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150 Expected GK Questions for CDS II 2019 Exam

1.Who among the following was the author of Rajtarangini?

A. Bharvi B. Kalhana C. Abhinavagupta D. Mihira Bhoja

Answer: B

Solution:

A Kashmiri author Kalhan wrote the history of Kashmir Rajatarangini in Sanskrit in 1148-49 C.E.

2.Which of the following statements is/are correct about Swadeshi Movement?

1) Students, women and the certain section of Zamindars participated in Swadeshi movement.

2) Some lower middle and middle classes in town and cities were involved for the first time.

3) Peasants and Muslims were involved in the Swadeshi movement.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only D. All the above

Answer: A

Solution:

Peasants and Muslims generally not participated in the Swadeshi movement. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The Swadeshi movement was officially proclaimed on August 7, 1905, was a direct fallout of the decision of the British India government to partition Bengal under the Governor General Lord Curzon.

Use of Swadeshi goods and boycott of foreign made products were the two main objectives of this movement.

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3.Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

1) Indian Mirror - Devendranath Tagore

2) Amrita Bazar Patrika - Sishir Kumar Ghosh

3) Bangadarshan - Rajaram Mohan Roy

4) Jugantar Patrika - Ajit Singh

A. 1, 2 and 3 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. All the above

Answer: B

Solution:

Bangadarshan was a Bengali literary magazine, founded by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1872 and resuscitated in 1901 under the editorship of Rabindranath Tagore.

Jugantar Patrika was a Bengali revolutionary newspaper founded in 1906 in Calcutta by Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Abhinash Bhattacharya and Bhupendranath Dutt.

4.Which of the following included in the Resolution on Fundamental Rights passed at the Karachi session of Congress 1931?

1) Right to Assemble 2) Right to form associations 3) Better condition of work including living wage 4) Free and compulsory primary education. Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 4 only C. 1,2 and 3 only D. All the above

Answer: B

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Solution:

Better Condition of work including living wage was a part of the resolution on National Economic Programme passed in the same session and not a fundamental Rights others are included in the Resolution on Fundamental Rights passed at the Karachi session of Congress 1931 headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in which Gandhi Irwin Pact was also endorsed by the Congress.

5.Consider the statement about the Ilbert Bill? 1) The bill was introduced in 1883 by Viceroy Ripon. 2) The Bill gave Indian judges and magistrates the power to try British offenders in criminal cases at the District level. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 only D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Solution:

The Ilbert Bill was a bill introduced in 1883 during the Viceroyship of the Marquess of Ripon, which was written by Sir Courtenay Peregrine Ilbert (The law member of the Viceroy's Council). According to this act, Indian judges could try Europeans. The bitter controversy deepened antagonism between the British and Indians and was a prelude to the formation of the Indian National Congress in the next two years. There was also a strong protest among Europeans.

6.Who among the following was not involved in Alipore Bomb Case of 1908?

A. Khudiram Bose B. Prafulla Chaki C. Sukhdev D. Narendranath Bhattacharya

Answer: C

Solution:

Alipore Bomb Case was a conspiracy to kill the Chief Presidency Magistrate D.H. Kingford of Muzaffarpur. Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki threw bombs on a vehicle coming out of the magistrate’s home on April 30, 1908 but the magistrate was not killed.

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After this, Prafulla Chaki committed suicide and police arrested Khudi Ram Bose. Narendranath Bhattacharya killed the policeman who had arrested Khudi Ram Bose.

7.Which of the following statement is/are correct during the Reign of Akbar? 1) He introduced Bandobast system also known as Dahsala. 2) Military system in reign of Akbar was based on Massabdari . 3) The Persian translation of Mahabharat is titles as Razamanama. 4) Akbar abolished Jizya.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. All the Above

Answer: D

Solution:

All the Statements are correct. Jizya was the tax imposed on Non- Muslim which was abolished by Akbar.

8. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding Ramakrishna Mission?

A. It was founded on 1st may, 1897. B. It propagates four yogic ideals – jnana, bhakti, karma and raja yoga. C. It is also known as Vedanta movement. D. Its works are based on the principles of bhakti yoga.

Answer: D

Solution:

Ramakrishna Mission is a Hindu religious and spiritual organization. The mission is named after Indian saint Ramakrishna Paramahamsa. It was founded by its chief disciple Swami Vivekananda. The mission bases its work on the principles of karma yoga, which believes in selfless work dedicated to God.

9. Which of the following states did not see the presence of Sanyasi revolt?

A. Madhya Pradesh B. Bengal C. Bihar

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D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: A

Solution:

Sanyasi revolt engulfed the area of Bengal, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh from 17673 onwards. Fakirs of Madariya group of Sufi Silsila were also connected to the revolt. Almost 50, 000 sanyasi and fakirs came together to fight against the common enemy, British.

10.Which of the following statements relating to the Government of India Act, 1858 is/are correct? 1) The British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company. 2) The British Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British. 3) This Act was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: A

Solution:

Government of India Act 1858 if India was to be governed directly and in the name of the crown. The office of secretary of state was vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration, thus he was now the political head of the India. There was no separation of power, and all the authority for the governance of India, civil and military, executive and legislative was vested in the Governor-General-in-Council responsible to the Secretary of State.

11.The important source for Akbar’s reign, Tarikh-i-Akbari was written by which one of the following Persian language scholars?

A. Arif Qandahari B. Bayazid Bayat C. Abdul Qadir Badauni D. Nizamuddin Ahmad

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Answer: A

Solution:

Tarikh-i Akbari or Tarikh-i Qandhari of Arif Qandhari is the Persian text of the well history of Akbar's period.

12.The College of Fort William was established by which one of the following Governor-Generals?

A. Warren Hastings B. Lord Cornwallis C. Richard Wellesley D. William Bentinck

Answer: C

Solution:

Fort William College (also called the College of Fort William) was an academy and learning centre of Oriental studies established by Lord Wellesley, then Governor-General of British India.

13.Which of the following statements are true? (1) Bal Gangadhar Tilak wrote a book ‘Gita Rahasya’ during his imprisonment in Mandley Jail. (2) Vyayam Mandal was established by Chapekar Brothers.

Codes:

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Solution:

Both above statements are true. In 1908 Bal Gangadhar Tilak was imprisoned for 6 years for writing a controversial article in his newspaper ‘Kesari’. He was imprisoned in Mandley where he wrote the book ‘Gita Rahasya’ during his jail term. Vyayam Mandal was established by Damodar Hari Chapekar and Bal Krishna Hari

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Chapekar in 1896-1897 in Pune. These two brothers killed the Ponna Plague Commissioner Mr. Rand. This murder was compared to that of Shivaji and Afzal Khan by Bal Gangadhar Tilak in ‘Kesari’.

14.Which one of the following statements about the Elephanta Island is correct?

A. It was given its name by the British after a large elephant structure located there. B. It contains one large cave. C. It is well-known for a spectacular carving of Vishnu described in the Vishnudharmattara Purana D. It is associated with the Pashupata sect.

Answer: B

Solution:

The Elephanta Caves are located in Western India on Elephanta Island (otherwise known as the Island of Gharapuri), which features two hillocks separated by a narrow valley. The name Ardhanarishvara (famous statue of Elephanta) means the Lord Who is half woman, Ardhanarishvara is also known by other names.

The Gupta-era writer Pushpadanta in his Mahimnastava refers to form as dehardhaghatana. Utpala, commenting on the Brihat Samhita, calls this form Ardha-gaurishvara, the Vishnudharmottara Purana simply calls this form Gaurishvara. Buddhist caves in Elephants and the caves built by the followers of Pashupata cult (a Shaivite Hindu school). The island and its resident caves received the name 'Elephanta' from Portuguese invaders after the discovery of a black stone sculpture of an elephant on the island.

15.Which of the following statements about Jyoti Rao Phule’s Satyashodhak Samaj Movement in Maharashtra is/are true? 1). The Satyashodhak Samaj was set up in 1873. 2). Phule argued that Brahmins were the progeny of ‘alen’ Aryans. 3). Phule’s focus on the Kunbi preasantry in the 1880s and 1890s led to a privileging of Maratha identity. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

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Solution:

Jyotirao Phule as the founder of Satya Shodhak Samaj has worked towards the welfare of women. When he set up the Satya Shodhak Samaj, his wife - Savitribai Phule became the head of the women's section which included ninety female members, added to that she also worked tirelessly as a teacher for girls.

The ruler of Kholapur princely state - Shahu Maharaj, provided a lot of moral and financial support to Satya Shodhak Samaj. In its newly formed avatar, the party carried on the work of superstition removal vigorously. Many times, it degenerated in hate sprouting against Brahmins as a cast

16.Consider the following statements about Aruna Roy: (1) She was one of the prominent leaders of the right to information movement, which eventually led to the enactment of Right to Information Act in 2005. (2) She was the founder of the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana. (3) She served as a civil servant in the Indian Administrative Service. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 1 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Solution:

Roy was born in Chennai. She grew up in Delhi where her father was a government employee. She studied English literature at Indraprastha College, Delhi University. She served as a civil servant in the Indian Administrative Service between 1968 and 1974. In 1970 she married Bunker Roy. Roy resigned from the civil services and began to work on issues related to the poor and marginalised. She joined the Social Work and Research Center (SWRC) in Tilonia, Rajasthan. In 1987, she along with Nikhil Dey, Shankar Singh and others founded the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan. The MKSS began by fighting for fair and equal wages for workers which shaped and evolved into a struggle for the enactment of India's Right to Information Act. Aruna Roy is a leader of the Right to Information movement in India through the MKSS and the National Campaign for People’s Right to Information (NCPRI), which was finally successful with the passage of the Right to Information Act in 2005.

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17.Consider the following statements relating to Raja Rammohan Roy: (1) He knew that the spread of Western education was necessary to develop a national and scientific attitude in the Indian society. (2) He played a pioneering role in the religious and social reform movements of nineteenth century Bengal. Which of the above statements is/ are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Solution:

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of the Brahmo Sabha movement in 1828, which engendered the Brahmo Samaj, an influential Bengali socio-religious reform movement against the evils of Hinduism & Multi-Theism. He is best known for his efforts to establish the abolishment of the practice of Sati, the Hindu funeral practice in which the widow was compelled to sacrifice herself in her husband’s funeral pyre in some parts of Bengal. Roy protested the East India Company's decision to support vernacular education and insisted that English replace Sanskrit and Persian in India. It was he who first introduced the word "Hinduism" into the English language in 1816.

18.Which political party formally accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan on 6th June 1946, which had rejected the demand for a sovereign Pakistan?

A. The Hindu Mahasabha B. The Congress C. The Muslim League D. The Unionist Party

Answer: C

Solution:

On 6th June, the All India Muslim League passed a resolution which, while critical of the contents of the statement of 16th May, particularly on the Pakistan issue, and while reserving opinions on that point, yet definitely accepted the scheme put forward by the Mission.

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19.Subhas Chandra Bose started the ‘Azad Hind Radio’ in which one of the following countries?

A. Japan B. Austria C. Germany D. Malaysia

Answer: C

Solution:

Azad Hind Radio was a propaganda radio service that was started under the leadership of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in Germany in 1942 to encourage Indians to fight for freedom.

20.Which organization was started at the Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915?

A. Sanatan Dharma Sabha B. Dev Samaj C. Brahmin Sabha D. Hindu Mahasabha

Answer: D

Solution:

The Kumbh Mela at Haridwar is a mela held every 12 years at Haridwar, India. Hindu Mahasabha started Haridwar Kumbh Mela in 1915

21.Which of the following is associated with Lord Chelmsford? 1) Rowlatt Act 2) Diarchy Act 3) Royal Commission Civil Service 4) Calcutta University Commission

A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 4 D. 1, 3 and 4

Answer: A

Solution:

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Lord Chelmsford is associated with Rowlatt Act, Diarchy Act and Calcutta University Commission. Lord Hardinge is associated with Royal Commission Civil Service.

22.With reference to Zamindari system, consider the following statements. 1) The Zamindars were made hereditary owners of the land. 2) The peasants had proprietary rights on land. 3) The peasants were subject to ejection from the land. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 C. 1 and 3 D. All of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

The Zamindari system underwent many changes from Mughal to British period. While during Mughal period Zamindars were not the owner of the land but were petty land holders. After the permanent settlement in Bengal, Bihar and Odisha, the Zamindars were recognized as proprietors of the land on condition that they would pay the government rent on a fix date.

The Zamindars were made hereditary owners of the land under their possession. The peasants had no proprietary rights and were subject to ejection from the land unless they purchased it by paying the zamindar a special additional fee and price.

23.With reference to Indian National Congress, consider the following statements. 1) A.O. Hume was the first President of INC. 2) Its First session was held in Bombay. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Solution:

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Since the party was established in 1885, 60 people have served as president. The first, Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee presided over the first session of the Indian National Congress held at Bombay in 1885 from 28 December to 31 December.

24.Consider the following statements. 1) Dayanand Saraswati founded Arya Samaj in 1895. 2) Arya Samaj believes in monotheism. 3) Real name of Dayanand Saraswati was Mool Shankar. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. 1 and 2 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 3 D. All of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Arya Samaj is an Indian Hindu reform movement that promotes values and practices based on the belief in the infallible authority of the Vedas. The samaj was founded by the sannyasi (ascetic) Dayanand Saraswati (Real name Mool Shankar) on 7 April 1875. Members of the Arya Samaj believe in one God and reject the worship of idols.

25.Who was the main conspirator of Chittagong Armory Raid?

A. Bhagat Singh B. Sukhdev C. Surya Sen D. Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer: C

Solution:

On April 18, 1930, there was an attempt to raid the armory of the Police and Auxiliary forces from the Chittagong armory in Bengal.

The leader of this conspiracy & raid was Surya Sen. He wasaccompanied by Ganesh Ghosh, Lokenath Bal, Nirmal Sen, Ambika Chakrobarty, Naresh Roy, Sasanka Datta, Ardhendu Dastidar, Harigopal Bal , Tarakeswar Dastidar, etc.

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The plan was to capture the main armory in Chittagong and demolish the Telegraph and telephone office, followed by the assassination of Europeans.

26.Which one of the following is the common element between the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora and the Shore Temple at Mamallapuram?

A. Both are examples of Nagara architecture B. Both are carved out from solid rocks C. Both are Gupta period temples D. Both were built under the patronage of Pallava Kings

Answer: C

Solution:

The Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora dates back to the period of the 8th century Rashtrakoota ruler Krishna I.

It is a huge rock cut monolithic temple built in the South Indian style. Ajanta and Ellora, near Aurangabad are well known tourist attractions.

The shore temple at Mamallapuram was built around the same time as this temple. While the shore temple was built dressed stone, the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora was created by excavating 400 000 tonnes of rock.

27.Match the following. List - I 1) Kailashnath Temple 2) Meenakshi Temple 3) Lingaraj Temple 4) Shore Temple List - II A) Madurai B) Kanchipuram C) Mahabaliipuram D) Bhubaneshwar

A. 1 - A , 2 - B , 3 - D, 4 - C B. 1 - D , 2 - A , 3 - B, 4 - C C. 1 - B , 2 - A , 3 - D, 4 - C D. 1 - B , 2 - C , 3 - D, 4 - A

Answer: C

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Solution:

The Kailasanath temple is one of the most ancient architecture in Kanchipuram,Tamil Nadu. The temple is built under Dravidian style of architecture. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva. Meenakshi Temple is also called as Meenakshi Amman or Minakshi-Sundareshwara Temple, is situated on the southern bank of the Vaigai River in the temple city of Madurai, Tamil Nadu. Lingaraja Temple is in Bhubaneswar, Odisha. It is the largest temple in Bhubaneshwar and also one of the oldest. It is believed that the temple was built by Somavanshi Kingss. This temple is a perfect blend of Kalinga Architecture and Medieval era's style of construction. Shore Temple is a standing testimonial to the regal heritage of India. Located at Mahabalipuram. Built in the 7th century, Shore Temple depicts the royal taste of Pallava dynasty. During the reign of Rajasimha, the temple saw its construction when Pallava art was at its apex. Ravaged by wind and sea, the temple has witnessed the historical events of India. This work of genius was recognized and listed amongst the World Heritage Sites by UNESCO.

28.When Lord Mountbatten became the first Governor-General of India, who among the following became the Governor-General for Pakistan?

A. Lord Mountbatten B. M.A. Jinnah C. Liaquat Ali Khan D. Shaukat Ali

Answer: B

Solution:

Muhammad Ali Jinnah was a lawyer, politician, and the founder of Pakistan. Jinnah served as leader of the All-India Muslim League from 1913 until Pakistan's creation on 14 August 1947, and then as Pakistan's first Governor-General until his death.

29.Which of the following are is the feature of Nagara Style?

A. Spiral roofs B. Pillared Halls C. Sanctum D. All of the above

Answer: D

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Solution:

In north India and eastern India, magnificent temples were constructed. The style followed by them is referred to as Nagara Style of temple. Some of the unique features of temples built under this style are: The lofty spiral roofs also known as 'Shikhars'. The temple have a Sanctum (Garbha Griha) where the idol of the God is installed. Pillared halls also called as Mandap are the most attractive feature in Nagara temples. For Eg: Mukteshwara Temple, Bhubaneshwar.

30.Which of the following king is titled with Devanamapiyadasi?

A. Ashoka B. Samundragupta C. Chandragupta II D. Kanishka

Answer: A

Solution:

Ashoka refers to himself as "Beloved servant of the Gods" (Devanampiyadasi) The identification of Devanampiyadasi with Ashoka was confirmed by an inscription discovered in 1915 by C. Beadon, a British gold-mining engineer, at Maski, a village in Raichur district of Karnataka.

Another minor rock edict is found at the village Gujarra in Datia district of Madhya Pradesh. This also shows the name "Ashoka" in addition to usual "Devanampiyadasi". The inscriptions found in the eastern part of India were written in Magadhi Prakrit using the Brahmi script. These edicts were deciphered by British archaeologist and historian James Prinsep.

31.Which one of the following ocean currents is NOT a cold ocean current?

A. Canary current B. California current C. Kuroshio Current D. Oyashio current

Answer: C

Solution:

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Canary current- it is a cold current and part of north Atlantic gyre. It is along the margin of Spain, Portugal and west Africa.

California current- it is a cold current and moves south ward along the coast of California.

Kuroshio current- it is a warm current also called Japan Current. It is North Equatorial Current along the Philippines, Taiwan and Japan Coast.

Oyoshio Current- it is a cold current flow along the east coast of Kamchatka Peninsula.

32.Consider the following statements relating to Richer scale:

1) It was devised in 1935 by Charles F. Richter

2) It describes the quantity of energy released by a single earthquake

3) Richer Scale has no upper limit

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Solution:

The Richter scale is a magnitude scale used to tell the power/ magnitude of earthquake. It is developed by Charles F. Richter in 1935. The earthquake magnitude is determined using the logarithm of the amplitude of the largest seismic wave calibrated to scale by a seismograph. Richter scale has no upper limit.

In theory richter scale has no upper limit but in practice no earthquake has ever been registered on the scale above magnitude 8.6, richter magnitude for the Chile Earthquake of 1960.

33.Which one of the following is the correct sequence of proved coal reserves in the Indian states in decreasing order?

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A. Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, West Bengal B. Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal C. Odisha, West Bengal, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh D. Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Jharkhand

Answer: B

Solution:

India has fifth largest coal reserves in the world. Coal deposits primarily found in eastern and south-central India. Jharkhand, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, west Bengal Madhya Pradesh, Telangana and Maharashtra accounted for 98.26 % of the total known coal reserves in India. Value of coal reserves in billion metric tons:

Jharkhand- 83.5

Odisha- 79.30

Chhattisgarh-57.21

West Bengal- 31.67

34.Which one of the following can be said to be essentially related to ‘Polar front Theory’?

A. Anticyclone B. Tropical cyclone C. Temperate cyclone D. Inter Tropical Convergence

Answer: C

Solution:

The polar front theory of Cyclogenesis was first developed in the early 1900s to explain the formation of mid-latitude cyclones. A mid-latitude cyclone is a large-scale low-pressure system that travels eastward around the planet between 30- and 70-degrees latitude. It is crucial to day to day weather changes and to bring rain and storms to the planet. The polar front is boundary between cold wind from poles and warm winds from the equator. Usually cold winds blow from the east between 60- and 90-degree latitude, called polar easterlies. The warm wind blows from the west between 60- and 30-degree latitude and are called westerlies. These winds cause mid-latitude cyclones.

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35.“Campos” and “Llanos”, Tropical Savanna grasslands are generally found in

A. Australia B. Central Africa C. South America D. East Asia

Answer: C

Solution:

Campos and Llanos the extensive grasslands located in Eastern part of South America. These are spread across many countries like Argentina, Uruguay and southern Brazil.

36.“Inversion of Rainfall” is associated with

A. Orographic rainfall B. Conventional rainfall C. Cyclonic rainfall (Tropical) D. Cyclonic rainfall (Temperature)

Answer: A

Solution:

Inversion of Rainfall means with the increase in altitude results in decreased amount of rainfall. An elevated band along mountain slopes where precipitation decreases with increasing elevation.

In the lowest 1-2 km above the base of mountain, rainfall increases typically with increase in height until the zone of maximum precipitation is reached. Above this, the rainfall decreases with height. This zone is known as precipitation inversion.

37.River Sarda drains in the Northern plains of Uttar Pradesh. Before entering in the plains, Sarda is known as

A. Saraswati B. Bhagirathi C. Kali D. Pindar

Answer: C

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Solution:

River Sarda originates from far northern Uttarakhand state in Great Himalayas on the eastern slopes of Nanda Devi massif. Before entering to the plains, it is known as River Kali.

It then flows south-west. it enters the Gangetic plain at Barmdeo Madi (Nepal). Below that, it is known as Sarda River. It then enters Uttar Pradesh and joins the Ghaghara River south of Behraich.

38.Which of the following is/are environmental effects of Rotation of the earth?

1) Daily or diurnal rhythm in day light and air temperature

2) Flow path of both air and water are turned consistently in a sideward direction

3) The movement of the tides

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 3 only

Answer: B

Solution:

The rotation of Earth affects environment in a significant way.

The diurnal change in day light is affected as the Earth rotates. It changes the locations towards the Sun and away from the Sun. hence, temperature is also impacted by this change.

Earth rotation also causes the movement of air and water on its surface. As the Earth rotates eastward, ocean currents are generated in opposite direction. Rotation creates coriolis force between air and surface of Earth. This creates air circulation between equator and poles in different layers creating global wind system. Rotation of Earth, gravitational pull of Moon and Sun causes tides.

39.Arrange the following National Parks of India from North to South direction:

1) Indravati National Park

2) Nagarhole National Park

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3) Corbett National Park

4) Madhav National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 3, 2, 4 B. 2, 1, 4, 3 C. 3, 4, 1, 2 D. 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: C

Solution:

1. Indravati National Park – Chhattisgarh

2. Nagarhole National Park – Karnataka

3. Corbett National Park – uttrakhand

4. Madhav National Park – Madhya Pradesh

40.Which one among the following substances is NOT a ‘green house’ gas?

A. Water vapour B. Chlorofluorocarbon C. Methane D. Nitrogen

Answer: D

Solution:

Greenhouse gas is a gas that absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal infrared range. Greenhouse gases cause a greenhouse effect. The primary greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere are water vapor, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and ozone.

41.Consider the following statements relating to cyclone, anti-cyclone and trade wind:

1) The wind direction is clockwise in the cyclone of northern hemisphere

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2) The planetary wind that blows from north-east to north-west is known as north-cast trade wind

3) The wind direction is anti-clockwise in the anticyclone of southern hemisphere

4) Both westerlies and trade winds originate from sub-tropical highs

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?

A. 3 and 4 only B. 1, 3 and 4 C. 4 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Solution:

1 statement is incorrect. Anti-Clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere under the Coriolis force, the wind direction in the Northern Hemisphere is clockwise. But the wind direction in cyclones is anti-clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and counterclockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.

42.With respect to Himalayan and the Peninsular River system in India, consider the following statements:

1) While Himalayan rivers are Perennial, Peninsular rivers are seasonal

2) While Himalayan rivers have short course, Peninsular rivers have long course

3) While Himalayan rivers are young, Peninsular rivers are old

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Solution:

The following table elaborates the important differences between Himalayan and the Peninsular River system:

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43.Consider the following statements regarding Koppen’s Climatic Classification.

1) Koppen classified the terrestrial climate as 5 major types.

2) Koppen based his classification on four parameters, namely precipitation, temperature, pressure and natural vegetation.

3) Koppen did not address the impacts of Sun and winds.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?

A. 1&2 B. 2&3 C. 1&3 D. All the above

Answer: C

Solution:

Wladimir Koppen, a Russian-German geographer gave Koppen’s Classification – a vegetation based empirical classification. His aim was to devise a formula that would define climatic boundaries. It was published in 1900.

Koppen’s Classification-

* Classification was based on three parameters, average precipitation, temperature and natural vegetation.

* Subdivision of terrestrial climate on five major types-

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* Climate Type-

* Limitation of Koppen-

Did not address impacts of Wind and Sun

Extreme weather events like draught or cold is also significant

Symbol system a bit complex

44.With reference to dryland farming, consider the following statements:

1) It is practised in regions vulnerable to floods and soil erosion hazards.

2) Jute and pulses are the only crops which can be grown under dryland farming.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Solution:

Rainfed farming is classified based on adequacy of soil moisture during cropping season into dryland and wetland farming.

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The regions having rainfall less than 75 cm is usually confined by dryland farming. These regions grow drought resistant crops. It practices soil moisture conservation and rainwater harvesting.

In wetland farming, the rainfall is in excess of soil moisture requirement of plants during rainy season.

Such regions may face flood and soil erosion hazards. Hence, both the statements are not correct.

45.Consider the following map of India:

Which of the following crops is grown in the shaded area marked with yellow colour as shown in the map given above?

A. Rice B. Sugarcane C. Jute D. Wheat

Answer: A

Solution:

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India contributes 22 per cent of rice production in the world and ranks second after China. Rice cultivation is having almost one-fourth of the total cropped area in the country.

West Bengal, Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu were five leading rice producing states in the country in 2002-03. The yield level of rice is high in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Haryana, Andhra Pradesh, West Bengal and Kerala.

In the first four of these states almost the entire land under rice cultivation is irrigated. Punjab and Haryana are not rice growing areas from past. After the green revolution rice cultivation in the irrigated areas of Punjab and Haryana was introduced in 1970s.

46.Consider the following pairs:

Classification of Himalayas Special Feature

1) Sikkim Himalayas: Duar formations

2) Arunachal Himalayas: Dun formations

3) Himachal Himalayas: Fast flowing rivers

4) Kashmir Himalayas: Karewa formation

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only

Answer: D

Solution:

Classification of Himalayas Special Feature

1) Himachal Himalayas: Dun formations

2) Kashmir Himalayas: Karewa formations

3) Sikkim Himalayas: Duar formations

4) Arunachal Himalayas: Fast flowing rivers

The Himachal Himalayas: The two distinguishing features of this region from the point of view of physiography are the ‘Shiwalik’ and ‘Dun formations’. Some important duns

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located in this region are the Chandigarh-Kalka dun, Nalagarh dun, Dehra Dun, Harike dun and the Kota dun, etc. Dehra Dun is the largest of all the duns with an approximate length of 35-45 km and a width of 22-25 km.

Kashmir Himalayas: The Kashmir Himalayas are famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines.

Sikkim Himalayas: As compared to the other sections of the Himalayas, these along with the Arunachal Himalayas are conspicuous by the absence of the Shiwalik formations. Duar formation is important in shiwaliks here. It is used for development of tea gardens.

The Arunachal Himalayas: These extend from the east of the Bhutan Himalayas up to in the east Diphu pass. The direction of the mountain range is from southwest to northeast. Some of the important mountain peaks of the region are Kangtu and Namcha Barwa. Fast-flowing rivers from the north to the south, forms deep gorges in these ranges. Bhramaputra flows through a deep gorge after crossing Namcha Barwa.

47.Arrange the following Wildlife Sanctuaries and National Parks in north to south direction according to their locations on Indian map:

1) Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary

2) Balpakram National Park

3) Murlen National Park

4) Namdapha National Park

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A. 4-1-3-2 B. 3-4-1-2 C. 4-2-3-1 D. 3-1-4-2

Answer: C

Solution:

Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary: It is a Wildlife Sanctuary in Tripura. This sanctuary is filled with number of water bodies and grassland. There are patches of virgin forests which are rich in rare vegetation is found in this sanctuary.

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An attraction of this sanctuary is Indian Gaur (Bison). Trishna Gas project of ONGC which falls in the Trishna Wildlife Sanctuary in the Gomati district of Tripura got its approval from the National Wildlife Board.

Balpakram National Park: As a part of the Garo Hills Conservation Area, it has been recently listed in the UNESCO World Heritage tentative list. Balpakram means "land of perpetual winds". There is a deep gorge in Balpakram and is popularly compared to the Grand Canyon of U.S.A. Balpakram is sacred to the Garos as the abode of the dead spirits.

Murlen National Park: It was established as a National Park in the year of 1991. Murlen Park is one of the most important bird areas. It is supporting several threatened species of birds like Hume ‘s Pheasant, Common partridges, Hill myna, etc. It is a national park located in the Champhai district Mizoram in India.

Namdapha National Park: It is located within India’s northeastern frontier state– Arunachal Pradesh. The area lies close to the Indo-Myanmar-China tri-junction. Forests are contiguous across the international boundary with Myanmar, with several adjoining protected areas.

48.Atmospheric conditions are well governed by humidity. Which one among the following may best define humidity?

A. Form of suspended water droplets caused by condensation B. Deposition if atmospheric moisture C. Almost microscopically small drops of water condensed from and suspended in air D. The moisture content of the atmosphere at a particular time and place

Answer: D

Solution:

"Humidity" refers to the presence of water vapor in the atmosphere. It is measured in either relative terms (relative humidity) or absolute terms (dewpoint temperature). Humidity indicates the likelihood for precipitation, dew, or fog to be present.

49.Which of the following statements concerning atmosphere of the earth are correct? 1) In stratosphere, temperature increases with altitude. 2) In mesosphere, temperature decreases with altitude. 3) The lowest temperature of the atmosphere is recorded in the upper part of mesosphere. 4) Tropopause is an isothermal zone. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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A. 1 and 2 only B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: D

Solution:

In troposphere and mesosphere, temperature declines with increasing altitude. In stratosphere and thermosphere, temperature increases with increasing altitude. The coldest temperatures in Earth’s atmosphere occur at the top of mesosphere, the Mesopause, especially in the summer near the pole.

Transitional layers of atmosphere include tropopause, stratopause, and mesopause. These layers are relatively thin and are located between major layers of atmosphere. These have contrasting thermal properties. Hence, in these layers there is no change in temperature with change in altitude.

50.Which one of the following statements about growth of coral reefs is not correct?

A. Coral can grow abundantly in fresh water. B. It requires warm water between 23 °C-25 °C. C. It requires shallow saltwater, not deeper than 50 metres. D. It requires plenty of sunlight to aid photosynthesis.

Answer: A

Solution:

Corals need saltwater to survive and require a certain balance in the ratio of salt to water. So, they cannot grow abundantly in freshwater. Corals rarely develop in water deeper than 50 meters. corals generally live in water temperatures of 20–32 ° C.

51.Khasi language is included in

A. Munda branch of Austro-Asiatic sub-family B. Mon- khmer branch of Austro- Asiatic sub-family C. North Assam branch of Sino-Tibetan family D. Assam-Myanmari branch of Sino-Tibetan family

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Answer: A

Solution:

Khasi is an Austroasiatic language spoken primarily in Meghalaya state in India by the Khasi people. It is also spoken by a sizable population in Assam and Bangladesh. Khasi is part of the Austroasiatic language family, and is related to Cambodian, and Mon languages of Southeast Asia, and the Munda branch of that family, which is spoken in east–central India.

52.Which one of the following statements with regard to Jet stream, an upper level tropospheric wave, is not correct?

A. It is narrow band of high-velocity wind. B. It follows the wave path near the tropopause at elevations of 12 KM or Above 12 KM. C. Jet streams are typically continuous over long distances. D. In summer, the polar front jet achieves its maximum force.

Answer: B

Solution:

Jet stream is more effective above the 12 km of the height of the surface of the earth and the speed is 120 km/hr or more than it, the jet stream is found in the upper region of troposphere.

53.Which of the following pair is/are correct

(1) Haematite – 70% Fe

(2) Magnetite – 2.4% Fe

(3) Limonite – 58.9% Fe

(4) Siderite – 48.2% Fe

A. (1), (2) and (3) only B. (2), (3) and (4) only

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C. All D. None

Answer: C

Solution:

Magnetite Fe3O4 72.4% Fe, Hematite Fe2O3–70% Fe, Limonite 2Fe2O3 · 3H2O 58.9% Fe and Siderite FeCO3 – 48.2% Fe.

54.Arrange the following National Parks of India from North to South direction

(1) Indravati National Park

(2) Nagarhole National Park

(3) Carbet National Park

(4) Mahadev National Park

A. (1), (3), (2), (4) B. (2), (1), (4), (3) C. (3), (4), (1), (2) D. (2), (3), (4), (1)

Answer: C

Solution:

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Corbett National Park located in Uttarakhand, Mahadev National Park is in Madhya Pradesh, Indravati National Park is in Chattisgarh, Nagarhole National Park located in Karnataka.

55.Which of following factors influencing Indian climate: -

(1) Distance from sea

(2) The Himalayas

(3) Upper Air Circulation

(4) Monsoon winds

A. 1,2,3 only B. 2,3,4 only C. 1,3,4 only D. All of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

All of the above given factors Influence Indian climate.

56.Which of the following is not located in south America.

A. Selves B. Pampas C. Llanos D. Downs

Answer: D

Solution:

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Downs plain located in Australia, also known as park land of Australia.

57.Which one of the following is a land-locked harbour?

A. Vishakhapatnam B. Ennore C. Mumbai D. Haldia

Answer: A

Solution:

Vishakhapatnam is the deepest land-locked port of India. Ennore port is known for being privately developed. Mumbai port is one of the busiest on West coast. Haldia (Kolkata) is a riverine port.

58.The Indian research station Himadri is located at

A. Siachen B. Darjeeling C. Arctic Region D. Antarctica

Answer: C

Solution:

Himadri Station, established in 2008, is India's first Arctic research station. It is located at Spitsbergen, Svalbard, Norway.

59.Which one of the following is the oldest mountain range in India?

A. Himalayas B. Aravali C. Satpura D. Nilgiri

Answer: B

Solution:

The Aravalli range are the oldest fold mountains in India. The Aravalli tange literally means “line of peaks”.It is a range of mountains in Western India running about 800

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kms in a north western direction across Indian states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana & Delhi.

60.Which wave is also known as compressional wave?

A. Primary waves B. Secondary waves C. Love waves D. Rayleigh waves

Answer: A

Solution:

Primary/P waves are also known as compressional waves because of the pushing any pulling they do.

61.Which of the following are provided in India by the Right to Education Act?

1) Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighborhood school

2) Prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educational works, other than decennial census, elections to local authority like State Legislatures, Parliament, and disaster relief

3) Right of minorities to establish and administer education institution

4) No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion race, caste, language or any of them

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 4 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 only D. 1 and 2 only

Answer: A

Solution:

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Right to Education (RTE) Act: Right to Free and Compulsory Education of Children (RTE) Act, 2009 This act is an incarnation of Article 21-A, which says that every child has the right to elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies some essential criteria and standards. Article 21-A and RTE Act came into force on 1 April 2010. It is seen as the most historic development in universalization of primary education in the country. This means that every child between the ages of 6 and 14 has the right to elementary education. They are entitled to free and compulsory education.

62.The National Human Rights Commission has:

1) a Chairperson who has been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court or a High Court of India

2) one Member who is or has been a Judge of Supreme Court

3) one Member who is, or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court

4) two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of or practical experience in matters relating to human rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 4 only D. 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: D

Solution:

The chairperson of the national human right commission has to be a chief justice of supreme court only. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is a statutory body formed by an Act passed in Parliament.

The NHRC of India is a statutory public body formed on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Ordinance of 28 September 1993. It currently consists of speakers and 4 members.

Therefore, it is a multilateral institution. The current chairman of the National Human Rights Commission, Mr. H.L. Dattu retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

63.‘Demand Polity’ and ‘Command Polity’, are terms associated with:

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A. David Washbrook B. Helen I. Tinker C. Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph D. Rajni Kothari

Answer: C

Solution:

Lloyd Rudolph and Susannix Rudolf (they are spouses) have attempted to find correlations between the nature of state politics and economic characteristics. He has written a book - In Pursuit of Lakshmi: The Political Economy of the Indian State.

64.Which of the following reasons were cited by the Ashok Mehta Committee for the decline of the Panchayati Raj institutions in India?

1) Role of Bureaucracy

2) Lack of Political Will

3) Lack of conceptual clarity

4) Lack of gender parity

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 3 only C. 1, 2 and 3 D. 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Solution:

The Committee outlined the reasons for PRIs' random programs, non-performance, rise of vested interests, lack of adequate financial resources. The concept of PR was lost in the mist of conflicting interpretations. So, # 3 is correct. This option eliminates "A."

Ashok Mehta said- "… lack of enthusiasm by politicians and concerned bureaucrats who saw the threat to their authority by the emerging panchayat leadership ..."

This means that both # 1 and # 2 are responsible.

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65.Consider the following statements.

1) Part 7th was deleted by the 7th Amendment Act.

2) Part 4th-A was added by 42nd Amendment Act.

3) Part 9th-A was added by 74th Amendment Act.

4) Part 9th-B was added by 97th Amendment Act.

Which of the statements are correct?

A. 2,3,4 B. 2,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2

Answer: C

Solution:

All the statements are correct.

Part 7th dealing with the Part-B states was deleted by 7th Amendment Act of 1956. On the other hand, part 4-A (Fundamental Duties) and Part 14-A (Tribunals) were added by the 42nd Amendment Act (1976), while Part 9-A (municipalities) was added by 74th Amendment Act (1992), and part 9-B (Co-operative societies) was added by 97th Amendment Act (2011).

66.Which of the following are correctly matched?

State

A) Atheistic State

B) Theocratic State

C) Secular State

D) All are correctly matched.

Forms of State

a) Anti-Religious State

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b) Pro-Religious State

c) Neutral State

A. A B. B C. C D. D

Answer: D

Solution:

a) Atheistic State- the state is anti-religious and hence, condemns all religions.

b) Theocratic State- the state is pro-religious and hence, declares one particular religion as the state religion, as for example Sri Lanka, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Nepal, etc.

c) Secular State- the state is neutral in the matter of religion and hence, does not uphold any particular religion as the state religion, as for example USA, India.

67.Which of the following are taken as criticism to the Constitution Assembly?

A. It was not a representative body. B. It was dominated by Congress. C. It was very time-consuming. D. All of these

Answer: D

Solution:

Critics have criticised Constituent Assembly on following grounds-

• Not a Representative body

• Not a sovereign body

• Time consuming

• Dominated by Congress

• Lawyer-politician Domination

• Dominated by Hindus

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68.The primary objectives of NITI Aayog are:

1) to achieve Sustainable Development Goals

2) to enhance cooperative federalism

3) to eliminate poverty

4) to streamlines policies of government

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only

Answer: A

Solution:

The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs. While designing strategic and long-term policies and programmes for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States.

The primary objectives of NITI Aayog are to achieve Sustainable Development Goals and to enhance cooperative federalism by allowing the participation of State Governments in formulation and implementation of public policy.

69.Which one of the following Committees of the Parliament has no Members from the Rajya Sabha?

A. Public Accounts Committee B. Committee on Public Undertakings C. Estimates Committee D. Departmentally Related Standing Committee (DRSC) on Finance

Answer: C

Solution:

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In estimates committee all 30 members are from Lok Sabha and there is not a single member from Rajya Sabha. In public account committee 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. In committee on public undertakings 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha. In Departmentally Related Standing Committee (DRSC) on Finance has members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

70.Which one of the following States does not find a mention in Article 371 of the Constitution of India?

A. Maharashtra B. Madhya Pradesh C. Gujarat D. Karnataka

Answer: B

Solution:

Article 371 deals with special provision for few states and article 371 deals with Maharashtra and Gujarat and Article 371 J deals with Karnataka.

71.Which of the following statements are correct:

1) The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan

2) Constituent Assembly was directly elected by the people of India

3) After elections to the Constituent Assembly, princely states had not joined the Constituent Assembly

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only

Answer: B

Solution:

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* The strength of Constituent Assembly was 389. Of these, 296 seats allotted to British India and 93 seats to the Princely States.

* Constituent Assembly was not directly elected by the people of India as the representatives of princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.

* The elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July–August 1946. The Indian National Congress won 208 seats, the Muslim League 73 seats, and the small groups and independents got the remaining 15 seats. The princely states had decided to not to join the Constituent Assembly

72.Finance Commission is constituted by the President of India under article 280 of the Constitution. The Fifteenth Finance Commission: 1) Is being headed by N.K Singh 2) Will recommend the sharing of resources between the Centre and the states from April 2020 to March 2025 Choose the correct option:

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither of the two

Answer: C

Solution:

The recommendations of the 14th Finance Commission, chaired by former Reserve Bank of India (RBI) governor Y.V. Reddy, are valid from 2015 to 2020. The recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission will be implemented in the period 1 April 2020 to 31 March 2025. The 15th Finance Commission's chairman is N. K. Singh. The commission will recommend the sharing of resources between the Centre and the states from April 2020 to March 2025

73.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

1) Speaker is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and, its committees.

2) He is the final interpreter of the provisions of the parliamentary precedents within the House.

Select the correct answer code from the following options.

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A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Solution:

The Speaker of Lok Sabha is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members. The Speaker is the head of the Lok Sabha and its representative. He is the guardian of powers and privileges of the members, the House as a whole and also, its committees. He is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and also, the parliamentary precedents.

74.Which of the following was the first Indian state to establish Panchayati Raj?

A. Rajasthan B. Bihar C. Punjab D. Tamil Nadu

Answer: A

Solution:

• Rajasthan was the first Indian state to establish Panchayati Raj. • Prime Minister inaugurated the scheme on October 2, 1959, in Nagaur district. • Andhra Pradesh followed Rajasthan and adopted the system in 1959.

75.With reference to the Governor of a state, consider the following statements: 1) A person should have completed 30 years of age to be appointed as the Governor of the state. 2) The Constitution of India specifies that a person should not belong to the state where he is appointed as the Governor. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

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Solution:

Statement 1 is not correct: The Constitution lays down only two qualifications for the appointment of a person as a Governor. These are: 1) He should be a citizen of India. 2) He should have completed the age of 35 years.

Statement 2 is not correct: Two conventions have been developed for the appointment of the Governor. First, he should be an outsider, that is, he should not belong to the state where he is appointed so that he is free from the local politics. Second, while appointing the governor, the president is required to consult the Chief Minister of the state concerned, so that the smooth functioning of the constitutional machinery in the state is ensured.

76.With Context to High Court, the power of the Higher Court to review any orders passed by a lower court, tribunal or an administrative authority comes under which of the below writs?

A. Certiorari B. Mandamus C. Quo Warranto D. None of them

Answer: A

Solution:

Certiorari: It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case pending with the latter to itself or to quash the order of the latter in a case. It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.

Till recently, the writ of certiorari could be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities and not against administrative authorities. However, in 1991, the Supreme Court ruled that the certiorari can be issued even against administrative authorities affecting the rights of individuals.

77.With reference to the Indian Parliamentary System, which among the following fundamental rights is not available to foreigners?

1) Right to Life & personal liberty.

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2) Freedom of speech and expression. 3) Equality before law. 4) Freedom to manage religious affairs.

Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3only B. 2 only C. 2 & 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: B

Solution:

Freedom of speech and expression is available to only Indian citizens, and it is not available to foreigners.

78.Which of the following is eligible to become a chairman of National Human Rights Commission?

A. Retired Chief Justice of India B. Retired Judge of Supreme Court Of India C. Retired Chief Justice of a High Court of India D. Retired Judge of a High Court of India

Answer: A

Solution:

The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory body established in 1993. It is a multi-member body with one chairman and four members. The chairman of the committee must be a retired Chief Justice of India and all the members should be retired or serving judges of the Supreme Court, a serving or retired chief justice of high court and two persons having knowledge or practical experience regarding human rights.

79.Which one of the following criteria is not required to be qualified for appointment as Judge of the Supreme Court?

A. At least five years as a Judge of a High Court B. At least ten year as an Advocate of a High Court C. In the opinion of the President, a distinguished Jurist

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D. At least twenty years as a Sub-Judicial Magistrate

Answer: D

Solution:

Eligibility of a judge of the Supreme Court -a judge of one high court or more (continuously), for at least five years, or. -an advocate there, for at least ten years, or. -a distinguished jurist, in the opinion of the president, power conferred by clause (2) of article 124 of the Constitution of India.

80.Consider the following statements about the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes under the provisions of the Constitution of India: 1) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the Government educational institutions. 2) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions aided by the State. 3) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the private educational institutions not aided by the State. 4) State can make any special provision relating to their admission to the minority educational institutions as described in Article 30. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 and 4 only C. 1, 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Solution:

Constitution reads as follow “ Nothing in this article of sub-clause(g) of clause (1) of article 19 shall prevent the state from making any special provision, by law, for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for scheduled caste or scheduled tribe in so far as such special provision related to their admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by state, other than minority educational institutions referred to in clause (1) of article 30”.

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81.Which of the following statements about the Ordinance-making power of the Governor is correct? 1) It is a discretionary power. 2) The Governor himself is not competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Solution:

The State Executive has temporary law-making power in emergent situations under the Constitution of India. And the Governor is the head of the State Executive. So, the ordinance making power confers on him by the Constitution itself. But this is not a discretionary power. The ordinance making power of the Governor is co-extensive with the legislative power of the State Legislature to make laws. He can promulgate ordinances only on the subjects on which the State Legislature has power to make laws under the Constitution.

82.Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote for himself during the ‘Vote of Confidence’ that he was seeking from the Lok Sabha?

A. V. P. Singh B. P. V. Narasimha Rao C. Chandra Sekhar D. Manmohan Singh

Answer: A

Solution:

VP Singh faced the vote of no confidence in the Lok Sabha saying that he occupied the high moral ground, as he stood for secularism, had saved the Babri Masjid at the cost of power and had upheld the fundamental principles which were challenged during the crises.

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83.The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed from office only by:

A. President on the advice of the Union Cabinet. B. Chief Justice of the Supreme Court. C. President of India after an address in both Houses of Parliament. D. President on the advice of Chief Justice of India.

Answer: C

Solution:

The comptroller and auditor general (CAG) of India is appointed by the president of India. The CAG can be removed from his office only by president of India an address from both houses of parliament on the ground of proved misbehavior or incapacity.

84.The Rajya Sabha can withhold its consent to a Money Bill for:

A. 14 days B. 15 days C. 30 days D. 18 days

Answer: A

Solution:

Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha. Money Bills passed by Lok Sabha are sent to Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha cannot amend the money bill, but can recommend amendments. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies the Bill as a Money Bill before it is sent to the Upper House, and the Speaker's decision is binding on both the Houses. A money bill should be returned to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. The definition of money bill is given in article 110.

85.First Estimates Committee in the post-independence India was constituted on whose recommendations?

A. C Rajagopalachari B. John Mathai C. Baldev Singh D. B.R. Ambedkar

Answer: B

Solution:

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• The first Estimates Committee in the post-independence India was constituted on the recommendations of John Mathai, the then finance minister.

• Initially, it had 25 members which went up to 30 in 1956. • All of them were from Lok Sabha as Rajya Sabha has no representation in this

committee.

86.Which one of the following is not among the duties of the Chief Minister?

A. To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisionos of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation B. To furnish information relating to the administration of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for C. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State in the monthly report D. To submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but has not been considered by the Council, if the Governor so requires

Answer: C

Solution:

Duties of Chief Minister as respects the furnishing of information to Governor, etc.- It shall be the duty of the Chief Minister of each State- (a) to communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation; (b) to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for; and (c) the Governor so requires, to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.

87.Which one of the following is not under the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India?

A. Superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls B. Conduct of elections to the Parliament and to the Legislature of each State C. Conduct of election to the office of the President and the Vice President D. Appointment of the Regional Commissioners to assist the Election Commission in the performance of the functions conferred on the Commission

Answer: A

Solution:

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The Key Functions of the Election Commission Of India are as under :- 1) The Election Commission Of India is considered the guardian of free and reasonable elections. 2) It issues the Model Code Of Conduct in every election for political parties and candidates , so that the decorum of democracy is maintained. 3) It regulates political parties and registers them for being eligible to contest elections. 4) It publishes the allowed limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same. 5) The political parties must submit their actual reports to the ECI for getting tax benefits on contributions. 6) It guarantees that all the political parties regularly submit their audited financial reports. Other Powers handled by the Election Commission Of India are as follows:- 1) The commission can repress the results of opinion polls if it deems such an action fit for the cause of democracy. 2) The commission can recommend for disqualification of members after the elections if it thinks they have violated certain guidelines. 3) In case, a candidate is found guilty of dishonest practices during the elections, the supreme court and High Courts consult the commission. 4) The commission can postpone candidates who fail to submit their election expenses accounts timely. The Main Duties of Election Commission are:- 1) To supervise, direct, control and conduct all elections to parliament and state legislatures as also to the office of president and vice-president of India. 2) To set down general rules for elections. 3) To determine constituencies and to prepare Electoral Rolls. 4) To give credit to political parties. 5) To allot election symbols to different political parties and individual candidates. 6) To appoint tribunals for the decision of doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with election to parliament and state legislatures.

88.A Joint Sitting of the Parliament is resorted to, for resolving the deadlock between two Houses of the Parliament for passing which of the following Bills? 1) Money Bill 2) Constitutional Amendment Bill 3) Ordinary Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

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Solution:

Parliament of India consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President. Mutual agreement of both the houses is required to pass a bill. Therefore, the need of joint session arises to break the deadlock and to keep the balls rolling. It is preceded by the speaker of Lok Sabha after being called by the President.

89.Which of the following is a non-constitutional body?

A. Finance Commission B. National Commission for SCs C. Advocate General of the State D. State Information Commission

Answer: D

Solution:

90.Who among the following Prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of No confidence? 1) Morarji Desai 2) Viswanath Pratap Singh 3) H.D. Deve Gowda 4) Atal Bihari Vajpayee Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2 and 3 only C. 2, 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only

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Answer: C

Solution:

A vote of no confidence means that a person in a position of responsibility is no longer deemed fit to hold that position. A Vote of No Confidence can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. If a majority of the members of the house vote in favour of the motion, the motion is passed, and the Government is bound to vacate the office. Vishwanath Pratap Singh (1990), H. D. Deve Gowda (1997), Atal Bihari Vajpayee (1999), and Morarji Desai (1978) were defeated by the vote of no confidence.

91.From which among the following pairs of species, a small quantity of fine quality wool is obtained in India?

A. Pashmina goats and Angora rabbits B. Pashmina rabbits and Angora goats C. Pashmina rabbits and Angora sheep D. Pashmina goats and Angora sheep

Answer: A

Solution:

India is the third largest sheep populated country in the world, with 65.06 million sheep, producing 48 million kilograms of raw wool in 2014–15. Special amounts of fiber are obtained from Pashmina goats and Angora rabbits. The domestic production of wool is not sufficient; therefore, the industry is dependent on imported raw materials and wool is the only natural fiber the country lacks.

92.Which one among the following States is the leading producer of salt in India?

A. Rajasthan B. Gujarat C. Tamil Nadu D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: B

Solution:

Gujarat contributes over 75% of the total salt produced in India.

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93.Which one among the following States ¡s the leading producer of petroleum (crude) in India?

A. Assam B. Gujarat C. Maharashtra D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer: C

Solution:

Total estimated crude oil reserves in India are 594.49 million tonnes (MT). The largest reserves are found in western offshore (40%), Mumbai, Maharashtra and Assam (27%). If we talk about the production of crude oil reserves by the state / region:

* Mumbai High 21,573 ('000 tons) 65.28 (% of India production)

* Gujarat 6,042 ('000 tons) 18.28 (% of India production)

* Assam 4,659 ('000 tons) 14.09 (% of India production)

* Tamil Nadu 395 ('000 tons) 1.19 (% of India production)

94.A yield curve is a graphical representation of yields for bonds over different time horizons. Which of the following directions of yield curve indicate recession?

A. Upward sloping B. Flat C. Downward sloping D. None of the above

Answer: C

Solution:

• A yield curve is a graphical representation of yields for bonds (with an equal credit rating) over different time horizons.

• If bond investors expect the economy to grow normally, then they would expect to be rewarded more (that is, get more yield) when they lend for a longer period. This gives rise to a normal — upward sloping — yield curve (see chart).

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• The steepness of this yield curve is determined by how fast an economy is expected to grow. The faster it is expected to grow the more the yield for longer tenures. When the economy is expected to grow only marginally, the yield curve is “flat”.

• Yield inversion (downward sloping) happens when the yield on a longer tenure bond becomes less than the yield for a shorter tenure bond. A yield inversion typically portends a recession. An inverted yield curve shows that investors expect the future growth to fall sharply; in other words, the demand for money would be much lower than what it is today and hence the yields are also lower.

95.Which of the following statements are correct:

1) Inflationary Gap intends to increase the production level in economy

2) Deflationary Gap is the shortfall in total spending of the government over the national income

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither of the two

Answer: C

Solution:

• Inflationary Gap may be defined as the excess of total government spending above the national income. This is intended to increase the production level, which pushes the prices up due to extra-creation of money during the process.

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• Deflationary Gap is the shortfall in total spending of the government over the national income. In this situation, production is more than the demand and the economy heads for a general slowdown in the level of demand.

96.Phillips Curve:

1) is a graphical relationship between inflation and unemployment

2) indicates a direct relationship between inflation and unemployment

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither of the two

Answer: A

Solution:

Phillips Curve was developed by Alban William Housego Phillips (1914–75). Phillips Curve is a graphical relationship between inflation and unemployment. The curve indicates an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment. According to the curve, lower the inflation, higher the unemployment and higher the inflation, lower the unemployment.

97.Which of the following are likely consequences of Inflation:

1) Redistribution of wealth from debtors to creditors

2) Boosts the investment in economy

3) Benefits exporters

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

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Solution:

• Inflation benefits borrowers and harms debtors hence inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors. The opposite effect takes place when inflation falls (i.e., deflation).

• Higher inflation indicates higher demand and hence motivates entrepreneurs to expand their production level. Further, higher inflation reduces the cost of loan for entrepreneurs. This boosts investment in economy though in short term.

• Inflation makes exports competitive in international market and hence volume of exports increase.

98.With respect to National Income of India, consider the following statements:

1) National Income of India is released by Ministry of Finance

2) The Base Year for calculating the National Income of India is 2012-13

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither of the two

Answer: D

Solution:

• National Income is the total amount of goods and services produced within the nation during the given period.

• National Income of India is released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

• The Base Year for calculating the National Income of India is 2011-12.

• The National Income (GNI) of India at current prices is estimated at Rs 188.17 lakh crore during 2018-19, as compared to Rs 169.10 lakh crore during 2017-18.

99.GDP Deflator:

1) is the ratio between GDP at Current Prices and GDP at Constant Prices

2) is the ratio between GDP at Constant Prices and GDP at Current Prices

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3) is a measure of price inflation

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Solution:

• GDP Deflator is the ratio between GDP at Current Prices and GDP at Constant Prices. If GDP at Current Prices is equal to the GDP at Constant Prices, GDP deflator will be 1, implying no change in price level.

• If GDP Deflator is more than 1, it suggests the rise in prices of commodities (inflation). If GDP Deflator is less than 1, it suggests the decrease in prices of commodities (deflation).

100.Which of the following activities are not undertaken by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):

A. Preparing district level credit plans B. Supervising Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks C. Training handicraft artisans D. None of the above

Answer: D

Solution:

NABARD came into existence on 12 July 1982 by transferring the agricultural credit functions of RBI and refinance functions of the then Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC). Important functions of NABARD are as follows:

• Providing refinance support to building rural infrastructure

• Preparing district level credit plans to guiding and motivating the banking industry in achieving these targets

• Supervising Cooperative Banks and Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) to helping them develop sound banking practices and onboarding them to the CBS platform

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• Designing new development schemes to the implementation of GoI’s development schemes

• Training handicraft artisans to providing them a marketing platform for selling these articles

101.With respect to Repo rate, consider the following statements:

1) Repo Rate is a rate that RBI offers to banks when they deposit their surplus cash with RBI

2) Increase in Repo rate slows down the investment in economy

3) Reduction in Repo rate benefits the borrowers from commercial banks as EMIs (equated monthly instalments) are reduced

Which of the following option is correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: B

Solution:

* Repo rate is that rate at which commercial banks borrow money from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in case of shortage of funds.

* During high levels of inflation, RBI makes strong attempts to reduce the money supply in the economy. One way to do this is to increase the repo rate. This makes borrowing a costly affair for businesses and industries, which in turn slows down investment and money supply in the economy. As a result, it negatively impacts the growth of the economy. This also helps bring down inflation.

* Reduction in Repo rate benefits borrowers but harms the people who live on income from Fixed Deposits (FDs) as the rates on FDs go down because the banks pass on the reduction in Repo rate by RBI.

* A Reverse Repo Rate is a rate that RBI offers to banks when they deposit their surplus cash with RBI for shorter periods. In other words, it is the rate at which the RBI borrows from the commercial banks. When banks have excess funds, but don’t have any other lending or investment options, they deposit/lend the surplus funds with the RBI. This way banks can raise additional interest from their funds.

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102.A country runs into a Current Account Deficit (CAD) if the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of those it exports. Which of the following factors can reduce CAD in case of India:

1) Increasing price of Gold

2) Increasing price of Oil

3) Strengthening of Indian currency in international market

Which of the following option is correct?

A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only D. 1 only

Answer: C

Solution:

* Since India imports substantial amount of oil and gold, rising prices of oil and gold would worsen trade deficit of country which would increase the current account deficit.

* Weakening of rupee in international market is another factor of rising current account deficit as it makes imports costly.

103.Which one of the following is an example for Non-Banking Financial institution?

A. RBI B. SBI C. IOB D. LIC

Answer: D

Solution:

A non-banking financial company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956, which is engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares, stocks, bonds, rent-purchase insurance business or chit fund. Business is not included but any institution whose major business involves the sale, procurement or construction of agriculture, industrial activity or real estate

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104.The system of issuing and monitoring of money in the market is known as:

A. Proportional reserve ratio B. Fixed reserve ratio C. Minimum reserve ratio D. Floating reserve ratio

Answer: C

Solution:

For the issue of currencies, the RBI currently follows the minimum reserve system. Since 1956 Minimum Reserve System (MRS) is followed.

105.the money multiplier is the ratio of deposits to reserves in which of the following?

A. In banking system. it increases in the banking habit of the population. B. In banking system. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio C. In business system. Increase in the population in the country D. In government system. Increase in cash reserve ratio.

Answer: A

Solution:

Money multiplier is the amount that the banks generate with each dollar reserves. The reserve amount is the amount of deposit that the Federal Reserve does not need to keep and lend to banks. The banking reserves are the ratio of the total deposit amount to the reserves. it increases in the banking habit of the population. The currency multiplier is the ratio of deposits to the stock in the banking system.

106.Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Committee)

A) Rangarajan Committee

B) Narsimhan Committee

C) Kelkar Committee

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D) Malhotra Committee

List II (Subject)

1) Tax Reform

2) Insurance Reform

3) Disinvestment of shares in PSEs

4) Banking Sector Reform

A - B - C - D

A. A3 B4 C1 D2 B. A1 B2 C4 D3 C. A3 B2 C4 D1 D. A1 B4 C2 D3

Answer: A

Solution:

Rangrajan committee – Disinvestment of Shares in PSEs

Narsimhan committee – Banking sector reforms

Kelkar committee – Tax reform

Malhotra committee – Insurance reform

107.To which of the following sectors of the economy, the activity of agriculture and services belong to?

A. Primary and Tertiary respectively B. Primary and Secondary respectively C. Tertiary and Secondary respectively D. Secondary and Quaternary respectively

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Answer: A

Solution:

All the services related activities belong to Tertiary sector and all the agricultural activities, mining activities belong to primary sector.

108.When was Start-up India Hub operationalized to resolve queries and handhold start-ups?

A. 2015 B. 2016 C. 2017 D. 2018

Answer: C

Solution:

Start-up India hub was launched by union ministry of commerce and industries in 2017, the mains of this is to solve the problem of information asymmetry and lack of access to knowledge tools & experts.

109.Consider the following statements: 1) In India, Monetary Policy is overseen by Ministry of Finance 2) Monetary Policy may be used to reduce unemployment by increasing money supply in economy Choose the correct options:

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither of the two

Answer: B

Solution:

Monetary Policy is overseen by RBI while Fiscal Policy is made by Ministry of Finance. An increase in the money supply would lead to a drop in the interest rate. Industries would be able to increase production due to availability of cheap loans. This would boost employment in market.

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110.Consider the following statements with reference to the World Trade Organization (WTO):

1) It was officially commenced under the Marrakesh Agreement.

2) To become a member of WTO, it should be a fully independent state.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Solution:

WTO is an intergovernmental organization concerned with trade between different countries around the word; it acts as a forum for negotiating trade agreements. Trade disputes between the member countries are settled by WTO, and it also supports the need for developing countries.

WTO officially commenced under the Marrakesh Agreement replacing the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) on 1st January 1995.

WTO has 164 members and 22 observer governments, with Afghanistan and Liberia being the latest to join.

To become a member of WTO members need not have to be fully independent states. As Hong Kong is a member of the WTO but is not is the independent state.

111.Consider the following statements concerning Five-year plan in India

1) The first five-year plan was based on Mahalanobis Model.

2) In the second five-year plan, the focus was on agriculture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: D

Solution:

In the first five-year plan prime focus was on agriculture because the economy was facing the large-scale import of food grains and this is not based on Mahalanobis’ Model. The Second 5 Year plan was based on Mahalanobis Model.

The second 5-year plans’ major focus was on Heavy industries and capital goods.

112.Which of the following statement is correct with reference to Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan yojana?

A. This scheme is for both the organised and unorganised sector. B. Maximum age limit to get the benefit of this scheme is 50 years. C. This scheme is only for workers in the unorganised sector D. The minimum age for joining this scheme is 20 years.

Answer: C

Solution:

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan Yojana was announced in Interim budget; this scheme is only for poor labourers in Unorganized sector.

In this scheme, the monthly pension of 3000 per month will be provided to the workers in the unorganised sector after they attain 60 years of age. Minimum age to join this scheme is 18 years, and the maximum age is 40 years.

The maximum contribution of the worker cannot be more than Rs. 2400 per year.

113.Which of the following fixes the inflation target?

A. Central Government B. RBI C. Office of Economic advisor D. None of the above

Answer: A

Solution:

* Central Government, in consultation with RBI, has fixed the inflation target for the period beginning from the date of publication of the Gazette Notification (August 5, 2016) and ending on the March 31, 2021.

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114.Consider the following statements regarding ‘Gig Economy’, which is in news recently.

1) A Gig economy is a work environment where organizations hire temporary workers or freelancers instead of full-time long-term employees.

2) The ‘Gig concept’ is very common in advanced countries like the US, Europe, who hire part-time workers.

Which of the following above statement is/ are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Solution:

* In Gig economy - temporary, flexible jobs are commonplace and companies tend toward hiring independent contractors and freelancers instead of full-time employees. A Gig economy undermines the traditional economy of full-time workers who rarely change positions and instead focus on a lifetime career. e.g. Employee models of Uber, Ola, Swiggy etc. Sectors such as media, real estate, legal, hospitality, technology-help, management, medicine, allied and education are already operating in Gig culture. Hence statement 1 is correct.

* The Gig Economy is very common in developed and advanced countries like the US, Uk, Europe etc. Therefore statement 2 is correct.

115.With respect to Financial Inclusion Index (FII), which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1) It is released by World Economic Forum.

2) It has three parameters to measure Financial Inclusion namely Access to Financial Services, Usage of Financial Service and Quality of Financial Service.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 & 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer: B

Solution:

The annual FII will be released by Department of Financial Services (DFS) under the Ministry of Finance released Annual Financial Inclusion Index (FII) which will be a measure of access and usage of a basket of formal financial products and services that includes savings, remittances, credit, insurance and pension products.

The index will have three measurement dimensions;

(i) Access to financial services

(ii) Usage of financial services and

(iii) Quality

116.Fiscal policy refers to

A. Agricultural fertilizer policy B. Rural credit policy C. Interest policy D. Related to revenue and expenditure policy of the government

Answer: D

Solution:

The fiscal policy refers to the expenditure and taxation policies of a government whose purpose is to maintain economic stability.

117.The primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) is:

A. to provide subsidies to fishermen B. to provide cheaper loans to fishermen C. to address critical gaps in the value chain of fishing D. to provide pension benefits to fishermen

Answer: C

Solution:

Fishing and fishermen communities are closely aligned with farming and are crucial to rural India. Through a focused Scheme – the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana

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(PMMSY) – the Department of Fisheries aims to establish a robust fisheries management framework. This will address critical gaps in the value chain, including infrastructure, modernization, traceability, production, productivity, post-harvest management, and quality control.

118.Budget 2019 has introduced a new scheme namely Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan Dhan Yojana. Consider the following statements in this regard:

1) It is a voluntary and contribution based central sector scheme for the entry age group of 18-60 years

2) The scheme will provide monthly minimum assured pension of Rs 3,000 to shopkeepers, retail traders and self-employed persons whose annual turnover is below Rs 1.5 crore

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 D. Neither of the two

Answer: B

Solution:

Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan Dhan Yojana is a voluntary and contribution based central sector scheme, for the entry age group of 18-40 years. The contribution under the scheme is payable by the subscriber and the Central Government, in equal share, i.e. 50:50 basis.

119.Planning Commission was abolished to form NITI Aayog, consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog

1) NITI Aayog is a statutory body.

2) NITI Aayog is formed Presidential order.

3) NITI aayog has no power to allocate funds to states.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 only

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D. 1,2 and 3

Answer: C

Solution:

NITI Aayog is formed by a cabinet resolution replacing planning commission in 2015.It is Think Tank for Government Policy Formulation. Its chairman is prime minister. It has a vice chairman, CEO, 4 ex officio members viz. Finance, Home, Railway, Agriculture Ministers; 4 to 7 full time members who enjoy MoS rank.

120.Consider the following pairs:

1) P. J. Nayak committee: To review governance of Bank boards

2) Bimal Jalan committee: Licensing of New Banks in the Private Sector

3) Urijit Patel: Monetary policy reforms

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

A. 3 only B. 1 and 3 C. 1 and 2 D. All of the Above.

Answer: D

Solution:

All the given pairs are correctly matched.

121.Who among the following has explained the phenomenon of photoelectric effect?

A. Max Planck B. Albert Einstein C. Neils Bohr D. Ernest Rutherford

Answer: B

Solution:

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Albert Einstein proposed the Laws of Photoelectric effect. Einstein won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921. As Einstein described, all the characteristics of the Photoelectric effect are due to the interaction of individual photons with individual electrons. Photoelectric effect is simply the phenomenon of release of electrons when a photon hits an electron on a metal surface. Wave-particle duality concept owes its origin to the photoelectric effect.

122.The hydrogen atoms present in acetylene molecule are:

A. acidic B. basic C. both acidic and basic D. neutral

Answer: A

Solution:

Acetylene has two acidic hydrogens because acetylene has two carbons bonded by a triple bond. Three electron pairs exactly between two carbon atoms.

123.Which one of the following compounds is NOT considered an acid?

A. BE3 B. AlCl3 C. NH3 D. C6H5OH

Answer: C

Solution:

When you think about the relative strengths of acid and base and acid – base reactions, you should think of them as a competition for H + ion. A substance that donates a proton to H2O is considered and an acid in an aqueous solution.

A substance that accepts H and + from water is considered a base. Both NH3 and H2O are amphoteric. When NH3 is added to H3 there is a competition for protons. Since NH3 acts as a base in H2O, it is accepting a proton (and donates H2O H) from H2O. Thus, NH3 has a stronger tendency to accept H + than H2O.

124.γ-ray consists of:

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A. meson particles B. neutrino particles C. Higg’s boson D. electromagnetic waves

Answer: D

Solution:

A gamma ray, or gamma radiation (symbol γ), is an electromagnetic radiation arising from the radioactive decay of an atomic nucleus. It has the shortest wavelength electromagnetic waves and therefore provides the highest photon energy.

Paul Villard, a French chemist and physicist, discovered gamma radiation in 1900, while studying radiation emitted by radium.

125.Consider the following statements.

1) The pistil remains attached to the plants.

2) Zygote develops into embryo and ovary develops into fruits.

3) Ovules develop into seeds.

4) The sepals, petals and stamens wither away.

Which of the above are post-fertilization changes which occur in plants?

A. 1,4 B. 2,3 C. 1,2,3 D. All of these

Answer: D

Solution:

Different stages in sexual reproduction include:

I. Pre-fertilization

II. Fertilization

III. Post-fertilization

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Post-fertilization (after the fertilization) changes that occur in plants are enlisted as follows-

* The sepals, petals and stamens dry and wither away from the plants.

* However, the pistil remains attached to the plants.

* Zygote develops into embryo.

* Ovary develops into fruits.

* Ovules develop into seeds.

126.In a radioactive decay of a nucleus, an electron is also emitted. This may happen due to the fact that:

A. electrons are present inside a nucleus B. an electron is created at the time of conversion of a neutron into proton C. an electron is created at the time of conversion of a proton into a neutron D. electrons need to be emitted for conservation of momentum

Answer: B

Solution:

Radioactive decay in which an electron is extracted from the nucleus to convert a neutron into a proton is called a "beta emission".

127.Heavy water of an atomic reactor is:

A. deionized water B. an oxide of heavier isotope of oxygen C. a mixture of ice and water D. an oxide of heavier isotope of hydrogen

Answer: D

Solution:

Deuterium is the isotopes of hydrogen and heavy water is D2O. D2O has an extremely useful property for atomic applications. In a nuclear reactor, the atoms split and send neutrons flying in all directions. If one of these neutrons kills nuclear fuel, such as U-

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235, that atom may split and keep the chain copyright running. The atom that splits sends many neutrons, but most of them are lost.

128.A ball of mass 0.5 kg is hoisted upward. What is the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on the ball, ignore the air resistance? Which of the following is true?

A. As it moves upwards it will grow B. As it progresses going downward C. The net force at the highest point of its vertical climb will remain unchanged D. The horizontal plane net force would be 0 if the ball was kicked at a 45 ° angle.

Answer: C

Solution:

Regardless of the direction of motion of the ball, acceleration due to gravity is the only force acting on the ball in all three cases and in all cases it is acting in a vertical downward direction. The magnitude of this force is F = ma. Where m = mass of the ball and 'a' is acceleration due to gravity.

m = 0.5 kg

a = 10 m / s-2

Therefore, f = 0.5 x 10 = 5 n.

Thus, in the above three cases a net force of 5N acts on the ball and it acts in the vertical downward direction.

If the ball was kicked at an angle of 45 °, it would have both vertical and horizontal components of velocity. The net force acting on the body will still be 5N.

129.Consider the following statements

1) Fishes have three chambered heart

2) Birds have four chambered heart

3) Reptiles do respiration by lungs only

4) All Amphibian animals have two pair of wings

Which of the following is/are correct?

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A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 3 and 4 only D. 1 and 4 only

Answer: B

Solution:

* The heart of a fish has two chambers, atrium and ventricle. The blood enters the atrium after being transmitted through the fish, which is poorly oxygenated. The blood is then pumped into the ventricle

* Birds are warm-blooded vertebrates related to reptiles compared to mammals. They have a four-chamber heart

* The name amphibian, derived from the Greek word meaning "living a dual life", refers to this dual life strategy - although some species are permanent land dwellers, other species have a fully aquatic mode of survival.

* Reptiles are air-breathing vertebrates. They have internal fertilization, amniotic growth and epidermal scales that cover all parts of their body.

130.Match list 1 with list 2 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: -

List 1

a) Angstrom

b) Joule

c) Hertz

d) Decibel

List 2

1) Energy

2) Intensity of sound

3) Wavelength

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4) Frequency

A. A3 B1 C4 D2 B. A1 B3 C4 D2 C. A3 B1 C2 D4 D. A4 B1 C3 D2

Answer: A

Solution:

• Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive crest or thought and one angstrom = 10 -10 m, Joule is the unit of energy.

• Frequency is measured in hertz (Hz)

• Intensity of sound is measured in decibel.

131.If by mistake some radioactive substance get into human body, then from the point of view radiation damage, the most harmful will be one that emits -

A. γ – rays B. Neutrons C. β – rays D. α– rays

Answer: A

Solution:

γ- rays has highest frequency range and hence highest penetrating power. These are able to travel many feet in air and many inches in human tissue. These penetrates most of the materials and are sometimes called "penetrating" radiation.

132.Consider the following statements-

1) It is small sized(12-14cm) conical part.

2) Here, food and air passages cross each other.

3) It is divided into three parts.

Which part of the alimentary canal are we talking about?

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A. Buccal Cavity B. Pharynx C. Oesophagus D. Stomach

Answer: B

Solution:

Digestive system of human beings consists of alimentary canal and some accessory organs.

•Alimentary canal •Accessory Organs

Mouth, Pharynx, Stomach, Large Teeth, Salivary glands, Gall bladder, liver,

Intestine, Small intestine, Oesophagus, Pancreas

Rectum and anus

Pharynx: It is the part of throat where Food and air passages cross each other at this part of body. It is divided into three parts viz. Nasopharynx, Oropharynx, and Laryngopharynx.

133.Consider the following statements-

Assertion: Prokaryotic cell has membrane-bound organelles, including a nucleus.

Reason: It allows cellular processes to be carried efficiently in isolation from each other.

A. Assertion is correct and Reason justifies it. B. Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct. C. Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. D. Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

Answer: B

Solution:

Eukaryotic Cell - Prokaryotic Cell

• Nucleus is well organised. - • Absent nucleus.

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• Nuclear membrane is present. - •Membrane absent.

• DNA complexes with histones. - • No histone complexion.

• Mitochondria present. - •Mitochondria absent.

• Chloroplast present in plant cells. - • Chloroplast absent.

134.Which one of the following statements regarding Penicillin is correct?

A. Penicillin resistant bacteria can store this antibiotic in vacuole B. Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called β-lactamase C. Penicillin resistant bacteria can degrade this antibiotic by an enzyme called lactic acid dehydrogenase D. Penicillin is not absorbed by bacteria; so most bacteria are resistant

Answer: B

Solution:

Penicillin is a group of antibacterial drugs that attach wide range of bacteria. Penicillin fungi are the source of penicillin, people can take orally or via injection. Alexander Fleming is the discoverer of Penicillin.

People are not developing resistance against penicillin, but the Bacteria is developing. From Beta Lactamase are the enzymes produced by Bacteria. It provides resistant to Beta-lactum antibiotics such as penicillin, cephalosporins etc.

135.Which one of the following cell organelles does NOT possess nucleic acid?

A. Nucleolus B. Chloroplast C. Ribosome D. Plasma Membrane

Answer: D

Solution:

Plasma membrane does not contain nucleic acids- DNA and RNA. The major components of plasma membrane are – lipids, glycol-lipids, and cholesterol.

Nucleic acid is a term used for both DNA and RNA. They are small biomolecules essential for all life forms.

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136.Consider the following statements.

1) In plants, respiration is an oxidation reaction.

2) Respiration takes place in leaves only, during day.

3) Pyruvic is formed in both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

4) During respiration, there is loss of weight.

Which of the above statements are correct regarding respiration?

A. 2,3 B. 1,4 C. 1,3,4 D. All of these

Answer: C

Solution:

Statement 1 is correct- Respiration is an oxidation reaction in which glucose is oxidized and oxygen is reduced.

Statement 2 is incorrect- Respiration takes place in all the living cells of a plant.

Statement 3 is correct- The glycolysis is the common phase and its products pyruvic acid is common intermediate of the aerobic and anaerobic respiration.

Statement 4 is correct- During respiration, if anabolic activity or synthesis does not take place then the weight is lost.

137.Consider the following statements-

1) New plants are obtained from seeds in Asexual Reproduction.

2) New plants are obtained without seeds in Sexual Reproduction

Which of the above statements are true?

A. Only 1 B. Only 2 C. Both 1 & 2

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D. None of these

Answer: D

Solution:

In asexual reproduction, new plants are generated without seeds. Some of the asexual reproduction methods are- Budding, Spore formation, Fission, Fragmentation etc.

Sexual Reproduction is the process in which two components male and female are involved to reproduce. Flower is the organ which is the productive part of the plant. Some sexual reproduction method are Pollination and Fertilization.

138.which of the following enzyme helps in coagulation of milk?

A. Pepsin B. Lipase C. Renin D. Trypsin

Answer: C

Solution:

Gastric juice contains pepsin, lipase, and renin. Pepsin is secreted inactive form as pepsinogen, which is activated by HCL. Pepsin digests proteins in peptones. Lipase breaks down fat into fatty acids. Renin is a proteolysis enzyme present in gastric juice. It helps in the coagulation of milk.

139.which of the following is common in fungi and algae?

A. Sun light necessity B. Mode of nutrition C. Presence of Vascular system D. Colour of plant

Answer: C

Solution:

Vascular system is absent in both fungi and algae. Other than that option: sunlight is necessary in photosynthesis which takes place in green plants and this called autotrophic mode of nutrition in plants, Ex. algae, however fungi have heterotrophic mode of nutrition.

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140.The nitrogen in the ecosystem is circulated by:

A. Earthworms B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Protozoa

Answer: B

Solution:

Atmospheric nitrogen should be processed, or "definite", in a useful form used by plants. 5 to 10 billion kilograms per year are determined by lightning attacks, but most of the determination is done by free-living or symbiotic bacteria known as diazotrophs.

141.Which of the following used in making bread?

A. Agaricus bispora B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Candida albicans D. Torula

Answer: B

Solution:

Saccharomyces cerevisiae is A species of yeast. It has been playing an important role in winemaking, baking and brewing since ancient times. It is believed that it is originally separated from the skin of grapes.

142.Digestion completed in

A. Stomach B. Large intestine C. Ileum D. Jejunum

Answer: C

Solution:

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Ileum is the part of the small intestine.

143.Milk coagulating enzyme present in gastric juice is

A. Rennin B. Pepsin C. Trypsin D. Lipase

Answer: A

Solution:

Pepsin converts casein into calcium-paracaseinate(curd)

144.Which one of the following organisms is dependent on saprophytic mode of nutrition?

A. Agaricus B. Ulothrix C. Riccia D. Cladophora

Answer: A

Solution:

Saprophytic fungi feed on dead plant and animal remains. Many are extremely beneficial, breaking down this organic material into humus, minerals and nutrients that can be utilised by plants. Agaricus is one among them.

145.Which one of the following statements regarding haemoglobin is correct?

A. Haemoglobin present in RBC can carry only oxygen but not carbon dioxide B. Haemoglobin of RBC can carry both oxygen and carbon dioxide C. Haemoglobin of RBC can carry only carbon dioxide D. Haemoglobin is only used for blood clotting and not for carrying gases.

Answer: B

Solution:

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During respiration, about 97% of oxygen is transported by Red Blood Cells in blood and the remaining 3% gets dissolved in the plasma. Around 20-25% of carbon dioxide is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino-haemoglobin. Oxygen enters the blood from the lungs and carbon dioxide is expelled out of the blood into the lungs. The blood serves to transport both gases. Oxygen is carried to the cells. Carbon dioxide is carried away from the cells.

146.Which one of the following agents does not contribute to propagation of plants through seed dispersal?

A. Wind B. Fungus C. Animal D. Water

Answer: B

Solution:

Fungus is a microorganism which is too small to disperse seeds for propagation of plants. Fungi can be single celled or very complex multicellular organisms. They are found in just about any habitat but most live on the land, mainly in soil or on plant material rather than in sea or fresh water

147.Which one of the following features is an indication for modification of stem of a plant?

A. Presence of ‘eye’ on potato B. ‘Scale’ found in onion C. ‘Tendril’ found in pea D. Hair present in carrot

Answer: A

Solution:

‘‘hair’ in carrot are modified roots and ‘tendril’ in pea are modified leaves. ‘Scale’ found in onion are modified leaves. So, ‘eye’ on potato is an indication for modification of stem of a plant.

148.Which one of the following is an example of a clean fuel?

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A. Coke B. Propane C. Petrol D. Wax

Answer: B

Solution:

Propane, also known as Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is a clean burning fuel. It used to power lights, and heavy-duty propane vehicles. Propane consists of three-carbon alkane gas (C3H8), colorless and odorless.

149.Which one of the following is NOT a synthetic detergent?

A. CH3(CH2)10CH2OSO3-Na+ B. [CH3(CH2)15-N-(CH3)3] +Br- C. CH(CH2)16COO-Na+ D. CH(CH2)16COO(CH2CH2O) nCH2CH2OH

Answer: B

Solution:

Option (A) and (C) are the formulas for soaps which contains long hydrocarbon tails with negatively charged carboxyl head.

Option (D) is an example for non-ionic detergents. They contain a long hydrocarbon tail, and a polar alcohol ethoxylate group. They are molecules, not ions.

150.Which one of the following minerals is used as a fuel in nuclear power stations?

A. Bauxite B. Quartz C. Feldspar D. Pitchblende

Answer: D

Solution:

Pitchblende is a radioactive, uranium-rich mineral and ore it has chemical composition, which is largely UO2, but also contains UO3 and oxides of lead, thorium and Rare earth

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elements. It contains a small amount of radium as a radioactive decay product of Uranium.