04-jee main full length test-04!28!03-2016

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      JEE Main

    Subject Topic Mock Test – 04 Date

    C + M + P  Full Length Mock Test – 04 JEE Main – 12 – MT

    28th Mar 2016 JM1220150408

    Max. Marks: 360 Duration: 3 Hours

    1. This paper consists of 90 questions with 3 parts of Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics

    Each Part consists of 2 Sections

      Part  –  A :  27 Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4

     Marks. A wrong answer carries a penalty of 1 mark.

      Part  –  B :  3 Assertion and Reason type questions. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong

    answer carries a penalty of 1 mark.

    2. The OMR sheet for 200 questions is to be used

    3. Use of calculators and log tables is prohibited 

    4. Darken the appropriate bubble using a pen in the OMR sheet provided to you. Once

    entered, the answer cannot be changed. Any corrections or modifications will

    automatically draw a penalty of 1 mark

    5. No clarification will be entertained during the examination. Doubts in the paper can

    be reported to the coordinator after the exam

    6. If the details in the OMR Sheet are not filled, If the OMR sheet is mutilated, torn, white

    Ink used, the circles filled and scratched, then the OMR sheet will not be graded 

    All the best!! 

    Useful Data

    At. Wt.:

    N = 14; O = 16; H = 1; S = 32; Cl = 35.5; Mn = 55; Na = 23; C = 12; Ag = 108; K = 39; Fe = 56; Pb = 207

    Physical Constants:

    346.626 10 Jsh  , 23 -1a N 6.022 10 mol ,

    8 -1c 2.998 10 ms , 31em 9.1 10 kg

     

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    Chemistry

    Part –

     A

    Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong

    answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. 27 x 4 = 108

    1.  A Zwitter ion is

    (a)  negatively charged ion without metal atom

    (b) 

    heavy ion with a small charge on it

    (c)  an ion with positive and negative charge at different points on it

    (d) 

    a positively charged ion without a metal ion

    2. 

    Which of the following hexoses will form the same osazone when treated with excess of phenyl

    hydrazine?

    (a) D-glucose, D-fructose and D-galactose (b) D-glucose, D-fructose and Mannose

    (c) D – glucose, D-mannose and D-galactose (d) D-fructose, D-mannose and D-galactose

    3.  Which of the following is the strongest base?

    (a) (b)

    (c) (d)

    4. 

    403 300

     LiAlH    Cu Dilute

     NaOH C CH COOH X Y Z     In the above reaction Z is

    (a) butanol (b) aldol (c) ketol (d) acetol

    NH2  NH CH3

    NH2 

    CH3

    CH2  NH2 

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    5. 

    32 2

     H  H O

     RCOOH X RCH NH 

     Identify the X in the above sequence.(a) Alkane nitrile (b) Alkyl isonitrile (c) Aldoxime (d) Alkyl nitrile

    6.  Which of the following compounds would be the main product of an aldol condensation of

    acetaldehyde and acetone?

    (a) 3   .CH CH CH CHO   (b) 3 3CH CH CHCOCH   

    (c) 3 2   .CH C CH CHO   (d) 3 32CH C CHCOCH    

    7. 

    Both HCHO and 3CH CHO gives similar reactions with all the reagents except

    (a) Schiff reagent (b) Fehling solution (c) Ammoniacal 3 AgNO  (d) Ammonia

    8. 

    Which of the following is expected to be aromatic?

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    9.  Which of the following complexes are diamagnetic ?

    (A) 4   6 K Fe CN    (B) 3   6 K Cr CN   

    (C) 3   6 K Co CN    (D) 2   4 K Ni CN   

    (a) (A), (B) and (C) (b) (B), (C) and (D) (c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (A), (B) and (D)

    10.  The hybridization of central metal ion and shape of wilkinson’s catalyst is 

    (a) 3 , sp d  trigonal bipyramidal (b) 3, sp tetrahedral

    (c) 2 ,dsp square planar (d) 2 2 ,d sp octahedral

    11. 

    Most basic hydroxide among the following is

    (a) 3 Lu OH    (b) 3 Eu OH    (c) 3Yb OH    (d) 3Ce OH   

    H

    H

    +

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    12. 

    Identify the incorrect statement among the following

    (a)  Ozone reacts with 2SO  to gives 3SO  

    (b)  Silicon reacts with NaOH(aq) in the presence of air to give 2 3 Na SiO and 2 H O  

    (c) 2Cl  reacts with excess of 3 NH  to give 2 N  and HCl

    (d) 2 Br  reacts with cold and dilute NaOH solution to give NaBr, 3 NaBrO and 2 H O  

    13.  In pyrophosphoric acid, 4 2 7 H P O , number of   bonds and d p   bonds are respectively

    (a) 8 and 2 (b) 6 and 2 (c) 12 and zero (d) 12 and 2

    14. 

    Which of the following can show oxidation state higher than +3?

    (a) B (b) Al (c) Ce (d) Ga

    15.  Which pair of the following chlorides do not impart colour to the flame?

    (a) 2 BeCl  and 2SrCl    (b) 2 BeCl  and 2 MgCl   

    (c) 2CaCl  and 2 BaCl    (d) 2 BaCl  and 2SrCl   

    16. 

    Extraction for zinc from zinc blende is achieved by

    (a) 

    electrolytic reduction

    (b) 

    roasting followed by reduction with carbon

    (c)  roasting followed by reduction with another metal

    (d)  roasting followed by self-reduction

    17.  Peptisation denotes

    (a) digestion of food

    (b) hydrolysis of proteins

    (c) breaking and dispersion into colloidal state

    (d) precipitation of solid from colloidal dispersion.

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    18.  The concentration of a reactant X decreases from 0.1 M to 0.005M in 40 min. If the reaction follows

    first order kinetics, the rate of the reaction when the concentration of X is 0.01 M will be

    (a) 4 11.73 10 min M    (b) 4 13.47 10 min M    (c)5 1

    3.47 10 min M    (d) 4 17.5 10 min M   

    19. 

    Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCl solution was carried out by passing 10mA current. The time

    required to liberate 0.01 mole of 2 H  gas at the cathode is (1F1

    96500 )C mol   

    (a) 49.65 10   s   (b) 419.3 10   s   (c) 428.95 10   s   (d) 438.6 10   s  

    20.  Osmotic pressure of 0.4% urea solution is 1.64 atm and that of 3.42% cane sugar is 2.46 atm. When the

    above two solutions are mixed, the osmotic pressure of the resulting solution is

    (a) 0.82 atm (b) 2.46 atm (c) 1.64 atm (d) 4.10 atm

    21.  a K  for HCN is10

    5 10 at 025 .C  For maintaining a constant pH = 9, the volume of 5 M KCN solution

    required to be added to 10 mL of 2 M HCN solution is antilog 0.699 5of      

    (a) 2 mL (b) 4 mL (c) 8.2 mL (d) 6.4 mL

    22.  Two moles of 5 PCl   is heated in a closed vessel of 2L capacity. When the equilibrium is attained 40%

    of it has been found to be dissociated. What is the c K   in mol/  3

    ?dm  

    (a) 0.532 (b) 0.266 (c) 0.133 (d) 0.174

    23. 

    Among the following, the pair in which the two species are not isostructural is

    (a) 3 IO  and 3 XeO   (b) 6 PF 

     and 6SF    (c) 4 BH   and 4 NH 

      (d) 23CO  and 2 NO

     

    24. 

    In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3 rd of

    tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be

    (a) 4 3 X Y    (b) 2 3 X Y    (c) 2 X Y    (d) 3 4 X Y   

    25.  If temperature of 1 mole of a gas is increased by 50   C  , calculate the change in kinetic energy of the

    system.

    (a) 623.25 J (b) 6.235 J (c) 62.35 J (d) 6235.0 J

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    26.  Which of the following complexes is expected to be coloured ?

    (a) 3 4Ti NO   (b) 3 4Cu NCCH BF  

      (c)   4

    6 Fe CN 

      (d) 3 6 K VF   

    27. 

    Which alcohol will be most reactive for dehydration?

    Part  – B

    Assertion and Reason type questions. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong answer carries

    a penalty of 1 mark 3 x 4 = 12

    (A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

    (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

    (C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

    (D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

    28. 

    Assertion (A): Benzoic acid does not give Friedel-Craft’s reaction 

    Reason (R): Benzoic acid is obtained by catalytic oxidation of toluene with air in presence of Co-Mn

    catalyst

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

    CH3  CH CH2  CN

    OH

    (a) CH3  CH CH2  NO2 

    OH

    (b)

    CH3  CH CH2  COCH3 

    OH

    (c) CH3  CH CH2  CHO

    OH

    (d)

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    29. 

    Assertion (A): Cycloalkenes decolourise the purple colour of dilute and cold 4 KMnO or colour of

    bromine in carbon tetrachloride

    Reason (R): Cycloalkenes undergo the electrophilic addition reactions which are characteristic of

    alkenes

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

    30.  Assertion (A): Ozone is a powerful oxidizing agent in comparison to 2O  

    Reason (R): Ozone is diamagnetic but 2O is paramagnetic

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

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    Mathematics

    Part –

     A

    Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong

    answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. 27 x 4 = 108

    31. 

    The number of solution of tan sec 2cos x x x in [0,2 )  is

    (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1

    32.  If 0   x      and1

    cos sin ,2

     x x  then tan x is

    (a) 1 7

    4

      (b)

    4 7

    3

      (c)

    4 73

      (d) 1 7

    4

     

    33.   z and w are two nonzero complex numbers such that  z w  and  Arg z Arg w      then  z   equals

    (a)     (b)     (c)    (d)    

    34. 

    Let  z and w be complex numbers such that 0 z iw and arg zw      . Then arg z equals

    (a)5

    4

       (b)

    2

      

      (c)3

    4

       (d)

    4

      

     

    35.  If one root of the equation 2 12 0 x px  is 4, while the equation 2 0 x px q has equal roots, then

    the value of ' 'q is

    (a) 4 (b) 12 (c) 3 (d)49

    36.  If the roots of the equation 2 0bx cx a be imaginary then for all real values of , x  then expression

    2 2 23 6 2b x bcx c  is:

    (a) less than 4ab   (b) greater than 4ab  

    (c) less than 4ab   (d) greater than 4ab  

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    37.  The number of ways in which 6 men and 5 women can dine at a round table if no two women are to

    sit together is given by

    (a) 7 ! 5 !   (b) 6 ! 5 !   (c) 30 !   (d) 5 ! 4 !  

    38. 

    Total number of four digit odd numbers that can be formed using 0,1, 2,3,5,7 (using repetition is

    allowed) are

    (a) 216 (b) 375 (c) 400 (d) 720

    39. 

    If  x is positive, the first negative term in the expansion of 27 5

    1   x  is

    (a) 6th term (b) 7th term (c) 5th term (d) 8th term

    40. 

    The coefficient of the middle term in the binomial expansion in powers of  x of 4

    1   x  and of

    6

    1   x   is the same if    equals

    (a)3

    5  (b)

    10

    3  (c)

    3

    10

      (d)

    5

    3

     

    41. 

    Let r T  be the rth term of an A.P. whose first term is ‘a’ and common difference is ‘   '.d   If for some

    positive integers 1 1, , , ,m nm n m n T and T then a d  n m

    equals

    (a)1 1

    m n   (b) 1 (c)

    1

    mn  (d) 0

    42. 

    The sum of the first n terms of the series 2 2 2 2 2 61 2.2 3 2.4 5 2.6 ..... is

    21

    2

    n n when n  is

    even. When n  is odd the sum is

    (a)

      21

    2

    n n

      (b) 2 1

    2

    n n   (c)

    2

    1

    4

    n n   (d)

    3 1

    2

    n n

     

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    50.  Angle between the tangents to the curve 2 5 6 y x x at the points 2,0 and 3,0  is

    (a)     (b)2

      

      (c)6

      

      (d)4

      

     

    51. 

    If :  f R S  , defined by   sin 3 cos 1,  f x x x  is onto, then the interval of S   is

    (a) 1,3   (b) 1,1   (c) 0,1   (d) 0,3  

    52. 

    The domain of the function   1

    2

    sin 3

    9

     x  f x

     x

     is

    (a) 1, 2   (b) [2,3)   (c) 1, 2   (d) 2,3  

    53. 

    The value of

    2

    2

    0

    0

    sec

    limsin

     x

     x

    tdt 

     x x

     is

    (a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

    54. 

    If  f  is a real valued differentiable function satisfying 2

    , ,  f x f y x y x y R  and 0 0,  f      

    then 1  f    equals

    (a) 1   (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 1

    55. 

    Let  

      11 sin 1

    1

    0 1

     x if x  f x   x

    ifx

     

     

     Then which one of the following is true?

    (a)  f   is neither differentiable at 0 x  nor at 1 x   

    (b)  f  is differentiable at 0 x  and at 1 x   

    (c)  f  is differentiable at 0 x   but not at 1 x   

    (d)  f  is differentiable at 1 x   but not at 0 x   

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    56.  If the roots of the equation 2 0 x bx c be two consecutive integers, then 2 4b c equals

    (a) 2   (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

    57. 

    Let : 1,1  f R be a differentiable function with 0 1  f     and ' 0 1.  f      Let

      2

    2 2 g x f f x . Then ' 0 g     

    (a)   4   (b) 0 (c) 2   (d) 4

    Part  – B

    Assertion and Reason type questions. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong answer carries

    a penalty of 1 mark 3 x 4 = 12

    (A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

    (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

    (C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

    (D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

    58.  Let  A be a 2 2  matrix

    Assertion (A): adj (adj A) = A

    Reason (R): adj A A  

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

    59. 

    Let :  f R R be a continuous function defined by   1

    2 x x

      f xe e

     

    Assertion (A):   1

    ,3

      f c   for some  x R  

    Reason (R):   1

    0 ,2 2

      f x  for all  x R  

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

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    60.  Consider the planes 3 6 2 15 x y z  and 2 2 5 x y z   

    Assertion (A): The parametric equations of the line of intersection of the given planes are

    3 14 , 1 2 , 15 x t y t z t  . because

    Reason (R): The vector ˆˆ ˆ14 2 15i j k  is parallel to the line of intersection of given planes

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

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    Physics

    Part –

     A

    Multiple Choice Questions with one correct answer. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong

    answer carries a penalty of 1 mark. 27 x 4 = 108

    61.  In CE  transistor amplifier, we can measure the  AC variations across the input and output terminals

    by

    (a) blocking the  AC voltage by large inductors

    (b) blocking the  AC voltage by large capacitors

    (c) blocking the  DC voltage by large inductors

    (d) blocking the  DC voltage by large capacitors

    62. 

    In amplitude modulation, the value of modulation index should be 

    (a) 1   (b) 1   (c) 1   (d) 1  

    63.  From what minimum height h must the system be released when spring is

    unstretched so that after perfectly inelastic collision 0e  with ground, B may

    be lifted off the ground (spring constant   k  )?

    (a) / 4mg k    (b) 4 /mg k  

    (c) / 2mg k    (d) none of these

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    64. 

    A mass m is moving at speed v perpendicular to a rod of length d 

    and mass 6 M   m which pivots around a frictionless axle running

    through its center. It strikes and sticks to the end of the rod. The

    moment of inertia of the rod about its center is 2 /12 Md  . Then the

    angular speed of the system just after the collision is

    (a)2

    3

    v

    d   (b)

    2v

    d  

    (c)v

    d   (d)

    3

    2

    v

    d  

    65. 

    A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating with angular speed 0  about a diameter. If its temperature is

    now increased by100  C . What will be its new angular speed? (Given 52.0 10 B   per   C )

    (a) 1.1   0    (b) 1.01   0    (c) 0.996   0    (d) 0.824   0   

    66. 

    One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes process 2T V  and temperature of gas changes

    from 300 K   to 1200 K   then work done by the gas is

    (a) 400 R   (b) 450 R   (c) 900 R   (d) 600 R  

    67. 

    A physical pendulum is positioned so that its center of gravity is above the suspension point. When

    the pendulum is released it passes the point of stable equilibrium with an angular velocity  . The

    period of small oscillations of the pendulum is

    (a)4 

       (b)

       (c)

      

     

      (d)2

     

      

    68. 

    Two canoes are 10 m apart on a lake. Each bobs up and down with a period of 4.0 s. When one canoe

    is at its highest point, the other canoe is at its lowest point. Both canoes are always within a single

    cycle of the waves. Determine the speed of the wave.

    (a) 2.5 m/s (b) 5 m/s (c) 40 m/s (d) 4 m/s

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    69.  A sound wave of wavelength 0.40 m enters the tube

    at .S  The smallest radius r  of the circular segment

    to hear minimum at detector  D  must be:

    (a) 1.75 m (b) 0.175 m

    (c) 0.93 m (d) 9.3 m

    70. 

    A coil having  N  turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and ,b

    respectively. When a current i passes through the coil, the magnetic field at the center is

    (a) 0 NI 

    b

       (b) 0

    2   NI 

    a

       (c)

    02

     NI    b In

    a b a

     

      (d) 0

    2

     N  I    b

     Inb a a

     

     

    71.  Two identical bar magnets each having length  L and magnetic moment

     M  are arranged in such a way that one of them is bent in the form a

    semicircle and placed over the other as shown in the figure. The net

    magnetic moment of the system is?

    (a)2

    1 M  

      (b) 2 1 M      (c) 2 M    (d) 0  

    72.  A particle of the charge per unit mass   is released from origin with a velocity 0 ˆv v i in a uniform

    magnetic field 0ˆ B B k  . If the particle passes through 0, , 0 y , then  y is equal to

    (a) 0

    0

    2v

     B      (b) 0

    0

    v

     B     (c) 0

    0

    2v

     B     (d) 0

    0

    v

     B     

     N 

     N    S 

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    73.  The charge on the capacitor in steady

    state in the circuit shown in figure is

    (a) 0.5   C    

    (b) 1   C    

    (c) 2   C    

    (d) 4   C    

    74. 

    A parallel plate capacitor is constructed using three

    different dielectric materials as shown. What is the

    capacitance across  P are Q ?

    (a) 2 3 01

    2 32

     K K A K 

     K K t 

     

     

    (b) 2 3 012 3

     K K A K 

     K K t 

     

     

    (c) 2 3 012 3

    2 K K A K 

     K K t 

     

     

    (d) 2 3 0

    12 32

     K K A

     K   K K t 

     

     

    75.  Energy levels, A, B, C of a certain atom correspondence to increasing values of energy

    . . . A B C 

    i e E E E   If 1 2 3, ,   are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to B, B

    to A and C to A respectively, which of the following relations is correct?

    (a)3 1 2

        (b) 1 231 2

      

     

      (c)

    1 2 3   0     (d)3 2 2

    3 1 2    

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    76.  A nozzle throws a stream of gas against a wall with a velocity v  

    much larger than the thermal agitation of the molecules. The wall

    deflects the molecules without changing the magnitude of their

    velocity. Also, assume that the force exerted on the wall by the

    molecules is perpendicular to the wall. (This is not strictly true

    for a rough wall). Find the force exerted on the wall.

    (a) 2 2 Anmv cos      (b) 2 22 Anmv cos       (c) 2 22 sin Anmv       (d) 2 cos Anmv      

    77.  A double-slit arrangement produces fringes for light 5890 A   which are apart. If the whole

    arrangement is fully dipped in a liquid of4

    3   , the angular fringe separation is

    (a) 0.15   (b) 0.30   (c) 0.10   (d) 0.25  

    78. 

    A fish rising vertically up toward the surface of water with speed 3

    1ms

    observes a bird diving vertically down towards it with speed 9

    1ms

    . The actual velocity of bird is

    (a) 4.5 1ms   (b) 5.4 1ms  

    (c) 3.01

    ms

      (d) 3.41

    ms

     

    79. 

    A particle revolves in clockwise direction (as seen from point ) A in a

    circle C  of radius 1 cm and completes one revolution in 2 sec. The axis

    of the circle and the principal axis of the mirror  M  coincide, call it . AB

    The radius of curvature of the mirror is 20 cm. Then, the direction of

    revolution (as seen from  A ) of the image of the particle and its speed is

    (a) Clockwise, 1.57 1cms   (b) Clockwise, 3.14 1cms  

    (c) Anticlockwise, 1.57 1cms   (d) Anticlockwise, 3.14 1cms  

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    80.  A transparent cylinder has its right half polished so as to act as a

    mirror. A paraxial light ray incident from left, that is parallel to the

    principal axis, exits parallel to the incident ray as shown. The

    refractive index n of the material of the cylinder is

    (a) 1.2 (b) 1.5

    (c) 1.8 (d) 2.0

    81.  Two identical sonometer wires have a fundaments frequency of 500 Hz when kept under the same

    tension. The percentage change in tension of one of the wires that would cause an occurrence of 5

    beats per second, when both wires vibrate to together is

    (a) 0.5% (b) 1% (c) 2% (d) 4%

    82.  An inclined plane makes an angle 30 with the horizontal. A groove OA of length 5 m cut, in the

    plane makes an angle 30 with .OX   A short smooth

    cylinder is free to slide down the influence of

    gravity. The time taken by the cylinder to reach

    from  A to O is 210 / g m s  

    (a) 4 s (b) 2 s (c) 3 s (d) 1 s

    83. 

    A projectile can have the same range  R for two angles of projection. It 1t  and 2t  be the times of flight

    in the two cases, then what is the product of two times of fight?

    (a) 21 2t t R    (b) 1 2t t R    (c) 1 21

    t t  R

        (d) 1 2 21

    t t  R

     

     

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    84.  A block  A of mass 2 kg is placed over another block  B of mass 4

    kg which is placed over a smooth horizontal floor. The

    coefficient of the friction between  A and  B is 0.4. When a

    horizontal force of magnitude 10 N is applied on  A , the

    acceleration of blocks  A and  B are

    (a) 1 2ms and 2 2ms , respectively

    (b) 5   2ms and 2.5   2ms , respectively

    (c) both the blocks will moves together with acceleration 1/3 2ms  

    (d) both the blocks will moves together with acceleration 5/3 2ms  

    85.  A uniform ball of radius r rolls without slipping down from the top of a sphere of radius . R The

    angular velocity of the ball when it breaks from the sphere

    (a)

    2

    5

    17

     g R r 

      (b)

    2

    10

    17

     g R r 

      (c)

    2

    5

    10

     g R r 

      (d)

    2

    10

    7

     g R r 

     

    86.  In the electrical network at 0,t   key was placed on (1) till the

    capacitor got fully charged. Key is placed on (2) at 0.t   Time

    when the energy in both the capacitor and the inductor will be

    same for the first time is

    (a)4

     LC  

      (b)3

    4 LC 

      

    (c)3

     LC  

      (d)2

    3 LC 

     

     

    87.  A hollow equiconvex lens made of a very thin glass sheet has one of its curved surfaces silvered. It

    converges a parallel beam of light at a distance of 0.2 m in front of it. Where will it converge the same

    rays if filled with water, refractive index 4 / 3 ?wn    

    (a) 5.7 cm, right (b) 12 cm, left (c) 22 cm, left (d) 15.5 cm, right

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    Part  – B

    Assertion and Reason type questions. A correct answer carries 4 marks. A wrong answer carries

    a penalty of 1 mark 3 x 4 = 12

    (A) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

    (B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

    (C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

    (D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.

    88. 

    Assertion (A): A body in equilibrium has to be at rest only

    Reason (R): A body in equilibrium may be moving with a constant speed along a straight line path

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

    89.  Assertion (A): A body of mass 1m collides head on elastically with another stationery body of mass

    2m . After the collision, velocity of mass 2m is maximum, when 1 2m m  

    Reason (R): Velocity of second body is always maximum, when the mass 2m is greater than mass of

    the hitting body

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

    90. 

    Assertion (A): A body that is a good radiator is also a good absorbed of radiation at a givenwavelength

    Reason (R): According to Kirchhoff’s Law the absorptivity of a body is equal to its emissivity at a

    given wavelength

    (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D