1) which of the following writs is issued by the court in...
TRANSCRIPT
1) Which of the following writs is issued by the court in case of illegal detention of a person ?
(a) Quo Warranto
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Mandamus
(d) Certiorari
Answer: Habeas Corpus
2) Judicial Review function of the Supreme Court means the power to
(a) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(b) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution.
(c) Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(d) Review its own judgement
Answer: Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
3) The Chief Justice and other Judges of the High Court are appointed by the
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(b) Chief Minister of the concerned state
(c) Governor of the concerned state
(d) President
Answer: President
4) Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme
Court ?
(a) Disputes between the States inter se
(b) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Disputes between the Centre and the States
Answer: Protection of the Fundamental Rights
5) Under the writ of Mandamus, the Court can
(a) Ask the person to be produced
(b) Order to transfer the case from one court
(c) Ask to let a person free for a temporary period
(d) Direct the Government to do or not to do a thing
Answer: Direct the Government to do or not to do a thing
6) Which of the following is enforceable in a court of law ?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principals
(d) Preamble
Answer: Fundamental Rights
7) Under whose advice the President of India declares Emergency under Article 352 ?
(a) Chief Ministers of all states
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers
Answer: Cabinet
8) Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any state in India?
(a) 326
(b) 370
(c) 380
(d) 356
Answer: 356
9) Currently India has ______ States
a) 25
b) 27
c) 29
d) 24
Answer : 29
10) Equality before law contain in which Article
a) 14
b) 27
c) 29
d) 23
Answer: 14
11) Article 21 provide
a) Right to Education
b) Protection to Life and personal liberty
c) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
d) Prohibition of Employment of Children in factories, etc.
Answer: Protection to Life and personal liberty
12) Which of the following is not part of Executive?
a) The President
b) Vice President
c) Chief Justice of High Court
d) Union Cabinet
Answer : Chief Justice of High Court.
13) Article 24 Prohibit employments of children in factories, etc below the age of ____.
1) 18
2) 16
c) 21
d) 14
Answer : 14
14) Organisation of village panchayats as contain in Article 40 is
a) Fundamental Rights
c) Fundamental Duties
c) Directive Principal of State Policy
d) Part of Premable
Answer: Directive Principal of State Policy
15) When there is an offer from one Party and acceptance by another party, it is called
a) Assent
b) Contract
c) Relationship
d) Agreement
Answer: Agreement
16) When an agreement between two parties creates a legal relationship it is called
a) Legal Relationship
b) Contract
c) Unenforceable Relationship
d) Legal Agreement
Answer : Contract
17) The Contract creates a legal relationship between both the parties is based on the __________.
a) Obligatory Relationship
b) Legal Relationship
c) Legal Consideration
d) None of the Above
Answer : Legal Consideration
18) The Contract created between the parties can be considered valid, if either of or both the parties
are capable of falling in Contract so as to
a) Able to understanding the Contract and its terms
b) Capable to fulfilling the Consideration
c)File a suit in the case
d) All of the above
Answer : All of the above
19) “An Agreement enforceable by law” is a
a) Legal Agreement
b) Contract
c) Jus in Personam
d) Jus in Rem
Answer : Contract
20) An agreement is voidable contract, when it is
a) Enforceable, if certain conditions are fulfilled.
b) Enforceable by law at the option of aggrieved party.
c) Enforceable by both the parties.
d) Not Enforceable by any Party.
Answer : Enforceable by law at the option of aggrieved party
21) An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be a...
a) Void
b) Voidable
c) Valid
d) Illegal
Answer : Void
22) A Specific Offer is acceptable by.......
a) any person
b) any friend of offerer
c) the person to whom it is made
d) any friend of offeree
Answer: the person to whom it is made
23) The advertisement to sell the goods by auction is called as
a) An offer
b) NO offer at all
c) An Invitation to offer
d) A Contract
Answer : An Invitation to offer
24) Consideration must move at the desire of:
a) The Promisor
b) The Promisee
c) Promisor of any third party
d) Both
Answer: The Promisor
25) An Agreement without consideration is
a) Valid
b) illegal
c) voidable
d) void
Answer: Void
26) An agreement made by a minor or with a minor is always
a) Void
b) Voidable at the option of minor
c) Voidable at the option of other Party
d) Valid
Answer : Void
27) A Contract made by an idiot or stupid person is
a) Voidable
b) Enforceable by law
c) invalid
d) Void
Answer : Void
28) Which of the following relationship raises presumption of undue influence:
a) Landlord and Tenant
b) Doctor and Patient
c) Husband and Wife
d) All of above
Answer : All of above
29) The illegal detention of any one’s property to obtain his/her consent to a contract amount to
a) Misrepresentation
b) Fraud
c) Undue Influence
d) Coercion
Answer: Coercion
30) A Contract of life Insurance is:
a) A Contract of Indemnity
b) A Wagering Agreement
c) A Contingent agreement
d) Voidable Agreement
Answer : A Contingent Agreement
31) A Wagering Agreement is:
a) Forbidden by law
b) Immoral
c) Opposed by public policy
d) None of these
Answer : Forbidden by law
32) The Court may grant rescission when the Contract is:
a) Voidable at the option of the plaintiff
b) Void
c) Unenforceable
d) Illegal
Answer : Voidable at the option of the plaintiff
33) Which one of the following parties is not involved in contract of:
a) Principal Debtor
b) Principal Creditor
c) Indemnifier
d) Surety
Answer : Indemnifier
34) When all the three parties involved in contract of guarantee is called as......
a) Prudence
b) Concurrence
c) Vigilance
d) Concurrence
Answer: Concurrence
35) When business activities outsource their business function from outside business, then such
business is called as.....
a) External Affair
b) Contract
c) Agency
d) Outsource
Answer : Agency
36) The business or the person, for whom such agent works and provides their services are called
as.....
a) Principal
b) Agent
c) Outsourcing
d) None of the Above
Answer : Principal
37) The Agency between the Principal and Agent can be created by following ways, but not as
means....
a) By Express Agreement
b) By Implied Agreement
c) By Ratification
d) By Compulsion
Answer: By Compulsion
38) The following persons are involved in Auction Process
a) Vendor
b) Buyer / Bidder
c) Auctioneer
d) All of Above
Answer : All of Above
39) Auctioneer is work as ______ of the Vendor during Auction
a) Principal
b) Agent
c) Employee
d) None of the Above.
Answer : Agent
40) The following should be provided in Advertisement for Auction
a) Description of Goods
b) Condition of Goods
c) Eligibility Conditions for Proposed Buyers / Bidder
d) All of the Above
Answer : All of the Above
41) “Reserve Price “ in Auction means:
a) Highest Price
b) Highest Bid
c) Lowest Bid
d) Lowest Price Acceptable to Bidder
Answer : Lowest Price Acceptable to Bidder
42) Maxim “Damnum sine injuriaDamnum sine injuria” means
a) Legal Injury without Damages
b) Injury with Damages
c) Damages without Legal Injury
d) Damages without Injury
Answer : Damages without Legal Injury
43) In which the relation principle of “Vicarious Liabilities” don’t apply
a) Partnership
b) Agency - Principal
c) Employer – Employee
d) Wife – Husband
Answer : Wife – Husband
44) Which of the following principal of Torts don’t effect Value of the Property
a) Nuisance
b) Trespass to Property
c) Strict Liability and Absolute Libaility
d) Negligence
Answer : Negligence
45) An Arbitration Agreement can be in writing if contained in following
a) document signed by the parties;
b) an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of telecommunication which provide a
record of the agreement; or
c) an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of the agreement is
alleged by one party and not denied by the other
d) All of the Above
Answer : All of the Above.
46) Arbitration can’t be held in following matter
a) Property
b) Matrimonial Disputes
c) Construction Agreement
d) Business / Partnership Dispute
Answer : Matrimonial
47) Provision relating to Burden of Proof, Presumptions, Conclusive Proof is contained in _______
Chapter of Indian Evidence Act, 1872
a) First
b) Tenth
c) Seventh
d) Fifth
Answer : Seventh
48) Who is prove his case come within exception as per provision of Section 105 of Indian Evidence
Act
a) Prosecution
b) Plaintiff
c) Accused
d) Police
Answer : Accused.
49 ) A person is deemed to dead under Section 108 of Indian Evidence Act if not been heard of for
________years by those who would naturally have heard of him if he had been alive
a) Five Years
b) Fourteen Years
c) Ten Years
d) Seven Years
Answer : Seven Years
50) Provision relating to Valuation by Registered Valuer contained in Section _______ of Companies
Act, 2013.
a) Section 192
b) Section 247
c) Section 231
d) Section 281
Answer : Section 247
51) Which of the following Section don’t contain provision relating to Valuer as per provision of
Companies Act, 2013.
a) Section 230
b) Section 231
c) Section 225
d) Section 192
Answer : Section 225
52) Provision relating to Qualification Education and Experience relating to Registered Valuer
contained in Annexure _____ of Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation) Rules, 2017
a) I
b) II
c) IV
d) III
Answer : Annexure IV
53) Individual should make application for Certificate of Registration as Registered Valuer on
a) Form C
b) Form D
c) Form A
d) Form B
Answer : Form A
54)Valuer is required to maintain record of all the assignment upto ____ Years
a) One
b) Five
c) Seven
d) Three
Answer: Three
55) Who will notified Valuation Standard under Rule of the Companies (Registered Valuers and
Valuation) Rules, 2017.
a) IBBI
b) ROC
c) RVO
d) Central Government
Answer : Central Government
56) Valuation Examination once passed is valid for Registration for _____ Years
a) Five
b) One
c) Ten
d) Three
Answer : Three
57) Authority can grant Certificate of Registration with ___Days from the Application
a) Thirty
b) Seventy Five
c) Sixty
d) Fifty
Answer : Sixty
58) Resolution Profession should initially appoint _____ registered valuer to determine fair value and
liquidation Value
a) One
b) Three
c) Five
d) Two
Answer: Two
59) Following are disqualified to appointed as Registered Valuer
a) a relative of the resolution professional;
b) a related party of the corporate debtor;
c) an auditor of the corporate debtor at any time during the five years preceding the insolvency
commencement date
d) All of the Above
Answer : All of the Above
60) Who will obtained Valuation of the Immovable property from approved valueras per provision of
SARFESI Act.
a) Banker
b) Creditor
c) Debitor
d) Authorized Officer.
Answer : Authorized Officer
61. At a time, President's rule can be imposed on a state for a maximum period of
(a) 1 year
(b) 5 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 4 years
Answer: 1 year
62. How many types of Emergency have been visualised in the Constitution of India ?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) One
d) Two
Answer: Three
63. The concept of the Judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) U.K.
(b) Switzerland
(c) U.S.A
(d) U.S.S.R.
Answer: U.S.A
64. Which of the following is not a writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court ?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Prohibition
Answer: Quo Warranto
65. Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme
Court ?
a) Disputes between the States.
b) Protection against the violation of the Constitution.
c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights.
d) Disputes between the Centre and the States.
Answer : c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights.
66. Which of the following Articles deals with the Amendment to Our Constitution ?
a) 368.
b) 372.
c) 356.
d) 370.
Answer : 368
67. Which amendment to Constitution provide your reservation to Economic Weaker Section.
a) 77
b) 103
c) 41
d) 90
Answer : 103
68. At Present India has _____ State and ____Union Territories
a) 25 and 5
b) 28 and 4
c) 29 and 7
d) 31 and 2
Answer : 29 and 7
69. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Rights
a) Right to Freedom
b) Right to Equality
c) Right to Property
d) Right against Exploitation
Answer : Right to Property
70. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions contain in which Article.
a) 27
b) 14
c) 40
d) 30
Answer : 30
71. Which of the following will make the contract as illegal…..
a) If the object of Contract is illegal
b) If the object of the Contract is Immoral
c) If the object of the Contract is against Public Policy or Safety
d) All of the Above
Answer : All of the Above
72. When a New Contract is substituted to the existing Contract between the same parties is called
as discharge of contract by…….
a) Rescission of Contract
b) Omission of Contract
c) Remission of Contract
d) Novation of Contract
Answer : Novation of Contract
73. A Contract is……
a) a legal obligation
b) an agreement plus a legal obligation
c) an agreement
d) a legal right
Answer : an agreement plus a legal obligation
74. A specific Offer can be accepted by
a) any person
b) any friend of offer
c) the person to whom it is made
d) any friend of offeree
Answer : the person to whom it is made
75. A letter of acceptance, stamped and duly addressed is put into course of action. There is…
a) A Contract Voidable at the option of acceptor
b) A Contract Voidable at the option of offer
c) No Contract at all
d) a Valid Contract
Answer : A Valid Contract
76. The advertisement to sell the goods by auction is called as ……
a) An offer
b) No Offer at all
c) An Invitation to Offer
d) A Contract
Answer : An Invitation to Offer
77. An Contract made on Mobile Phone is
a) A Valid Contract
b) A Void Contract
c) A Illegal Contract
d) An unenforceable Contract
Answer : A Valid Contract
78. Consideration in any Contract
a) may be past, present or future
b) may be present or future only.
c) must be present only.
d) must be future only.
Answer : may be past, present or future.
79. Consent given to Contract under some misrepresentation by the Other party makes the Contract
a) Void
b) Invalid
c) Unenforceable by law
d) Voidable
Answer : Voidable
80. Fraud exist when it is shown that a false representation has been made……
a) Knowingly
b) Recklessly , not caring whether it is true or false
c) None of the Above
d) Both a and b
Answer : Both
81. Any Contract made with alien is ....
a) Unlawful on the ground of Public Policy
b) Unlawful, because it became difficult to perform
c) Valid
d) Void
Answer : Unlawful on the ground of Public Policy
82. Which of the following is not a Right of Auctioneer
a) Right to Receive Remuneration
b) Right to Indemnity
c) Right to Compensation
d) All of the Above.
Answer : All of the Above.
83. Which of the following are essential elements of vicarious liability:
a) There must be a relationship of a certain kind.
b) The wrongful act must be related to the relationship in a certain way.
c) The wrongful act must be done within the course of relationship.
d) All of the Above
Answer: All of the Above
84. The damage so caused must be an _________ cause of the act of negligence and not a _______
cause in case of Negligence
a) immediate and remote
b) remote and forseen
c) remote and immediate
d) important and included
Answer : immediate and remote
85. An Arbitration Agreement as per law must be
a) In Written
b) Oral
c) Both Oral and Written
d) None of the Above
Answer : In Written
86. Burden of Proof as to Particular facts Contain in Section ______ of Indian Evidence Act
a) 105
b) 107
c) 103
d) 109
Answer : 103
87. Birth during marriage, conclusive proof of legitimacy provided in Section ___ of Indian Evidence
Act
a) 115
b) 119
c) 112
d)113
Answer : 113
88. Presumption of Certain facts contained in Section _____ of the Indian Evidence Act.
a) 105
b) 201
c) 114
d) 170
Answer : 114
89. Presumption is always of
a) Facts
b) Law and Facts
c) Both of Above
d) None of Above
Answer : Facts
90. Maximum Punishment prescribed under Section 247 of Indian Companies Act, 2013 is
a) Two Years
b) One Year
c) Three Years
d) Seven Years
Answer : One Year
91. No One Expect Registered Valuer can undertake work relating to Valuation w.e.f
a) 1st January, 2019
b) 1st April, 2019
c) 1st February, 2019
d) 31st Janaury, 2019
Answer : 1st February, 2019-02-12
92. A person is eligible to registered as Valuer if
a) Valuer Member of RVO
b) Passed Valuer Examination
c) Resident of India
d) All of Above
Answer : All of Above
93. Which of the following is not Class of Registered Valuer
a) Fixed Assets
b) Plant and Machinery
c) Land and Building
d) Securities and Financial Assets.
Answer : Fixed Assets
94. Certificate for the Registration of RVO is issued on
a) Form B
b) Form F
c) Form A
d) Form E
Answer : Form E
95. A Registered Valuer under IBC Provision has to provide
a) Fair Value
b) Liquidation Value
c) Both A and B
d) None of the Above
Answer : Both A and B
96. Who Appointed Registered Valuer under IBC
a) Shareholder of the Company
b) Director of the Company
c) Resolution Professional
d) IBBI
Answer : Resolution Professional
97. Minimum Experience in Case of Graduation as per Companies (Registered Valuers and Valuation)
Rules, 2017 for registration as Valuer in Plant and Machinery and Land and Building is
a) Two Years
b) Seven Year
c) One Year
d) Five Years
Answer : Five Years
98. Certification of Registration is issued by IBBI within ____ Days from the Receipt of Application
a) 30 Days
b) 45 Days
c) 60 Days
d) 120 Days
Answer : 60 Days
99. Application Fee provided for Registration as Registered Valuer is
a) One Thousands
b) Two Thousands
c) Ten Thousands
d) Five Thousands
Answer : Five Thousands
100. Certificate of Registration as Registered Valuer is issued on ________ by IBBI
a) Form F
b) Form D
c) Form M
d) Form C
Answer : Form C
