+2 model q papers

8/2/2019 +2 Model q Papers

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DEPARTMENT MODEL QUESTION - IHI GHER SECONDARY SECOND YEAR

MATHEMATICS

Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 200

SECTION A 40 x 1 = 40

(i) All questions are compulsory.

(ii ) Each question carries 1 mark.

(iii) Choose the most suitable answer from the given four alternatives.

(1) If A =

1

2

3

, then the rank of AAT is

(1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2

(2) If the matrix

1 3 2

1 k 3

1 4 5

has an inverse then the values of k

(1) k is any real number (2) k = 4 (3) k 4 (4) k 4(3) If the equation 2x + y + z = l

x 2y + z = mx + y 2z = n

such that l + m + n = 0, then the system has

(1) a non-zero unique solution (2) trivial solution

(3) Infinitely many solutions (4) No Solution

(4) Which of the following is not true regarding the non-singular matrices A, B

(1) A (adj A) = (adj A)A (2) (AB)1 = B1A1 (3) (AB)T = BTAT (4) (AT)1

(A1)T

(5) If a

and b

are two unit vectors and is the angle between them, then( )a + b is a unit vector if

(1) = 3 (2) = 4 (3) = 2 (4) = 23

(6) The shortest distance of the point (2, 10, 1) from the plane r

. ( )3 i j + 4k = 2 26 is(1) 2 26 (2) 26 (3) 2 (4)

1

26

(7) If the magnitude of moment about the point j

+ k

of a force

i

+ a j

k

acting through the point i

+ j

is 8 then the value of a is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

(8) If the points (3, 2, 4), (9, 8, 10) and (, 4, 6) are collinear then is

(1) 5 (2) 5 (3)

5

2 (4) 10

(9) The point of intersection of the linesx 6 6 =

y + 44

=z 4 8 and

x + 12

=y + 2

4=

z + 3

2 is

(1) (0, 0, 4) (2) (1, 0, 0) (3) (0, 2, 0) (4) (1, 2, 0)

(10) The centre and radius of the sphere given by x2 + y2 + z2 6x + 8y 10z + 1 = 0 is(1) ( 3, 4, 5), 49 (2) ( 6, 8, 10), 1 (3) (3, 4, 5), 7 (4) (6, 8, 10), 7

(11) The value of

1 + i 3

2

100

+

1 i 3

2

100

is

(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 1


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(12) If the point represented by the complex number i z is rotated about the origin through the angle2

in the

counter clockwise direction then the complex number representing the new position is

(1) iz (2) i z (3) z (4) z

(13) If1 i1 + i

is a root of the equation ax2 + bx + 1 = 0, wherea, b are real then (a, b) is

(1) (1, 1) (2) (1, 1) (3) (0, 1) (4) (1, 0)(14) Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) | Z1 Z2 | = | Z1 | | Z2 | (2) | Z1 + Z2 | | Z1 | + |Z2 |

(3) | Z1 Z2 | < | Z1 | | Z2 | (4) | Z1 + Z2 |2 = (Z1 + Z2)

Z1

+ Z2

(15) The axis of the parabola y2 2y + 8x 23 = 0 is(1) y = 1 (2) x = 3 (3) x = 3 (4) y = 1

(16) The line 4x + 2y = c is a tangent to the parabola y2 = 16x then c is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 4(17) The area of the triangle formed by the tangent at any point on the rectangular hyperbola xy = 72 and its

asymptotes is

(1) 36 (2) 18 (3) 72 (4) 144(18) The centre of the ellipse is (4, 2) and one of the focus is (4, 2). The other focus is

(1) (4, 0) (2) (8, 0) (3) (4, 6) (4) (8, 6)

(19) The parametric equations of the curve x2/3 + y2/3 = a2/3 are

(1) x = a sin3 ; y = a cos3 (2) x = a cos3 ; y = a sin3

(3) x = a3 sin ; y = a3 cos (4) x = a3 cos ; y = a3 sin

(20) limx 0

ax bx

cx dx

(1) (2) 0 (3) logab

cd(4)

log ( )a/b

log ( )c/d

(21) The function f(x) = 1 x2 in 0 x 1 has(1) no absolute maximum (2) no absolute minimum

(3) no local maximum (4) absolute and local maximum

(22) The function f(x) = x2 x + 1 in [0, 1] is

(1) an increasing function (2) a monotonic function

(3) a decreasing function (4) neither decreasing nor increasing

(23) If u =1

x2

+ y2

, then xux + y

uy is equal to

(1)1

2u (2) u (3)

3

2u (4) u

(24) If u = y sin x, then2u

x yis equal to

(1) cos x (2) cos y (3) sin x 4) 0

(25) The length of the arc of the curve x2/3 + y2/3= 4 is

(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 96

(26) The curved surface area of a sphere of radius 5, intercepted between two parallel planes of distance 2 and 4

from the centre is

(1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 30


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(27) Volume of solid obtained by revolving the area of the ellipse

x2

a2

+y

2

b2

= 1 about major and minor axes are in the ratio

(1) b2 : a2 (2) a2 : b2 (3) a : b (4) b : a

(28) The value of /4

/4x

3sin2x dx is

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3)1

2(4)

1

2

(29) y = cx c2 is the general solution of the differential equation

(1) (y)2 xy + y = 0 (2) y = 0 (3) y = c (4) (y)2 + xy + y = 0

(30) The differential equation

dx

dy

2

+ 5y1/3= x is

(1) of order 2 and degree 1 (2) of order 1 and degree 2

(3) of order 1 and degree 6 (4) of order 1 and degree 3

(31) Solution ofdxdy

+ mx = 0, is

(1) x = cemy (2) x = cemy (3) x = my + c (4) x = c

(32) The particular integral of (D2 + 7D + 12)y = e2x

is

(1) 30e2x

(2)1

22e

2x (3) 22 e2x

(4)1

30e

2x

(33) Which of the following is a tautology?

(1) p q (2) p q (3) p p (4) p p

(34) p q is equivalent to

(1) p q (2) q p (3) (p q) (q p) (4) (p q) (q p)

(35) The value of [3] +11 ( )[5] +11 [6] is

(1) [0] (2) [1] (3) [2] (4) [3]

(36) Which of the following is a statement?

(1) Give me a cup of tea (2) Wish you all success

(3) How beautiful you are! (4) The set of rational numbers is finite

(37) A random variable Xhas the following probability distribution

X 0 1 2 3 4 5

P(X = x) 1/4 2a 3a 4a 5a 1/4

Then P(1 x 4) is

(1)10

21(2)

2

7(3)

1

14(4)

1

2(38) The distribution function F(X) of a random variable Xis

(1) a decreasing function (2) non decreasing function

(3) a constant function (4) increasing first and then decreasing

(39) In a Poisson distribution ifP(X= 2) = P(X= 3) then the value of its parameter is(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0

(40) A property of cumulative distribution function F(x) is

(1) it is strictly increasing (2) 0 < F(x) < 1 , < x <

(3) F( ) = 1 (4) F() = 1


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SECTION B

(i) Answer 10 questions.

(ii) Question 55 is compulsory and choose any 9 questions from the remaining

(ii i) Each question carries 6 marks.

(41) Examine the consistency of the system of equations 10 6 = 60

2x 3y + 7z = 5, 3x + y 3z = 13, 2x + 19y 47z = 32

(42) Find the adjoint of the matrix A =

1 2

3 5and verify the result

A (adj A) = (adj A)A = | A | . I

(43) (a) For any vector r

prove that r

= ( )r . i i + ( )r . j j+ ( )r . k k

(b) Find the projection of the vector 7 i

+ j

4 k

on 2 i

+ 6 j

+ 3 k

(44) Find the vector and cartesian equation of the sphere on the join of the points A and B having position

vectors 2 i

+ 6 j

7 k

and 2 i

+ 4 j

3 k

respectively as a diameter. Find also the centre and radius

of the sphere.

(45) If arg (z 1) =6

and arg (z + 1) = 23

then prove that | z | = 1

(46) Find the two tangents that can be drawn from (1,2) to the hyperbola2x2 3y2 = 6

(47) Determine where the curve y = x3 3x + 1 is cancave upward, and where it is concave downward. Alsofind the inflection points.

(48) (a) Show that ex is strictly decreasing in R.

(b) Find the Maclaurin s series for cosx.

(49) The time of swing T of a pendulum is given by T = k l where k is a constant. Determine the percentageerror in the time of swing if the length of the pendulum l changes from 32.1 cm to32.0 cm.

(50) Evaluate the following problem using properties of integration 0

3 x dx

x + 3 x

(51) Solve the following dif ferential equation : (D2 + 3D 4) y = x2

(52) Show that (p q) (p q) is a tautology.(53) Suppose that the probability of suffering a side effect from a certain vaccine is 0.005. If 1000 persons are

inoculated. Find approximately the probability that (i) atmost 1 person suffer. (ii) 4, 5 or 6 persons suffer.

[e5 = 0.0067]

(54) If the height of 300 students or normally distributed with mean 64.5 and standard deviation 3.3find the height below which 99% of the students lie.

f(x) = c ex2 + 3x , < X < .

(55) (a) If (a1 + ib1) (a2 + ib2) (an + ibn) = A + iB,prove that (i) (a1

2 + b12) (a2

2 + b22) (an

2 + bn2) = A2 + B2

(ii ) tan1

b1

a1+ tan1

b2

a2+ + tan1

bn

an= n + tan1

B

A, n Z

OR

(b) Show that the set of four matrices

1 0

0 1,

1 0

0 1,

1 0

0 1,

1 0

0 1form an abelian group,

under multiplication of matrices.


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SECTION C

(i) Answer 10 questions.

(ii) Question 70 is compulsory and choose any 9 questions from the remaining

(ii i) Each question carries 10 marks.

(56) Solve the fol lowing by using determinant method. 10 10 = 100

x + y + 2z = 6 ; 3x + y z = 2 ; 4x + 2y + z = 8

(57) Show that the linesx 1

3=

y 1 1 =

z + 10

andx 4

2=

y0

=z + 1

3intersect and hence find the point of

intersection.

(58) Find the vector and cartesian equation of the plane through the point

(1, 3, 2) and parallel to the lines

x + 12

=y + 2

1 =z + 3

3and

x 21

=y + 1

2=

z + 22

(59) If and are the roots of the equation x2 2px + (p2 + q2) = 0 and

tan =q

y + pshow that

(y + )n (y +)n

= qn 1 sin n

sinn

(60) A comet is moving in a paraboli c orbit around the sun which is at the focus of a parabola. When the comet

is 80 million kms from the sun, the line segment f rom the sun to the comet makes an angle of3

radians

with the axis of the orbit. find (i) the equation of the comet s orbit (i i) how close does the comet come

nearer to the sun? (Take the orbit as open rightward).

(61) Find the eccentricity, centre, foci, vertices of the ell ipse 25x2 + 9y2 50x + 36y 164 = 0

(62) A car A is travelling from west at 50 km/hr. towards East and car B is travelling towards north at 60 km/hr.

Both are headed for the intersection of the two roads. At what rate are the cars approaching each other

when car A is 0.3 ki lometers and car B is 0.4 kilometers from the intersection?

(63) A poster is to have an area of 180 cm2 with 1 cm margins at the bottom and sides and a 2 cm margin at the

top. What dimensions wil l give the largest printed area?

(64) Trace the following curve : y = x3

(65) Find the area between the curves y = x2

x 2, x-axis and the lines x = 2 and x = 4

(66) Derive the formula for the volume of a right circular cone with radius r and height h.

(67) Solve : (1 + ex/y)dx + ex/y(1 x/y) dy = 0 given that y = 1, where x = 0

(68) Show that the set G of all rational numbers except 1 forms an abelian group with respect to the operation

* given by a * b = a + b + ab for all a, b G.


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(69) Find the Mean and Variance for the following probability density function

f(x) =xex , if x > 00 ,otherwise

(70) (a) The rate at which the population of a city increases at any time is proportional to the population at that

time. I f there were 1,30,000 people in the city in 1960 and 1,60,000 in 1990 what population may be

anticipated in 2020.

(OR)

(b) A satellite is travelling around the earth in an elliptical orbit having the earth at a focus and ofeccentricity 1/2 . The shortest distance that the satellite gets to the earth is 400 kms. Find the longestdistance that the satell ite gets from the earth.


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MODEL QUESTION PAPER

Higher Secondary Second Year Physics

Tim e : 3 hrs . Mark : 1 5 0

PART I

Not e : (i ) An s w er a l l t h e ques t ions . 3 0 x 1 = 3 0

(i i ) Choose a nd w r i t e t he cor rec t a nsw er .

(i i i ) Each ques t ion ca r r ies one m ark .

1. A dipole is p laced in a u niform elect r ic fie ld with it s a xis pa ral le l to the fie ld .It experiences

(a ) on ly a n et force (b) on ly a torqu e

(c) b ot h a n et for ce a n d tor qu e (d ) n eit h er a n et for ce n ot a t or qu e

2 . Th e u n it of p er m it t ivit y is(a) NC2m 2 (b) Hm 1

(c) C2N1m 2 (d) Nm 2C2

3. The nu mber of lines of force tha t rad ia te ou twards from one cou lomb cha rgeis

(a) 1.13 10 11 (b) 8.85 10 11

(c) 9 10 9 (d) infinite

4 . On moving a cha rge of 20 C by 2 cm, 2 J o f work is done, t hen t h e pot en t ia ldifference between the points is

(a ) 0 .5 V (b) 0 .1 V

(c) 8 V (d ) 2 V

5 . In t h e ca se of in su la t or s , a s t he t empera t u re dec rea ses , r es is t ivit y

(a ) in crea ses (b) decrea s es

(c) becom es zero (d) rem a in s con ta n t

6 . In a t angen t ga lvanome t er , for a cons t an t cu r ren t , t he deflect ion is 30o. Theplane of the coil is rotated through 90o. Now, for the same current , thedeflection will be

(a) 0 o (b) 30 o

(c) 60 o (d) 90 o

7 . In a t h e rmocoup l e, the t empera t u re of t he cold jun c tion is 20oC, thetemperature of inversion is 520oC. The neutral temperature is

(a) 500 oC (b) 540 oC

(c) 270 oC (d) 510 oC


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8 . E lect r om a gn e tic in d u c t ion is n ot u s e d in

(a ) t ran s form er (b) room h ea ter

(c) AC gen era tor (d) ch oke coil

9 . Which of the fo llowing devices does no t a l low d .c. to pass th rough?

(a ) res is tor (b ) ca pa citor

(c) in du ctor (d ) a ll th e a bove

10 . The un it hen ry can a lso be wr it t en a s

(a) VA1s (b ) s

(c) wb A1 (d) all

11 . In a n AC circu i t , t he cu r ren t I = Io s in (t / 2 ) la gs beh in d th e em f

e = E o s in (t + / 2 ) by

(a ) 0 (b) / 4

(c) / 2 (d)

12. In an e lect roma gnet ic wave, the ph as e difference between elect r ic fie ld a ndmagnetic field is

(a ) 0 (b) / 4

(c) / 2 (d)

13. Of th e following, which one is a biaxial crysta l?

(a ) tou rm a lin e (b) ice

(d ) ca lcit e (d ) m ica

14. If th e wavelength of th e light i s reduced to ha lf, then th e amou nt ofscattering will

(a ) in crea se by 16 t im es (b) decrea s e by 16 t im es

(c) in crea se by 256 t im es (d ) decrea se by 256 t im es

15 . A Nicol p r ism is ba sed on th e pr inc ip le of

(a ) refra ct ion (b) reflect ion

(c) dou b le refra ct ion (d) d iffract ion

16. The ra t io of radi i of the firs t th ree Bhor orbits i s

(a ) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 :1

2:1

3

(c) 1 : 8 : 27 (d) 1 : 4 : 9


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17. In h ydrogen at om, which of the following t ran si t ions pr oduce a sp eetra l lineof maximum frequency?

(a) 2 1 (b ) 6 2

(c) 4 3 (d ) 5 2

18. In Millikan s experim ent , an oil drop of ma ss 4 .9 10-14 kg is ba lan cedby applying a potential difference of 2 kV between the two plates which are2 mm apart . The charge of the drop is

(a) 1.96 10 1 8 C (b) 1 .602 10 19 C

(c) 12 C (d) 4 .9 10 19 C

19. If th e potent ia l difference between th e cathode an d th e target of coolidgetube is 1 .24 10 5V, then the minimum wavelength of cont inuous xraysis

(a ) 10 (b) 1(c) 0 .1 (d ) 0 .01

20. The ph otoelect r ic effect can b e explained on the ba sis of

(a ) corpu scu la r th eory (b) wa ve th eory

(c) elect rom a gn et ic th eory (d ) qu a n tu m th ery

21 . The wavelength of the m at te r wave is independent o f

(a ) m a ss (b) velocity

(c) m om en tu m (d) ch a rge

22 . The t ime taken by the rad ioact ive element to redu ce to 1 / e t imes i s

(a ) h a lf life (b ) m ean life

(c) h a lf life/ 2 (d) twice th e m ean life

23 . The ion i sa t ion power is ma ximu m for

(a ) n eu t ron s (b ) a lph a pa r t icles

(c) gam m a ra ys (d) beta pa r t icles24 . Wh en 5B

10 i s bombarded wi th neut ron and part icle is emitted, theres idual nucleus is

(a) 3Li7 (b) 1H

2

(c) 1H3 (d) 2He

4

25 . In a nu c lea r reac t or cadmi um rods a re u sed t o

(a ) speed u p n eu t ron s (b ) s low down n eu t ron s

(c) a bsorb n eu t ron s (d) rem ove h ea t


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26. In a Colpi t t s oscilla tor c ircui t

(a ) ca pa cit ive feed ba ck is u s ed (b ) t ap ped coil is u s ed

(c) n o t u n ed LC cir cu it is u s ed (d ) n o ca pa cit or is u s ed

2 7 . An e xa m p le of ntype semiconductor is

(a ) pu re germ an iu m (b) pu re s ilicon

(c ) s ilicon doped wit h ph osphorus (d ) ge rman ium doped wit h boron

28. Wha t will be the inpu t of A an d B for the Boolean experess ion(A + B ) . (A . B) = 1?

(a ) 0 , 1 (b ) 1 , 0

(c) 0 , 0 (d ) 1 , 1

29 . In T.V. t ransm iss ion , the p ic ture should no t be scan ned du r ing the retu rn

jou rn ey of th e s ca n n in g. Th is is don e by(a ) b lan kin g pu ls e (b) s aw tooth poten t ia l

(c ) hor izonta l synchronis ing pu lse (d) ver t ica l synchronis ing pu l se

30 . Through which mode of p ropaga t ion , the rad io waves can be sen t from oneplace to another

(a ) Grou n d wa ve prop aga tion (b) Sk y wa ve prop aga tion

(c) Spa ce wave p ropa ga t ion (d) All th e above

PART II

No t e : (i ) An s w er a ny 1 5 ques t ions . 1 5 x 3 = 4 5

31 . S ta te cou lombs l aw in e lect ros ta t ic s .

32 . Why is i t s a fe r to be in s ide a ca r than s t and ing under a t r ee du r ing ligh tn ing?

33 . What a r e the advan tages of s econdary cells ?

34 . The r es is t ance of a n ich rome wire a t 0 oC is 10 . If its temperature coefficient

of res is tance is 0 .004/oC, find its resistance at boiling point of water.

35 . What is ca lled su perconduc t ivity?

36 . Define ; ampere in t e rms o f fo rce.

37 . Wha t h appen s to th e value of cur ren t in RLC ser ies c ircu i t , if freqency of the

source is increased?

38. If the ra te of chan ge of cur ren t of 2 As 1 induces an emf of 10 mV in a solenoid,

what is the self inductance of the solenoid?

3 9 . Wh y d oe s t h e s k y a p p ea r b lu e in c o lou r ?

40 . The r e fr ac t ive index of the med ium is 3. Calculate the angle of refraction if

the unpolarised l ight is incident on i t at the polar is ing angle.


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4 1 . S t a t e t h e p os t u la t es o f B oh r a t o m m o d el.

42 . In Braggs sp ect rometer , the g lan cing an gle for fir s t o rder spect rum was

observed to be 8 o. Calculate the crystal lattice spacing, if the wavelength of

the xray is 0.7849.

43. Ment ion a ny threee appl ica t ions of photo e lec t r ic cells .44 . Wh at is decay? Give an example.

4 5. Defin e: Cu r ie

46 . Draw the b lock d iag ram o f an oscilla to r and m en t ion the componen t s .

47. The gain of th e am plifier is 100 . If 5% of th e ou tpu t voltage is fedba ck int o the

input through a negative feed back network, f ind out the voltage gain af ter

feedback .

4 8 . Me n t ion t h e a d va n t a ge s of IC S.

49 . Define the inpu t impedance of a t r ans i s tor in CE mode.

5 0 . Wh a t is m e a n t b y s k ip d is t a n ce ?

Part III

Not e : (i ) An s w er t h e ques t ion 6 0 com p uls or i ly . 7 x 5 = 35

(i i ) Of the r em ain ing 1 1 ques t ions , a nsw er any s ix ques t ions .

(i i i ) Draw d ia gram s w herever neces sa ry

51. The p la tes of a para lle l p la te capacitor have an area of 90 cm2 each and a re

separated by 2.5 mm. The capacitor is charged by connecting i t into a 400 V

supply. How much electrostat ic energy is s tored by the capacitor .

52 . Obta in th e cond it ion for br idge balance in Wheats tones br idge .

53 . Expla in the method to compare the emfs of two cells u s ing potent iometer .

54 . A c ircu lar coil o f 50 tu rns a nd ra d ius 25 cm ca r r ies a cur ren t of 6A. It issuspended in a uniform magnetic f ield of induction 10 3 T. The normal to the

plane of the coil makes an angle of 60 o with the field. Calculate torque of the

coil.

55 . Exp la in th e va r ious ene rgy los ses in a t r ans former .

56 . Der ive the exp res s ion fo r the r ad ius o f the n th dark r ing .

57 . Exp la in th e spect r a l s e r ie s of hyd rogen a tom.

58 . Ob ta in E ins te in s ph o to e lect r ic equa t ion .59 . Es tab lish E ins te in s m ass -energy equ iva lence, E = mc 2 .


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60. Calcula te the b inding energy an d b inding energy per nu cleon of 20 Ca40 nuc leus .

Given , mass of 1 pro ton = 1 .007825 amu; mass of 1 neutron = 1 .008665 amu;

mass o f 20Ca40 nuc leus = 39 .96259 amu .

O r

Calculate the mass of coal in ton required to produce the same energy asthat produced by the fission of 1 kg of U 235 . Given : Heat of combustion of

coal = 33.6 10 6 J / kg ; 1 ton = 1000 k g ; En ergy per fiss ion of

U235 = 200 MeV ; Avagadro number = 6.023 10 23 .

61 . Draw the frequency response curve of s ingle s tage CE ampl ifier and d iscus s

the resu l ts .

62 . Draw the fu nct iona l b lock d iagram of AM radio t ran sm it ter .

PART IV

No t e : (i ) An s w er a ny 4 ques t ions in d e t a i l . 4 x 1 0 = 4 0

(i i ) Draw d ia gram s w herever neces sa ry

63. Wha t is an electr ic dipole? Derive an express ion for the electr ic field du e to

an electric dipole at a point on its axial line.

64 . Discus s th e mot ion of a cha rged par t icle in a u niform ma gnet ic fie ld .

65 . Discus s with th eory, the method of indu cing emf in a coil by cha nging it s

orientation with respect to the direction of the magnetic field.

66 . Wha t is kn own as in ter ference? Der ive an express ion for ban dwidth of

interference fringes in youngs double slit experiment.

67 . With the h elp of energy level d iagram expla in th e working of HeNe laser.

68 . Desc r ibe Ba inb r idge ma ss spec t romete r to dete rmine the iso top ic mas ses o f

n u c l e i .

69 . Wha t i s known as rec t ifica t ion? Expla in th e br idge rec t ifier .

70 . With th e help of b lock d iagram , expla in the m onochrome TV receiver .


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Model Question Paper

PART - III

CHEMISTRY ENGLISH VERSION

Time Allowed:3 Hours Max Marks: 150

Note : i. Answer all the questions from Part -1

ii. Answer any fifteen questions from Part - II

iii. Answer any seven questions from Part-III covering all sections and choosing atleast two from eachsection.

iv. Answer question number 70 and any three from the remaining questions in Part IV.

v. Draw diagrams and write equations wherever necessary.

PART I

Note : Answer all the questions (30 x 1 = 30)

Choose and write the correct answer

1. En =-313.6/n2, If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value n corresponds to

(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

2. The bond order of nitrogen molecule is

(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4

3. Noble gases have _____ electron affinity

(a) High (b) Low (c) Zero (d) Very low

4. The shape of XeF4

is

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral

(c) Square planar (d) Pyramidal

5. Copper is extracted from

(a) Cuprite (b) Copper glance

(c) Malachite (d) Copper Pyrites

6. Silver salt used in photography is

(a) AgCl (b) AgNO3

(c) AgF (d) AgBr

7. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanides is

(a) +2 (b) +1 (c) +3 (d) +4

8. ________ is used in gas lamp material

(a) MnO2

(b) CeO2

(c) N2O

5(d) Fe

2O

3

9. The geometry of [Ni(CN)4]2- is

(a) Tetrahedral (b) Square Planar (c) Triangular (d) Octahedral

10. Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in nuclear reactors?

(a) Water (b) Deuterium (c) Uranium (d) Cadmium

11. The number of chloride ions present per unit of CsCl

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 1 (d) 4


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12. In an adiabatic process which of the following is correct?

(a), q=w (b) q=0 (c) E=q (d) PV=0

13. When a liquid boils, there is

(a) an increase in entropy (b) a decrease in entropy

(c) an increase in heat of vapourisation

(d) an increase in free energy

14. State of Chemical equilibrium is

(a) Dynamic (b) Stationary (c) Both a&b (d) None

15. For an endothermic equilibrium reaction, if K1

and K2are the equilibrium constants at T

1and T

2temperatures

respectively and if T2>T

1, then

(a) K1

< K2

(b) K1>K

2(c) K

1= K

2(d) None

16. The unit of zero order rate constant is

(a) sec-1 (b) mol lit-1 sec -1

(c) mol sec-1 (d) lit2 sec -1

17. Oil soluble dye is mixed with emulsion and emulson remains colorless then, the emulsion is

(a) O/W (b) W/O (c) O/O (d) W / W

18. Colloids are purified by

(a) precipitation (b) Coagulation (c) Dialysis (d) Filtration

19. Fe(OH)3

colloidal particles adsorb _______ ions

(a) Fe3+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Ca2+ (d) Cu2+

20. Ostwalds dilution law is applicable to the solution of

(a) CH3COOH (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) H

2SO

4

21. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with

(a) ethanol (b) methanol (c) 2-propanol (d) 2-methyl 2-propanol

22. An organic compound C4H

10O when heated with excess HI gives only one type of alkyl iodide. The

Compound is

(a) diethylether (b) methyl n-propylether

(c) methyl iso propyl ether (d) n-butyl alcohol

23. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is

(a) Peroxide (b) Oxide (c) TNT (d) Superoxide

24. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is

(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde

(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Trimethyl Acetaldehyde

25 . Which of the following is least acidic?

(a) C2H

5OH (b) CH

3COOH (c) C

6H

5OH (d) ClCH

2COOH

26. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in

(a) O-dinitro benzene (b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene

(c) p-dinitrobenzene (d) m-dinitrobenzene

27. Primary amine acts as

(a) Electrophile (b) Lewis base (c) Lewis acid (d) Free radical


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28. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?

(a) m-toluidine (b) aniline (c) p-amino phenol (d) benzylamine

29. Important constituent of cell wall is

(a) Lipid (b) Cellulose (c) Protein (d) Vitamin

30. The most abundant carbohydrate is

(a) glucose (b) fructose (c) starch (d) cellulose

PART-II

Note : (15X3 = 45)

(i) Answer any 15 questions.

(ii) Answer in one or two sentences :

31. State Heisenbergs uncertainity principle.

32. Mention the disadvantage of Pauling Scale.

33. What is plumbo solvency.

34. Write the uses of Neon.

35. Why transition elements form complexes?

36. What is the action of heat on copper sulphate crystals?

37. How many and particles will be emitted by an element84

A218 is changing to a stable isotope of

82B206?

38. What are superconductors?

39. Calculate the change of entropy for the process, water (liquid) water (vapour 373K) involving H(vap)

=

40850J mol-1 373K

40. State Lechatliers principle.

41. Define half life period.

42. What are simple and complex reactions?

43. Why colloidal system of gas in gas does not exist?

44. State Faraday s first law.

45. Distinguish enantiomers and diastereomers.

46. How is phenolphthalein prepared?

47. Explain the synthesis of glycerol from propylene.

48. Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde give Cannizzaro reaction but acetaldehyde does not account for this?

49. Formic acid reduces Tollens reagent, but acetic acid does not. Give reason.

50. An organic compound (A) having molecular formula C2H

7N is treated with nitrous acid to give (B) of

molecular formula C2

H6

O which on mild oxidation gives compound (C) of molecular formula C2

H4

O which

answers Tollens reagent test. Identify A, B, C.

51. Ilustrate with suitables the term Anaesthetics.


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PART - III

Note : (7 x 5 = 35)

(i) Answer any Seven questions choosing at least two questions from each section.

Section - A

52. The approximate mass of an electron is 10-27g. Calculate the uncertainty in its velocity. If the theuncertainity in its position were of the order of 10-11m.

53. Explain the extraction of silver from its chief ore.

54. What is Ianthanide contraction? Discuss its consequences.

55. Explain Co-ordination isomerism and ionisation isomerism with suitable examples.

Section - B

56. In the thermal decomposition of N2O at 764C, the time required to decompose half of the reactant was

263 seconds, when the initial pressure was 290 mm of Hg and 212 seconds at an initial pressure of 360mm of Hg. What is the order of this reaction?

57. State the various statements of second law of Thermodynamics.

58. Derive the integrated Vant Hoff equation for an equilibrium reaction.

59. Derive Nernst equation.

Section - C

60. Distinguish between aromatic and aliphalic ethers.

61. Write notes on

i) Perkins reaction and

ii) Knoevenagal reaction

62. Discuss the mechanism of bromination of salicyclic acid.

63. Explain briefly on characteristics of rocket propellants.PART-IV

(4 x 10 = 40)

Note : Answer question number 70 and any three from the remaining questions.

64. (a) Write notes on Paulings and Mullikens Scale of Electronegativity. [5](b) Give an account of the structure of ortho and cyclic silicates. [5 ]

65. (a) Explain Werners theory of coordination compounds. [5]

(b) Explain the uses of radioactive isotopes with examples. [5]

66. (a) Write notes on any two point defects in Crystals [5]

(b) Write notes on (i) Ultrafiltration and (ii) Helmholtz double layer [5 ]

67. (a) Derive Henderson Equation. [5]

(b) Write notes on single electrode potential. [5]

68. (a) Which conformation of cyclohexanol forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding more easily?Explain. [5]

(b) How are the following conversions carried out?

(i) Salicylic acid aspirin

(ii) Salicyclic acid methylsalicylate

(iii) lacticacid lactide


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69. (a) How can the following conversions be effected? [5]

i. Nitrobenzene to anisole

ii. Chlorobenzene to phenyl hydrazine

iii. Aniline to Benzoic acid

(b) Mention the biological functions of nucleic acids [5]

70. (a) An organic compound A (C7H6O2) reacts with NH2OH forming a crystalline compound. On warmingwith NaOH it forms two compounds B and C. B is neither soluble in NaOH nor in HCl but can beoxidised to A. The compound C on treatment with Con. HCl forms acid D which on treating with sodalime gives phenol. Identify A to D. [5]

(b) Chief ore of chromium (A) on roasting with Sodium carbonate gives compound (B) and (C). B onacidification gave compound (D) which on treatment with KCl gave compound (E). Identify the compoundsA, B,C,D and E. Explain with proper chemical reactions. [5]

(OR)

(c) An organic compound A (C6H

6O) gives maximum of two isomers B and C when an alkaline solution

of A is refluxed with chloroform at 333K. B on oxidation gives an acid D. The acid D is also obtainedby treating sodium salt of A with CO

2under pressure. Identify the compounds A, B, C and D and

explain with proper chemcial reactions. [5]

(d) Calculate the pH of O.IM CH3COOH Solution Disassociation constant of

acetic acid is 1.8 x 10-5M. [5]


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PART III

XII STANDARD BIO-BOTANY

Time allowed : 3.00 Hrs Maximum Marks : 75

(Bio-Botany 1 Hrs and Bio-Zoology 1 Hrs)

SECTION - A

14 x 1 = 14Note : 1. Answer all the questions.

2. Choose and write the correct option.

3. Each question carries one mark.

1. The bionomial system of nomenclature was introduced by

a. Carolus Linnaeus b. Gaspard Bauhin

c. Robert Brown d. Dalton Hooker

2. Plants having flowers with conical thalamus are placed in

a. disciflorae b. calyciflorae

c. thalamiflorae d. inferae

3. Anthers are reniform ina. Malvaceae b. Solanaceae

c. Euphorbiaceae d. Liliaceae

4. The meristem that is parallel to longitudinal axis of the plant isa. procambium b. intercalary meristem

c. phellogen d. apical meristem

5. In maize, the conjunctive tissue is made up ofa. parenchyma b. collenchyma

c. sclerenchyma d. aerenchyma

6. L-shaped eukaryotic chromosome is named as

a. telocentric b. acrocentric

c. sub-metacentric d. metacentric

7. Dihybrid test cross coupling ratio is

a. 1:1:1:1 b. 7:1:1:7

c. 1:7:7:1 d. 7:1:7:1

8. It is used to join the two DNA fragmentsa. Restriction enzyme b. Ligase

c. Polymerase d. Topoisomerase

9. The alga used for single cell protein production isa. Pseudomonas b. Alkaligenes

c. Spirulina d. Volvoriella


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10. An example for C4 plant is

a. Maize b. Tribulus

c. Amaranthus d. Sugarcane

11. Dickens discovered

a. pentose phosphate pathway b. glycolysis

c. amphibolic pathway d. C2 cycle

12. The hormone synthesised in large amounts by tissues undergoing ageing is

a. auxin b. gibberellin

c. cytokinin d. ethylene

13. Pyricularia oryzae causesa. blase disease of rice b. tikka disease of groundnut

c. citrus canker d. tungro disease of rice

14. Which one of the following is an antimalarial drug?a. Ephedrine b. Digoxin

c. Quinine c. Morphine

Section B

7 x 3 = 21

Note : 1. Answer any 7 questions.

2. Each question carries 3 marks.

15. State any three medicinally useful plants of Solanaceae and write of their uses.

16. Draw the floral diagram ofAllium cepa and write the floral formula.

17. What is bicollateral vascular bundle? Give example.

18. Draw the structure of aerenchyma. Label the parts.

19. Draw the structure of chromosome. Label the parts.

20. What three sentences about splicing?

21. Differentiate cyclic and non-cycle photophosphorylation.

22. In Krebs cycle isocitric acid is converted to -ketoglutaric acid. The farmer is 6

carbon compound and the latter is 5 carbon compound. How does it take place?

23. Is it possible to shorten the time of crop maturity? Support your answer.

24. What is bio-war?


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Section C

4 x 5 = 20


2. Answer to 25th

question is compulsory and this question should not be left asoption.

3. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.


25. State the importance of herbarium.

26. What is meristem? Explain different types of meristems.

27. Describe the structure of tRNA.

28. Explain the steps involved in gene transfer in plants.

29. Bring out the physiological effects of auxin.

30. Explain cyclic photophosphorylation.

31. Write the benefits of bio-fertilizers.

Section D

2 x 10 = 20


2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.


32. Describe Hibiscus rosa-sinensis in technical terms.

33. a. Give an account on epidermal tissue system in plants. (5 Marks)

b. Bring out anatomical differences between dicot and monoct stems. (5 Marks)

34. Explain as to how protoplasmic fusion can bring about somatic hybridization inplants?

35. What is glycolysis? Explain the steps involved in it.


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XII STD

BIO - ZOOLOGY

Max: 75 Marks

Time : 1 hours

PART - AMultiple Choice : Choose the correct answer

Note : 1. Each question carries 1 mark

2. Answer all questions 16 x 1 = 16

1. According to ICMR, the daily requirement of protein for an average Indian is

a. 100 g / day

b. 100 g / kg body wt

c. 1 g / kg body wt. / day

d. 1 g / day

2. Type II diabetes is due to

a. non secretion of insulin

b. insulin resistance

c. poor eating

d. anaemia

3. Myasthenia gravis is a / an

a. vitamin deficiency disease

b. infectious disease

c. kidney disorder

d. autoimmune disease

4. Stones formed in the urinary bladder can be disintegrated by a treatment called

a. Lithotripsy

b. ECG

c. EEG

d. CT scanning

5. The causative organism for cholera is

a. Yersinia pestis

b. Vibrio cholerac. Plasmodium vivax

d. Ascaris lumbricoides

6. Identify the Protozoan disease

a. African sleeping sickness

b. Cholera

c. Taeniasis

d. Measles

7. HIV infection causes

a. anaemia

b. diarrhoea

c. immuno depression

d. stroke


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8. How will you name a graft if an organ is transplanted from a cat to a dog?

a. Isograft

b. Autograft

c. Xenograft

d. Allograft

9. The term superbugs refers toa. Arthropods

b. Insects

c. Beetles

d. Genetically engineered bacteria

10. Protein data banks are storehouses for

a. storage of various types of proteins

b. information related to three dimensional structure of proteins

c. cryopreservation of proteins

d. base pairing sequences

11. 95% of all conventional energy is produced from

a. fossil fuels

b. sun light

c. nuclear energy sources

d. water power

12. Loss of freshwater sources due to salt water intrusion may be due to

a. global warming

b. sea level increase

c. construction of dams

d. over use of ground frestwater resources

13. Milk fever in cows is normally due to

a. inability to assimilate calcium from the feed

b. starvation

c. over feeding

d. parasitic infestation

14. What is the scientific name for the common Viral meen (uh )

a. Channa striatus

b. Oreochromis mossambicus

c. Chanos chanosd. Catla catla

15. The blood cell count is made by using

a. Glucometer

b. Sphygmomanometer

c. Haemoglobinometer

d. Haemocytometer

16. Closely related species living together in one common locality and maintaining

their species identity are termed as

a. Sympatric speciesb. Allopatric species

c. Sibling species

d. Endangered species


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PART - B

Note : 1. Each question carries 2 marks

2. Answer any eight 8 x 3 = 24

17. What is the role of water in our body?

18. Mention the two surgical contraception methods adopted for birth control.

19. How did Joseph Lister made the surgical treatments safer?

20. Define cell mediated immunity (CMI).

21. What could be the application of stem cell technique and cloning of cells in the future?

22. What are the clinical manifestations of the disease, Thalassemia.

23. Mention the languages that help in bioinformatics.

24. What is the application of demography?

25. What are Bio-medical wastes? How are they disposed off.

26. Suggest a situation in which a doctor might advice a CT scan.

27. What are the uses of Sphygmomanometer?

28. What are allopatric species.

PART - C

Note : 1. Answer any 3 questions

2. Answer to question 31 is compulsory.

3. Each question carries 5 marks. 3 X 5 = 15

29. Explain the role of Sodium - Potassium exchange pump in nervous conduction.

30. It may rather be difficult to get infected - Discuss the statement on the basis of barriers

providing innate immunity.

31. Briefly provide the life cycle of Schistosomes haematobium.

32. Describe how our knowledge of Embryology and Genetics are applied in the cloning technique.

33. What is Hardy - Weinberg law? Discuss its importance in population genetics.

Part - D

Note : 1. Answer any 2 questions

2. Each question carries 10 marks. 2 X 10 = 20

34. Enumerate the process of digestion of food in the gastro-intestinal tract.

35. Describe the functioning of eye as a visual receptor. Add a note on eye care.

36. Global warming is the direct result of Green house effect. Discuss the statement. What

related problems do we foresee?

37. Write an essay on cattle wealth of India.


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TAMILNADU BOARD OF HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION


HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL CERTIFICATE (STD. XII)EXAMINATION

MARCH - 2006

ENGLISH PAPER I

(Reader and Linguistic Competencies)

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 100

In your answer-book, use the Arabic numerals (1 to 69) of the question you answer.

Section - A (Vocabulary - Lexical Competencies) (30 Marks)

I. A. Choose the most accurate of the four given contexts which equates with that of the

underlined lexical item in each of the following sentences : 5 x 1 = 5

1. Mahatma Gandhi was a ceaseless crusaderof women's equality,

a. His belief is not based on reason.

b. Mandela fought for the cause of South African Liberty with determination.

c. She told that it was not sufficient,

d. The disease spreads quickly.

2. The sun plays truantfor most of the day.

a. In summer the days are mostly warm.

b. The worker often violates the rules of the factory.

c. Truth wins all the time.

d. The children who kept themselves away from school without permission were

punished.

3. The good is oft interredwith their bones.

a. We cleaned our house last week.

b. The treasure was found buried in our garden.

c. Rekha fixed a chiming clock on the wall.

d. Garbage should be dumped in the compose pit.

4. "I am no orator as Brutus is" is used with an accent of faint derision.

a. The speaker was happy to address the audience.

b. He took a strong decision to join Engineering course.


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c. The manager s order made a mockery of the agreement.

d. The shopkeeper was a kind person.

5. For over five hours the pilot sailed serenely through the lightening sky.

a. We should complete our work quickly

b. The birds chirp cheerfully during spring.

c. Iqbal faced the different situation calmly.

d. Rachel served the company faithfully for a decade.

B. Choose the most accurate of the four given words Opposite to the usage word :

(5 x 1 = 5 Marks)

6. Euphony is one of the most attractive qualities of words.

a) Cacophony

b) Harmony

c) Melody

d) Simplicity

7. The teacher pretended to be indifferent.

a) interested

b) attractive

c) unmindful

d) attentive

8. A mist is formed ofinfinitesimal particles.

a) Sticky

b) ordinary

c) invisible

d) huge.

9. "Frailty thy name is woman."

a) sound body.

b) sturdy

c) weakness

d) Fatty10. The rabbit was eventually caught.

a) incidentally

b) initially

c) finally

d) spectacularly


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C. Answer any TEN of the following : (10 x 2 = 20 Marks)

11. Write your own sentences using the plural forms of 'index' or 'matrix'.

12. Use the idiom 'to give a piece of mind' in a sentence of your own.

13. Expand the abbreviation CPU and frame a sentence with the expanded form.

14. We _________ different types of __________ phones in our shop. (Fill in the blanks

with sell; cell)

15. Form a word by blending the words 'education' and ' entertainment' and use the blended

word in your own sentence.

16. Syllabify any two words, 'serenely', 'forceps', 'efficacy', 'crusader'.

17. Write a sentence using the word 'like' as a verb and as an adjective.

18. Write a sentence of your own using the American English word for 'biscuit'.

19. Use the compound word 'long - forgotten' in your own sentence.

20. Write a sentence using a word with the prefix 'un or the suffix ' - able'.

21. From Compound words: (a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Adjective

22. Write sentences using the phrasal verbs 'call on' and 'call off.

23. Write sentences using the clipped words from 'microphone' and 'demonstration'.

Section - B (Grammatical Competencies) (20 Marks)

II. A. Do as directed: (10 x 1 = 10 Marks)

24. Lawmakers ____________ not be law - breakers. (Use a modal verb)

25. Water ___________(boil) at 100 degree centigrade. (Use the given verb in suitable

form)

26. If you work hard you ___________ (pass) in the examination. (Use the correct tense ofthe verb)

27. Show me the book ___________ you bought yesterday. (Use a relative pronoun)

28. Shakespeare, ___________ lived in the 16th

century is the greatest dramatist. (Use a

relative pronoun)

29. They continued the match __________ the rain. (Use a phrase / preposition)

30. I__________ (give) them money if I had more (Use the given verb in suitable form)

31. Frame a sentence of the pattern SVO.

32. "Water is first heated in a test tube." This is an example of ___________ passive voice.

(Write the kind of passive voice)

33. ___________ I reached in time, I was not permitted. (Use a suitable link word)


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B. Transform the following sentences as instructed: (5 x 2 = 10 Marks)

34. Report the dialogue:

Woman : Excuse me. Can you please direct me to the Canara Bank?

Man : Why not ? Turn right and go straight. It's right behind the police station.

Woman : Thank you.

35. If an angel were to tell me such a thing of her I would not believe it. (Begin with 'Were').

36. As there was heavy rain, the match was delayed. (Rewrite as a compound sentence.)

37. Malar had only one pen. She helped Manian. (Combine the sentences using 'Though')

38. I forgot my birthday. My teacher greeted me on that day. (Combine the sentences into a

simple sentence)

Section - C (Reading Competencies) (15 Marks)

III. A. Identify each sentence with the field in the list given below, by understanding the

word or words serving as the clue: (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)

39. Sangeetha stumbled upon a chance to practise running a race.

40. Robots are steadily moving from fiction to fact.

41. The Board has recommended a dividend of 75 per cent.

42. An Indian woman was honoured for producing high yielding crops.

43. "Who am I, a mere Prime Minister before the Queen of Songs?"

(Commerce, Music, Sport, Social service, Science)

B. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions given below:

(5 x 2 = 10 Marks)

It is not the pride or incivility on either side that keeps us remote from each other. It is simply

our London way. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity... In London men are aslonely as oysters. Each living in his own shell. We go out in the country to find neighbours. If

the man next door took a cottage a mile away from me in the country, I should probablyknow all about him, his affairs, his family, his calling and his habits inside a week. This is not

always so idyllic as it seems. Village life can be poisoned by neighbours until the victimpines for the solitude of a London street, where neighbours are so plentiful that you are no

more conscious of their individual existence than if they were black berries on a hedge row.

Questions :

44. What keeps people in London remote from each other?

45. How are men described? Why?

46. Why do we seek country life?

47. What is the disadvantage of village life?

48. What can you say in this context about our Interaction with our neighbours?


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Section-D (Writing Competencies) (Prose) (15 Marks)

IV.A. Answer any One of the following questions in a paragraph of about 100 words:

(1 x 5 = 5 Marks)

49. How do you relate ' Ahimsa' and ' Satyagraha' to women?

50. What are essentials for good public speaking?

51. State Gunga Ram's regard for snakes.

B. Write an essay in about a page of 250 words on any One of the following:

(1 x 10 = 10 Marks)

52. Hiroshima - the victim atomisation.

53. The Magic of Words.

54. Trekking to the Land of Snow.

Section - E (Literary Competencies) (Poetry) (20 Marks)

V. A. Read the following five sets of poetic lines and answer the questions given below

each of them: (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)

(i) "We claim to dwell, in quiet and seclusion,

Beneath the household roof."

55. Where do women claim to dwell?

(ii) "You cannot rob us the right we cherish."

56. Who do you think this line is addressed to?

(iii) "Markd how to explore the vacant vast surrounding."

57. Who tried to explore?

(iv) "And voices in me said: If you were a man

you would take a stick and break him now,

And finish him off."

58. Why did the voice say so?

(v) "Yes; quaint and curious war is!"

59. Who is the speaker?

60. Why is the war quaint and curious?

B. Read the following three sets of lines and answer the questions given below each set

of lines: 3 x 1 = 3 Marks

(i) "O winged seed! You crossed the furrowed seas

To nestle in the warm and silent earth."


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61. Mention the figure of speech used in these lines,

ii) "Life is real! Life is earnest!

And grave is not the goal:"

62. Write out the words in alliteration in each of the above two lines,

(iii) Tell me not in mournful numbers,Life is but an empty dream! -

For the soul is dead that slumbers,And things are not what they seem.

63. Mention the rhyme scheme of these lines?

C. Explain any two of the following sets of lines with reference to the context:

2 x 3 = 6 Marks

64. "Yes; quaint and curious war is

65. "I thought how paltry, how vulgar, what a mean act!

I despised myself and the voices of my accursed human education."

66. "As humble plants by country hedgerows growing

That treasure up the rain,

And yield in odours, ere the day's declining,

The gift again;"

D. Write a paragraph on ONE of the following: 1 x 5 = 5 Marks

67. In his poem, "The Psalm of Life", how does H.W. Longfellow advise us not to judge lifeby temporary standards?

68. How does the poet Louisa define "Women's Rights"?

69. What does the poet convey to the human beings in his poem 'Snake?'


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TAMILNADU BOARD OF HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION


HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL CERTIFICATE (STD. XII)

EXAMINATION, MARCH - 2006

ENGLISH PAPER - II

(Supplementary Reader and Communicative Competencies)

Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 80

In your answer-book, use the Arabic numerals (1 to 39) of the questions you answer.

Section - A Supplementary Reader - (25 Marks)

I. A. Write a paragraph by re-arranging the following correct sequence. The first and

the last sentences are already in order. (5 x 1 = 5)

- Sue from Maile and Johnsy from California were budding artists and friends.

- Johnsy was also affected by pneumonia.

- Sue became very sad about the fate of her friend.

- As they were poor, the two artists stayed in Greenwich Village.

- The month of November was very cold and many in the village were affected by

the deadly disease called pneumonia.

- She took her friend to a doctor.

B. Complete the following choosing the correct answer from the options given : (5 x 1=5)

2. The Selfish Giant longed for________.

a) Spring b) Hail c) North Wind d) the little child

3. The camel did not work for ________.

a) two days b) three days c) one week d) four days

4. The value highlighted in the story 'Two friends' is ________.

a) patriotism b) honesty c) friendship d) humanism

5. Framton and the other two persons were engulfed in________.

a) fire b) flood c) fog d) flame

6. Disappointment in not winning the prize made Ivan and Masha ________ each other.

a) hate b) love c) fight d) more sympathetic to


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C. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: 5 x 1 = 5

One morning the giant was lying awake in bed when he heard some lovely music. It

sounded so sweet to his ears that he thought it must be the king's musicians passing by. It wasonly a little linnet singing outside the window, but it was so long since he had heard a bird

sing in his garden that it seemed to him to be the most melodious music in the world. Then

the Hail stopped dancing over his head, and the North Wind ceased roaring, and a deliciousperfume came to him through the open casement. "I believe the Spring has come at last," saidthe Giant, and he jumped out of bed and looked out.

Questions

7. Where was the giant lying?

8. What did the giant hear?

9. What is the name of the bird that was singing the song?

10. From where did the bird sing?

11. Why did the song sound to be "the most melodious song" to the giant?

D. 12. Write an essay by developing the following hints: 10 marks

Refugees pouring in Beijing - cold welcome by the city dwellers - caused by native workers -

the new horde of refugees - not beggarly - each carrying baskets slung upon a pole - an old

man - the fate of his son and daughter-in-law - a passerby taking pity giving money - the

reason for starvation - keeping the silver coin for buying seeds.

OR

Mr. Nuttle came to visit Mrs. Sappleton - met Vera - narrated tragedy - three years ago -

Mrs. Sappleton's husband and two young brothers went for shooting - didn't return - window

wide open - Mrs. Sappleton entered - soon the three arrived with the spaniel - Framton Nuttel

rushed out - Vera said - he was once hunted by a pack of dogs - her specialty - romance at

short notice.

Section - B Learning Competency (Study Skills) (15 Marks)

II. A. Answer the following : 5 x 2 = 10

13. What does the reference section in a modern library contain?

14. Mention a complete e-mail ID of any service organisation.

15. Explain, not merely expand, OPAC.

16. What is Clich ? Give one example.

17. Arrange the two authors John Keats and Jonathan Swift in the library catalogue.

B. Look at the following, spot the errors and correct them: 5 x 1 = 5

18. Sitting near the window and he saw the crowd.

19. Though he was rich but he was happy.

20. If he had come to the party I would hand over the parcel to him.

21. He joined an European University last year.

22. One of the boy looks happy


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SECTION C : Occupational Competency (Job Skills) (15 Marks)

23. Write the summary of the following passage in about 100 words: (5 Marks)

All Fools Day or April Fools Day is a day on which people have a lot of fun pulling pranks

on others. We do not know exactly how April Fools Day began. Now it lives on as a day offun and practical jokes. The sun starts its yearly journey towards the north from the Equator

on 21 March. A long time ago people celebrated that day as the beginning of the New Year.In fact many cultures around the world still celebrate New Year around that time. Earlier,

Europe too celebrated the New Year around 21 March till Pope Gregory changed the calendarin 1582. After that, the beginning of the New Year was celebrated on 1 January. People

usually gave each other gifts for the New Year. When the date was changed people gave

mock gifts to each other on 1 April. Some people think that April Fools Day began in France

and the custom made its way to other countries.

24. Respond to the following advertisement considering yourself fulfilling the conditions

specified : (10 Marks)

Applications are invited from eligible candidates to join our 3 months certificate

course in Computer programming. Minimum educational qualifications: A degreewith Mathematics as a subject. Fresh batch commences on 6

thJune, 2005.

Placement services for the first ten rank holders. For details write to:

Geo Software Company,

12th Avenue, Gandhi Nagar,

Salem - 636 004.

Do not fail to attach a Demand Draft for Rs. 50/-

SECTION D : Strategic Competency (Life Skills) (5 Marks)

25. Fill in the blanks with suitable non-lexical fillers. (2 x 1 = 2)

Police : Did you hear anything?

Man : ___________ I think I did hear a gun shot.

Police : Why didn't you tell the police?

Man : I was afraid ___________That I would be arrested and questioned.

26. A man approaches you to direct him to a nearby bank. Here you find the road

map. Write three instructions by way of helping him. (3 x 1 = 3)

Raja Stores

Main Road

School

You are hereState Bank

Bus Stop


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SECTION E : Creative Competency (Artistic / Literary Skills ) (10 Marks)

V. A. Match the Proverbs with their meanings: 5 x 1 = 5

Proverb Meaning

27. Make hay while the sun shines a) Prefer to live in groups

28. Better late than never b) Try to read as much as possible

29. No man is an island c) Make use of the opportunity

30. Brevity is the soul of wit d) Even if delayed attend the meeting

31. Reading makes a perfect man e) Be short in speech and writing

B. Match the slogans with the suitable products given below: 5 x 1 = 5

Product Slogan

32. Torchlight a) Make fire in a rare way

33. Ball-point pen b) Clean with a glee

34. Tooth Paste c) The sunbeam in your hand

35. Box of matches d) Comfortable sole in a cosy hole.

36. Shoes e) Flawless writing flows from this pen

Section - F : Extensive Reading (10 Marks)

VI. Write a general essay of about 200 words on any ONE of the following: 1 x 10 = 10

37. Rain water Harvesting.

38. Science - a boon or a curse.

39. If I were an angel.


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BLUE PRINT

SUBJECT : ENGLISH CLASS : XII

UNIT / PAPER : I MAXIMUM MARKS 100 TIME : 3 HOURS

Knowledge (Vocabulary, Writing

Reading, Study Skills)

Comprehension (Reading, Study

Skills, Occupational Competency &

Writing)

Expression (Creative, Strategic

Competency and Writing)S.No.

OBJECTIVES

Form of Question

Units / Sub Units E/LA SA VSA O ELA SA VSA O E/LA SA VSA O

TOTAL

1. Section A 10(10) 10(10) 10(10) 30 (20)

2. Section B 8 (5) 12(15) 20(15)

3. Section C (i)

(ii)

2 (5)

3 (5)

3 (5)

4 (5) 3 (5)

5 (5)

10 (5)

4. Section D (i)

(ii)

2 (1)

5 (1)

1 (1)

2 (1)

2 (1)

3 (1)

5 (1)

10 (1)

5. Section E (i)

(ii)

(iii) 3 (1)

3 (2)

3 (9)

1 (1)

1 (2)

3 (9)

1 (1)

2 (2)

3 (9) 9 (9)

6 (2)

5 (1)

TOTAL 10 3 26 10 4 1 10 - 6 2 28 - 100 (59)

Summary No. of Questions Marks Scheme of Options Sec. A - NIL

Essay / LA 3 20 Sec. B (VSA) 10/13

SA 2 6 Sec. C NIL

VSA 44 64 Sec. D (LA) 2/6

O 10 10 Sec. E (SA) 2/3

TOTAL 59/69 100 (LA) 1/3

Note : Figures within brackets indicate the number of questions and figures outside the bracket indicate marks.


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Read or Recorded

BLUE PRINT

SUBJECT : ENGLISH CLASS : XII

UNIT / PAPER : II MAXIMUM MARKS 80 TIME : 3 HOURS

Knowledge (Vocabulary, Writing

Reading, Study Skills)

Comprehension (Reading, Study

Skills, Occupational Competency &

Writing)

Expression (Creative, Strategic

Competency and Writing)S.No.

OBJECTIVES

Form of Question

Units / Sub Units E/LA SA VSA O ELA SA VSA O E/LA SA VSA O

TOTAL

1.Section A Qn. No. 1 12 7(1)

3(5) 5(1)

2(5)2(5)

3(1)3(5) 25

2. Section B 13 22 6(10) 4(10) 5(10) 15

3. Section C 23 24 6(2) 4(2) 5(2) 15

4. Section D 25 26 2 (1) 3 (1) 5

5. Section E 27 - 36 4 (10) 6 (10) 10

6. Section F 37 39 5 (1) 2 (1) 3 (1) 10

TOTAL 18 - 10 3 6 - 19 2 11 - 11 - 80

INTERNAL ASSESSMENT (20 MARKS)

(TO BE PROPERLY DOCUMENTED IN THE SCHOOL)

Test No. Listening Speaking Reading Total Average

1 10 (5 + 5) 5 5 20

2 5 10 (5+5) 5 20

3 5 5 10 (5+5) 20

Listening: Group Discussion Speech Dialogue Passage Airport / Railway Station

announcements

Speaking Role play Dialogue Address of Welcome Vote of thanks Inaugural address Farewell speech

Reading Any passage Play Poem

Total of 1 + 2 + 3 =3


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Note : Figures within brackets indicate the number of questions and figures outside the brackets indicate marks.

SummaryNo. of

QuestionsMarks Scheme of Options

1. Supplementary Reader : E 1 out of 2

2. Extensive Reading : E 1 out of 3

Long Answer (LA)

of Essay (E)4 35

Scheme of Sections:Sec. A Supplementary Reader

Short Answers (SA) - - Sec. B Learning Competencies (Study Skills)

Very Short Answers

(VSA)28 40

Sec. C

Occupational Competency (Job Skills)

Objective Type 5 5 Sec. D Strategic Competency (Life Skills)

TOTAL 37 80 Sec. E Creative Competency (Artistic / Literary Skills)

Sec. F Extensive Reading


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1

G - - IM - FK M

Language - Part I - Tamil (Blue Print) 2005 - 2006

( )

3 E

F 100I. M : M (Open Choice) M

. 4 x 2 = 8

II. M : , , F, G AFOL M (Open choice) M . 3 x 4 = 12

III. M : CPA, C , N AFOL M (Open choice) M . 3 x 4 = 12

IV. M : F FJ , G FJ ,CPA C FOL M (Open Choice) M . 1 x 8 = 8

V. FJ FK MO (20, 21 ) M , M . 4 x 1 = 4

VI. : 1. (F c H FOL) + )

4 + 2 = 6

2. FOL ( 1. 1 ) 2 + 2 = 4

VII. 24. H: M .

2 x 2 = 4

25. P : (, ) , JKF M .

3 x 2 = 6

26. C : M .

2 x 2 = 4

27. : F, M .1 x 4 = 4

28. E : , EJ M . 1 x 4 = 4

VIII. : - CK. - . F - - - K - M ( ) . 4 x 1 = 4

IX.K M : 16 . ( M M .

16 x 1 = 16

X. G: FOL , 2 + 2 = 4


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2

G

I

FK M

F I - I -

( )

F :

Language - Part I - Tamil Paper I

: 3 E F: 100

P :1. M O PH M J .

2. M VI M M .

I. H M ( KO) M .4 x 2 = 8

1. H G A C C .

2. A A?

3. i Q P ?

4. F - M.

5. C C H I M A?

6. H ? ?

II. H M ( KO) M .

3 x 4 = 12

7. H M M.

8. M F Q N N M.

9. P H M MA?

10. L N C ?11. e ?

III. H M ( KO) M .

3 x 4 = 12

12. Q M, , , , P ?

13. M F N N P ?

14. J F PH ?

15. C M P?16. J M

?


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3

IV. H M ( KO) M .1 x 8 = 8

17. F O .

18. F A A

G .

19. J A LQ F P .

V. H O W M M .

4 x 1 = 4

20. I

H ?

. F PH ?

. , K P ?

. ?

. F L ?

21. N

J Em L

. P ?

. K P?

. PH ?

. PH ?

VI. 22. M H F

4 + 2 = 6

23. F N H

2 + 2 = 4

VII. 24. H . 2 x 2 = 4

. . A . .

. GA . .

25. W P . 3 x 2 = 6

. .

. bg . C

. I M . A


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4

26. C MF . 2 x 2 = 4

. . . C

. . G . FF

27. M. 1 x 4 = 4

N C F

28. O M

.

- O E M.

HG E E MA .

1 x 4 = 4

VIII. . 4 x 1 = 4

CK

29. J -

30. A CK -

31. - F

32. iF - F

- F

IX. K M . 16 x 1 = 16

33. IC CJ _______

. C . F .

34. O _______

. 4 8 . 9 12

. 13 31

35. _______

. . . H

36. F L FO E ________

. 70 . 38 . 25

. 37. ________

. F . ME . F

38. CF PH K _______ .

. . . L


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5

39. F _______

. . .

40. iQ F ________

. F . F . F

41. M _______

. . .

- 42. FM M _______

. H .

.

43. IN P _________

. . F . C

44. ________

. C . CK . C

45. F OJ N ________

. . J .

46. N M _______

. F . F . E

47. I C J KC M M _______

. . .

48, FO ________ .

. F . F . Q F

X. G. 2 + 2 = 4

49. ________ J ________

50. _______ O; K

L ______ .


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6

FK M

I

( - -

- I - - N F)

: 3 E F : 80

I. : 1 4 O F ()

M M

. (3 x 4 = 12)

II. : 5 8 O F ()

M M

. (3 x 4 = 12)

III. : 1 4 O (M 2 M

cA H OL)

, 5 8 O (M 2

M cA H

OL) () M

M

. (1 x 6 = 6)

IV. : M - O -

M . (2 x 10 = 20)

1. () .

2. F

.

C 1 - 6 HK 7 12 HK

- HKM M

-

M ,

M (1-6) , M

(7-12) . M (7-12)

, M (1-6) .

V. : F, CM H, F.

L H A

P .

. . . . . . E

L C .

CK PH. ( 6 10

F)


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7

VI. I : N, , , A

A A ,

I . (2 x 3 = 6)

VII. : N

GC MA K

.

8 10 O. O

J M

. M

L .

(4 F)

VIII. NF : 10 . ( M M

)

(10 F)


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8

O ( - FO )

Testing of aural - oral skills

: 1 E F 20

1. H / M QQ .

E O .

(3 F)

. P

. P

. , , P

.

. - K P - KJ

- F F N MK - FK .

2. , , - , - , - IF ()

, K Q, F .

M K .

, Fd . ( E

O)

(3 F)

L FO

N F JC FJ F

F .


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9

G

I

FK M

F I - I -

(., , , I,

, NF)

F

Language - Part I - Tamil Paper II

: 3 E F : 80

P : M O PH M J .

I. H M (P KOI) M .

3 x 4 = 12

1. IN CH K FK ?

2. P F. M. . ?

3. c G F. M. . F ?

4. MK L K H N G.

5. I K C F A MA?

II. H M (P KOI) M .

3 x 4 = 12

6. M F O F P M.

7. P MA?

8. MF F FC MA?

9. P .. ?

10. CHO F .

III. H M ( KO I) M .

1 x 6 = 6

11. I - Q N H W KF

.12. Q K J .. F ?


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10

IV. H M P O I M .

2 x 10 = 20

13. C A

.

H L J GC

.

14. CJ

P F ,

cM MH , F

G .

FM F N P K

F .

V. 15. H . F .

F , , , , E, , ,

A . 1 x 10 =10

F M

F

F N

I F

M

F F

EJ M ?

- M.

H I . 3 x 2 = 6

16. Time and tide wait for none.

17. Familiarity breeds contempt.

18. Slow and steady wins the race.

19. By hard work Japan has become number one in industry.

20. Television is one of the modern wonders of electronics.

21. Education should develop and promote good values.


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11

VII. 22. H N P M J, GM

( KO) . 1 x 4 = 4

. .

. .

. MJ .

() O H CF, M (8 10 I).

VIII. H M P PH M. 10 x 1 = 10

23. H H.

(A H F)24. O C F F .

( O L )

25. , () F, F - ( JQQ AO )

26. vi H v ,

(H N cA Q IN )

27. F ?

( FF )

28. FQ F .

(HN cA IN )

29. Y HF E K. ( O L cA )

30. J F.

( cA )

31. L K P.

( H FF )

32. PH J G .( G P )


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G

F I - I - O

FK M

Language - Part I Tamil Paper II

Testing of Aural - Oral Skills

: 1 E F : 20

P : 1. M I, IIA M /M QQ F . M . EO .

2. M III, IV, VA M . (20 + 20 + 10) E O F .

FK M : (M I, II, III, IV, V) .

M : K .

M I (3 F), II (3 F), III (5 F), IV (5F), V (4 F)

H P

I, II - M H ( QQ 5 + 5 - EO i A) Fd .

III, IV, V - M, QQ ,M , (III, IV -MK) F M. MQQ ( I PM) /F J L MK MO .

, . O K F (20F K ) , A O .

F ( H) .

O K ( F) A,F CKK . H . M Fd M CKK .CK .

+2 model q papers

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