1 cor - meaning of nomos

7/30/2019 1 Cor - Meaning of Nomos

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T H E MEANING O F THE TER M "LAW" ()

IN 1 CORINTHIANS

by

HARM W. HOLLANDER

Leiden

1. Introduction

When one reads Paul's most influential letters, the correspondence

to the Galatians and to the Romans, one must come to the conclusion

that for the apostle the Jewish law did not possess any authority for

the gentile believers within the Christian communities. Not only was it

worthless as a means forsalvation, but even as a code ofconduct with

commandments concerning such matters as circumcision, Sabbath, anddietary laws, the law was not valid forgentile Christians, norperhaps

even forJewish Christians. This fact notwithstanding, Paul frequently

exhorted all Christians to live according to "the will ofGod" or to live

in obedience to "the commandments ofGod."1

One ofthe factors which mayhave influenced Paul to take such a

remarkable or radical stand on the issue ofthe role ofthe Jewish law

might have been the Graeco-Roman concept ofthe meaning and func

tion of laws in general. Laws were considered to be "some kind of

codes which guide and control people and according to which theyare

judged."2

Laws were related to peoples ornations. In other words, each

people ornation had its own specific laws, which were not particularly

valid among other peoples or nations. It is possible that this common

Hellenistic concept smoothed the way forPaul to declare that the Jew

ish law, as the code ofthe Jewish people, was not applicable to Christians,

or at least to gentile Christians.

1S hi f Ch i i id i diff f h f h J h


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118 HARM W. HOLLANDER

In order to confirm this hypothesis or, more in general, to learn

what the apostle's ideas about laws actually were, it may be wise to

analyse Paul's use of the term "law" (). The best strategy to do

this is to examine those letters where the Jewish law as such is no issue

and where there is no trace of a discussion between Paul and his read

ers on the role of the Jewish law and its meaning for the Christian

communities in the Graeco-Roman world. The Corinthian correspond

ence fulfils these conditions very well.

It is a well-known fact that the theme of righteousness or salvation

by faith and not by works of the lawan idea so prominent in Paul'sletters to the Galatians and the Romansis absent in the letters to the

Corinthians. Even in 2 Corinthians, where Paul has to defend himself

against some "super-apostles" who boasted of their Jewish origin and

impressed so many of the Corinthian Christians,3

the Jewish law is not

an issue. Not only do Paul's ideas about the law over against faith in

Jesus Christ not play a part in his letters to the Corinthians, but the

very word for "law," , occurs no more than nine times in 1 Corin

thians and never in 2 Corinthians.4

Moreover, the Greek word for "commandment," , occurs even less: no more than twice in the

Corinthian letters, both times in 1 Corinthians.5

It is quite customary, however, to regard all the occurrences of the

word in 1 Corinthians as references to the Jewish law. In fact,

many scholars are inclined to interpret Paul's use of the term in

his entire uvre as referring to the Jewish law, unless the context makes

it absolutely clear that he is referring to something else.6

Certainly it

is true that Paul himself was a (Christian) Jew. It is also true that theearly Christian communities were groups of Jews and gentiles, and that

some of these groups debated with each other concerning the role of

the Jewish law. But it seems as if these facts have made scholars7

think

3See 2 Cor 10-12, esp 11 5,13, 12 11

41 Cor 9 8-9,20, 14 21,34, 15 56 In addition, the word appears as a vana

lectio in 1 Cor 7 39, where it is undoubtedly introduced by a scnbe (or scribes) under

the influence of the parallel phrase in Rom 7 2 Finally, for companson, the word is used 74 times m Romans and 32 times in Galatians5

1 Cor 7 19, 14 37


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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 119

that for Paul and his readers the Greek word automatically required

the Jewish law to be its referent; only in the second place might

refer to something other than Jewish law.

But is the assumption that in the Pauline letters the Greek word

first of all refers to the Jewish law and only in the second place

to anything else really plausible? Paul and his readers in Corinth and

in other Pauline communities were Greek-speaking people, men and

women who lived in a world that was imbued with the Graeco-Roman

(Hellenistic) culture. For such people, the word could have differ

ent referents.8

From the situation, the context in which the word was

used, people understood which referent was meant. That is, of course,

nothing new: all words receive their meaning from the context in which

they are used. The same is true in the case of the Greek word for "law."

It could refer to different things: for instance, to the law in general, to

a particular national legal code, to the law of nature or the law of God,

or to some kind of universal law or custom.9

This should make us cau

tious about assuming a priori that the Jewish law is the primary referent

of the word in the Pauline letters; especially in Paul's first letter

to the Corinthians, where there is no discussion at all about the role

of the Jewish law in the Christian community. A detailed analysis of

the passages in 1 Corinthians where the Greek word for "law" is used

will demonstrate that Paul understood and used the term in a

rather broad, unspecific sense, and that he relatively often referred to

legal codes other than Jewish law.

2. 1 Corinthians 9:8-9

The first passage in which the word occurs is 1 Corinthians

9:8-9. In chapters 8 and 10 of his first letter to the Corinthians Paul

of in the Pauline letters as references to the Jewish law, where, as he must admit,

it cannot be shown from the immediate context (see, e.g., his interpretations of 1 Cor.

14:34 and 15:56 on pp. 71-72).8

Even (non-Christian) Jewish authors not always use with the Jewish law as its

referent: see, e.g., Josephus, Anqmtates Judaicae 4,322; 16,277; Contra Apwnem 2,172; Philo,De Abrahamo 135; De vita Mosis 1,300; De ebnetate 47; 141-143; 193; 195; 198.

9


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gives a description of the limits of Christian freedom.10

For Christian

freedom certainly has its limits: it is care for othersabove all care forone's fellow Christians, the members of the Christian communitythat

determines Christian ethical life, not freedom or the power to live as

one desires.

In verses 9:1-23 Paul gives an example from his own life and conduct

in order to illustrate the Christian ethical behaviour he is advocating.11

He, too, is "a free man," even an apostle, but in some circumstances

he prefers to give up his freedom in order to reach a higher goal. In

this passage Paul speaks about his apostolic right () to materialsupport from the Christian communities. After a brief introduction (w.

1-5) and the mentioning of the theme of the whole passage (v. 6), he

gives several arguments for this right to support (w. 7-23). But at the

same time Paul declares that he has voluntarily abstained from this

right (v. 12b and v. 15a) in order to be free and independent.12

It was

this attitude which made it possible for Paul "to win" so many people

for the Gospel of Jesus Christ.13

In v. 7 the apostle mentions, first of all, three examples of peoplewho may expect to be sustained by their own labours: "Who at any

time pays the expenses for doing military service? Who plants a vine

yard and does not eat any of its fruit? Or who tends a flock and does

not get any of its milk?"14

Paul's argument is clear: just like soldiers,

farmers, and shepherds, apostles should expect to be sustained, namely,

by the people who have become Christians due to their efforts. The

three examples are obviously taken from everyday life, "drawn from

commonplace realities."15

Or, in the words of the aposde himself in

10For the notions of "freedom" () and "the power to live as one wants

to" () in Paul's letters and m the Graeco-Roman world of his days, see esp

F StanleyJones, "Freiheit" in den Briefen des Apostels Paulus (Gottingen Vandenhoeck &

Ruprecht, 1987) and S Vollenweider, Freiheit ab neue Schpfung Eine Untersuchung zur

Eleuthena bei Paulus und in seiner Umwelt(Gottingen Vandenhoeck & Ruprecht, 1989)11 For some recent studies on the structure and coherence of 1 Cor 8-10, see

J Delobel, "Coherence and Relevance of 1 Cor 8-10," in The Connthian Conespondence(ed R Biennger, BETL 125, Leuven University Press/Uitgevenj Peeters, 1996) 177-190, and J F M Smit, "1 Cor 8 1-6 A Rhetorical Partum A Contnbution to the


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v. 8a, they are instances "on a human level ( )";16

that is,

things that just happen within a human society, things that are custom

ary and accepted among men and in keeping with human standards

or manners.17

In w . 8-10 Paul goes on with more arguments for his apostolic right

to material support. This time, however, he does not refer to common

place realities that take place in human societies, to unwritten customs,

but to "the law": " . . . Does not the law also say the same?" (v. 8b).

Then he continues by referring to a passage from "the law of Moses,"

namely, Deuteronomy 25:4: "You shall not muzzle an ox while it is

treacling out the grain" (v. 9).18

Since God is not concerned for oxen but

speaks for the sake of humanity (w. 9c-10a), Paul concludes that the

O T commandment is meant to tell us that "whoever plows should plow

in hope and whoever threshes should thresh in hope of a share in the

crop" (v. 10).19

This means that ploughers and threshers, too, may

expect to be sustained by their labours, which is another argument for

Paul to show the Christians in Corinth that aposes, including Paul him

self, have the right of material support from the Christian communities.Thus, the two sets of examples in v. 7 and w. 8-10 are wholly inline with each other, both being illustrations of the same argument.But whereas the first example is an illustration "on a human level," thesecond is taken from "the law," or, more specifically, from "the law ofMoses." The formulation in v. 8 suggests that Paul is thinking of acontrast between the different levels from which the instances are drawn,

16

NRSV renders here "on human authority," but that elicits only one aspect of theoriginal wording.17 For such a use of the expression , cf. 1 Cor. 3:3; 15:32; and esp.

Gal. 3:15.18

On the wording of this quotation, which differs slightly from the LXX version of

Deut. 25:4, see esp. Chr.D. Stanley, Paul and the Language of Scripture. Citation Technique

in the Pauline EpistlesandContemporary hterature (SNTS Mon. Ser. 69; Cambridge: University

Press, 1992) 195-6.19

These words, printed in italics in the Nestle-Aland edition of the NT, are certainly

not a quotation from the O T or another source, but form Paul's own conclusion from

Deut. 25:4, quoted by the apostle in v. 9. Nowhere in Paul's letters is ("it was

wri tten") used to introduce an OT quotation; instead, it follows upon a quotation an d introduces its applications for "us" now (cf. 1 Cor. 10:11 and Rom. 15:4; Ro m. 4:23-24 is

e ception since the erb in 23 refers back to the cited passage in 3 and the


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or rather of a climax: after the illustrations "on a human level" he

introduces another illustration on a higher level in order to convince

his readers. This higher level turns out to be "the law."20

It is only after the rather general reference to "the law" that Paul

quotes a specific passage from "the law of Moses," the law once given to

the people of Israel by Moses, their famous forefather.21

Most scholars

think that "the law" in v. 8 refers to the OT Scriptures in general and

that "the law of Moses" in v. 9 has the Pentateuch as its referent; or

they are of the opinion that both clauses refer to the Pentateuch. All

of these scholars consider the fuller formula in v. 9 to be an indication

for the correctness of their interpretation. But in the first place, Paul

"does not usually appeal to the OT by this designation";22

that is, he

does not normally refer to the OT in general as "the law" (v. 8). And

in the second place, it is rather awkward to mention first "the law"

and to refer next to "the law of Moses" when you have exactly the

same thing in mind. Is it, then, not more plausible that Paul refers in

v. 8 to the written legal codes that were in vogue in so many regions

of the Roman empire, and that in v. 9 he gives a quotation from "the

law of Moses" as a specimen of these laws?23 If this is true, Paul refers

in this passage first to some commonplace realities and next to the law

in general ( ), that is, to the (written) codes (= ) that are

found in all sorts of cultures and among all kinds of nations.24

Finally,

in order to prove his statement that "the law also says the same" (v 8),25

2 0The Greek sentence is without any doubt somewhat awkward 8a expects a neg

ative answer (see the particle at the beginning of the clause), whereas 8b expects

a positive answer, and the ("or also"), which joins the two clauses, recommends

the latter (cf Rom 4 9) Its general sense, however, is clear "Are there only arguments

on a human level for the things I am saying? Or does not the law say the same?" Cf

G D Fee, Connthians, 405, note 4621

Th e expression "the law of Moses" ( [] ) is unique in Paul's

oeuvre It is found seven times elsewhere in NT (Luke 2 22, 24 44, John 7 23, Acts

13 39, 15 5, 28 23, Heb 10 28) and is taken over from Jewish tradition in which Moses

was regarded as the great "lawgiver" of the Israelites (see, e g , 3 Ezra 8 3, Tobit 6 13,

7 13, and already Josh 8 31-32 [9 2], 2 Chron 23 18, Mai 4 4 [3 22], etc)22

So rightly G D Fee, Connthians, 406, who mentions as (possible) exceptions 1 Cor

9 8 and 14 21,34 He seems to forget Rom 3 19, which is another (possible) exceptionSee also below

2 3So also M Winger L 71


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he quotes a passage from a particular law, viz. "the law of Moses,"

which he, as a Jew, knows best.26

According to w. 9c-10a, it is God who is speaking in or through

the law of Moses. For Paul as a Jew, this was self-evident. But even

in pagan literature we find the view that Moses, as the lawgiver of the

Jews, wrote down his laws in obedience to what his god told him.27

For Moses was one of the famous lawgivers of old who were thought

to have been inspired by God when they wrote down their laws.28

All this makes it wholly understandable that Paul, as a Hellenistic

Jew and Christian living in the Graeco-Roman culture, could refer first

to "the law" in general, and next to "the law of Moses" as a specimen of

a larger class of national laws, given by a God-inspired man, Moses,

to the people of Israel (or the Jews).29 This means that in 1 Cor. 9:7-10

Paul wants to make clear to his readers that it was not only in keeping

with human standards or (unwritten) manners that people might expect

to be sustained by their labours, but that on a higher, a divine level,

"the (written) law" in general and "the law of Moses" in particular

ordained the same thing. From this he concludes that apostles as well

have the right of material support, but that he himself voluntarily

abstained from this right.

ten code, is quite common. It is found particularly in passages where the author (or

orator) wants to make out a case for something or someone. See, e.g., Plato, Respublica

451 B; 604 B; Leges 959 B; Aristotle, Rhetonca I 15,12 (1375 B); Demosthenes, Contra

Macartatum 55; Contra ^charem 67; Hyperides, Oratio in Aihenogenem 13; Plotinus, Ennead

III 2,9; Libanius, Oratio 33,15; Philo, Quoddetenus potion insidian soleat159 (referring to

Gen. 12:7); Quod Deus immutabilis sit 99 (referring to Deut. 1:43-44); and cf. Rom. 3:19and 7:7. On 1 Cor. 14:34, see below.26 One may compare this with a modern sentence such as the following: "Life in the

city is quite noisy; in the city of Amsterdam, for instance, there live almost a million people,

and the cars, buses, trains, and trams are running day and night."27 See, e.g., Diodorus Siculus 1,94,2, ". . . and among the Jews Moyses referred his

laws to the god who is invoked as Iao" (text and trans. C.H. Oldfather in LCL); 40,

3,3-8; Strabo, Geographia 16,2,35-39. Most of their ideas on the role of Moses as the

lawgiver of the Jews were taken from the writings of Hecataeus of Abdera and, above

all, from the works and ideas of the Stoic philosopher Posidonius. Cf. J. Malitz, Die

Historien des Poseidonios (Zetemata 79; Mnchen: Oscar Beck, 1983) 302-323.

28 Cf. Plutarch, Numa 4,7 (Vitae par. 62 D), "Is it worthwhile, then, if we concedethese instances of divine favour, to disbelieve that Zaleucus, Minos, Zoroaster, Numa,

and Lycurgus who piloted kingdoms and formulated constitutions (


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3. 1 Connthians 9:20-22

Paul's main objective in abstaining from the apostolic right of material supportthe central theme of 1 Corinthians 9and in proclaim

ing the Gospel "free of charge" (v. 18) is to become and to remain free

and independent (v. 19; cf. v. 1). This freedom and independence made

it possible for Paul to adjust himself to all sorts of circumstances and

to be God's missionary among all kinds of people. Thus, "he made

himself a slave to all," "he became all things to all people," in an at

tempt to "win more of them" or to "save some" (w. 19 and 22).30

In w . 20-22a the apostle Paul gives three instances of the chameleonlike conduct he showed in his missionary activities. The first kind

of social setting, in which he proclaims the Gospel of Jesus Christ and

in which he adapts himself to local conditions, is encountered when

he finds himself among Jews: "To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order

to win Jews" (v. 20a). In the entire context there is not the slightest

trace of a discussion on the role of Jews and gentiles in the mixed

Christian communities. Paul mentions the Jews ( ) here as

one of the (two) groups from which the early Christians were recruited.

The other group, of course, was the gentiles. In the next verse Paul

turns to them, referring to the gentiles as "those outside the law."31

Since chapters 8-10 deal with the limits of Christian freedom, it seems

evident that Paul mentions the Jews here because they were submitted

to dietary laws and other laws which might be regarded as commands

that restrict one's freedom. Like many Corinthians, the apostle is a sup

porter of "the freedom in Jesus Christ," but he wants to show his read

ers that among Jews he "behaves like a Jew," voluntarily giving up his

freedom and submitting to the (food) laws of the Jewish people. That

is, he does this as long as he is among Jews and only for the sake of

something more important than Christian freedom, viz. the salvation

of some of them.

What Paul meant in v. 20a, he explicates in v. 20b, where he speaks

30Cf also F S Jones, Freiheit, 46 On these verses, see esp S C Barton, '"All Things

to All People' Paul and the Law in the Light of 1 Connthians 9 19-23," in J D G


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of people "under the law": "To those under the law I became as one

under the law (though I myself am not under the law) so that I might

win those under the law." The people "under the law" are, in view of

the immediate context, without any doubt the Jews;32

in this case "the

law" () refers here to the Jewish law, the law of Moses.33

Paul's

readers most probably understood it this way also, but only because

v. 20b was preceded by v. 20a.

Thus, as Paul argues in v. 20, when he is among fellow Jews, he

adapts himself to their customs and laws, although as a Christian he

is a free man who does not fall under the law of Moses. For Paul,

Christianity means "a new way," which implies that the law of Moses

has no authority over him. Nevertheless, due to particular circum

stances, the apostle gives up his freedom and accepts the authority of

the Jewish law, but only in order to "win" or "save" some of his Jewish

companions.

In v. 21 the apostle describes his conduct among gentiles: "To those

outside the law I became as one outside the law (though I am not free

from God's law but am under Christ's law) so that I might win those

outside the law." The context makes clear that "those outside the law"

refers to the gentiles, people who are not under the law ofMoses.,34

This means that, when Paul is among gentiles, he does not accept the

authority of the Jewish law and is, for instance, "non-kosher."35

Since the Greek term for "outside the (Jewish) law," , is

ambiguousit usually means "outside any law," "lawless"Paul hastens

to say that he is not "outside the law" in the latter sense of the word.36

Like every Christian, he is "under the law of Christ," .

The governing principle in his life or in that of Christians in general

32Th e formulation "(those) under the law" ([] ) is not used in a nega

tive sense but quite neutrally, referring to people, i.e. the Jews, who live in accordance

with their national laws, i.e. the law of Moses (cf. Rom. 6:14-15; Gal. 4:21).3 3

Th at the word is used here without the definite article is not an argument

against the interpretat ion of "law" as the law of Moses. In the letters of Paul, but

also elsewhere, is used with or without the article with no apparent difference

in meaning (so also, e.g., B.L. Martin, Chnst and the Law in Paul [SupplNovT 62;Leiden-New York-Kobenhavn-Koln: Brill, 1989] 21-22). Moreover, in prepositional

phrases the article can appear or be omitted without any apparent difference in mean


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is not a law pertaining to a particular people or nation, for instance,

the Jewish law, but "the law of Christ" (Gal. 6:2) or the obedience to

"the commandments of God" (1 Cor. 7:19). Christians should live

according to the will of God and should "abound in love for one

another and for all" (1 Thess. 3:12).37

Finally, in v. 22a, Paul mentions another social setting in which

he proclaims the Gospel and adapts himself to local conditions: "To

the weak I became weak, so that I might win the weak." Again, the

apostle emphasizes that concern for the salvation of other people is of

more importance than one's freedom. Paul voluntarily abstains fromthis freedom and prefers to be weak in order to save the weak.38

4. 1 Connthians 14:21

In 1 Cor. 12-14 Paul deals rather extensively with the spiritual gifts

( ), which were held in high esteem by a number of

Corinthian Christians. In a reaction to their feelings about these gifts

and in an attempt to correct them, Paul points to the virtue of loveas the greatest gift and as "a still more excellent way" (12:31-13:13).

Finally, in chapter 14, he contrasts two particular spiritual gifts, viz

glossolalia and prophecy.

In verses 14:20-25 Paul describes the impressions of both glossolalia

and prophecy on outsiders and unbelievers. When they see people

speaking in tongues, they will think that they have gone mad; but when

they are faced with people who are prophesying, they will realize that

they find themselves in a community of believers.39

In order to persuade his readers, the apostle quotes a passage from the OT, viz. Isa.

28:11-12.40

From this text he concludes that "strange tongues" and glos

solalia are things that are proper for unbelievers and, consequently,

that prophecy is proper for real Christians.41

For our subject it is impor-

37Cf Rom 13 8-10, Gal 5 14, 6 2, and also 1 Cor 13 This rather general com

mand which forms the content of the law that governs Chnstian life may be compared

with the (equally vague and general) content of "the law of na tu re " presented by the

sage Cf J W Martens, "Ro mans 2 14-16 A Stoic Reading," NTS 40 (1994) 55-67,

esp 67, note 49


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tant that Paul introduces the OT quotation with the phrase "In the

law it is written.. . ." The term "law" refers, of course, to the Jewish

law, or better: to the Scriptures. The formula "it is written ()42

certainly facilitated the Corinthians' interpretation of the word in

this sense.

As in 9:9 the reference to a passage found in "the law" is meant to

add force to the argumentation. Even though in Paul's opinion the

Jewish law or the law of Moses as the written code of commandments

and customs that constituted the Jewish way of life did not need to be

imposed on gentile believers,43

the Scriptures remained for him and

other Christians a holy book and "an oracular witness to Jesus Christ."44

5. 1 Corinthians 14:34

The comparison between prophecy and glossolalia in the first half

of chapter 14 is followed by a passage in which Paul argues for order in

the assembly (w. 26-40). Any disorderly behaviour should be avoided.

In this context the aposde urges women to "be silent in the churches,"

not "to speak" or to ask questions, but to "be subordinate" and to "ask

their husbands at home" (w. 33b-36). Because these verses seem to

contradict earlier statements about the role of women in the Christian

community, especially 11:2-16, many scholars resort to interpolation

theories and only a few attempt to interpret the text as it stands.45

sion. He simply mentions the outsider's or unbeliever's different reactions to people whoare speaking in tongues ("you are out of your mind") and to those who are prophesy

ing ("God is really among you"): the outsider or unbeliever will consider glossolalia to

be something insane and prophecy to be something divine.4 2

Cf. 1:19,31; (2:9); 3:19; 10:7; 15:45.4 3

See, e.g., Gal. 3:19,23,25; Rom. 10:4.4 4

Cf. R.B. Hays, "Three Dramatic Roles. The Law in Romans 3-4," in J.D.G. Dunn

(ed.), Paul, 151-164, esp. p. 163: "One function of the Law, thenperhaps its most

important function for Paulis to point forward to the coming of Christ and to God's

intent to call Jews and Gentiles together into a community that simultaneously confirms

the fidelity of God and glorifies God for his mercy."4 5

See the commentaries, ad be, and most recently C. Niccum, "The Voice of theManuscripts on the Silence of Women: Th e External Evidence for 1 Cor. 14.34-5," NTS

43 (1997) 242 255 Niccum comes to the conclusion that "no extant MS offers evidence


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When the text in its present form is analysed, however, several obser

vations become apparent. First, the passage about the silence of women

fits quite well into the immediate context, where the order in the assem

bly is at stake. Moreover, it fits equally well into the larger unit of dis

course.46

Secondly, the situation described in our passage is different

than the one described in 11:2-16. In the latter passage Paul forbids

women "to pray" or "to prophesy" with their heads unveiled, irrespec

tive of the location where they find themselves. The situation is quite

different in 14:34-35. Here, the apostle forbids women "to speak" in the

assembly, that is, to interfere with what is going on there.47

"Chattering"

by women in the midst of the assembly should be avoided.48 Conse

quently, there do not seem to be decisive arguments against Pauline

authorship of w . 33b-35.

The author (Paul) gives four arguments why women should be silent.

First, it is customary in all other churches that women do not talk in

the Christian assembly. Secondly, women should be subordinate. Thirdly,

in the event that they want clarification about something, women should

ask their husbands at home. And fourthly, it is shameful for women to

speak in church. The third argument is in fact an admonition to women

to speak about divine matters with their own husbands at home, which

is, of course, quite easy to put into practice. The first argument is a ref-

erence to what is habitual in other local churches. Its intention is to help

the Corinthians realize that they are a part of the world-wide church

of Jesus Christ.49

The other two arguments are references to the nature

of things or the natural feeling ("it is shameful. . .")5 0

and to what is

customary in human society ("they . . . should be subordinate").

Thus, according to Paul, nature as well as society provide us with argu

ments for a prohibition of women's speech in the Christian assembly.

One of the reasons why women should be silent is that, as was men

tioned above, they "should be subordinate," viz. to their husbands. This

attitude of subordination reflects quite well the Hellenistic ideas about

the role of women in household and society. The notion that the wife

had to be submissive to her husband was (almost) generally taken for

46So also, e g , C D Osburn, "Th e Interpretation of 1 Cor 14 34-35," Essays on

W i E li Ch i ti it 1 ( d C D O b J li C ll 1993) 219 242


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granted.51

In order to convince his readers, the apostle Paul refers to

this general feeling, adding at the same time that "the law also says

so" ( ). His argument here seems to follow more or less

the same line as his argument in 9:7-8. There, too, he tried to per

suade his readers by mentioning some unwritten customs and the law.

The examples from both custom and law were introduced as illustra

tions of the same argument. Something similar seems to be the case

in 14:34. As one of the reasons why women should be silent in the

Christian assembly in Corinth, the apostle refers to what is custom

ary in the Graeco-Roman society, viz. that women are subordinate

to their husbands. He goes on to say that "the law" directs the same.

This time, however, he does not quote a passage from a specimen

of "the law," for instance, the Jewish Law (or Scriptures), to illustrate

his argument as he did in 9:9.52

He only appeals to "the law," sug

gesting that "the law," too, mentions women's subordination to their

husbands.

But to what law does the term "the law" refer in 14:34? Most scholars

think that the author is appealing to the Jewish law, or more precisely,

the Jewish Scriptures. Th e difficulty, of course, is the fact that the O T

does not say a word about the subordination of women. Even Gen.

3:16, a passage which is the closest parallel to our verse, has a com

pletely different wording53

and can hardly have been the text Paul had

in mind when he wrote his words about women in 1 Cor. 14:34-35.

Of course, Paul could have been thinking of "the spirit" of the Jewish

law. According to its (Jewish) interpreters, the law of Moses teaches

the inferiority of women to men.54

But if this explanation of Paul's

51See, e.g., Plutarch, Coniugaha praecepta 33 {Mor. 142 E), "If they (= women) subor

dinate themselves () to their husbands, they are commended... control

ought to be exercised by the ma n over the wo man . . . " (text and trans. F.G. Babbitt

in LCL); cf. further, ofcourse, Eph. 5:24; Col. 3:18; 1 Tim. 2:11; Tit . 2:5; 1 Pet. 3:1,5.

See also C. Vatin, Recherches sur k manage et la condition de h femme mane l'Epoque helln-

istique (Paris: de Boccard, 1970), esp. pp . 200-201; and A. Standhartinger, Das Frauenbdim Judentum der hellenistischen eit. Ein Beitrag anhand von 'Joseph und Aseneth' (AGAJU 26;

Leiden-New York-Koln: Brill, 1995), esp. pp. 59-76.52 The fact that Paul appeals to "the law" without quoting a particular text is usedby G D Fee as one of the arguments against Pauline authorship of w 34 35 (see G D


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130 HARM W . HOLLANDER

thinking is true, it is the only place where Paul appeals to the inten

tions of the Jewish law by such a general designation. It is very doubt

ful that his (gentile) readers in Corinth would have understood the

Pauline phrase this way. The deadlock may be solved when we assume

that "the law" in v. 34 does not (exclusively) refer to the Jewish law,

but to the law in general or to the laws that are found in so many

cultures and among so many nations in the Graeco-Roman world

more or less comparable with its use in 9:8. Thus, Paul does not refer

to one particular law, but to the laws that one may find in each coun

try, nation, or city. For all laws of that time reflected the (Hellenistic)ideas about the (inferior) role of women in household and society.55

And though these laws did not usually mention explicitly that "women

should be subordinate",56

they contained all kinds of commandments

concerning, for example, marriage, divorce, household, and business

which were the results of the general feeling of the inferiority of women.

This general feeling in the Graeco-Roman world, which found expres

sion in many "customs" and other human (unwritten) manners, pro

vided a basis for many of these commandments.

57

In an attempt to persuade his readers to prohibit women from speak

ing in the Christian assembly, Paul was surely correct in referring to

"the law" in general. Of course, he might have thought of the Jewish law

in particular, but only because he was a Jew and was most acquainted

with that particular code. But the reference itself is to the law in general.

And it was most probably understood this way by Paul's readers in

Corinth.

trans. H. St. J. Thackeray in LCL); however, (the passage is suspected by some scholars on the basis of the NT parallels); Philo, De opifcio mundi 167.

55 See also above (and note 51).56 That is, of course, the reason why Paul does not quote a particular passage from

a specimen of "the law," as he did in 9:8-9.57 For such a use of , referring to socially accepted practices or feelings reflectedin laws and commandments, cf., e.g., Plato, Respubhca 604 B, "The law, I suppose,


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THE TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTH IANS 131

6. 1 Corinthians 15:56

The last occurrence of in 1 Corinthians is found in 15:56. Thisverse is certainly one of the most problematic verses in the letters of

Paul. It stands almost at the end of Paul's long treatise on the resur

rection of believers at the end of time. It is undoubtedly meant to

underline the role and power of death in human life and to show the

people in Corinth that the triumph over death will not be achieved

until the parousia of Jesus Christ. In a recent article,58

J. Holleman and

the present author have made an attempt to understand the verse "in

the context of Paul's communication with the Christian believers in thecommunity of Corinth and not primarily from what is said in other

Pauline letters." This means that we do not regard 1 Cor. 15:56 as "a

brief compendium of Paul's theology as to the relationship of sin and

the law to death,"59

which he worked out in more detail in his letters

to the Galatians and to the Romans; neither do we start from the

rather common interpretation of as the Torah or the Jewish law.

Instead, we argued "that both the connection between death and sin

and the connection between sin and law are to be understood against

the background of Hellenistic popular philosophy."60

As to the first connection, the relationship between death and sin

as it is expressed by the phrase "the sting of death is sin" (v. 56a), Paul

introduced a well-known Jewish Hellenistic idea, which he linked up

with the Greek concept of the degeneration of mankind.61

The notion

that death "came through a human being," viz. the first man Adam

(1 Cor. 15:21-22), was a common Jewish Hellenistic conception. Since

the times of Adam, death has been an active power in the life of man

kind, and, as Paul argues in 1 Cor. 15, it will remain so until the end

of time (v. 26).

In our verse Paul speaks about "sin" ( ) as "the sting of

death" ( ).62

In other words, sin is the means by

which the power of death injects, as it were, mortality in man. Although

Adam's transgression of God's command was the origin of mortality,

Paul recognized as well that whenever a human being sins, he incurs

the same punishment Adam once received, viz. mortality. That is: all


16/20


humans are mortal because all humans sin. Humans do not sin as a

result of hereditary sinfulnessthis conception was strange to Paul and

otherJewish or early Christian writersbut because of the fallen nature

of mankind due to the degeneration of human culture or society. This

concept of a degeneration of human society was widely current in the

Hellenistic world.63

Jewish authors like Philo were acquainted with it,

and there is nothing against assuming that Paul, too, was familiar with

this concept. From Paul's view, the present was (still) an age of sin and

death, only to be overcome by the parousia of Jesus Christ.

Paul's rather pessimistic view on the miserable state of humanity,

which he shared with many of his contemporaries,64

is underlined once

more by the last words of 1 Cor. 15:56b, "and the power of sin is the

law." In 1 Cor. 15 the Jewish law is not an issue at all, so that we

may conclude that the word "law" in v. 56 most probably refers to

something other than the Torah. This conclusion is all the more rein

forced by the fact that the terms "death" and "sin" in the same verse

are used generally and refer to universal powers. This makes it plau

siblethat the reference here, once again, has to do with the law in

general, or to the (written) laws that are found in all sorts of cultures

and among all kinds of nations.

The fact that Paul connected "sin" and "the law" as closely as he

does in v. 56b has, first of all, to do with a depreciation of laws in the

Graeco-Roman world of his days.65

According to many Hellenistic

authors, especially the Cynics and Stoics, (written) lawsin particular

all those laws that were found all over the world since the famous and

God-inspired lawgivers of old had diedwere associated with negative aspects of human life and were regarded as an imperfect means

to regulate society. Most of them turned out to be obstacles to true

6 3On this so-called idea of Ursprung undEntartung, developed in particular by the Stoic

philosopher Posidonius, see H W Hollander - J Holleman, "Relationship," 278 and

284-28664

See, e g Dio Chrysostom, Orationes 13,13, "And the opinion I had was that pretty

well all men are fools, and that no one does any of the things he should do, or con

siders how to rid himself of the evils that beset him and of his great ignorance and

confusion of mind, so as to live a more virtuous and a better life, but that they all are


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TH E TERM "LAW" IN I CORINTHIANS 133

righteousness, since, as man-made products of common human opin

ion, they were often in conflict with nature or the unwritten law of

nature. In other words, laws were evidence of humanity's inborn wicked

ness and were hardly able to correct humanity's behaviour. Therefore,

many (Cynic) philosophers rejected laws and human conventions and

tried to live what they considered to be a life in harmony with nature;

free, independent, and self-sufficient.66

Paul, however, does not only mention "sin" and "the law" in v. 56b

as two symptoms of the miserable state of mankind. In his view "the

law" is "the power of sin", the means by which "sin" operates in the pre

sent age. "Sin" obtains its power and dominion over men from the very

existence of "the law."67

For Paul, this seems to mean that, even though

since the first man Adam all human beings are sinners because of the

depravity of mankind, the laws have not turned out to be a means to

improve men's behaviour; rather, they have contributed to the rein

forcement of sin. Laws do not only make people realize that they act

badly,68

but they stimulate people to sin as well.

All this leads to the conclusion that 1 Cor. 15:56 serves as a short

aside on the role and power of death in human life: death will not be

overcome until the end of time, until the parousia of Jesus Christ.

Intending to point out to his readers the permanent dominion of death

6 6Their opinion on laws is expressed fairly well in Lucian, Demonax59, ". . . that in

all likelihood the laws were of no use, whether framed for the bad or the good; for the

latter had no need of laws, and the former were not improved by them" (trans. A.M.

Harmon in LCL). See further, e.g., Diogenes Laertius 6, 63. 71-72; Maximus Tyrius,Dissertationes 6,5; Epictetus, Dissertationes I 13,5; IV 1,158; 7,17; Dio Chrysostom, Oratwnes

76,4; 80,4; Plutarch, Solon 5,2-3 {Vitae par. 80 F-81 A); Ps. Heraclitus, Epistuk 7; Ps.

Diogenes, Epistuk 28.6 7

This aspect of the relationship between "sin" and "the law" is somewhat under

estimated in H.W. Hollander - J. Holleman, "Relationship."6 8

For when there are no laws, there is no instance to show people up as sinners.

See, e.g., G.D. Fee, Connthians, 806, "The relationship of law to sin is that the former

is what gives the latter its pow er . . . the law . . . makes sin observable as sin. . . ." Cf.

Rom. 4:15b and 5:13b, passages which can be best explained as statements about the

role of laws in general and their relationship to men's sins: in these verses is thus

generic. Elsewhere in Romans, Paul applies this idea directly to the Jewish law, namely,in 5:20 ("But law came in, with the result that the trespass multiplied") and 7:7 ("if it

h d t b f th l I ld t h k i ") O thi M Wi


18/20


over men and to make them realize that they still lived in an "age of

anxiety," Paul referred to both the power of "sin" and "the law," and

their close relationship to "death." Death as well as sin characterize

the present age and the fallen state of mankind. "The law," viz. the

human and written laws that are found in all sorts of cultures and

among all kinds of nations, belongs to the old order as well. It is hardly

able to improve humanity's behaviour; on the contrary, it reinforces

sin, thus contributing to man's death. Again, in this verse the refer

ence is to the law in general, not to a particular law, the Jewish law

for instance.

7. Conclusion

The analysis of the five passages in 1 Corinthians where the word

occurs has led us to the conclusion that the Jewish law does not

seem to be the primary or the only referent of the word in this par

ticular letter. The Greek word for "law" could have, like so many other

words, different referents. From the context in which the word was

used, people understood which referent was meant.

Nevertheless, there are a few instances in 1 Corinthians where

does refer to the Jewish law; namely, in 9:9, 9:20, and 14:21. In 1 Cor.

9:20b, "those under the law" are without any doubt the Jews, since

the phrase is parallel with "the Jews" mentioned in v. 20a. This phrase

stands over against "those outside the law" in v. 21, which refers to the

gentiles, those who are not under the law of Moses. In 1 Cor. 14:21

Paul quotes Isa. 28:11-12 whereby the OT quotation is preceded by

the phrase, "In the law it is written. . . ." Here, "the law" obviously

refers to the Jewish law or, better yet, to the Jewish Scriptures. These

Scriptures remained for Paul, as for other Christians, a holy book and

a witness to Jesus Christ. Another reference to the Scriptures as the

holy book of Jews and Christians is found in 1 Cor. 9:9, where the

apostle quotes Deut. 25:4. This time, the quotation is introduced as a

passage or a command from "the law of Moses."

More interesting, however, is the fact that in 1 Cor. 9:8-9 "the lawof Moses" is most likely mentioned as a specimen of "the law" in gen

l h i l f h ( i ) l h f d


19/20


passage, "the law" is introduced as a rather weak instrument. Although

it was intended to improve humanity's behaviour, it only contributes

to the reinforcement of sin; "the law" belongs together with the powerof sin and the power of death to a world that is passing away.

As a man living in the Graeco-Roman world, Paul regarded the law

of Moses, the Jewish law, as a written legal code that pertained to a

particular people or nation, i.e. the Jews.69 As one belonging to the

Christian movement, the aposde rejected the law of Moses as an author

ity in his life and in the lives of his fellow Christians, though the holy

Scriptures remained for him an important witness to Jesus Christ and

to a new society in which there is "no longer Jew or Greek,. . . slave

or free,. . . male and female."70 Instead, Paul viewed himself as being

"under the law of Christ" (1 Cor. 9:21), a law that centres on the obe

dience to "the commandments of God" (1 Cor. 7:19) in general, and

the love for one another in particular.


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1 cor - meaning of nomos

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