10.03.19 version code: a neet model entrance...
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NNEEEETT MMOODDEELL EENNTTRRAANNCCEE EEXXAAMM RREEPPEEAATTEERRSS –– MMEEDDIICCAALL ((MMOODDUULLEE –– IIIIII))
TTHHEERRMMAALL PPRROOPPEERRTTIIEESS OOFF MMAATTTTEERR,, TTHHEERRMMOODDYYNNAAMMIICCSS,, KKIINNEETTIICC TTHHEEOORRYY OOFF GGAASSEESS,, OOSSCCIILLLLAATTIIOONNSS,, WWAAVVEESS,, BBAASSIICC
OORRGGAANNIICC CCHHEEMMIISSTTRRYY,, HHYYDDRROOCCAARRBBOONNSS,, PPRRIINNCCIIPPLLEESS OOFF IINNHHEERRIITTAANNCCEE && VVAARRIIAATTIIOONN,, MMOOLLEECCUULLAARR BBAASSIISS OOFF
IINNHHEERRIITTAANNCCEE,, EENNVVIIRROONNMMEENNTTAALL IISSSSUUEESS,, MMIICCRROOBBEESS IINN HHUUMMAANN WWEELLFFAARREE,, EECCOOSSYYSSTTEEMM,,OORRGGAANNIISSMM && PPOOPPUULLAATTIIOONN
1. A scientist proposes a new temperature scale in
which the ice point is 25 X is the new unit of temperature) and the steam point is 305 X. The specific heat capacity of water in this new scale is (in Jkg-1 X-1) a) 4.2 × 103 b) 3.0 × 103 c) 1.2 × 103 d) 1.5 × 103
2. Two temperature scales A and B are related by
A 42 B 72
110 220
− −= . At which temperature two scales
have the same readings? a) – 42° b) – 72° c) + 12° d) – 40°
3. The length of a steel rod is 5 cm longer than that of a brass rod. If this difference in their lengths is to remain the same at all temperatures, then the length of brass rod will be (coefficient of linear expansion for steel and brass are 12 × 10-6 / ℃ and 18 × 10-6 /℃ respectively) a) 20 cm b) 15 cm c) 5 cm d) 10 cm
4. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to t + ∆t, its moment of inertia increases from I to I + ∆I. If α be the coefficient of linear expansion of
the rod, then the value of I
I
∆ is
a) 2 α ∆t b) α ∆t
c) t
2
α∆
d)
t∆
α
5. The volume of mercury in the bulb of a thermometer is 10-6 m3. The area of cross – section of the capillary tube is 2 × 10-7 m2. If the temperature is raised by 100℃, the increase in the length of the mercury column is (γHg = 18 × 10-5 / °C) a) 18 cm b) 0.9 cm c) 9 cm d) 1.8 cm
6. A lead bullet of unknown mass is fired with a speed of 180 ms-1 into a tree in which it stops. Assuming that in this process two – third of heat produced goes into the bullet and one – third into wood. The temperature of the bullet rises by (Specific heat of lead = 0.120 J/g °C) a) 140 °C b) 106 °C c) 90 °C d) 100 °C
7. 19 g of water at 30°C and 5 g of ice at - 20°C are mixed together in a calorimeter. What is the final temperature of the mixture? (Given, specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g-1 °C-1 and latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal g-1) a) 0 °C b) -5 °C c) 5 °C d) 10 °C
8. A 42 kg block of ice moving on rough horizontal surface stops due to friction, after sometime. If the initial velocity of the decelerating block is 4 ms-1, the mass of ice (in kg) that has melted due to the heat generated by the friction is (Latent heat of ice is 3.36 × 105 J kg-1) a) 1 × 10-3 b) 1.5 × 10-3 c) 2 × 10-3 d) 2.5 × 10-3
9. Two slabs A and B of different materials but of the same thickness are joined end to end to form a composite slab. The thermal conductivities of A and B are K1 and K2 respectively. A steady temperature difference of 12°C is maintained across the
composite slab. If 2
1
KK
2= , the temperature
difference across slab A is a) 4°C b) 6°C c) 8°C d) 10°C
10. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 min and to 54°C in the next 5 min. The temperature of the surrounding is a) 45°C b) 20°C c) 42°C d) 10°C
11. In a thermodynamic process, the pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas release 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 30 J, then the final internal energy will be a) 2 J b) 42 J c) 18 J d) 58 J
12. The shown p – V diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with an ideal monoatomic gas. The amount of heat, extracted from the source in a single cycle is
a) p0V0 b) 13
2 p0V0
c) 11
2 p0V0 d) 4p0V0
13. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter? a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Work d) Volume
1100..0033..1199
VVeerrssiioonn CCooddee:: AA Time : 3 Hours
14. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole of nitrogen at temperature T0, while box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3)T0. The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat flows between them until the gases reach a common final temperature (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final temperature of the gases Tf, in terms of T0 is
a) f 0
3T = T
7 b)
f 0
7T = T
3
c) 2
f 0
3T = T d)
f 0
5T = T
2 15. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the pressure
is found to be inversely proportional to the fourth power of the volume. Then, the ratio of specific heats is a) 1 b) 1.33 c) 1.67 d) 1.4
16. A given mass of a gas is compressed isothermally until its pressure is doubled. It is then allowed to expand adiabatically until its original volume is restored and its pressure is then found to be 0.75 of its initial pressure. The ratio of the specific heats of the gas is approximately a) 1.20 b) 1.41 c) 1.67 d) 1.83
17. A diatomic gas initially at 18°C is compressed adiabatically to one – eight of its original volume. The temperature after compression will be a) 10°C b) 887°C c) 668 K d) 144°C
18. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40%, receives heat at 500 K. If the efficiency is to be 50%, the source temperature for the same exhaust temperature is a) 900 K b) 600 K c) 700 K d) 800 K
19. The work done, W during an isothermal process in which 1 mole of the gas expands from an initial volume V1 to a final volume V2 is given by (R = gas constant, T = temperature)
a) 1
2 1 e
2
TR(V V ) log
T−
b) 2
2 1 e
1
VR(T T ) log
V−
c) 2
e
1
VRT log
V
d) 1
e
2
V2RT log
V
20. Which of the following gases possesses maximum rms velocity, all being at the same temperature? a) Oxygen b) Air c)Carbon dioxide d)Hydrogen
21. The average translational energy and the rms speed of molecules in a sample of oxygen gas at 300 K are 6.21 × 10-21 J and 484 m/s respectively. The corresponding values at 600 K are nearly : (assuming ideal gas behavior) a)12.42 × 10-21 J , 968 m/s b) 8.78 × 10-21 J , 684 m/s c) 6.21 × 10-21 J , 968 m/s d) 12.42 × 10-21 J , 684 m/s
22. Two vessels A and B having equal volume contain equal masses of hydrogen in A and helium in B at 300 K. Then, mark the correct statement.
a) The pressure exerted by hydrogen is half that exerted by helium b) The pressure exerted by hydrogen is equal to that exerted by helium c) Average KE of the molecules of hydrogen is half the average KE of the molecules of helium d) The pressure exerted by hydrogen is twice that exerted by helium
23. The root mean square velocity of the molecules of a gas is 1260 m/s. The average speed of the molecules is : a) 1029 m s-1 b) 1161 m s-1 c) 1671 m s-1 d) 917 m s-1
24. The mean translational kinetic energy per unit volume E/V and the pressure P of a perfect gas are related as :
a) E
P2V
= b) 2E
P3V
=
c) 3EV
P2
= d) 3E
P2V
=
25. The bob of a simple pendulum is a spherical hollow ball filled with water. A plugged hole at the bottom of the oscillating bob gets suddenly unplugged. During observation, till water is coming out, the time period of oscillation would a) first increase then decrease to the original value b) first decrease then increase to the original value c) remain unchanged d) increase towards a saturation value
26. A simple pendulum is oscillating in a lift. If the lift starts moving upwards with a uniform acceleration, the period will a) remain unaffected b) be shorter c) be longer d) may be shorter or longer, depending on the magnitude of acceleration
27. Two simple pendulums having lengths 1 m and 16 m are both given small displacements in the same direction at the same instant. They will again be in phase at the mean position after the shorter pendulum has competed n oscillations, where n is a) 1/4 b) 4 c) 5 d) 16
28. A body falling freely on a planet covers 8 m in 2 s. The time period of a one metre long simple pendulum on this planet will be a) 1.57 s b) 3.14 s c) 6.28 s d) none of these
29. A mass m attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 3 s. If the mass is increased by 1 kg the period increases by 1 s. The initial mass m is
a) 7
kg9
b) 9
kg7
c) 14
kg9
d) 18
kg7
30. The bob of a simple pendulum of period T is given a negative charge. If it is allowed to oscillate above a positively charged plate, the new time period will be a) equal to T b) more than T c) less than T d) infinite
31. A body of mass 5 g is executing SHM with amplitude 10 cm. Its maximum velocity is 100 cm/s. Its velocity will be 50 cm/s at a displacement from the mean position equal to
a) 5 cm b) 53 cm c) 4 cm d) 43 cm 32. A simple harmonic oscillator has a period of 0.01 s
and an amplitude of 0.2 m. The magnitude of the velocity in m/s at the centre of oscillation is a) 20π b) 40π c) 60π d) 80π
33. A particle is executing SHM. Then the graph of acceleration as a function of displacement is a) straight line b) circle c) ellipse d) hyperbola
34. A weakly damped harmonic oscillator of frequency n1 is driven by an external periodic force of frequency n2. When the steady state is reached, the frequency of the oscillator will be
a) n1 b) n2 c) (n1 + n2)/2 d) 1 2
n n
35. A body executes SHM with an amplitude A. Its energy is half kinetic and half potential when the displacement is
a) A/3 b) A/2 c) A/ 2 d) A/2 2 36. A stone hangs from the free end of a sonometer wire
whose vibrating length, when tuned to a tuning fork, is 40 cm. When the stone hangs wholly immersed in water, the resonant length is reduced to 30 cm. The relative density of the stone is a) 16/9 b) 16/7 c) 16/5 d) 16/3
37. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe, closed at one end, will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2
38. An ambulance blowing a siren of frequency 700 Hz is travelling slowly towards a vertical reflecting wall with a speed of 2 ms-1. The speed of sound is 350 ms-1. How many beats are heard by the driver per second? a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
39. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle displacements are given by
y = a sin 2π (bt – cx) where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if
a) 1
ca
=π
b) c = πa
c) b = ac d) 1
bac
=
40. A tube closed at one end containing air, produces, when excited, the fundamental note of frequency 512 Hz. If the tube is open at both ends, the fundamental frequency that can be excited is (in Hz) a) 1024 b) 512 c) 256 d) 128
41. Particle displacements (in cm) in a standing wave are given by
y (x, t) = 2 sin (0.1 π x) cos (100 π t) The distance between a node and the next antinode is a) 2.5 cm b) 5.0 cm c) 7.5 cm d) 10.0 cm
42. A sonometer wire of length 120 cm is divided into three segments of lengths in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. What is the ratio of their fundamental frequencies? a) 3 : 2 : 1 b) 4 : 2 : 1 c) 5 : 3 : 2 d) 6 : 3 : 2
43. Sound travels fastest in: a) water b) air c) steel d) kerosene oil
44. If the Young's modulus of the material of a rod is 2 × 1011 N m-2 and its density is 8000 kg m-3, the time taken by a sound wave to traverse 1m of the rod will be a) 10-4 s b) 2 × 10-4 s c) 10-2 s d) 2 × 10-2 s
45. At a given temperature, velocity of sound in oxygen and in hydrogen has the ratio: a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 1 : 1 d) 2 : 1
46. Correct order of acidic strength of the following compound are
a) I> IV > III > II b) III > II > I > IV c) II > III > IV > I d) IV > I > II > III
47. Correct IUPAC name of the compound is
a) 2,3- Dimethyl cyclohexene b) 1,6 – Dimethyl cyclohexene c) 1,2- Dimethyl cyclohex -2- ene d) 1,2- Dimethyl cyclohex – 1- ene
48. Which of the following compound exhibit geometrical isomerism
49. Geometrical isomerism possible in
50. Correct order of boiling point and melting point with respect to following compounds?
a) BP cis > trans MP trans > cis b) BP trans > cis MP trans > cis c) BP cis > trans MP cis > trans d) BP trans > cis MP cis > trans
51. Select optically inactive compound
52. Number of steroisomers possible for following
compound is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 5
53. Correct order of stability of following carbocation
a) I > II > III b) III > I > II c) III > II > I d) None
54. Correct order of stability of following carbocation
a) A > B b) B> A c) A = B d) Can’t predict
55. Which is incorrect option related to stability
56. Which order is incorrect related to stability
57. Correct order of H∆ hydroginaiton is
CH2 = CH2 CH3 – CH = CH2 A B CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 C
D
a) A > B > C > D b) D > C > B > A c) B > C > D > A d) D > A > C > B
58. Correct order of stability of following carbanions is
a) I > II b) I = II c) II > I d) Can’t predict
59. Which of the following is not stabilized by resonance
I . CH2 = CH − CH2+
II. CH3 − O − CH2+
III.
IV. a) II only b) II and IV c) I and II d) All stabilised by resonance
60.
61. Which of the following carbocation is highly stable
62.
63.
D is
64. Which of the following reaction is very slow
a) Nitration of benzene b) Sulphonation of benzene c) Friedal craft alkylation d) chlorinaton of benzene
65. Which is the best reagent for iodination of benzene? a) I2/FeCl3 b) I2/ FeI3 c) I2/ FeBr3 d) I – Cl / FeCl3
66. Which will evolve H2 gas on reaction with Na metal?
a) C only b) A and B c) B and C d) B, C and D
67. Which will give yellow ppt with AgNO3
a) II and III b) III only c) II, III, IV d) III, IV
68. Correct order of acidity
a) a > b > c > d b) a> b > d > c c) a> d > b > c d) a > b = d > c
69. Correct order of acidic character is
a) a > b > c b) c > b > a c) a > c > b d) a > b = c
70. Which of the following molecule pocess dipole moment?
71. Which will give positive test with NaHCO3
a) I and III b) I, III and IV c) I, II and III d) I, II
72. Correct order of basicity
a) R - o−
> Ph -o−
> R - COO−
> RSO3-
b) RSO3- > R - COO
−> Ph -o
−> R - o
−
c) Ph -o−
> RSO3- > R - COO
−> R - o
−
d) R - o−
> R - COO−
> Ph -o−
> RSO3-
73. Which of the following is NOT an electrophile a) SO3 b) Na+ c) : C – Cl d) All | Cl
74. Correct order of C – O bond length CH3 – CH2 – OH (I) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH (II)
(III) a) III > II > I b) III = II > I c) I > II >III d) I >III > II
75. Possible cyclic structural isomerism of a compound having molecular formula C4H6 a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
76.
correct order of acidic character is a) b >a > d > c b) b > a >c >d c) a> b > c > d d) a > d > c > b
77. Correct order of basic character in aq. Medium is
a) I > II > III b) II > I > III c) I < II > III d) III > I > II
78. Correct order of basic character is
a) I > II > III > IV b) I> III > II > IV c) IV > III > II > I d) III > II > IV > I
79. Which of the following tautomerism NOT possible
a)I and III b) II and IV c) I and IV d) III and IV
80. Which of the following tautomerism NOT possible?
81.
82. Which of the following case friedal craft reaction Not
possible
83. Which of the following give instant turbidity with
lucas reagent
84. Correct stability order
a) I > II > III > IV b) II > IV > III > I c) II > IV > I > III d) I > III > II > IV
85.
86.
87.
Vant – Hoff factor (i) for this reaction is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
88. The major product of the reaction is
89.
90.
91. Marriage between close relatives is avoided in some
Indian communities. It is also supported by biologists because it induces a) Mutations b) Multiple birth c) Recessive alleles to come together d) Abnormalities in child birth
92. In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the offsprings ? a) Autosomal b) Cytoplasmic c) Y – linked d) X – linked
93. Which of the following is correct ? a) There will be no independent assortment in presence of linkage b) There will be no segregation in presence of linkage c) There will be no dominance in presence of linkage d) There will be no crossing over in presence of dominance
94. Crossing over is the exchange of parts of chromosomes between two non – sister chromatids. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for a) Linkage between genes b) Recombination of linked genes c) Segregation of alleles d) Dominance of genes
95. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the a) Fertilisation of an XX egg by a normal Y – bearing sperm b) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5 c) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5 d) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
96. Sickle – cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because a) It is controlled by sex linked dominant gene b) It is not a foetal disease c) It provides immunity against malaria d) It is controlled by dominant genes
97. Which one of the following pairs of features is a good example of polygenic inheritance ? a) Human height and skin colour b) ABO blood group in humans and flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa c) Hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans d) Human eye colour and sickle - cell anaemia
98. Genes located on Y – chromosomes are called a) Holandric genes b) Autosomal genes c) Sex – linked genes d) Mutant genes
99. Barr body represents a) Heterochromatin in male and female cells b) All heterochromatin in female cells c) Y – chromosomes in somatic cells d) One of the two X –chromosomes in somatic cells of female
100. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colourblind marries a colourblind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy a) Must have normal colour vision b) Will be partially colourblind, since he is heterozygous for the colourblind mutant allele c) Must be colourblind d) May be colourblind or may be of normal vision
101. Recessive mutations are expressed in a) Homozygous condition b) Heterozygous condition c) Next generation d) Same generation
102. The two eukaryotic organelles responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance are a) Lysosomes and mitochondria b) Chloroplasts and lysosomes c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts d) Mitochondria and Golgi complex
103. Which cross would best illustrate Mendel’s law of segregation ? a) TT × tt b) Hh × hh c) Bb × Bb d) rr × rr
104. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of a certain sex – linked trait in humans
a) Dominant X linked b) Recessive X linked c) Dominant Y linked d) Recessive Y linked
105. The cri-du – chat syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Inversion d) Translocation
106. The mating of two curly – haired brown guinea pigs results in some offsprings with brown curly hair, some with brown straight hair, some with white curly hair and even some with white straight hair. This mating illustrates, which of Mendel’s laws? a) Dominance b) Segregation c) Independent assortment d) Sex – linkage
107. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is the case of a) Frame – shift mutation b) Transcription c) Transition d) Transversion
108. The recessive genes located on X – chromosome in humans are always a) Lethal b) Sub – lethal c) Expressed in males d) Expressed in females
109. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached ear –lobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals. Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct ?
a) The parents are homozygous recessive b) The trait is Y – linked c) The parents are homozygous dominant d) The parents are heterozygous
110. Match the following columns Column A Column B A Multiple alleles 1. Interaction between
different genes B Epistasis 2. X-linked diseases C Crossing over 3. Autosomal diseases D Colour blindness 4.
Presence of more than two alleles for a gene
5. Pachytene stage Codes a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 b) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3 c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5 d) A – 5, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
111. In an animal cell, protein synthesis takes place a) Only on the ribosomes protein in the cytosol b) Only on the ribosomes attached to nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum c) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm d) On ribosomes present in the cytosol as well as in the mitochondria
112. First code of every mRNA is a) either AUG or GUG b) Either AUG or UAG c) Either GUG or UAA d) Either UGA or UAA
113. Pollution occurring in a) Air b) Water c) Soil d) All of these
114. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that a) One strand turns anti – clockwise b) The phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends, share the same position c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole) d) One strand turns clockwise
115. Wobble hypothesis establishes a) Peptide chain formation b) Initiation of peptide chain c) Termination of peptide chain d) Economy in tRNA molecules
116. One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by a) R – Franklin b) Hershey and Chase c) A Garrod d) Beadle and Tatum
117. In E – coli, an operator gene combines with a) Inducer gene to switch on structural gene action b) Inducer gene to switch off structural gene action c) Regulator protein (repressor) to switch off structural gene action d) Regulator protein to switch on gene action
118. The enzyme, which helps to cut one strand of DNA duplex to release tension of coiling of two strands is a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase – I c) Topoisomerase d) Helicase
119. The term ‘gene’ was introduced by a) Mendel b) Bateson c) Morgan d) Johannsen
120. E. Coli cells with a mutated Z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because a) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose b) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cells c) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells d) They cannot synthesise functional β-galactosidase
121. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesise DNA a) Reverse transcriptase b) DNA dependant RNA polymerase c) DNA polymerase d) RNA polymerase
122. Anticodones are present on a) mRNA b) tRNA c) Both mRNA and tRNA d) rRNA
123. A gene of operon, which synthesis a repressor protein a) Promoter gene b) Structural gene c) Operator gene d) Regulator gene
124. DNA Replication is a) Semi – conservative b) Semi – discontinuous c) Conservative and discontinuous d) Both a and b
125. Number of base pairs in DNA helix around the octamer histone molecule is a) 140 – 200 bp b) 100 – 110 bp c) 240 – 280 bp d) 40 – 60 bp
126. SNP which is pronounced as ‘Snips’ strands for a) Small nuclear protein b) Single nucleotide particle c) Single nucleotide polymorphism d) Small nucleotide protein
127. Blotting technique involves the transfer of DNA from a) Membrane to gel b) Gel to membrane c) Sol to gel d) Gel to sol
128. Pollution may affect the environment in its -------- Aspects a) Physical b) Chemical c) Biological d) All
129. The agents that cause pollution a) CO b) DDT c) Mercury d) All
130. Atmospheric pollution may be caused by a) Volcanic explosion b) Forest fire c) Organic decay d) All
131. Approximate amount of annual emissions of atmospheric pollutants entering the earth’s atmosphere is a) 1 × 102 tones b) 1 × 1012 tones c) 1 × 1010 tones d) 1 × 108 tones
132. Pollutants resulting from human activities are mainly discharged in a) Overpopulated cities b) Industrial centres c) Rural area d) Both A and B
133. Pollutants are classified into a) Biodegradable b) Non biodegradable c) Qualitative d) All
134. Particulate substance as pollutants may be a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gaseous d) Both A and B
135. Which of the following exhibit speedy setting in air a) Smoke b) Sand c) Water drops d) Soot
136. Which of the following don’t settle in still air ? a) Cigarette smoke b) Water drops c) Sand particles d) All
137. The particulate pollutants are categorized according to a) Size b) Source c) Physical state d) All
138. Example for primary air pollutants a) SO2 b) NO2 c) CO d) All
139. Pollutants are evaluated on the basis of their a) Toxicity b) Size c) Shape d) Longevity
140. The products resulting from atmospheric reactions of hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides in the presence of sunlight are called a) Mists b) Dust c) Aerosol d) Photochemical smog
141. Example for a secondary pollutant a) Smog b) O3 c) PAN d) All
142. Most of the gaseous and particulate air pollutants are products of burning of a) Wood b) Fossil fuels c) Organic waste d) Coal
143. Nitrogen concentration in atmosphere is a) 20% b) 21% c) 78% d) 80%
144. Oxidation of sulphur in the fossil fuels mainly produces a) SO2 b) SO3 c) NO d) Both A and B
145. Acid rain (acid precipitation) is caused by a) Oxides of sulphur b) Oxides of nitrogen c) Ozone d) Both A and B
146. Content of CO2 in atmosphere is a) 93% b) 0.03% c) 0.5% d) 0.09%
147. Anaerobic sludge digesters produce gases like ----- a) Ethane, Carbondioxide, Hydrogen sulphide b) Methane, Carbondioxide, Hydrogen sulphide c) Methane, Carbodioxide , Carbon monoxide d) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide, ammonia
148. Statements about Cyanobacteria :- 1) They are autotrophic microbes which can fix atmospheric nitrogen 2) They are distributed only in aquatic environments 3) Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria are examples 4) They are known as blue – green algae and they can increase the soil fertility. Which of the following is correct? a) All are correct b) Statement 1 is wrong c) Statement 2 is wrong d) Statement 3 is wrong
149. Cyclosporin A is used for a) Removing clots b) Immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation c) Blood cholesterol lowering agent d) Purification of bottled juice
150. Which of the following is produced by distillation a) Wine b) Whisky c) Brandy d) Both b & c
151. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is known as a) Baker’s yeast b) Brewer’s yeast c) Both a & b d) Multicellular yeast
152. Pick the correct statement A) Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in soil B) Azospirillum and Azotobacter fix atmospheric N2 while free living in soil C) Many fungi of the genus Glomus forms mycorhiza D)Anabaena Nostoc and Azospirillum are cyanobacteria a) A & B correct, C & D false b) B & C correct, A & D false c) A, B & C correct, D false d) All are wrong
153. What is the benefit of the plant in mycorrhiza ? a) Plant gets phosphorus b) Plant becomes resistant to root – borne pathogens c) Plant becomes tolerant to salinity and drought d) All of these
154. Match the following A) Adenovirus - i) Thermal vents B) Baculovirus - ii) Penicillium notatum C) Staphylococci - iii) Respiratory infections D) Geysers - iv) Biocontrol agent a) A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i b) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv c) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii d) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
155. Bottled juices are cleared by a) Proteases b) Pectinases c) Both a & b d) Lipases
156. Find the matched pair a) streptococcus – Bacteria b) Trichoderma polysporum – fungus c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae – yeast d) All of these
157. Prions are a) Monosaccherides b) Proteinacious infectious agents c) Protozoans d) Thermostable viruses
158. Aspergillus niger is a -----------which produce citric acid a) Bacteria b) Fungus c) Virus d) Protozoans
159. Which is wrong a) In Ammensalism one species is adversely affected and the other is not affected b) Predators in nature are prudent c)Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predators d) All are true
160. Which one of the following characteristic features are shown by true hibernators? a) Go into sleep during winter b) Body temperatures drops, breathing and heart beat become slow c) Avoids heat by spending dry-hot period in a tropic state d) Both a & b
161. Read the statement regarding parasitism i) The female mosquito is a parasite on human ii) The life cycles of endoparasites are more complex than ectoparasite iii) Brood parasitism in cuckoo is a fascinating example of parasitism iv) The parasitic plant cuscuta lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the course of evolution a) i, ii & iii correct b) i, ii & iv correct c) i & iii correct d) ii, iii & iv correct
162. Organisms tolerant of a wide range of salinities called a) Eury thermal b) Stenothermal c) Stenohaline d) Euryhaline
163. Factor which determine the population size a) Mortality b) Emigration c) Immigration d) All of these
164. Emigration is a) Going out of some individuals to return after sometime b) Temporary inward movement of some individuals c) It is the number of individuals of a population who left habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration d) None of these
165. Consider the following statement A) Many parasities are host specific B) Both host & parasites tend to co-evolve C) Many parasites have lost unnecessary sense organs D) Many parasites have lost digestive system a) All are true c) A & B are true C & D are false d) A & D are true B & C are false e) A, B & C are true D false
166. Biotic factors are a) Physical factors of soil which affect life. b) Factors of atmosphere which affect life. c) A living organisms which influence other organisms. d) Chemical factors of soil which affect life.
167. Next to temperature, which one of the following is the most important factor influencing the life of organism. a) Light b) Soil c) Water d) Pressure
168. Relationship of an epiphyte with its support represent a) Mutualism b) Competition c) Parasitism d) Commensalism
169. In commensalism a) Both host and commensals are benefited. b) Commensal derives benefit. c) The host derives benefit. d) None of these are benefited.
170. “ Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co – exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated”. This law was proposed by -------- a) Blackmann b) Gause c) Allen d) Priestly
171. Which of the following statement regarding standing crop is correct? a) Certain mass of living material in each trophic level at a particular time b) The amount of nutrients present in the soil at any given time c) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels d) The amount of energy present in each trophic level at particular time
172. Select the false statement a) In the presence of sugar decomposition is slower b) Dead organic matter is beginning of detritus food web c) Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that breakdown dead materials d) All are true
173. How many percent of carbon is found dissolved in oceans a) 71% b) 49% c) 50% d) 60%
174. GPP is defined as the a) The rate of biomass production by animals b) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers c) Both a and b d) Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.
175. In an aquatic ecosystem zooplankton usually serve as a) Primary consumers b) Secondary consumers c) Producer d) Both a & b
176. Match the following Column I Column II 1) Detritus 2) Second trophic level 3) Carnivore 4) Producers
A) Secondary consumer B) Decomposers C) Herbivore D) First trophic level
a) 1 – C 2 – B C – A 4 – D b) 1 – D 2 – B 3 - C 4 – A c) 1 – B 2 – C 3 – A 4 – D d) 1 – B 2 – A 3 - C 4 – D
177. The pyramid of numbers deals with the number of a) Sub species in a community. b) Species in a given area. c) Individuals in a community d) Individuals in a trophic level.
178. Which one of the following forms the pioneers in primary succession in water? a) Phytoplanktons b) Free flowing angiosperms. c) Rooted hydrophytes d) Zooplanktons
179. Fungi in a forest ecosystem is a) Producer b) Decomposer c) Top consumer d) Autotrophs
180. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts’ through the process a) Catabolism b) Leaching c) Fragmentation d) Mineralisation
NNEEEETT MMOODDEELL EENNTTRRAANNCCEE EEXXAAMM RREEPPEEAATTEERRSS –– MMEEDDIICCAALL ((MMOODDUULLEE –– IIIIII))
TTHHEERRMMAALL PPRROOPPEERRTTIIEESS OOFF MMAATTTTEERR,, TTHHEERRMMOODDYYNNAAMMIICCSS,, KKIINNEETTIICC TTHHEEOORRYY OOFF GGAASSEESS,, OOSSCCIILLLLAATTIIOONNSS,, WWAAVVEESS,, BBAASSIICC
OORRGGAANNIICC CCHHEEMMIISSTTRRYY,, HHYYDDRROOCCAARRBBOONNSS,, PPRRIINNCCIIPPLLEESS OOFF IINNHHEERRIITTAANNCCEE && VVAARRIIAATTIIOONN,, MMOOLLEECCUULLAARR BBAASSIISS OOFF
IINNHHEERRIITTAANNCCEE,, EENNVVIIRROONNMMEENNTTAALL IISSSSUUEESS,, MMIICCRROOBBEESS IINN HHUUMMAANN WWEELLFFAARREE,, EECCOOSSYYSSTTEEMM,, OORRGGAANNIISSMM && PPOOPPUULLAATTIIOONN
1. When the temperature of a rod increases from t to
t + ∆t, its moment of inertia increases from I to I + ∆I. If α be the coefficient of linear expansion of
the rod, then the value of I
I
∆ is
a) 2 α ∆t b) α ∆t
c) t
2
α∆
d)
t∆
α
2. The shown p – V diagram represents the thermodynamic cycle of an engine, operating with an ideal monoatomic gas. The amount of heat, extracted from the source in a single cycle is
a) p0V0 b) 13
2 p0V0
c) 11
2 p0V0 d) 4p0V0
3. The mean translational kinetic energy per unit volume E/V and the pressure P of a perfect gas are related as :
a) E
P2V
= b) 2E
P3V
=
c) 3EV
P2
= d) 3E
P2V
=
4. The bob of a simple pendulum of period T is given a negative charge. If it is allowed to oscillate above a positively charged plate, the new time period will be a) equal to T b) more than T c) less than T d) infinite
5. A weakly damped harmonic oscillator of frequency n1 is driven by an external periodic force of frequency n2. When the steady state is reached, the frequency of the oscillator will be a) n1 b) n2
c) (n1 + n2)/2 d) 1 2
n n
6. An organ pipe, open at both ends and another organ pipe, closed at one end, will resonate with each other, if their lengths are in the ratio of a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 2 : 1 d) 1 : 2
7. Particle displacements (in cm) in a standing wave are given by
y (x, t) = 2 sin (0.1 π x) cos (100 π t) The distance between a node and the next antinode is a) 2.5 cm b) 5.0 cm c) 7.5 cm d) 10.0 cm
8. Which of the following parameters does not characterize the thermodynamic state of matter? a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Work d) Volume
9. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle displacements are given by
y = a sin 2π (bt – cx) where a, b and c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if
a) 1
ca
=π
b) c = πa
c) b = ac d) 1
bac
=
10. Sound travels fastest in: a) water b) air c) steel d) kerosene oil
11. A scientist proposes a new temperature scale in which the ice point is 25 X is the new unit of temperature) and the steam point is 305 X. The specific heat capacity of water in this new scale is (in Jkg-1 X-1) a) 4.2 × 103 b) 3.0 × 103 c) 1.2 × 103 d) 1.5 × 103
12. The volume of mercury in the bulb of a thermometer is 10-6 m3. The area of cross – section of the capillary tube is 2 × 10-7 m2. If the temperature is raised by 100℃, the increase in the length of the mercury column is (γHg = 18 × 10-5 / °C) a) 18 cm b) 0.9 cm c) 9 cm d) 1.8 cm
13. 19 g of water at 30°C and 5 g of ice at - 20°C are mixed together in a calorimeter. What is the final temperature of the mixture? (Given, specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal g-1 °C-1 and latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal g-1) a) 0 °C b) -5 °C c) 5 °C d) 10 °C
14. Two slabs A and B of different materials but of the same thickness are joined end to end to form a composite slab. The thermal conductivities of A and B are K1 and K2 respectively. A steady temperature difference of 12°C is maintained across the
composite slab. If 2
1
KK
2= , the temperature
difference across slab A is a) 4°C b) 6°C c) 8°C d) 10°C
1100..0033..1199
VVeerrssiioonn CCooddee::BB Time : 3 Hours
15. In a thermodynamic process, the pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas release 20 J of heat and 8 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 30 J, then the final internal energy will be a) 2 J b) 42 J c) 18 J d) 58 J
16. Two temperature scales A and B are related by
A 42 B 72
110 220
− −= . At which temperature two scales
have the same readings? a) – 42° b) – 72° c) + 12° d) – 40°
17. A lead bullet of unknown mass is fired with a speed of 180 ms-1 into a tree in which it stops. Assuming that in this process two – third of heat produced goes into the bullet and one – third into wood. The temperature of the bullet rises by (Specific heat of lead = 0.120 J/g °C) a) 140 °C b) 106 °C c) 90 °C d) 100 °C
18. At a given temperature, velocity of sound in oxygen and in hydrogen has the ratio: a) 4 : 1 b) 1 : 4 c) 1 : 1 d) 2 : 1
19. Certain quantity of water cools from 70°C to 60°C in the first 5 min and to 54°C in the next 5 min. The temperature of the surrounding is a) 45°C b) 20°C c) 42°C d) 10°C
20. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the pressure is found to be inversely proportional to the fourth power of the volume. Then, the ratio of specific heats is a) 1 b) 1.33 c) 1.67 d) 1.4
21. A diatomic gas initially at 18°C is compressed adiabatically to one – eight of its original volume. The temperature after compression will be a) 10°C b) 887°C c) 668 K d) 144°C
22. The work done, W during an isothermal process in which 1 mole of the gas expands from an initial volume V1 to a final volume V2 is given by (R = gas constant, T = temperature)
a) 1
2 1 e
2
TR(V V ) log
T−
b) 2
2 1 e
1
VR(T T ) log
V−
c) 2
e
1
VRT log
V
d) 1
e
2
V2RT log
V
23. The average translational energy and the rms speed of molecules in a sample of oxygen gas at 300 K are 6.21 × 10-21 J and 484 m/s respectively. The corresponding values at 600 K are nearly : (assuming ideal gas behavior) a) 12.42 × 10-21 J , 968 m/s b) 8.78 × 10-21 J , 684 m/s c) 6.21 × 10-21 J , 968 m/s d) 12.42 × 10-21 J , 684 m/s
24. A 42 kg block of ice moving on rough horizontal surface stops due to friction, after sometime. If the initial velocity of the decelerating block is 4 ms-1, the mass of ice (in kg) that has melted due to the heat generated by the friction is (Latent heat of ice is 3.36 × 105 J kg-1) a) 1 × 10-3 b) 1.5 × 10-3 c) 2 × 10-3 d) 2.5 × 10-3
25. Two vessels A and B having equal volume contain equal masses of hydrogen in A and helium in B at 300 K. Then, mark the correct statement. a) The pressure exerted by hydrogen is half that exerted by helium b) The pressure exerted by hydrogen is equal to that exerted by helium c) Average KE of the molecules of hydrogen is half the average KE of the molecules of helium d) The pressure exerted by hydrogen is twice that exerted by helium
26. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on a table. Box A contains one mole of nitrogen at temperature T0, while box B contains one mole of helium at temperature (7/3)T0. The boxes are then put into thermal contact with each other and heat flows between them until the gases reach a common final temperature (Ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then, the final temperature of the gases Tf, in terms of T0 is
a) f 0
3T = T
7 b)
f 0
7T = T
3
c) 2
f 0
3T = T d)
f 0
5T = T
2 27. Which of the following gases possesses maximum
rms velocity, all being at the same temperature? a) Oxygen b) Air c)Carbon dioxide d)Hydrogen
28. The length of a steel rod is 5 cm longer than that of a brass rod. If this difference in their lengths is to remain the same at all temperatures, then the length of brass rod will be (coefficient of linear expansion for steel and brass are 12 × 10-6 / ℃ and 18 × 10-6 /℃ respectively) a) 20 cm b) 15 cm c) 5 cm d) 10 cm
29. The root mean square velocity of the molecules of a gas is 1260 m/s. The average speed of the molecules is : a)1029 m s-1 b)1161 m s-1 c) 1671 m s-1 d) 917 m s-1
30. The bob of a simple pendulum is a spherical hollow ball filled with water. A plugged hole at the bottom of the oscillating bob gets suddenly unplugged. During observation, till water is coming out, the time period of oscillation would a) first increase then decrease to the original value b) first decrease then increase to the original value c) remain unchanged d) increase towards a saturation value
31. Two simple pendulums having lengths 1 m and 16 m are both given small displacements in the same direction at the same instant. They will again be in phase at the mean position after the shorter pendulum has competed n oscillations, where n is a) 1/4 b) 4 c) 5 d) 16
32. A given mass of a gas is compressed isothermally until its pressure is doubled. It is then allowed to expand adiabatically until its original volume is restored and its pressure is then found to be 0.75 of its initial pressure. The ratio of the specific heats of the gas is approximately a) 1.20 b) 1.41 c) 1.67 d) 1.83
33. A simple pendulum is oscillating in a lift. If the lift starts moving upwards with a uniform acceleration, the period will a) remain unaffected b) be shorter c) be longer d) may be shorter or longer, depending on the magnitude of acceleration
34. A mass m attached to a spring oscillates with a period of 3 s. If the mass is increased by 1 kg the period increases by 1 s. The initial mass m is
a) 7
kg9
b) 9
kg7
c) 14
kg9
d) 18
kg7
35. A body of mass 5 g is executing SHM with amplitude 10 cm. Its maximum velocity is 100 cm/s. Its velocity will be 50 cm/s at a displacement from the mean position equal to
a) 5 cm b) 53 cm c) 4 cm d) 43 cm 36. A particle is executing SHM. Then the graph of
acceleration as a function of displacement is a) straight line b) circle c) ellipse d) hyperbola
37. A body executes SHM with an amplitude A. Its energy is half kinetic and half potential when the displacement is
a) A/3 b) A/2 c) A/ 2 d) A/2 2 38. A Carnot engine whose efficiency is 40%, receives
heat at 500 K. If the efficiency is to be 50%, the source temperature for the same exhaust temperature is a) 900 K b) 600 K c) 700 K d) 800 K
39. A body falling freely on a planet covers 8 m in 2 s. The time period of a one metre long simple pendulum on this planet will be a) 1.57 s b) 3.14 s c) 6.28 s d) none of these
40. A simple harmonic oscillator has a period of 0.01 s and an amplitude of 0.2 m. The magnitude of the velocity in m/s at the centre of oscillation is a) 20π b) 40π c) 60π d) 80π
41. A stone hangs from the free end of a sonometer wire whose vibrating length, when tuned to a tuning fork, is 40 cm. When the stone hangs wholly immersed in water, the resonant length is reduced to 30 cm. The relative density of the stone is a) 16/9 b) 16/7 c) 16/5 d) 16/3
42. An ambulance blowing a siren of frequency 700 Hz is travelling slowly towards a vertical reflecting wall with a speed of 2 ms-1. The speed of sound is 350 ms-1. How many beats are heard by the driver per second? a) 4 b) 6 c) 8 d) 10
43. A tube closed at one end containing air, produces, when excited, the fundamental note of frequency 512 Hz. If the tube is open at both ends, the fundamental frequency that can be excited is (in Hz) a) 1024 b) 512 c) 256 d) 128
44. A sonometer wire of length 120 cm is divided into three segments of lengths in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 3. What is the ratio of their fundamental frequencies? a) 3 : 2 : 1 b) 4 : 2 : 1 c) 5 : 3 : 2 d) 6 : 3 : 2
45. If the Young's modulus of the material of a rod is 2 × 1011 N m-2 and its density is 8000 kg m-3, the time taken by a sound wave to traverse 1m of the rod will be a) 10-4 s b) 2 × 10-4 s c) 10-2 s d) 2 × 10-2 s
46. Select optically inactive compound
47. Which of the following is not stabilized by resonance
I . CH2 = CH − CH2+
II. CH3 − O − CH2+
III.
IV. a) II only b) II and IV c) I and II d) All stabilised by resonance
48.
49. Which will evolve H2 gas on reaction with Na metal?
a) C only b) A and B c) B and C d) B, C and D
50. Which is the best reagent for iodination of benzene? a) I2/FeCl3 b) I2/ FeI3 c) I2/ FeBr3 d) I – Cl / FeCl3
51. Which of the following reaction is very slow a) Nitration of benzene b) Sulphonation of benzene c) Friedal craft alkylation d) chlorinaton of benzene
52.
53.
D is
54. Which will give yellow ppt with AgNO3
a) II and III b) III only c) II, III, IV d) III, IV
55. Correct order of acidic character is
a) a > b > c b) c > b > a c) a > c > b d) a > b = c
56. Which will give positive test with NaHCO3
a) I and III b) I, III and IV c) I, II and III d) I, II
57. Which of the following is NOT an electrophile a) SO3 b) Na+ c) : C – Cl d) All | Cl
58. Possible cyclic structural isomerism of a compound having molecular formula C4H6 a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
59.
correct order of acidic character is a) b >a > d > c b) b > a >c >d c) a> b > c > d d) a > d > c > b
60. Correct order of basic character is
a) I > II > III > IV b) I> III > II > IV c) IV > III > II > I d) III > II > IV > I
61. Which of the following tautomerism NOT possible
a)I and III b) II and IV c) I and IV d) III and IV
62. Which of the following tautomerism NOT possible?
63.
64. Which of the following case friedal craft reaction Not
possible
65. Which of the following give instant turbidity with
lucas reagent
66. Correct stability order
a) I > II > III > IV b) II > IV > III > I c) II > IV > I > III d) I > III > II > IV
67.
68.
69.
Vant – Hoff factor (i) for this reaction is a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
70. The major product of the reaction is
71.
72.
73. Correct order of acidic strength of the following
compound are
a) I> IV > III > II b) III > II > I > IV c) II > III > IV > I d) IV > I > II > III
74. Which of the following compound exhibit geometrical isomerism
75. Correct order of basic character in aq. Medium is
a) I > II > III b) II > I > III c) I < II > III d) III > I > II
76. Correct order of basicity
a) R - o−
> Ph -o−
> R - COO−
> RSO3-
b) RSO3- > R - COO
−> Ph -o
−> R - o
−
c) Ph -o−
> RSO3- > R - COO
−> R - o
−
d) R - o−
> R - COO−
> Ph -o−
> RSO3-
77. Correct order of C – O bond length CH3 – CH2 – OH (I) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH (II)
(III) a) III > II > I b) III = II > I c) I > II >III d) I >III > II
78. Correct order of boiling point and melting point with respect to following compounds?
a) BP cis > trans MP trans > cis b) BP trans > cis MP trans > cis c) BP cis > trans MP cis > trans d) BP trans > cis MP cis > trans
79. Number of steroisomers possible for following compound is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 8 d) 5
80. Correct order of stability of following carbocation
a) A > B b) B> A c) A = B d) Can’t predict
81. Which order is incorrect related to stability
82. Correct IUPAC name of the compound is
a) 2,3- Dimethyl cyclohexene b) 1,6 – Dimethyl cyclohexene c) 1,2- Dimethyl cyclohex -2- ene d) 1,2- Dimethyl cyclohex – 1- ene
83. Geometrical isomerism possible in
84. Correct order of stability of following carbocation
a) I > II > III b) III > I > II c) III > II > I d) None
85. Correct order of stability of following carbanions is
a) I > II b) I = II c) II > I d) Can’t predict
86. Correct order of acidity
a) a > b > c > d b) a> b > d > c c) a> d > b > c d) a > b = d > c
87. Which of the following molecule pocess dipole moment?
88. Correct order of H∆ hydroginaiton is CH2 = CH2 CH3 – CH = CH2 A B CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 C
D
a) A > B > C > D b) D > C > B > A c) B > C > D > A d) D > A > C > B
89. Which is incorrect option related to stability
90. Which of the following carbocation is highly stable
91. Number of base pairs in DNA helix around the
octamer histone molecule is a) 140 – 200 bp b) 100 – 110 bp c) 240 – 280 bp d) 40 – 60 bp
92. SNP which is pronounced as ‘Snips’ strands for a) Small nuclear protein b) Single nucleotide particle c) Single nucleotide polymorphism d) Small nucleotide protein
93. Blotting technique involves the transfer of DNA from a) Membrane to gel b) Gel to membrane c) Sol to gel d) Gel to sol
94. Anaerobic sludge digesters produce gases like ----- a) Ethane, Carbondioxide, Hydrogen sulphide b) Methane, Carbondioxide, Hydrogen sulphide c) Methane, Carbodioxide , Carbon monoxide d) Methane, Hydrogen sulphide, ammonia
95. Statements about Cyanobacteria :- 1) They are autotrophic microbes which can fix atmospheric nitrogen 2) They are distributed only in aquatic environments 3) Anabaena, Nostoc and Oscillatoria are examples 4) They are known as blue – green algae and they can increase the soil fertility. Which of the following is correct? a) All are correct b) Statement 1 is wrong c) Statement 2 is wrong d) Statement 3 is wrong
96. What is the benefit of the plant in mycorrhiza ? a) Plant gets phosphorus b) Plant becomes resistant to root – borne pathogens c) Plant becomes tolerant to salinity and drought d) All of these
97. Match the following A) Adenovirus - i) Thermal vents B) Baculovirus - ii) Penicillium notatum C) Staphylococci - iii) Respiratory infections D) Geysers - iv) Biocontrol agent a) A-iii B-iv C-ii D-i b) A-i B-ii C-iii D-iv c) A-iii B-iv C-i D-ii d) A-iv B-iii C-ii D-i
98. Biotic factors are a) Physical factors of soil which affect life. b) Factors of atmosphere which affect life. c) A living organisms which influence other organisms. d) Chemical factors of soil which affect life.
99. Next to temperature, which one of the following is the most important factor influencing the life of organism. a) Light b) Soil c) Water d) Pressure
100. Relationship of an epiphyte with its support represent a) Mutualism b) Competition c) Parasitism d) Commensalism
101. In commensalism a) Both host and commensals are benefited. b) Commensal derives benefit. c) The host derives benefit. d) None of these are benefited.
102. Select the false statement a) In the presence of sugar decomposition is slower b) Dead organic matter is beginning of detritus food web c) Decomposers secrete digestive enzymes that breakdown dead materials d) All are true
103. How many percent of carbon is found dissolved in oceans a) 71% b) 49% c) 50% d) 60%
104. In an aquatic ecosystem zooplankton usually serve as a) Primary consumers b) Secondary consumers c) Producer d) Both a & b
105. The pyramid of numbers deals with the number of a) Sub species in a community. b) Species in a given area. c) Individuals in a community d) Individuals in a trophic level.
106. Which one of the following forms the pioneers in primary succession in water? a) Phytoplanktons b) Free flowing angiosperms. c) Rooted hydrophytes d) Zooplanktons
107. Fungi in a forest ecosystem is a) Producer b) Decomposer c) Top consumer d) Autotrophs
108. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts’ through the process a) Catabolism b) Leaching c) Fragmentation d) Mineralisation
109. Organisms tolerant of a wide range of salinities called a) Eury thermal b) Stenothermal c) Stenohaline d) Euryhaline
110. Factor which determine the population size a) Mortality b) Emigration c) Immigration d) All of these
111. Aspergillus niger is a __________which produce citric acid a) Bacteria b) Fungus c) Virus d) Protozoans
112. Which is wrong a) In Ammensalism one species is adversely affected and the other is not affected b) Predators in nature are prudent c)Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predators d) All are true
113. Which one of the following characteristic features are shown by true hibernators? a) Go into sleep during winter b) Body temperatures drops, breathing and heart beat become slow c) Avoids heat by spending dry-hot period in a tropic state d) Both a & b
114. Nitrogen concentration in atmosphere is a) 20% b) 21% c) 78% d) 80%
115. Oxidation of sulphur in the fossil fuels mainly produces a) SO2 b) SO3 c) NO d) Both A and B
116. Pollutants are classified into a) Biodegradable b) Non biodegradable c) Qualitative d) All
117. Particulate substance as pollutants may be a) Solid b) Liquid c) Gaseous d) Both A and B
118. Which of the following exhibit speedy setting in air a) Smoke b) Sand c) Water drops d) Soot
119. The agents that cause pollution a) CO b) DDT c) Mercury d) All
120. Atmospheric pollution may be caused by a) Volcanic explosion b) Forest fire c) Organic decay d) All
121. In an animal cell, protein synthesis takes place a) Only on the ribosomes protein in the cytosol b) Only on the ribosomes attached to nuclear envelope and endoplasmic reticulum c) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm d) On ribosomes present in the cytosol as well as in the mitochondria
122. First code of every mRNA is a) either AUG or GUG b) Either AUG or UAG c) Either GUG or UAA d) Either UGA or UAA
123. Pollution occurring in a) Air b) Water c) Soil d) All of these
124. Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule means that a) One strand turns anti – clockwise b) The phosphate groups of two DNA strands at their ends, share the same position c) The phosphate groups at the start of two DNA strands are in opposite position (pole) d) One strand turns clockwise
125. Which one of the following pairs of features is a good example of polygenic inheritance ? a) Human height and skin colour b) ABO blood group in humans and flower colour of Mirabilis jalapa c) Hair pigment of mouse and tongue rolling in humans d) Human eye colour and sickle - cell anaemia
126. Genes located on Y – chromosomes are called a) Holandric genes b) Autosomal genes c) Sex – linked genes d) Mutant genes
127. A woman with normal vision, but whose father was colourblind marries a colourblind man. Suppose that the fourth child of this couple was a boy. This boy a) Must have normal colour vision b) Will be partially colourblind, since he is heterozygous for the colourblind mutant allele c) Must be colourblind d) May be colourblind or may be of normal vision
128. Recessive mutations are expressed in a) Homozygous condition b) Heterozygous condition c) Next generation d) Same generation
129. Marriage between close relatives is avoided in some Indian communities. It is also supported by biologists because it induces a) Mutations b) Multiple birth c) Recessive alleles to come together d) Abnormalities in child birth
130. In which mode of inheritance do you expect more maternal influence among the offsprings ? a) Autosomal b) Cytoplasmic c) Y – linked d) X – linked
131. Which of the following is correct ? a) There will be no independent assortment in presence of linkage b) There will be no segregation in presence of linkage c) There will be no dominance in presence of linkage d) There will be no crossing over in presence of dominance
132. Crossing over is the exchange of parts of chromosomes between two non – sister chromatids. Crossing over in diploid organism is responsible for a) Linkage between genes b) Recombination of linked genes c) Segregation of alleles d) Dominance of genes
133. Cri-du-chat syndrome in humans is caused by the a) Fertilisation of an XX egg by a normal Y – bearing sperm b) Loss of half of the short arm of chromosome 5 c) Loss of half of the long arm of chromosome 5 d) Trisomy of 21st chromosome
134. Sickle – cell anaemia has not been eliminated from the African population because a) It is controlled by sex linked dominant gene b) It is not a foetal disease c) It provides immunity against malaria d) It is controlled by dominant genes
135. Barr body represents a) Heterochromatin in male and female cells b) All heterochromatin in female cells c) Y – chromosomes in somatic cells d) One of the two X –chromosomes in somatic cells of female
136. The two eukaryotic organelles responsible for cytoplasmic inheritance are a) Lysosomes and mitochondria b) Chloroplasts and lysosomes c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts d) Mitochondria and Golgi complex
137. Which cross would best illustrate Mendel’s law of segregation ? a) TT × tt b) Hh × hh c) Bb × Bb d) rr × rr
138. Given below is a pedigree chart showing the inheritance of a certain sex – linked trait in humans
a) Dominant X linked b) Recessive X linked c) Dominant Y linked d) Recessive Y linked
139. The cri-du – chat syndrome is caused by change in chromosome structure involving a) Deletion b) Duplication c) Inversion d) Translocation
140. The mating of two curly – haired brown guinea pigs results in some offsprings with brown curly hair, some with brown straight hair, some with white curly hair and even some with white straight hair. This mating illustrates, which of Mendel’s laws? a) Dominance b) Segregation c) Independent assortment d) Sex – linkage
141. In a mutational event, when adenine is replaced by guanine, it is the case of a) Frame – shift mutation b) Transcription c) Transition d) Transversion
142. The recessive genes located on X – chromosome in humans are always a) Lethal b) Sub – lethal c) Expressed in males d) Expressed in females
143. Given below is a pedigree chart of a family with five children. It shows the inheritance of attached ear –lobes as opposed to the free ones. The squares represent the male individuals and circles the female individuals. Which one of the following conclusions drawn is correct ?
a) The parents are homozygous recessive b) The trait is Y – linked c) The parents are homozygous dominant d) The parents are heterozygous
144. Match the following columns Column A Column B A Multiple alleles 1. Interaction between
different genes B Epistasis 2. X-linked diseases C Crossing over 3. Autosomal diseases D Colour blindness 4.
Presence of more than two alleles for a gene
5. Pachytene stage Codes a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4 b) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3 c) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 5 d) A – 5, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
145. Wobble hypothesis establishes a) Peptide chain formation b) Initiation of peptide chain c) Termination of peptide chain d) Economy in tRNA molecules
146. One gene – one enzyme hypothesis was postulated by a) R – Franklin b) Hershey and Chase c) A Garrod d) Beadle and Tatum
147. In E – coli, an operator gene combines with a) Inducer gene to switch on structural gene action b) Inducer gene to switch off structural gene action c) Regulator protein (repressor) to switch off structural gene action d) Regulator protein to switch on gene action
148. The enzyme, which helps to cut one strand of DNA duplex to release tension of coiling of two strands is a) DNA ligase b) DNA polymerase – I c) Topoisomerase d) Helicase
149. The term ‘gene’ was introduced by a) Mendel b) Bateson c) Morgan d) Johannsen
150. E. Coli cells with a mutated Z gene of the lac operon cannot grow in medium containing only lactose as the source of energy because a) In the presence of glucose, E. coli cells do not utilize lactose b) They cannot transport lactose from the medium into the cells
c) The lac operon is constitutively active in these cells d) They cannot synthesise functional β-galactosidase
151. Which one of the following makes use of RNA as a template to synthesise DNA a) Reverse transcriptase b) DNA dependant RNA polymerase c) DNA polymerase d) RNA polymerase
152. Anticodones are present on a) mRNA b) tRNA c) Both mRNA and tRNA d) rRNA
153. A gene of operon, which synthesis a repressor protein a) Promoter gene b) Structural gene c) Operator gene d) Regulator gene
154. DNA Replication is a) Semi – conservative b) Semi – discontinuous c) Conservative and discontinuous d) Both a and b
155. Pollution may affect the environment in its ---- Aspects a) Physical b) Chemical c) Biological d) All
156. Approximate amount of annual emissions of atmospheric pollutants entering the earth’s atmosphere is a) 1 × 102 tones b) 1 × 1012 tones c) 1 × 1010 tones d) 1 × 108 tones
157. Pollutants resulting from human activities are mainly discharged in a) Overpopulated cities b) Industrial centres c) Rural area d) Both A and B
158. Which of the following don’t settle in still air ? a) Cigarette smoke b) Water drops c) Sand particles d) All
159. The particulate pollutants are categorized according to a) Size b) Source c) Physical state d) All
160. Example for primary air pollutants a) SO2 b) NO2 c) CO d) All
161. Pollutants are evaluated on the basis of their a) Toxicity b) Size c) Shape d) Longevity
162. The products resulting from atmospheric reactions of hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides in the presence of sunlight are called a) Mists b) Dust c) Aerosol d) Photochemical smog
163. Example for a secondary pollutant a) Smog b) O3 c) PAN d) All
164. Most of the gaseous and particulate air pollutants are products of burning of a) Wood b) Fossil fuels c) Organic waste d) Coal
165. Acid rain (acid precipitation) is caused by a) Oxides of sulphur b) Oxides of nitrogen c) Ozone d) Both A and B
166. Content of CO2 in atmosphere is a) 93% b) 0.03% c) 0.5% d) 0.09%
167. Cyclosporin A is used for a) Removing clots b) Immunosuppressive agent in organ transplantation c) Blood cholesterol lowering agent d) Purification of bottled juice
168. Which of the following is produced by distillation a) Wine b) Whisky c) Brandy d) Both b & c
169. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is known as a) Baker’s yeast b) Brewer’s yeast c) Both a & b d) Multicellular yeast
170. Pick the correct statement A) Rhizobium fix atmospheric nitrogen while free living in soil B) Azospirillum and Azotobacter fix atmospheric N2 while free living in soil C) Many fungi of the genus Glomus forms mycorhiza D) Anabaena Nostoc and Azospirillum are cyanobacteria a) A & B correct, C & D false b) B & C correct, A & D false c) A, B & C correct, D false d) All are wrong
171. Bottled juices are cleared by a) Proteases b) Pectinases c) Both a & b d) Lipases
172. Find the matched pair a) streptococcus – Bacteria b) Trichoderma polysporum – fungus c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae – yeast d) All of these
173. Prions are a) Monosaccherides b) Proteinacious infectious agents c) Protozoans d) Thermostable viruses
174. Read the statement regarding parasitism i) The female mosquito is a parasite on human ii) The life cycles of endoparasites are more complex than ectoparasite iii) Brood parasitism in cuckoo is a fascinating example of parasitism iv) The parasitic plant cuscuta lost its chlorophyll and leaves in the course of evolution a) i, ii & iii correct b) i, ii & iv correct c) i & iii correct d) ii, iii & iv correct
175. Emigration is a) Going out of some individuals to return after sometime b) Temporary inward movement of some individuals c) It is the number of individuals of a population who left habitat and gone elsewhere during the time period under consideration d) None of these
176. Consider the following statement A) Many parasities are host specific B) Both host & parasites tend to co-evolve C) Many parasites have lost unnecessary sense organs D) Many parasites have lost digestive system a) All are true c) A & B are true C & D are false d) A & D are true B & C are false e) A, B & C are true D false
177. “ Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co – exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated”. This law was proposed by -------- a) Blackmann b) Gause c) Allen d) Priestly
178. Which of the following statement regarding standing crop is correct? a) Certain mass of living material in each trophic level at a particular time b) The amount of nutrients present in the soil at any given time c) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels d) The amount of energy present in each trophic level at particular time
179. GPP is defined as the a) The rate of biomass production by animals b) Rate of formation of organic matter by consumers c) Both a and b d) Rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis.
180. Match the following Column I Column II 1) Detritus 2) Second trophic level 3) Carnivore 4) Producers
A) Secondary consumer B) Decomposers C) Herbivore D) First trophic level
a) 1 – C 2 – B C – A 4 – D b) 1 – D 2 – B 3 - C 4 – A c) 1 – B 2 – C 3 – A 4 – D d) 1 – B 2 – A 3 - C 4 – D
NNEEEETT MMOODDEELL EENNTTRRAANNCCEE EEXXAAMM RREEPPEEAATTEERRSS –– MMEEDDIICCAALL ((MMOODDUULLEE –– IIIIII))
VERSION CODE – A 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
D C D A C C C A C A C B C C B
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
B C B C D D D B B A B B B B C
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
B B A B C B C C A A B D C B B
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A B B C B B B A A A C A C D A
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
A C C B D D D C A C B A B C C
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A A D C A C D D D B C C C C D
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
C B A B B C A A D D A C C A A
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
C C C D B D A D C D D C C D D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A B D D A C B D D D B D D D B
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A D D A D D B C D D B B C B D
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
C B D A C D B B D D D D D C A
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
C C D B B A A A D A C D A B B
VERSION CODE – B
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
A B B C B C B C A C D C C C C
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
C C B A B C C D A D C D D B A
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
B B B B B A C B B B B C A D B
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
B D A D D B C C B A B B C A D
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
C A C D D D B C C C C D A B A
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A C B B A C B C A C C C A A A
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
A C B B C D A C C D B A A A D
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A B B D D B D D C D D D B D D
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
D A D C A A D A C B A B B C D
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
C C A A C C C D B D D C C D D
151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165
A B D D D B D A D D A D D B D
166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
B B D C B C D B D C A B A D C
0077..0033..1199 1100..0033..1199
VVeerrssiioonn CCooddee:: AA Time : 3 Hours
AANNSSWWEERRSS && SSOOLLUUTTIIOONNSS First No: Version code: A Second No: Version code: B 1. 11
2. 16
3. 28
5. 12
6. 17
7. 13
8. 24
9. 14
10. 19
11. 15
12. 2
13. 8
14. 26
15. 20
16. 32
17. 21
18. 38
19. 22
20. 27
22. 25
26. 33
27. 31
28. 39
29. 34
30. 4
31. 35
32. 40
33. 36
35. 37
36. 41
38. 42
39. 9
40. 43
41. 7
42. 44
46. 73.
Acidic character × EN Order of EN O+ > N+ > O > N
47. 82
1, 6 – Dimethyl cyclohexane Lowest octuct Rate
50. 78.
Two bond moments are acting same direction hence μtrans < µcis Dipole moment ↑ Bp ↑ Trans is more symmetric than cis symmetry ↑ Mp ↑
61. 90.
75. 58.
80. 62.
82. 64.
In the presence of strong EWG Friedal craft reaction not possible
84. 66
86. 68.
88. 70.
Resonance energy of two individual benzene rings is more than diphenyl