1 method mutilation movement (of today #2) the a present danger facing the church!

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1 Method Mutilation Movement (of today #2) THE a present danger facing the church!

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1

Method Mutilation Movement

(of today #2)

THE

a present danger facing the church!

2

In Lesson 1

• we defined and applied the warning of Philippians 3:2

• we identified a major movement in the church which seeks to bind the “METHOD” of divorce rather than the “CAUSE” for divorce

• we criticized the false idea that the guilty fornicator can void the Jesus-given right to the non fornicator in divorce

3

This Movement

• is an overreaction to the loose and false doctrines that plague the church:

1) if unbeliever divorces believer (not for fornication) then the believer can get a new mate (i.e., for desertion)

• Contradicts: “Whoever divorces his wife and marries another commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced from her husband commits adultery” (Lk. 16:18; cf. Matt. 5:32)

4

This Movement

• is an overreaction to the loose and false doctrines that plague the church:

2) Matthew 19:9 only applies to Christians, those in the kingdom

• Contradicts “And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife. . .” (Matt. 19:9; cf. Lk. 16:18; etc.)

5

This Movement

• is an overreaction to the loose and false doctrines that plague the church:

2) Matthew 19:9 only applies to Christians, those in the kingdom

• Lord’s teaching based on Genesis 2:24 law, “Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh” (cf. Matt. 19:4-6)

• Jesus didn’t say, “. . Therefore what God has joined together, let not a Christian separate” (Matt. 19:6)

6

This Movement

• is an overreaction to the loose and false doctrines that plague the church:

3) Baptism sanctifies an adulterous marriage• baptism has NO sanctifying effect on a marriage• if your marriage is wrong, baptism cannot make

it right (e.g., Herod and Herodias Mk. 6:17, 18)• if previous divorces were wrong, baptism cannot

make them right. . .MUST REPENT FIRST!• “repentance” always proceeds baptism;

returning to the bed of adultery after baptism nullifies any repentance (cf. Acts 2:38)

7

Repentance Requires Severing Which of the Following Relationships?

homosexual marriages?

polygamous marriages?

adulterous marriages?

incestuous marriages?

man/beast marriages?

man married 100 times?

8

Repentance Requires Severing Which of the Following Relationships?

homosexual marriages?

polygamous marriages?

adulterous marriages?

incestuous marriages?

man/beast marriages?

man married 100 times?

9

This Movement

• is an overreaction to the loose and false doctrines that plague the church:

4) the divorced fornicator can marry a new mate

• Jesus never gave the guilty fornicator a right to remarry in Matt. 19:9. He only permitted the non-fornicator to “marry another.”

Can the divorced

FORNICATOR remarry in

Matt. 19:9?• the “except” is for whoever divorces a sexual immoral mate!

• it is not permitting the fornicator/home-breaker/vow-violator to do anything

• THE RULE: whoever divorces and marries another commits adultery!

• THE EXCEPTION: whoever divorces his wife for being sexually immoral and marries another does not commit adultery!

• when one divorces and remarries for any other cause, they commit adultery

“And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.” (Matt. 19:9)

Divorced People Have Always Remained Under Constraint of Lawa. Duet. 24:1-4 – divorced wife but cannot

have her back after her 2nd marriageb. Deut. 24:1-4 – divorcee marry another

but then can’t ever return to 1st matec. Lev. 21:7, 13-14 – divorcee can’t ever

marry a priest d. Matt. 5:32; 19:9 – non-fornicator may

divorce fornicator and marry another without sin (but cannot marry one who was put away for fornication or any other cause)

e. 1 Cor. 7:10, 11 – two may divorce but must remain unmarried or be reconciled

f. 1 Cor. 7:12-15 – believer may not give up Christ to keep unbeliever (but no authority for either to remarry)

a. Duet. 24:1-4 – divorced wife but cannot have her back after her 2nd marriage

b. Deut. 24:1-4 – divorcee marry another but then can’t ever return to 1st mate

c. Lev. 21:7, 13-14 – divorcee can’t ever marry a priest

d. Matt. 5:32; 19:9 – non-fornicator may divorce fornicator and marry another without sin (but cannot marry one who was put away for fornication or any other cause)

e. 1 Cor. 7:10, 11 – two may divorce but must remain unmarried or be reconciled

f. 1 Cor. 7:12-15 – believer may not give up Christ to keep unbeliever (but no authority for either to remarry)

Conclusion:

i. unscriptural divorce releases neither party from marriage

ii. scriptural divorce releases both from marriage, but not from the constraint of the law

God’s Law Remains Constant For Alien or Christian Regarding Morality

“1 It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and such sexual immorality as is not even named among the Gentiles––that a man has his father’s wife! 2 And you are puffed up, and have not rather mourned, that he who has done this deed might be taken away from among you. . . .11 But now I have written to you not to keep company with anyone named a brother, who is sexually immoral, or covetous, or an idolater, or a reviler, or a drunkard, or an extortioner––not even to eat with such a person” (1 Cor. 5:1, 2, 11)

“1 It is actually reported that there is sexual immorality among you, and such sexual immorality as is not even named among the Gentiles––that a man has his father’s wife! 2 And you are puffed up, and have not rather mourned, that he who has done this deed might be taken away from among you. . . .11 But now I have written to you not to keep company with anyone named a brother, who is sexually immoral, or covetous, or an idolater, or a reviler, or a drunkard, or an extortioner––not even to eat with such a person” (1 Cor. 5:1, 2, 11)

i. the man who did it was a Christian (as per his discipline from the church) and needed to get out!

ii. the woman was a non-Christian (as she was not disciplined) yet needed to get out of that relationship!

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OVERREACTING TO THESE ERRORS MAKE US NO BETTER THAN THE PROPONENTS OF ERROR!

CAUTION!

COMPARE:

REFUTING THE FALSE DOCTRINE THAT WORKS MERIT SALVATION (CATHOLIC) BY ASSERTING THAT NO WORKS ARE NEEDED, VIZ., “SALVATION BY GRACE THROUGH FAITH ALONE” (PROTESTANT) IS JUST AS WRONG!

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Matthew 19:9

What is the meaning of “put away?”

Does it REQUIRE:

• human courts?• certificates?• lawyers?• judges?• a different legal procedure with

different nations/cultures?

“And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication. . .”

15

“Put Away” (apoluo)

1. “to set free”2. “to let go, dismiss, (to detain no

longer)”3. “to let go free, release”4. “used of divorce, to dismiss from the

house, to repudiate.”5. “to send one’s self away, to depart”

(630, Greek Online Greek Lexicon)

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“Put Away” (apoluo)

• Literally means to “loose away”• “One may ‘put away’ a temptation, evil

thought, or bad habit” (Tim Haile)• A declaration of intent-repudiation!

• Not married just because two leave father and mother

• Not divorced just because two separate• E.g., one leaves on business trip, one visits family

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Joseph

• Matt 1:19, “Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not wanting to make her a public example, was minded to put <630> her away <630> secretly.”• where is the courtroom, lawyers, judges?• chose a private “METHOD” over a public

one• yet, there would still be a declaration of

intent

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McGarvey on Joseph• “And not willing to make her a public example. He

did not wish to expose her to the shame of a public trial before the court, nor to punish her as the law permitted.”

• “Was minded to put her away privily. The law of Moses gave the husband the power of divorce (#De 24:1). The bill or writing certifying the divorce usually stated the cause, and was handed to the wife in the presence of witnesses. Joseph evidently intended to omit stating any cause in the bill, that there might be no record to convict her of shame. The law of divorce applied to betrothed as well as to married persons. In his kindness Joseph anticipates the special teaching of Christ (#Mt 19:8) and the general instruction of Paul (#Ga 6:1)” (The Fourfold Gospel)

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Other places where the word is used:• Matt 14:22, “Immediately Jesus made

His disciples get into the boat and go before Him to the other side, while He sent <630> the multitudes away <630>.”

• Matt 18:27, “Then the master of that servant was moved with compassion, released <630> him, and forgave him the debt.”

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Other places where the word is used:• Lu 23:22, “Then he said to them the third

time, "Why, what evil has He done? I have found no reason for death in Him. I will therefore chastise Him and let Him go <630>.”

• Ac 4:21, “So when they had further threatened them, they let <630> them go <630>, finding no way of punishing them, because of the people, since they all glorified God for what had been done.”

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Other places where the word is used:• Ac 13:3, Then, having fasted and prayed, and

laid hands on them, they sent them away <630>.”

• Ac 19:41, “And when he had said these things, he dismissed <630> the assembly.”

• Heb 13:23, “Know that our brother Timothy has been set free <630>, with whom I shall see you if he comes shortly.”

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(apoluo)

• Nothing intrinsic of courtrooms, judges, lawyers, divorce papers, certificates

• Is an action of sending away, putting away, repudiating, etc.

• The REASON for “apoluo” must be “fornication” the METHOD and TIMING of “apoluo” is not bound (Matt. 5:32; 19:9)

THE ISSUE IS NOT• OBEYING THE LAWS OF LAND (Rom. 13:1).

laws of the land must be obeyed when they do not contradict the law of Christ

laws of the land must NOT be used to define what Jesus meant in usage of (apolou)

civil law only involves the legal registration of marriage and divorce

civil law is not God’s law regarding marriage, divorce and remarriage

• to be bound in marriage, people must comply with God’s law

• to be legally married, people must meet legal requirements

“To illustrate the point, when two people enter a business contract, it is morally binding when each gives his word and meets the conditions agreed upon by the parties involved. It does not matter who files the legal papers. God holds us to our agreements at the point of our promise, not at the action of a civil court (Matthew 5:33-37). Human law seeks to establish property rights in such cases, but its decisions do not necessarily coincide with God's determination made on divine principles. Yes, a Christian must seek to fulfill the requirements of civil law in business, but civil law does not always determine true rights and responsibilities. If one partner extorts funds, but is exonerated in civil court, he is nonetheless an extortionist as judged by divine principles. Our legal system can and does sometimes fail to find truth. Regardless of the failures of human law, divine principles define and uphold biblical concepts.”

(Harry Osborne, Written Debate: “Biblical Putting Away,” http://www.watchmanmag.com/0501/050117.htm)

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Civil Law Versus Jesus• If a nation adapted Deuteronomy 24:1-4 as their “civil

law” regarding divorce:• women would not have the legal right to divorce a fornicating

husband• women would not have the legal right to divorce ANY

husband because Jewish law didn’t recognize that possibility

• Is Jesus’ law limited to civil restrictions? • NO! Jesus recognized that women could, even though the

civil law of his society didn’t allow such• “And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another,

she commits adultery” (Mk. 10:12)

THE ISSUE IS

does Jesus permit the guilty, vow-breaking fornicator to take away the God-given right of the faithful?• THE SCRIPTURES DO NOT TEACH SUCH!

• neither the fornicator nor civil law can nullify, void Jesus’ law!

• DAVID WATTS, DON MARTIN, J.T. SMITH AND OTHERS ERRONEOUSLY INFER SUCH

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The Method Binding Mutilation Movement of Today

a) Binds where Jesus has not bound

b) affirms that the unlawful fornicator can lawfully take away the right of the non-fornicator by unlawfully putting the non-fornicator away first!?!

c) forbids those who are eligible to marry

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“Forbidding” What God Allows: (1 Tim. 4:3)

To Forbid Marriage (Among Eligible Candidates) (Ex. Nazi Germany, Slavery)

To Ban The Eating Of Certain Foods

DoctrineOf

Devils

God Allows The Eating of Meats (1 Tim. 4:3-5; Romans 14:6,14)

God Allows Marriage Between Eligible People (1 Cor. 7:2; Heb. 13:4; Matt. 19:11)

DoctrineOf

Christ

(Tim Hail, www.biblebanner.com)

WHO CAN MARRY?

1) those never married

2) those whose spouse died

3) those who put their spouse away for

fornication

(Heb. 13:4; Rom. 7:1-4; Matt. 19:9)

who cannot marry?(Matt. 19:9; 1 Cor. 7:10, 11)

1. Those put away for fornication

3. Those who put away for reasons other than fornication

2. Those put away for reasons other than fornication

WHEN FORNICATION IS INVOLVED, IT CHANGES EVERYTHING FOR THE

FAITHFUL ONE!

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The Method Binding Mutilation Movement of Today

d) are behaving as Pharisees• “For they bind heavy burdens, hard to

bear, and lay them on men’s shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their fingers” (Matt. 23:4)

• I doubt any of them practice what they preach• I doubt any of them investigate the methods

and timings of all/any divorced persons they come in contact with

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The Method Binding Mutilation Movement of Today

e) are hypocrites• strain at gnats and swallow camels (Matt.

23:24)• cast a blind eye on those in their movement

who contend error in other areas • e.g., “faithful children” (Titus 1:6) necessarily

means “faithful to their earthly father” (Don Martin)

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Don Martin and Titus 1:6

"If pistos ("faithful") means God's rule, as such, then pistos is requiring the children to be Christians. If pistos means subjection to the father's rule, pistos would not absolutely require the children to be Christians" (The Parallel Between the Domestic and Spiritual Rules, p. 1).

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Don Martin and Titus 1:6

• Gives several arguments for “faithful” meaning “to earthly father”1) children are free moral agents. If “faithful”

means “Christians, then God could not even be an elder” (e.g. Prodigal, Lk. 15).

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“The father, for example, can demand of the child that the child not drink, not stay out all night, etc. However, the father cannot legislate Christianity in the sense of demanding that the child obey the rule of the father by being baptized or being a Christian. The child decides this, not the parent (free moral agency)”

(Don Martin, The Parallel Between the Domestic and Spiritual Rules, p. 2, emp. his)

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1) children are free moral agents. If “faithful” means “Christians, then God could not even be an elder” (e.g. Prodigal, Lk. 15).

2) “faithful children” (Titus 1:6) equates “ruling his house well” (1 Tim. 3:4)

3) why didn’t Paul use the term for Christian rather than the term for “faithful” if he meant Christian?

4) suggested “the way” in Prov. 22:6 could be “a way”

• Gives several arguments for “faithful” meaning “to earthly father”

Don Martin and Titus 1:6

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THE TRUTH and Titus 1:6

• 1) Children are free moral agents, PRODIGAL, “cannot legislate Christianity.”

• children are free moral agents to be faithful to God as much as they are to be subject to earthly father

• “PRODIGAL” was as much “FAITHLESS” as he was “INSUBORDINATE” to the “FATHER” in Luke 15

• shall we contend that children do NOT need to be subordinate to their earthly father (1 Tim. 3:4) because God cannot even make His children be subordinate to him? IT CUTS BOTH WAYS!

• Shall we set aside the commandment of God and contend that elders do not need to raise children or be married because such would prevent Jesus from being an elder (1 Tim. 3:2, 4; cf. Heb. 8:4)?

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THE TRUTH and Titus 1:6

• 1) Children are free moral agents, PRODIGAL, “cannot legislate Christianity.”

• Is a preacher "legislating Christianity" when he stands before "every creature" demanding "obedience" to the gospel in being "baptized" (Mk. 16:15) 

• Is it legislating Christianity when we demand that all repent (Acts 17:30)?

• Was Abraham "legislating Christianity" when the Lord spoke of him as, "For I have known him, in order that he may command his children and his household after him, that they keep the way of the LORD, to do righteousness and justice, that the LORD may bring to Abraham what He has spoken to him" (Gen. 18:19).

• Solomon commanded his children to obey their "father's law" which included obeying God's law (cf. Prov.3:1-6)

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THE TRUTH and Titus 1:6

• 2) “faithful children” (Titus 1:6) equates “ruling his house well” (1 Tim. 3:4)• MERE CONJECTURE!• LIKE BAPTIST CONTENDING THAT “FAITH”

AND “REPENTANCE” ARE THE SAME, TWO SIDES OF THE SAME COIN!

• I HAVE THREE CHILDREN THAT ARE (AS OF 2005) FAITHFUL AND SUBJECTIVE TO ME?

• THEY BELIEVE ME AND OBEY ME. • DO I THEN MEET THIS QUALIFICATION?

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THE TRUTH and Titus 1:6

• 3) why didn’t Paul use the term for Christian (christianos) rather than the term for “faithful” if he meant Christian?• Use this approach in other passages?• “Likewise their wives must be reverent, not

slanderers, temperate, faithful in all things” (1 Tim. 3:11)

• who would doubt that elders’ and deacons’ wives need to be Christians?

• “. . . commit these to faithful men who will be able to teach others also” (2 Tim. 2:2)

• Christians or just faithful attendees?

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God desires Godly Offspring

“But did He not make them one, Having a remnant of the Spirit? And why one? He seeks godly offspring. Therefore take heed to your spirit, And let none deal treacherously with the wife of his youth” (Mal. 2;15)

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THE TRUTH and Titus 1:6

• 4) suggested “the way” in Prov. 22:6 could be “a way”

“Train up a child in the way he should go, And when he is old he will not depart from it”

• Don gives credence to the false assertion that “the way” is simply “a way” of “occupationally educating the children” (p. 6).

• Are parents to choose and train their children in an occupation?

• Is the child in error if he “departs” from the occupation he was trained in?

• When it comes to “ways” that children can go, there is ONLY ONE way that a child “SHOULD” go. To depart from that WAY is to SIN!

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The Method Binding Mutilation Movement of Today

e) are hypocrites• “Then the scribes and Pharisees . . .

came to Jesus, saying, ‘Why do Your disciples transgress the tradition of the elders? For they do not wash their hands when they eat bread.’ He answered and said to them, ‘Why do you also transgress the commandment of God because of your tradition?’” (Matt. 15:1-3)

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When I Followed Jesus’ Example in Matthew 15, asking:• why do you also transgress the

commandment of God regarding Romans 14 and Titus 1:6?

• they responded:• Steven Wallace is using a “trick”• creating a “smoke screen”• not answering the questions• ignoring the issue at hand

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The Method Binding Mutilation Movement of Todayf) is promoting contentious disputes

• 2 Timothy 2:23, “But avoid foolish and ignorant disputes, knowing that they generate strife” (NKJV)

• 1 Timothy 6:3, 4, “If anyone teaches otherwise and does not consent to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which accords with godliness, he is proud, knowing nothing, but is obsessed with disputes and arguments over words, from which come envy, strife, reviling, evil suspicions” (NKJV)

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If they would just give heed to the inspired Pen. . .• “Receive one who is weak in the faith,

but not to disputes over doubtful things” (Rom. 14:1, NKJV)

AND• Titus 3:9, “But avoid foolish disputes,

genealogies, contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are un-profitable and useless” (NKJV)

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Why Not Become Just A Christian Today?• refuse and resists the

traditions/doctrines of men which conflict with Christ

• accept Christ through “calling on His name” today• is done through baptism

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