data center? (Choose three.) A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode.

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B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before any multicast configuration is possible on the switch. C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM feature with the feature pim command. D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance. E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM. Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 62 On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command? switch# config terminal switch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 1-10 switch(config)# A. Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series module B. Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 110 C. No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs. D. Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 63 Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine, and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated? A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree is updated. B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated. C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated. D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 64 In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.) A. Root priority B. System ID C. Bridge ID

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D. Switch ID E. Port ID F. Subswitch ID Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 65 By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software? A. DSA key generated with 512 bits B. RSA key generated with 768 bits C. RSA key generated with 1024 bits D. DSA key generated with 1024 bits E. RSA key generated with 2048 bits Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 66 Refer to the exhibit.

Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch. B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on which traffic is to be forwarded. C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair. D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain. E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0. Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 67 In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU? A. GLBP redirect timer

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B. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timer C. GLBP hold timer D. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timer E. GLBP extended hold timer F. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 68 Refer to the exhibit.

vPC+ is configured between which switches? A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23 B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12 C. Switch-ID 100 only D. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 69 SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NXOS Software use for SNMPv3? (Choose two.) A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol B. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol C. Community String Match protocol D. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol E. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

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Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 70 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.) A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport. B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport. C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server. D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server. Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 71 Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose two.) A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs. B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed. C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs. D. Only options drop and forward are permitted. Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 72 Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a Virtual PortChannel (vPC) is created. During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration information to the other vPC peer in order to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a PortChannel. Which statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true? (Choose two.) A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default. B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended. C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode. D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended.

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Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 73 Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled? A. Cisco AV-pair B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute C. DH-CHAP challenge attribute D. privilege level attribute Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 74 Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true about LACP port priority? (Choose three.) A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535. B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP. C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the hot standby links within the port channel. D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier. E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 75 Nexus7000# config t Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11 Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50 Nexus700(config-if)# exit Nexus700(config)# What will this command sequence achieve? A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50 B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50 C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14 D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 76 Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer allocated to each QoS group? A. show interface priority-flow-control B. show interface queuing C. show queuing interface D. show policy-map system type queuing E. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 77 Refer to the exhibit.

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During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state. What's the cause of this issue? A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch. B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch. C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch. D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 78 With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total processes, and CPU state? A. show memory detailed B. show process cpu sorted C. show system resources D. show hardware capacity Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 79 What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS? A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the control-plane traffic. C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 80 Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system? (Choose four) A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a vPC domain. B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios C. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to the other when needed

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D. vPC member ports forming the PortChannel E. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peers F. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios. Correct Answer: ABCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 81 Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choose two.) A. port security B. fabric binding C. IVR D. port tracking E. FICON Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 82 Refer to the exhibit.

Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB. Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link? A. show fspf traffic vsan 10 B. show vsan 10 C. show trunk protocol D. show fcroute unicast vsan 10 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 83

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What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment? A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command C. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 84 Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX. B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links or channels. C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF. D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. active/active is supported. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 85 Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch? Flow ID. 44 Initiator VSAN: 200 Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:db Target VSAN: 200 Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:ef Target LUN: ALL LUNs Flow Verification Status: ------------------------- Initiator Verification Status: success Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server Initiator Linecard Status: success Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked Feature Status: --------------- Write-Acceleration enabled Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024 Configuration Status: flow verification failed A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist B. The zone set has not been activated C. The target is not logged into the fabric

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D. The pWWN used for the target is invalid Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 86 Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a lossless class of Ethernet traffic? A. LLDP B. LACP C. PFC D. FIP Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 87 Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE? A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabled B. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16 C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre Channel D. It's hard-set but can disable all but one class E. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 88 When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that can exist in the team? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 16 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

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QUESTION 89 Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel? A. Cannot be disabled B. Cannot have the CoS changed C. Can have "Packet Drop" enabled D. Is multicast optimized E. Can have the MTU changed Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 90 Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.) A. Priority flow control B. Buffer-to-buffer credits C. TCP retransmission D. Ethernet checksum E. QoS policies Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: Topic 2, Volume B QUESTION 91 Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric? A. show flogi database B. show system fc login C. show npv flogi-table D. show npv fcns database E. show interface vfc X flogi F. show interface flogi Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 92 Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause? A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated. B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE. C. The system is running with the default QOS policies. D. The link is oversubscribed.

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Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 93 On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.) A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabled B. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage C. FIP negotiation timing D. Peer does not support LLDP E. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 94 When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choose two.) A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module. B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module. C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module. D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module. Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 95 Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol? A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path. B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments. C. It is not used to build the FCoE links. D. It is used to ensure lossless transport. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 96 Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame? A. Ethernet FCS

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B. Source address C. Destination address D. EtherType E. Protocol type Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 97 What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.) A. Up to 25 m bus length B. Only one device per SCSI bus C. Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus D. Half-duplex operation E. Full-duplex operation Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 98 Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the directly connected FCoE host? A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port. B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port. C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the Fibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port. D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 99 A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch. Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue? switch# show npv status npiv is enabled External Interfaces: =============== InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other Number of External Interfaces: 4 A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch?

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B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down state C. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN? D. The local host interface is not able to login Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 100 Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose three.) A. use summary view in the device manager B. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down list C. for each port channel, select Monitor Continually D. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMON E. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for performance collections Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 101 A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 102 When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required?

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A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup. B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode active. C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode passive. D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink. E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode on. Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 103 How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 F. 5 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 104 Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.) A. accounting B. authentication C. authorization D. network monitoring E. network planning Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 105 Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS? A. channel-group auto mode on B. channel-group auto mode active C. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp D. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manual E. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning

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Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 106 vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose two.) A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSG B. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEM C. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC D. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow manager E. deep packet inspection Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 107 n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status Current Status : Enabled Running Config Status : Enabled Saved Config Status : Disabled What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.) A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v. B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch. C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM. D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM. E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances. Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 108 The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the Cisco NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature. DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default. When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for the vEthernet and uplink ports? A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted. B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.

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C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted. D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 109 When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these? A. Upstream switch B. Virtual Supervisor Module C. VMware distributed switch D. VMware vSwitch E. Service virtual machine Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 110 Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that traffic will be sent out upon? Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210 Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning State enabled Vmware port-group No shut Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200 Switchport mode access Switchport vlan 200 State enabled Vmware port-group No shut A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk B. show module 3 internal pinning C. module vem X execute vemcmd show port D. show module vem mapping E. show interface vethX pinning Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 111

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What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.) A. perform flow lookups B. intercept packets on service enabled ports C. run packets through the vPath flow manager D. classify the packets E. flow manager emits an action for the packets F. enforce the action determined by the flow manager Correct Answer: BCEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 112 A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs and is intended for use with an N1Kv. Interface fastethernet 1/10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut Interface fastethernet 1/11 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut Interface port-channel10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport allowed vlan all No shut Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile? A. MAC pinning B. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinning C. Mode On D. Mode Active E. No port channel configuration Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 113 DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choose three.) A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid response messages from DHCP servers B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports

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C. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses D. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts E. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding table entry or static IP source entry Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 114 A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine named VM001 using SPAN. The customer has another virtual machine configured as a sniffer host called VM002. What configuration is required, and what other changes will need to be made? (Choose two.) VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 5 Vethernet5 is up Port description is VM001, Network Adapter 2 HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.001e (bia 0050.56b0.001e) Owner is VM "VM001", adapter is Network Adapter 2 Active on module 5 VMware DVS port 484 Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10 Port mode is access VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 6 Vethernet6 is up Port description is VM002, Network Adapter 1 HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.0020 (bia 0050.56b0.0020) Owner is VM "VM002", adapter is Network Adapter 1 Active on module 5 VMware DVS port 485 Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10 Port mode is access A. Monitor session 1 type span Source interface veth5 both Destination interface veth6 No shut B. monitor session 1 source vlan 10 destination interface veth6 no shut C. monitor session 1 type er-span source interface vlan 10 destination ip 10.1.1.10 no shut D. VM002 must be removed from the Nk1V E. Move VM002 to Module 5 F. Restart the VEM on module 5 Correct Answer: AE Section: (none)

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 115 Given a host with two NICs assigned to a N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this type of configuration (Choose three.) port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Data vmware port-group switchport mode trunk switchport allowed vlan 400-410 channel-group auto mode active no shut state enabled A. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects B. Pair of N5K's in VPC. C. Standalone N5K D. Pair of N5K's in non-VPC E. Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 116 Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.) A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source D. Destination interface can be a physical port E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 117 What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv? A. Send monitored traffic to a VLAN B. Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2 C. Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interface D. Send monitored traffic to an IP destination Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 118 Given the following configuration: port-profile type ethernet DATA-UPLINK vmware port-group switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-3967,4048-4093 channel-group auto mode on no shutdown state enabled port-profile type ethernet MGMT-UPLINK vmware port-group switchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12 channel-group auto mode on no shutdown state enabled VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve this issue? A. Remove second NIC from each port profile B. Remove VEM from VSM (no vem X), remove NICs, and reinsert C. Ensure that VLANs on uplink profiles are not overlapping D. Reinstall VEM E. Issue the command "module vem X execute vemcmd set pinning module vsm 1" Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 119 The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator does not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter. The administrator issues the following command on the VSM to troubleshoot: VSM# show svs connections connection VC: ip address: 10.10.10.30 remote port: 80 protocol: vmware-vim https certificatE. default datacenter namE. DC1 DVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99 config status: Disabled operational status: Disconnected sync status: - version: - When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen: VSM-PRI-188# conf VSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VC VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use What is the cause of the error? A. Missing control VLAN in VSM configuration B. Missing packet VLAN in VSM configuration

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C. VSM has no network connection to vCenter D. VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter E. vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 120 Refer to the exhibit.

An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given below configuration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choose two.) VSM# show svs domain SVS domain config: Domain iD. 111 Control vlan: 500 Packet vlan: 501 L2/L3 Control modE. L2 L3 control interfacE. NA Status: Config push to VC successful. A. Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2 B. Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2 C. VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2 D. Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1 E. Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1 F. VLAN 111 is missing on all switches Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 121

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Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs? A. Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported. B. 16-GB DIMMs are too slow. C. The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB. D. The memory bus would be too long. E. The blade would run too hot. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 122 On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640 CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at? A. 800 MHz B. 900 MHz C. 1066 MHz D. 1333 MHz E. 1666 MHz Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 123 Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.) A. B200 B. C210 C. B250 D. C260 E. C460 Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 124 Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.) A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation. B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices. C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package. D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches. E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode. Correct Answer: BD

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 125 On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 12 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 126 Which statement about NPIV is true? A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port. B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis. C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode. D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches. E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 127 When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCS WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which value of ranges? A. from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF B. from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF C. from 30:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 30:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF D. from 40:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 40:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 128 Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which two statements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choose two.)

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A. Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint. B. Power capping helps reduce data center cooling. C. A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS domains. D. You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain. E. Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group. Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 129 Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upon disassociation? (Choose two.) A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased. B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed. C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved. D. If disk scrub is disabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration. E. If disk scrub is enabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration. Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 130 In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS blade system (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, and new blades), what type of backup would provide the most complete set of information? A. logical configuration B. all configuration C. full state D. system configuration Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 131 When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified? (Choose four.) A. name B. best-effort C. burst D. rate E. host control

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Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 132 Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during the discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile? A. boot policy and BIOS policy B. disk scrub and boot policy C. BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policy D. disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 133 Which of these commands will allow you to set end-host mode for SAN connectivity? A. UCS-A # scope fc-uplink UCS-A /fc-uplink # set mode end-host UCS-A /fc-uplink* # commit-buffer B. UCS-A# scope eth-uplink UCS-A /eth-uplink # set mode end-host WarninG. When committed, this change will cause the switch to reboot UCS-A /eth-uplink* # commit-buffer C. UCS-A# scope fabric-interconnect a UCS-A /fabric-interconnect # set mode end-host UCS-A /fabric-interconnect* # commit-buffer D. UCS-A# scope system UCS-A /system* # set mode end-host UCS-A /system* # commit-buffer Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 134 Which two statements about QoS options in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.) A. The QoS policy assigns a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA. B. Flow-control policies determine whether the uplink Ethernet ports in a Cisco UCS environment send and receive IEEE 802.3x pause frames when the send buffer for a port fills. C. If no system class is configured as CoS 0, the Fibre Channel system class is used. D. The user can configure QoS for these system classes: platinum, gold, silver, best effort, Fibre Channel.

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E. When configuring a system class, the type of adapter in a server may limit the maximum MTU supported. Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 135 Where are Cisco UCS vNICs created? A. In the blade BIOS B. In the operating system C. In the service profile D. In the card option ROM Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 136 Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.) A. End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode. B. In end-host mode, only hard pinning of vHBAs to Fibre Channel uplink ports is allowed. C. Making configuration changes between Fibre Channel switching mode and end-host mode is nondisruptive. D. End-host mode is the default Fibre Channel switching mode. Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 137 What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System? A. Fibre Channel storage B. UCS C-Series servers C. NFS storage D. UCS chassis E. Other fabric interconnect Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 138

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Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.) A. The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs. B. The number of vNICs on the Cisco VIC that can be created is determined by the number of chassis uplinks. C. vNICs are created using software on the host operating system. D. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a physical PCIe device. E. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a sub-interface of a primary NIC. F. The Cisco VIC can create 1024 vNICs. Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 139 In a Cisco Unified Computing System, What is the "designated receiver" port in end-host mode used for? A. Sending all broadcasts B. Receiving all traffic from upstream switches C. Receiving broadcast traffic D. Negotiating spanning tree with upstream switches E. Learning MAC addres?ses from upstream switch?es Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 140 Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode? A. Server B. End device C. Node D. Host E. Virtual Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 141 Given the following output: san-port-channel 12 is up Hardware is Fibre Channel Port WWN is 24:0c:00:0d:ec:d3:5c:00 Admin port mode is NP, trunk mode is on Port mode is NP Port vsan is 1

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Speed is 8 Gbps Member[1] : fc2/3 Member[2] : fc2/4 What does "Speed is 8 Gbps" indicate? A. The speed of the slowest interface in the port channel B. The combined speed of all interfaces configured in the port channel C. The combined speed of all interfaces in the port channel that are up D. The speed that can be achieved if all buffers are used Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 142 Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode? A. Trunk B. Physical C. Uplink D. Switch E. End host Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 143 Where are SAN Port Channel is created in UCS Manager? A. Under the Admin tab on the FI B. Under the Server tab in the service profile C. Under the SAN tab on each VSAN D. Under the Admin tab on the chassis E. Under the SAN tab on the Fabric Interconnect Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 144 In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to? A. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches B. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches in NPIV mode C. To any Fibre Channel switch D. Directly to storage arrays E. Only to Nexus Switches Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 145 When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager? A. During the initial configuration from the console B. Once the basic configuration has been applied C. To restore the configuration on a secondary fabric interconnect D. To upgrade the firmware on a replacement fabric interconnect Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 146 Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS? A. They are created automatically and stored on the FI B. They are created manually and exported to a remote server C. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hours D. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 147 What is the use of an "all configuration" backup in Cisco UCS? A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profiles B. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was created C. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster information D. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 148 Which statement is true about "full state backup" in a Cisco Unified Computing System? A. An XML file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details B. A binary file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configuration C. A binary file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster details D. An XML file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configuration

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E. A text file with the NX-OS running configuration Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 149 An administrator creates a vNIC and assigns it to Fabric A with the fabric failover feature enabled. Which statement is true? A. A unique vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B B. A vEthernet interface will be created only on Fabric A C. A vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A, and move across to Fabric B in the event of failure D. Fabric B will learn the vEthernet interface from Fabric A through a GARP E. The same vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 150 An administrator is creating a service profile but receives an error when applying to a blade. The administrator checks the faults tab of the service profile and finds the following error (Refer to the exhibit).

What is the cause of this error? A. vNIC has a Fibre Channel QoS policy assigned B. vHBA is assigned to a "best-effort" QoS policy C. vHBA has no QoS policy assigned D. vHBA is assigned to an incorrect VSAN E. vNIC has been assigned to an FCoE VLAN Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 151 What would be the cause for the following fault in UCS Manager? "ether VIF x / xxx down, reason: ENM source pinning failed" A. The associated VLANs of a vNIC are not found on an uplink. B. Overlapping VLAN IDs exist on upstream disjoint networks. C. The vNIC was not configured for fabric failover. D. The vNIC is pinned to the wrong fabric. E. Overlapping VSAN IDs exist on upstream SAN switches. F. The vHBA was not configured for failover.

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Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 152 Which three statements are possible causes for the "fltAdaptorHostIfLink-down" fault in UCS Manager? (Choose three.) A. The fabric interconnect is in the end-host mode, and all uplink ports have failed. B. The server port to which the adapter is pinned has failed. C. A transient error has caused the link to fail. D. The fabric interconnect is in the switch mode, and all uplink ports have failed. E. The link for a network-facing host interface is missing. Correct Answer: ABC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 153 On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? (Choose two.) A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packet B. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packet C. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3 D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4 Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 154 Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.) A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server interface failover. B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover. C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs. D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile. E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on uplink ports. Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 155

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Refer to the exhibit.

If uplink 1 fails, to which addresses will Fabric Interconnect B transmit a GARP on Uplink 2? A. AA and BB only B. C1 and C2 only C. A1, B1, AA, and BB D. AA, BB, C1, and C2 E. No GARPs will be transmitted Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 156 A Cisco UCS fabric interconnect in end-host mode learns MAC addresses on which port types? (Choose four.)

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A. Uplink Ethernet ports or border ports B. Appliance ports C. Server ports D. Fabric ports E. Backplane ports F. vEth interfaces G. A Fabric Interconnect doesn't learn MAC addresses in End Host mode. Pinning is used instead. Correct Answer: BCEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 157 Refer to the exhibit.

All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain is in end-host mode. Host A transmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4. Which statements are true? (Choose two.) A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports to Fabric Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B. B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame. C. All four vNICs receive a single copy of the broadcast frame.

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D. All four vNICs receive multiple copies of the broadcast frame on VLAN 4 but no broadcasts on any other VLAN. E. The spanning tree process prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame. F. The Reverse Path Forwarding mechanism prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame. Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 158 Refer to the exhibit.

Fabric Interconnect A, operating in end-host mode, receives an ingress frame with source MAC address 0025.b500.0035 on uplink Eth1/19. Which statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The frame will be accepted. Fabric Interconnect A will update its MAC address table to show that 0025.b500.0035 is dynamically learned on Eth1/19 and no longer dynamically learned on Eth5/1/6. B. Fabric Interconnect A will transmit a Gratuitous ARP for 0025.b500.0035 since it has moved ports, and the upstream network needs to be notified of the new location. C. Fabric Interconnect A will drop the frame. D. The MAC address table will not be updated as a result of receiving this frame on an uplink. E. Reverse Path Forwarding will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A. F. Deja vu will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A. Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 159 What is required for Cisco UCS C-Series rack server integration with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)

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A. Cisco UCS Manager 1.3(xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2248 FEXes B. Cisco UCS Manager 2.0(2xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2232 FEXes C. Two Cisco UCS 6100 Series or 6200 Series fabric interconnects D. Two RJ45 Ethernet cables E. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 160 Refer to the exhibit.

Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum, allow the configuration in the provided exhibit. Which Cisco UCS components will meet the requirement? (Choose three.) A. Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnects B. Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric Extender C. Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric Extenders D. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface Card E. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280 F. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander Correct Answer: AEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 161 Refer to the exhibit.

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According to the equipment tab in Cisco UCS Manager, which is true? A. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a server port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNIC B. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNIC C. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a backplane port, D is a server port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNIC D. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a DCE interface, E is a backplane port, and F is a vNIC E. A is an fabric port, B is a downlink port, C is an uplink port, D is a server port, E is a VIC interface, and F is a vNIC Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 162 Refer to the exhibit.

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The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network administrator notices that no traffic is traversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C). Which actions might be used to change this behavior? A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as the port channel IDs do not match. B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will always be the root bridge. C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the root bridge. D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they are a higher priority than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D). E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly connected. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 163 Refer to the exhibit.

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On which of the interfaces can VLANs be configured or modified within this Cisco UCS domain? A. VLANs can be configured or modified on all ports. B. A, D, E, and F. Ports B and C are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect. C. A, E, and F. Ports B, C, and D are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect. D. A and F only. No other ports may have their VLAN configurations modified manually. E. A only. VLANs are configured on uplinks and are automatically available on any other port with no configuration necessary. F. F only. VLANs are only modified in the service profile. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 164 Your company wants Server 1/eth0 (vNIC 1) configured so that it always uses Fabric Interconnect A Port Channel 1 (Po1) when it communicates with anything outside of the Cisco UCS domain. However, if vNIC 1 fails over to Fabric Interconnect B using fabric failover, then vNIC 1 can use any uplink port on Fabric Interconnect B. Which statements are true? (Choose two.) A. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode. B. A pin group must be configured on the server tab in Cisco UCS Manager. C. In the service profile for Server 1, vNIC 1 must be explicitly assigned to a pin group. D. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server can only be manually pinned to a single physical interface and not a port channel because of the LACP load-balancing algorithm. E. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server is either manually pinned to an uplink on both fabric interconnects or the server is automatically pinned, but not both.

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Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 165 Refer to the exhibit.

Your company would like to deploy this topology design. Which statement applies? A. The configuration cannot be implemented since all fabric interconnects are members of the same VLANs, and communication will not work properly for the Backup and Mgmt networks. B. The configuration cannot be implemented because only one disjointed layer 2 network is supporteD. either Backup Net or Mgmt Net, but not both. C. The Production Network and Backup Net topologies can be implemented. D. The Production Network and Management Net topologies can be implemented. E. The topology design can be implemented fully in Cisco UCS version 2.0 or later. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 166 What interface is created when an FC Port Channel is created on a Cisco Unified Computing System?

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A. An interface 'san-port-channel' in NXOS B. An interface 'port-channel' in NXOS C. An interface 'port-channel' with 'mode fc' configured D. An interface 'fc-port-channel' in NXOS Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 167 Refer to the exhibit.

You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is assigned to the MAC pool named "vmware". Which two possible MAC addresses could be assigned to the vNICs? (Choose two.) A. 00:25:B5:FF:00:01 B. 00:25:B5:EE:00:01 C. 00:25:B5:DD:00:01 D. 00:25:B5:BB:00:01 E. 00:25:B5:AA:00:01 Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

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QUESTION 168 From the Cisco UCS CLI, how do you verify which uplink ports a blade server is using for its network connectivity? A. UCS-A# show pinning border-interfaces B. UCS-B# show service-profile circuit C. UCS-B(nxos)# show pinning server-interfaces D. You must statically configure which uplink the blades should use, or you will not have connectivity. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 169 Server load balancing (SLB) is the process of deciding to which server a load-balancing device should send a client request for service. Which predictors are supported on ACE in order to select the best server to fulfill a client request? (Choose three.) A. Hash address: Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination IP address, or both B. Hash URL: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the requested URL C. Hash MAC. Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination MAC address, or both D. Hash header: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the HTTP header name E. Hash IP: Selects the server using a hash value based on the IP address Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 170 Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). A probe can be one of many types. Which are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.) A. HTTP B. Java scripting C. TCL scripting D. RADIUS E. TACACS Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 171 When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.) A. The interface is shut down

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B. An access list is denying ICMP C. Routing is not configured properly D. vip icmp-reply is inactive Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 172 Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is being used as the DNS? A. Client IP B. Proxy IP C. Client and proxy IP D. Neither client nor proxy IP Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 173 In the event of a GSS failure in a GSS cluster, which is true? A. The current connections are rerouted via the backup GSS B. Secondary GSS cannot be used to configure the GSS cluster C. All remaining GSSs in the cluster continue responding to any new queries D. All records in the GSS database are flushed and reconstructed again using a new master GSS Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 174 A Cisco Application Control Engine Appliance (ACE) non-admin context does not support "sticky" configuration. What is the reason for this issue? A. ACE sticky license is not installed B. ACE stickiness is not supported in a non-admin context C. ACE stickiness resources are not defined in an admin context D. Stickiness is configured properly in the CCIE virtual context Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation:

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QUESTION 175 Which is true when describing a connection replication in Cisco ACE? A. It is not supported for SSL connections. B. It is not supported for non-SSL connections. C. It can only be configured manually. D. It has a maximum limit of 50,000 replicated connections. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 176 Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.) A. Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNS B. Responds to a DNS query with A-record C. Forwards queries to a name server D. Multiple A-records E. DHCP functionality for the local hosts Correct Answer: BCD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 177 KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true about KAL-AP? A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive. B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries. C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives. D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 178 What is the purpose of this command in a Cisco Application Control Engine? switch/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-F0 v" A. It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver. B. It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP. C. It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server. D. It shows details on HTTP session entries. Correct Answer: A

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: Explanation: QUESTION 179 Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 180 Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 1 Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine, and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated? A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree is updated. B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated. C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated. D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation

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Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 2 In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select the root? (Choose three.) A. Root priority B. System ID C. Bridge ID D. Switch ID E. Port ID F. Subswitch ID Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 3 By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software? A. DSA key generated with 512 bits B. RSA key generated with 768 bits C. RSA key generated with 1024 bits D. DSA key generated with 1024 bits E. RSA key generated with 2048 bits Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 4 Refer to the exhibit.

Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.) A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch. B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on which traffic is to be forwarded. C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair. D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain. E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0. Correct Answer: BCE Section: (none)

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 5 In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU? A. GLBP redirect timer B. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timer C. GLBP hold timer D. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timer E. GLBP extended hold timer F. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.

vPC+ is configured between which switches? A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23 B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12 C. Switch-ID 100 only D. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100 Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 7 SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NXOS

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Software use for SNMPv3? (Choose two.) A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol B. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol C. Community String Match protocol D. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocol E. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol Correct Answer: BE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 8 Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domains independent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTV Adjacency Server? (Choose two.) A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport. B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport. C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server. D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server. Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 9 Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose two.) A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs. B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed. C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs. D. Only options drop and forward are permitted. Correct Answer: BC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 10 Which two statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true? A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default. B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended. C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode.

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D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended. Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 11 Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled? A. Cisco AV-pair B. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attribute C. DH-CHAP challenge attribute D. privilege level attribute Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 12 Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true about LACP port priority? (Choose three.) A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535. B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP. C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the hot standby links within the port channel. D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier. E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 13 Nexus7000# config t Nexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11 Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50 Nexus700(config-if)# exit Nexus700(config)# What will this command sequence achieve? A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50 B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50 C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14 D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 14 Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer allocated to each QoS group? A. show interface priority-flow-control B. show interface queuing C. show queuing interface D. show policy-map system type queuing E. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 15 Refer to the exhibit.

During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state. What's the cause of this issue?

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A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch. B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch. C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch. D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 16 With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total processes, and CPU state? A. show memory detailed B. show process cpu sorted C. show system resources D. show hardware capacity Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 17 What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS? A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the control-plane traffic. C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic. D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 18 Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from a single device and as part of a single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system? (Choose four) A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a vPC domain. B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios C. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to the other when needed D. vPC member ports forming the PortChannel E. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peers F. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios. Correct Answer: ABCD

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: answer is corrected and modified. QUESTION 19 Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choose two.) A. port security B. fabric binding C. IVR D. port tracking E. FICON Correct Answer: CE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 20 Refer to the exhibit.

Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB. Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link? A. show fspf traffic vsan 10 B. show vsan 10 C. show trunk protocol D. show fcroute unicast vsan 10 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 21 What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment? A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command B. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command C. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command

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Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 22 Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true? A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX. B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links or channels. C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF. D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only active/active is supported. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 23 Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch? Flow ID. 44 Initiator VSAN: 200 Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:db Target VSAN: 200 Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:ef Target LUN: ALL LUNs Flow Verification Status: ------------------------- Initiator Verification Status: success Target Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server Initiator Linecard Status: success Target Linecard Status: Status not yet checked Feature Status: --------------- Write-Acceleration enabled Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024 Configuration Status: flow verification failed A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not exist B. The zone set has not been activated C. The target is not logged into the fabric D. The pWWN used for the target is invalid Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 24 Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a lossless class of Ethernet traffic?

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A. LLDP B. LACP C. PFC D. FIP Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 25 Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE? A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabled B. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16 C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre Channel D. It's hard-set but can disable all but one class E. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 26 When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximum number of physical links that can exist in the team? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 16 Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 27 Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel? A. Cannot be disabled B. Cannot have the CoS changed C. Can have "Packet Drop" enabled D. Is multicast optimized E. Can have the MTU changed Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 28 Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.) A. Priority flow control B. Buffer-to-buffer credits C. TCP retransmission D. Ethernet checksum E. QoS policies Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 29 Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric? A. show flogi database B. show system fc login C. show npv flogi-table D. show npv fcns database E. show interface vfc X flogi F. show interface flogi Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: In a Fibre Channel fabric, each host or disk requires an FCID. Use the show flogi database command to verify if a storage device is displayed in the Fabric login (FLOGI) table as in the examples below. If the required device is displayed in the FLOGI table, the fabric login is successful. Examine the FLOGI database on a switch that is directly connected to the host HBA and connected ports. Examples The following example displays details on the FLOGI database. switch# show flogi database --------------------------------------------------------------------------- INTERFACE VSAN FCID PORT NAME NODE NAME --------------------------------------------------------------------------- sup-fc0 2 0xb30100 10:00:00:05:30:00:49:63 20:00:00:05:30:00:49:5e fc9/13 1 0xb200e2 21:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c 20:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c fc9/13 1 0xb200e1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 fc9/13 1 0xb200d1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64 fc9/13 1 0xb200ce 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb fc9/13 1 0xb200cd 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7 Total number of flogi = 6. ReferencE. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/san- os/command/reference/CR02_sh.html#wp1248139 QUESTION 30 Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause? A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated. B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE.

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C. The system is running with the default QOS policies. D. The link is oversubscribed. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 31 On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.) A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabled B. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storage C. FIP negotiation timing D. Peer does not support LLDP E. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled Correct Answer: ABD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 32 When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choose two.) A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module. B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module. C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module. D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module. Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 33 Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol? A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path. B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments. C. It is not used to build the FCoE links. D. It is used to ensure lossless transport. Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 34 Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame? A. Ethernet FCS B. Source address C. Destination address

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D. EtherType E. Protocol type Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 35 What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.) A. Up to 25 m bus length B. Only one device per SCSI bus C. Up to 16 devices per SCSI bus D. Half-duplex operation E. Full-duplex operation Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 36 Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the directly connected FCoE host? A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port. B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port. C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the Fibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port. D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 37 A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch. Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason of this issue? switch# show npv status npiv is enabled External Interfaces: =============== InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other Number of External Interfaces: 4 A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch? B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down state C. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN? D. The local host interface is not able to login Correct Answer: B

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 38 Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose three.) A. use summary view in the device manager B. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down list C. for each port channel, select Monitor Continually D. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMON E. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for performance collections Correct Answer: ABE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 39 A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 40 When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required?

A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup. B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode active. C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode passive. D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink. E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode on.

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Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 41 How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment? A. 0 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. 4 F. 5 Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 42 Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.) A. accounting B. authentication C. authorization D. network monitoring E. network planning Correct Answer: ADE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 43 Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS? A. channel-group auto mode on B. channel-group auto mode active C. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdp D. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manual E. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 44 vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose two.) A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSG B. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEM

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C. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMC D. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow manager E. deep packet inspection Correct Answer: AB Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 45 n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload status Current Status : Enabled Running Config Status : Enabled Saved Config Status : Disabled What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.) A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v. B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch. C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM. D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM. E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances. Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 46 The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphere environments running the Cisco NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link server virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature. DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default. When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for the vEthernet and uplink ports? A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted. B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted. C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted. D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted. Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 47 When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these? A. Upstream switch B. Virtual Supervisor Module C. VMware distributed switch

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D. VMware vSwitch E. Service virtual machine Correct Answer: E Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 48 Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that traffic will be sent out upon? Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-data Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210 Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning State enabled Vmware port-group No shut Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200 Switchport mode access Switchport vlan 200 State enabled Vmware port-group No shut A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunk B. show module 3 internal pinning C. module vem X execute vemcmd show port D. show module vem mapping E. show interface vethX pinning Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 49 What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.) A. perform flow lookups B. intercept packets on service enabled ports C. run packets through the vPath flow manager D. classify the packets E. flow manager emits an action for the packets F. enforce the action determined by the flow manager Correct Answer: BCEF Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 50 A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs and is intended for use with an N1Kv.

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Interface fastethernet 1/10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut Interface fastethernet 1/11 Switchport mode trunk Switchport trunk allowed vlan all Channel-group 10 mode on No shut Interface port-channel10 Switchport mode trunk Switchport allowed vlan all No shut Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile? A. MAC pinning B. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinning C. Mode On D. Mode Active E. No port channel configuration Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 51 DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choose three.) A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid response messages from DHCP servers B. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted ports C. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP addresses D. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts E. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding table entry or static IP source entry Correct Answer: ACD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 52 A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine named VM001 using SPAN. The customer has another virtual machine configured as a sniffer host called VM002. What configuration is required, and what other changes will need to be made? (Choose two.) VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 5 Vethernet5 is up Port description is VM001, Network Adapter 2

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HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.001e (bia 0050.56b0.001e) Owner is VM "VM001", adapter is Network Adapter 2 Active on module 5 VMware DVS port 484 Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10 Port mode is access VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 6 Vethernet6 is up Port description is VM002, Network Adapter 1 HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.0020 (bia 0050.56b0.0020) Owner is VM "VM002", adapter is Network Adapter 1 Active on module 5 VMware DVS port 485 Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10 Port mode is access A. Monitor session 1 type span Source interface veth5 both Destination interface veth6 No shut B. monitor session 1 source vlan 10 destination interface veth6 no shut C. monitor session 1 type er-span source interface vlan 10 destination ip 10.1.1.10 no shut D. VM002 must be removed from the Nk1V E. Move VM002 to Module 5 F. Restart the VEM on module 5 Correct Answer: AE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 53 Given a host with two NICs assigned to a N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this type of configuration (Choose three.) port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Data vmware port-group switchport mode trunk switchport allowed vlan 400-410 channel-group auto mode active no shut state enabled A. Cisco UCS fabric interconnects B. Pair of N5K's in VPC. C. Standalone N5K D. Pair of N5K's in non-VPC E. Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS Correct Answer: BCE

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 54 Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.) A. Source and destination interface must be on the same host B. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hosts C. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the source D. Destination interface can be a physical port E. Destination interface cannot be a physical port Correct Answer: AD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 55 What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv? A. Send monitored traffic to a VLAN B. Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2 C. Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interface D. Send monitored traffic to an IP destination Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 56 Given the following configuration: port-profile type ethernet DATA-UPLINK vmware port-group switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-3967,4048-4093 channel-group auto mode on no shutdown state enabled port-profile type ethernet MGMT-UPLINK vmware port-group switchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12 channel-group auto mode on no shutdown state enabled VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve this issue? A. Remove second NIC from each port profile B. Remove VEM from VSM (no vem X), remove NICs, and reinsert C. Ensure that VLANs on uplink profiles are not overlapping D. Reinstall VEM E. Issue the command "module vem X execute vemcmd set pinning module vsm 1" Correct Answer: C

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Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 57 The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator does not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter. The administrator issues the following command on the VSM to troubleshoot: VSM# show svs connections connection VC: ip address: 10.10.10.30 remote port: 80 protocol: vmware-vim https certificatE. default datacenter namE. DC1 DVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99 config status: Disabled operational status: Disconnected sync status: - version: - When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen: VSM-PRI-188# conf VSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VC VSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connect ERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use What is the cause of the error? A. Missing control VLAN in VSM configuration B. Missing packet VLAN in VSM configuration C. VSM has no network connection to vCenter D. VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter E. vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 58 Refer to the exhibit.

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An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given below configuration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choose two.) VSM# show svs domain SVS domain config: Domain iD. 111 Control vlan: 500 Packet vlan: 501 L2/L3 Control modE. L2 L3 control interfacE. NA Status: Config push to VC successful. A. Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2 B. Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2 C. VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2 D. Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1 E. Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1 F. VLAN 111 is missing on all switches Correct Answer: AC Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 59 Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs? A. Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported. B. 16-GB DIMMs are too slow. C. The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB. D. The memory bus would be too long. E. The blade would run too hot. Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 60 On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640 CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at? A. 800 MHz B. 900 MHz C. 1066 MHz D. 1333 MHz E. 1666 MHz Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 61 Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.) A. B200 B. C210 C. B250 D. C260 E. C460 Correct Answer: CD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 62 Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.) A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation. B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices. C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package. D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches. E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode. Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 63 On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 E. 12 Correct Answer: A Section: (none)

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Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 64 Which statement about NPIV is true? A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port. B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis. C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode. D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches. E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization. Correct Answer: A Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 65 When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCS WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which value of ranges? A. from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF B. from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF C. from 30:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 30:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF D. from 40:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 40:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF Correct Answer: B Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 66 Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which two statements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choose two.) A. Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint. B. Power capping helps reduce data center cooling. C. A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS domains. D. You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain. E. Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group. Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 67 Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upon disassociation? (Choose two.) A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased. B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed. C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved.

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D. If disk scrub is disabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration. E. If disk scrub is enabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration. Correct Answer: BD Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 68 In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS blade system (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, and new blades), what type of backup would provide the most complete set of information? A. logical configuration B. all configuration C. full state D. system configuration Correct Answer: C Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 69 When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified? (Choose four.) A. name B. best-effort C. burst D. rate E. host control Correct Answer: ACDE Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference: QUESTION 70 Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during the discovery process and when the server is disassociated from a service profile? A. boot policy and BIOS policy B. disk scrub and boot policy C. BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policy D. disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub Correct Answer: D Section: (none) Explanation Explanation/Reference:

013-33241269 hiva-network€¦ · which two statements about san port channels configured on cisco...

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