200 q rae english (with answer sheet)

MALAYSIAN RADIO AMATUER EXAMINATION

SAMPLE QUESTIONS

Radio Amateur Examination - Page 1/18

1. Amateur radio station means:

a) a station for financial gain & operated by a radio amateur

b) a station for a service of self-tuition, intercommunication and technical investigation that is operated by an amateur

c) a station that uses radio waves and is erected by an amateur

d) a station of self tuition that is erected for use from an aircraft or a public vehicle

2. Identify four purposes for the amateur service

i) to protect historical radio data

ii) to help the public understand radio history

iii) to help foreign countries improve communication

iv) to help improve technical skills

v) to encourage visits from foreign hams

vi) to modernize radio schematic drawings

vii) to increase the pool of electrical drafting people

yiii) to increase the number of trained radio operators

ix) to increase the number of electronics experimenters

x) to improve intemational goodwill

a) i, ii, iii & iv c) ii, iv, ix & x

b) iii, v, vii & ix d) iv, viii, ix & x

3. The renewal fee for the class A and B licenses are:

a) RM12.00 & RM24.00

b) RM36.00 & RM24.00

c) RM24.00 & RM36.00

d) RM48.00 & RM60.00

4. A class B licensee may operate in the following bands:

a) 144 - 148MHz c) 50 MHz and above

b) 144 - 146 MHz d) 50 MHz and below

5. The maximum power output permitted from a class B grade amateur operators station is :

a) 100 watt mean power to 300 watt PEP

b) 120 watt mean power to 400 watt PEP

c) 10 watt mean power to 30 watt PEP

d) 1000 watt mean power to 2000 watt PEP

6. The voltage across a resistor carrying current can be calculated using the formula

a) E = I + R (voltage equals current plus resistance)

b) E = I - R (voltage equals current minus resistance)

c) E = I x R (voltage equals current times resistance)

d) E = I / R (voltage equals current divided by resistance)

7. 2 resistors are connected in parallel and are connected across a 40 volt battery. If each resistor is 1000 ohms, the total battery current is:

a) 40 ampere c) 80 ampere

b) 40 miliampere d) 80 miliampere

8. If a 100-ohm resistor is connected to 200 volts, what is the current through the resistor:

a) 1 ampere c) 300 amperes

b) 2 amperes d) 20000 amperes

9. Silicon in its pure form is:

a) A conductor c) A superconductor

b) An insulator d) A semiconductor

10. A licencee must be able to:

a) use two different languages

b) verify that his transmissions are within the authorized frequency bands

c) read morse at 20 wpm

d) write

11. The first odd harmonic of 144.69 MHz:

a) 48.23 MHz c) 289.38 MHz

b) 434.07 MHz d) 723.45 MHz

12. Single sideband, suppressed carrier transmission is denoted by:

a) A3E c) F3E

b) J3E d) R3E

13. The coaxial cable from an SWR meter to an antenna develops a fault so that no power reaches the antenna. The SWR meter will read:

a) zero c) 1:1

b) high d) very low


14. If the power supply to the output stage is modulated, this produces:

a) AM c) FM

b) MW d) PM

15. A readability report R4 indicates:

a) unreadable

b) readable with considerable difficulty

c) readable with practically no difficulty

d) perfectly readable

16. The Q code for ‘stand by’ is:

a) QRN c) QRM

b) QRU d) QRX

17. For safety the integrity of the earthing system should be checked:

a) Every decade

b) When you move house

c) Periodically

d) never

18. One quarter of one ampere may be written as:

a) 250 microampere c) 0.001 milliampere

b) 0.5 ampere d) 250 miltiampere

19. An ‘alternating current’ is so called because:

a) it reverses direction periodically

b) it travels through a circuit using atternate paths

c) its direction of travel is uncertain

d) its direction of travel can be altered by a switch

20. The type of transmission most prone to causing interference to an audio amplifier system is:

a) frequency modulation

b) frequency shift keying

c) amplitude modutation.

d) phase modulation

21. An Ohm is equivalent to a:

a) Henry per Ampere c) Ampere per Volt

b) Joule per Coulomb d) Volt per Ampere

22. Watts are equivalent to:

a) V x I b) V / I

c) V x V x l d) l x R

23. Five 1500 ohm transistors in parallel are equivalent to:

a) 60 Ohms c) 100 Ohms

b) 300 Ohms d) 7500 Ohms

24. What are 4 good electrical insulators?

a) Glass, air, plastic, porcelain

b) Paper, glass, air, aluminium

c) Glass, wood, cooper, porcelain

d) Plastic, rubber, wood, carbon

25. A VHF/UHF transmitter should ideally be followed by:

a) a high pass fitter c) a crystal filter

b) a band pass filter d) a mains filter

26. A multi-band antenna is:

a) Less likely to radiate harmonics ,

b) More likely to radiate harmonics

c) Never going to radiate harmonics

d) More efficient than a dipole

27. What are electromagnetic waves

a) Alternating currents in the core of an electromagnet

b) A wave consisting of two electric fields at right angles to each other

c) A wave consisting of an electric field and a magnetic field at right angles to each other

d) A wave consisting of two magnetic fields at right angles to each other

28. In digital communications, FSK stands for:

a) phase selection keying

b) frequency shift keying

c) final section keying

d) final signal keying

29. In a Class B amplifiers, using an NPN transistor, the base bias potential is:

a) much greater than the emitter potential

b) the same as the collector potential

c) about O.6V above the emitter voltage

d) less than the emitter voltage


30. In the figure shown, 2 represents the:

a) Collector of a PNF transistor

b) Emitter of an NPN transistor

c) Base of an NPN transistor

d) Source of a junction FET

31. Why would you use a fuse:

a) To create a short circuit when there is too much current in a circuit

b) To change direct current into alternating current

c) To change alternating current into direct current

d) To create an open circuit when there is too much current in a circuit

32. Which symbol of flgur represents a fixed-value capacitor

a) Symbol 1 c) Symbol 2

b) Symbol 3 d) Symbol 4

33. In Figure T6-2, which symbol represents a variable capacitor



34. What is a liquid-crystal display (LCD)

a) A modern replacement for a quar crystal oscillator which displays its fundamental frequency

b) A display that uses a crystalline liquid to change the way light is refracted

c) A frequency-determining unit for a transmitter or receiver

d) A display that uses a glowing liquid to remain brightly lit in dim light

35. How is a voltmeter usually connected to a circuit under test

a) in series with the circuit

b) in quadrature with the circuit

c) in parallel with the circuit

d) a phase with the circuit

36. For which measurements would you normally use a multimeter

a) SWR and power

b) resistance, capacitance & inductance

c) resistance and reactance

d) voltage, current & resistance

37. For safety reasons, across high value capacitors there should always be:

a) an inductor

b) a bleed resistor

c) a short circuit

d) an open circuit

38. The following unit in a DC power supply performs a rectifying operation

a) an electrolytic capacitor

b) a fuse

c) a crowbar

d) a full-wave diode bridge

39. The capacitor value best suited for filtering the output of a 12 volt 1 amp DC power supply is

a) 100 pF c) 10 nF

b) 100 nF d) 10,000 uF

Question 40 to 43 relates to this diagram below

40. The block diagram above representing a circuit for:

a) voltage stabilization

b) rectification

c) reverse bias protection

d) voltage multiplication

2

3

1

Transformer Rectifier Filter Regulator

Output

Regulated Power Supply

AC Mains Input


41. The block marked ‘regulator’ in the diagram is to

a) Regulate the incoming mains voltage to a constant value

b) Ensure that the output voltage never exceeds a dangerous value

c) Keep the incoming frequency constant at 50Hz

d) Keep the output voltage at a constant value

42. The block marked transformer in the diagram is to

a) Transform the incoming mains AC voltage to a DC voltage

b) Ensure that any RF radiation cannot get into the power supply

c) Transform the mains AC voltage to a more convenient AC voltage

d) Transform the mains AC waveform into a higher frequency waveform

43. The block marked rectifier in the diagram is to

a) the AC voltage from the transformer into a fluctuating DC voltage

b) Rectify any waveform errors introduced by the transformer

c) Turn the sinewave output of the rectifier into a square wave

d) Remove any AC components from the output of the transformer

44. Which type of oscillator circuits are commonly used in a VFO (variable frequency oscillator)?

a) Pierce & Zener

b) Colpitts & Hartley

c) Armstrong & deforest

d) Negative feedback & balanced feedback

45. What type of circuit does figure T7-2 represent if block 1 is a product detector

a) a simple phase modulation receiver

b) a simple FM receiver

c) a simple CW and SSB receiver

d) a double-conversion multiplier -

46. If figure T7-2 is a diagram of a simple single-sideband receiver, what type of circuit should be shown in block 1

a) a high pass filter

b) a ratio detector

C) a tow pass filter

d) a procuct detector

47 What circuit is pictured in figure 17-3, if block 1 is a frequency discriminator

a) a double-conversion receiver

b) a variable-frequency oscillator

c) a superheterodyne receiver

d) an FM receiver z

Question from 48 to 53 relates to this diagram below

48. In the transmitter block diagram shown the ‘oscilator’

a) Is variable in frequency

b) Generates an audio frequency tone during tests

c) Uses a crystal for good frequency stability

d) May have a calibrated dial

49. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the ‘balanced modulator’

a) Balances the high and low frequencies in the audio - signal

b) Performs double sideband suppresses carrier modulation

c) Acts as a tone control

d) Balances the standing wave ratio


50. In the transmitter btock diag shown, the ‘filter’

a) Removes mains hum from the audio signal

b) Suppresses unwanted harmonics of the RF signal Removes one sideband from the modulated signal

d) Removes the carder component from the modulated signal

51. In the transmitter block diagram shown the ‘mixer’

a) Adds the correct proportion of carrier to the SSB signal

b) Mixes the audio and RF signals in the correct proportions

c) Translates the SSB signal to the required frequency

d) Mixes the two sidebands in the correct proportions

52. In the transmitter block diagram shown, the ‘linear amplifier’

a) Has all components arranged in-line

b) Amplifies the modulated signal with no distortion

c) Aligns the two sidebands correctly

d) Removes any unwanted amplitude modulation from the signal

53. In the transmitter block diagram shown the ‘VFO’ is

a) A voice frequency oscillator

b) A virtual faze oscillator

c) A varactor fixed oscillator

d) A variable frequency oscillator

54. In figure N7-1, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is a dummy antenna, what is block 2?

a) a terminal-node switch

b) an antenna switch

c) a telegraph key switch

d) a high-pass filter

55. In figure N7-1, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an antenna switch, what is block 3?


c) a telegraph key switch

b) an SWR meter

d) a dummy antenna

56. In figure N7-3, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 2 is an SWR meter, what is block 3?

a) an antenna switch

b) an antenna tuner

c) a key-click filter

d) a terminal-node controller

57. What circuit is pictured in figure T7-1 if block 1 is a variable frequency oscillator

a) a packet-radio transmitter

b) a crystal-controlled transmitter

c) a single-sideband transmitter

d) a VFO-controlled transmitter

58. What circuit is pictured in figure 17-1 if block I is a crystal oscillator

a) a crystal-controlled transmitter

b) a VFO-controlled transmitter

c) a single-sideband transmitter

d) a CW transceiver

59. The commonly used amateur radio single side band mode is defined as

a) F3E c) J3E

b) A3E d) G3E

60. Frequency modulation using voice is termed:

a) F1A c) F3C

b) F2A d) F3E


61. What is the advantage in using the international telecommunication union (ITU) phonetic alphabet when identifying your station

a) the words are internationally recognized substitutes for letters

b) there is no advantage

c) the words have been chosen to be easily pronounced by Asian cultures

d) it preserves traditions begun in the early days of Amateur Radio

Question from 62 to 64 relates to this diagram below

62. The antenna in this diagram has two equal lengths of wire shown as x forming a dipole between insulators. The optimum operating frequency will be when the

a) length X+X equals the signal wavelength

b) dimensions are changed with one leg doubled in length

c) length X is a little shorter than one-half of the signal wavelength

d) antenna has one end grounded

63. The antenna in this diagram can be made to operate on several bands if the following item is installed at the points shown at x in each wire

a) acapacitor c) a fuse

b) an inductor d) a parallel-tuned trap

64. The physical length of the antenna shown in this diagram can be shortened and the electrical length maintained, if one of the following items is added at the points shc at x in each wire

a) an inductor c) an insulator

b) a capacitor d) a resistor

65. Magnetic and electric fields about an antenna are

a) parallel to each olher

b) determined by the type of antenna used

c) perpendicular to each other

d) variable with the time of day

66. An SWR meter is inserted into a perfectly matched transmitter/antenna system. The value shown should indicate:

a) 10W reflected power c) 1:1 VSWR

C) 1:0 VSWR d) 0:1 VSWR

67. A groundplane antenna emits a

a) horizontally polarized wave

b) elliptically polarized wave

c) axially polarized wave

d) vertically polarized wave

68. What is a cubical quad antenna

a) Four straight, parallel elements in line with each other, each approximately ½ - electrical wavelength long

b) Two or more parallel four-sided wire loops, each approximately one-electrical wavelength long

c) a vertical conductor ½ - electrical wavelength high, fed at the bottom

d) a center-fed wire V wavelength long

69. The “RMS value” of a sine-wave signal is:

a) half the peak voltage

b) 1.414 times the peak voltage

c) the peak-to-peak voltage

d) 0.707 times the peak voltage

70. The major mode of propagation at VHF over long distances is known as:

a) tropospheric propagation

b) ionospheric propagation

c) ground wave propagation

d) additive propagation

71. The dielectric of an open wire feeder is usually:

a) air c) polythene

b) rubber d) water

72. What is the lowest ionospheric region?

a) F1 c) F2

b) D d) E

73. What is one of the most significant problems associated with mobile transceivers

a) ignition noise

b) radar interference

c) Doppler shift

d) mechanical vibrations


74. If you ore told that your amateur station is causing television interference, what should you do?

a) first make sure that your station is operating properly, and that it does not cause interference to your own television

b) immediately turn off your transmitter and contact the nearest MCMC office for assistance

c) connect a high-pass filter to the transmitter output and a low-pass filter to the antenna-input terminals of the television

d) continue operating normally, because you have no reason to worry about the interference

75. What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the cause of interference to a nearby telephone

a) make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment

b) install RFI filters at the affected telephone

c) stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use

d) ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier

76. What is a CTCSS (or PL) tone?

a) a special signal used for telecommand control of model craft

b) a sub-audible tone, added to a carrier, which may cause a receiver to accept a signal

c) a tone used by repeaters to mark the end of a transmission

d) a special signal used for telemetry between amateur 8. space stations and earth stations

77. When conversing via a VHF or UHF repeater you should pause between overs to allows for

a) urgent and emergency traffic

b) to cool down the repeater

c) other stations to join in the QSO

d) answer a & b above

78. The ‘S meter’ on a receiver

a) indicates where the squelch control should be set

b) indicates the standing wave ratio

c) indicates the state of the battery voltage

d) indicates relative incoming signal strengths

79. You are mobile and talking through a VHF repeater. The other station reports that you keep ‘dropping out’. This means

a) your signal is drifting lower in frequency

b) your signal does not have enough strength to operate the repeater

c) your voice is too low-pitched to be understood

d) you are not speaking loudly enough

80. Morse code is usually transmitted by radio as:

a) an interrupted carner

b) a voice modulated carrier 90

c) a continuous carrier

d) a series of clicks

81. SSS transmissions:

a) occupy about twice the bandwidth of AM transmissions

b) contain more information than AM transmissions

c) occupy about half the bandwidth of AM transmissions

d) are compaUble with FM transmissions

82. When using data transmission in the 144 MHz band or above, the cailsign must be sent:

a) using RTTY

b) every 10 minutes

c) at least every 15 minutes

d) in ASCII

83. In the event of a national disaster which of the following bands can be used by non-amateurs in the disaster area in accordance with the Licensing conditions?

a) 144—146 MHz c) 29.0—29.7 MHz

b) 146-148MHz d) noneofthese

84. The fifth harmonic of a 144 MHz transmission lies to:

a) another amateur radio

b) the UHF TV band

c) a FM radio broadcast band

d) a MOD band

85. Power supplies to RF power amplifiers should:

a) be open wires c) be AF filtered

b) be RF filtered d) be inductively coupled

86. The height of the Fl layer is about:

a) 80km c) 120km

b) 200 km d) 300 km

87. The skip zone is where the ground wave:

a) is enhanced

b) is reflected

c) diminished and the reflected wave has not returned to earth

d) and reflected wave combine


88. Typical dielectric for coaxial cable is:

a) rubber b) porcelain

C) ceramic d) polythene

89. The side of a quad antenna is:

a) quater wavelength

b) a half wavelength

c) three quarters of a wavelength

d) a full wavelength

90. The easiest AC amplitude measurement to take direct from an oscilloscope trace is:

a) rrns values

b) average values

c) peak values

d) peak 0 peak values

91. A SWR meter is used to check:

a) transmitter efficiency

b) harmonic output

c) transmitter bandwidth

d) transmitter to antenna matching

92. The equivalent DC battery voltage to give the same heating effect as a 12 V (rms) sine wave source is:

a) SV b) 84V

c) 12V d) 17V

93. The prime document for the administration of the amateur service in Malaysia is the:

a) Radio Regulations, 1985

b) Broadcasting Act

c) Radio Amateur’s Handbook

d) Multimedia Commission Act, 1998

94. If an amateur radio licensee is absent overseas, the base station may be used by:

a) Any member of the immediate family to maintain contact with only the licensee

b) Any amateur radio licensee but with consent

c) The immediate family to communicate with any amateur radio licensee

d) Noneoftheabove

95. The regulatory authority in Malaysia on amateur radio is the:

a) Mataysian Amateur Radio Transmitters Society

b) Malaysian Communications and Multimedia Commission (MCMC)

c) International Amateur Radio Union (IARU)

d) Prime Minister’s Department

96. Which education qualification exempts the holder from the radio amateur examination?

a) Four credits in Sijii Pelajaran Malaysia subjects

b) Four passes in University undergraduate subjects

c) A principle in Sijil Tinggi Pelajaran Malaysia Physics and Mathematics

d) There is no exemption for any education qualification

97. To whom may an amateur radio station licensee sell amateur radio equipment:

a) To any person interested in amateur radio

b) To any person who is possession of a Radio Dealers License or to a person who is in possession of a Amateur Radio License

c) To any person who is possession of a radio broadcast station license

d) To a person who has a foreign Citizen Band License

98. Power supplies to RF power amplifiers should:

a) be open wires

b) be AF filtered

c) be RF filtered

d) be inductively coupled

99. The value of a resistor to drop 100 volt with a current of 0.8 miliampere is:

a) 125 ohm c) 1250 ohm

b) 125 kilohm d) 1.25 kilohm

100. If a current of 2 amperes flows through a 50-ohm resistor, what is the voltage across the resistor?

a) 25 volts c) 100 volts

b) 52 volts d) 200 volta

101. The effective resistance of three 24 Ohm resistors connected in parallel is:

a) 8 ohms c) 12 ohms

b) 36 ohms d) 72 ohms

102. An electric current passing through a wire will produce around the conductor:

a) An electric field c) a superconductor

b.) A magnetic field d) a semiconductor


103. The unit of impedance is the:

a) ampere c) Henry

b) farad d) ohm

104. One kilohm is:

a) 10 ohm c) 0.001 ohm

b) 0.01 ohm d) 1000 ohm

105. The watt is the unit of:

a) Power c) electromagnetic field strength

b) magnetic flux d) breakdown voltage

106. The unit of resistance is the:

a) farad c) ohm

b) watt d) resistor

107. Radio wave polarization is defined by the orientation of the radiated:

a) magnetic field c) electric field

b) inductive field d) capacitive field

108. Starting at a positive peak, how many times does a sine wave cross the zero axis n one complete cycle:

a) 180 times c) 2 times

b) 4 times d) 360 times

109. What is a wave calted that abruptly changes back and forth between two voltage levets and remains an equal lime at each level?

a) A sine wave c) a square wave

b) A cosine wave d) a sawtooth wave

110. What are three good electrical conductors

a) Copper, gold, mica

b) Gold, silver, wood

c) gold, silver, aluminium

d) copper, aluminium, paper

111. In figure N6-3, which symbol represents an NPN transistor



112. Which symbol of figure N6-3 represents an PNP transistor



113. Calls must not be broadcast to amateur stations in general unless:

a) it is to broadcast amateur news

b) it is a CQ call

c) it is to give a weather report

d) there is a lift on

114. Facsimile transmission using AM is:

a) A3E c) F3E

c) G3C d) A1B

115. The suffix when riding a motorbike is:

a) /B c) /P

b) /M d) /C

116. An isolating transformer is used to

a) Ensure that faulty equipment connected to it will blow a fuse in the distribution board

b) Ensure that no voltage is developed between either output lead and ground

c) Ensure that no voltage is developed between the output leads

d) Step down the mains voltage to a safe value

117. What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field:

a) A battery c) A capacitor

b) A transformer d) An inductor

118. What dies a variable resistor or potentiometer do?

a) Its resistance changes when AC is applied to it

b) It transforms a variable voltage into a constant voltage

c) Its resistance changes when its slide or contact is moved

d) To create an open circuit when there is too much current in a circuit


119. In figure N6-1, which symbol represents a fixed resistor:



120. In figure N6-1 which symbol represents a fuse



121. In figure N6-1, which symbol represents a single-cell batten



122. In figure N6-1, which symbol represents an earth ground:



123. In figure N6-1, which symbol represents an antenna

a) Symbol 2 b) Symbol 3

c) Symbol 6 çt4 Symbol 7

124. What does a capacitor do:

a) It stores erierg and opposes a change in current

b) It stores energy electrostatically and opposes a change in voltage

c) It stores energy electromagnetically and opposes a change in current

d) It stores energy electromechanically and opposes a change in voltage

125. In figure N6-2, which symbol represents a single-pole, single throw switch



126. The mains transformer in a transmitter is fitted with an internal screen. To minimize the possibility of introducing mains-borne interference it shoutd be connected to;

a) the chassis

b) the VFO output

c) the live side of the mains

d) left ftoating

127. The total capacitance of two or more capacitors in series is

a) always less than that of the smallest capacitor

b) always greater than hat of the largest capacitor

c) found by adding each of the capacitances together

d) found by adding the capacitances together and dividing by their total number

128. Colpitts, Hartley, Vackar, Clapp-Gouriet are alt types of:

a) power supply c) amplifier

b) oscillator d) modulator

129. The power supply to a VFO should be:

a) well regulated

b) straight from the smoothing circuit

c) unregulated

d) AC only

130. The block diagram below is of a typical 144 MHz transmitter using multipliers, The box marked X is:

a) a doubter c) a tripler

b) a quadrupler d) a buffer

131. If the carrier generated by the signal in the above question is to be amplitude modulated, modulation should be applied at:

a) A c) B

b) C d) D


132. When catting a station, it is good practice to:

a) put your cattsign first

b) use your catlsign only

c) put the calisign of the station being called first

d) use the calisign of the other station only

133. What is the advantage in using the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) phonetic alphabet when identifying your station?

a) the words are internationally recognized substitutes for letters

b) there is no advantage

c) the words have been chosen to be easily pronounced by Asian cultures

d) it preserves traditions begun in the early days of Amateur Radio

Question from 134 to 136 relates to this diagram below:

134. In this diagram the item U corresponds to the

a) boom c) driven element

b) reflector d) dIrector

135. In this diagram the item V corresponds to the


b) reflector d) director

136. In this diagram the item X corresponds to the


b) reflector d) director

137. How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain oscilloscope

a) A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals

b) A spectrum analyser displays signals in the time domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the frequency domain

c) A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain

d) A spectrum analyzer disptays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies

138. What instrument can be used to determine the horizontal radiation pattern of an antenna?

a) a field-strength meter

b) a grid-dip meter

c) an oscilloscope

d) a signal tracer & an audio amplifier

139. What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit?

a) a short-cir fault

b) an open-circuit fault

c) the resistance between logic modules

d) the high & low logic states

140. What does a frequency counter do?

a) It makes frequency measurements

b) It produces a reference frequency

b) It measures FM transmitter deviation

d) It generates broadband white noise

141. A mains operated DC power supply

a) Converts DC from the mains into AC of the same voltage

b) Converts energy from the mains into DC for operating electronic equipment

c) Is a diode-capacitor device for measuring mains power

d) Is a diode-choked device for measuring inductance power

142. A low pass filter will:

a) suppress sub-harmonics

b) reduce harmonics

c) always eliminate interference

d) improve harmonic radiation

143. An antenna Balun is:

a) a balance to unbalance transformer

b) a mains transformer

c) a single winding inductor

d) a semiconductor device

144. What is simplex operation?

a) transmitting and receiving on the same frequency

b) transmitting and receiving over a wide area

c) transmitting on one frequency and receiving on another

d) transmitting one-way communications


145. The main purpose of a repeater is:

a) to improve communication between mobile stations

b) to provide a convenient frequency for local nets

c) to aid DX working during lift conditions

d) to aid propagation studies

146. The standard tone use for amateur repeaters in Malaysia is

a) 203.5 MHz c) 103.5 Hz

b) 203.5 Hz d) 250.3 Hz

147. What is a band plan

a) a voluntary guideline beyond the divisions established by the MCMC for using different operating modes within an amateur band

b) a guideline from the MCMC for making amateur frequency bank allocations

c) a plan of operating schedules within an amateur bank published by the MCMC

d) a plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest

148. What is the proper distress call to use when operating CW (carrier wave)

a) MAYDAY c) ORZ

b) QRRR d) SOS

149. In the RST code, T stands for:

a) temperature c) tone

b) lime d) lransmitter

150. If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in, what should you do?

a) continue your communication because you were on frequency first

b) acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what assistance may be needed

c) change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a clear channel to call for assistance

d) immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have emergency rights to the frequency

151. If the MARTS 2 meter-net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another station are using, what should you do?

a) as a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency

b) increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear you

c) transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations may use it

d) turn off your radio

152 When conversing via a VHF or UHF repeater you should pause between overs for about

a) half a second c) 30 seconds

b) 3 seconds d) several minutes

153. The standard frequency offset (split) for 2 meter repeaters in Malaysia is

a) Plus 600 kHz c) minus 5 MHz

b) minus 600 kHz d) plus 5 MHz

154. The radiation pattern below is typical of:

a) a half wave dipole

b) a quarter way,

c) a beam antenna

d) a Marconi antenna

155. The antenna below is representative of:

a) a Yagi c) a dipole

b) a long wire d) a monopole

156. AGC stands for:

a) Amplified gain control

b) auxiliary gain cut-off

c). automatic ganging control

d) automatic gain control

157. Over driving a power amplifier will:

a) give a high SWR

b) give minimum distortion on receive

c) generate excessive harmonics

d) minimize power output


158. A radio wave may follow two or more different paths during propagation and produce slowly-changing phase differences between signals at the receiver resulting in a phenomenon called

a) Absorption c) baffling

b) Fading d) skip

159. The distance between the transmitter and the nearest point at which the received signal is received from ionospheric propagation is known as the

a) skip distance c) radiation distance

b) skip angle d) skip zone

160. VHF and UHF bands are frequently used for satellite communication because

a) Waves at these frequencies travel to & from the satellite relatively unaffected by the ionosphere

b) The Doppler frequency change caused by satellite motion is much less than at HF

c) Satellites move too fast for HF waves to follow

d) The Doppler effect would cause HF waves to be shifted into the VHF and UHF bands

161. A line of sight transmission between two stations uses mainly the

a) ionosphere c) troposphere

b) skyways d) ground wave

162. When using voice, which of the following modes of transmissions required the least bandwidth?

a) single sideband

b) amplitude modulation

c) frequency modulation

d) phase modulation

163. Which of the following antenna arrangements is least likely to radiate harmonics?

a) a dipole ted with coaxial cable

b) a dipole fed with balanced feeder

c) an inverted L-Marconi with vertical feeder

d) a trap dipole

164. To obtain high frequency stability in a transmitter, the VFO should be:

a) Run from a non-regulated AC supply

b) powered from a regulated DC supply

c) In a ptastic box

d) able to change frequency with temperature

165. The process of modulation allows

a) Information to be impresses on to a ca

b) Information to be removed from a carrier

c) Voice and Morse code to be combined

d) None of these

166. In figure N7-2, if block 1 is a transceiver and block 3 is an antenna switch, what is block 2


b) an SWR meter

c) a dipole antenna

d) a high-pass filter

167. Harmonic frequencies are

a) Always lower in the frequency than the fundamental frequency

b) At multiples of the fundamental frequency

c) Any unwanted frequency above the fundamental frequency

d) Any frequency causing TVI

168. Unwanted signals from a radio transmitter which cause harmful interference to other users are known as

a) Rectified signals

b) Re-radiation signals

c) Reflected signals

d) Harmonic signals and spurious signals

169. To reduce the harmonic output from a high frequency transmitter, the following filter is usually installed at the transmitter

a) band pass c) Low pass

b) high pass d) Active filter

170. Define the mode F3E

a) phase-modulated telephony

b) double-sideband telephony

c) single-sideband, suppressed carrier, telephony

d) frequency-modulated telephony


171. What is meant by antenna gain

a) the numerical ratio relating the radiated signal strength of an antenna to that of another antenna

b) the numerical ratio of the signal in the foRvard direction to the signal in the back direction

c) the numerical ratio of the amount of power radiated by an antenna compared tot eh transmitter output power

d) the final amplifier gain minus the transmission-line losses (including any phasing lines present)

172. A neighbour using a TV set top antenna complains of interference when you are transmitting at VHF. As a first step to eliminating this problem you could suggest:

a) better coaxial cable on their antenna

b) they use a preamplifier

c) they use a roof mounted antenna

d) their set is no good

173. Why should you wear a hard hat and safety glasses if you are on the ground helping someone work on an antenna tower

a) so you wont hurt if the tower should accidentally fall

b) to keep RF energy away from your head during antenna testing

c) to protect your head from something dropped from the tower

d) so someone passing by wilt know that work is being done on the tower and wilt stay away

174. What safety factors must you consider when using a bow and arrow or slingshot and weight to shoot an antenna- support tine over a tree

a) you must ensure that the line is strong enough to withstand the shock of shooting the weight

b) you must ensure that the arrow or weight has a sage flight path if the line breaks

c) you must ensure that the bow and arrow or slingshot is in good working condition

d) all of these choices are correct

175. A Class C amplifier operates over:

a) the complete cycle

b) three quarters of a cycle

c) exactly half a cycle

d) less than half a cycle

176 Which of the following represents over-modulation on an AM signal?

177. The designation F3E stands for:

a) telegraphy by frequency shift keying

b) telegraphy by on-off keying of a modulating audio frequency

c) frequency modulation by voice

d) facsimile transmission

178. A simple beam is shown below. The names of the elements in numerical order are:

a) radiator, director, reflector

b) director, radiator, reflector

c) director reflector, radiator

d) reflector, radiator, director

179. Which of the following represents 100% amplitude modulation?


180. A typical arrangement of equipment is shown below. The SWR meter should be placed at:

a) A c) C

b) B d) D

181. The ‘calling frequency’ for 2 meter band is:

a) V40 - 145.55OMHz c) V40 - 145.500 MHz

b) V40 - 145.300 MHz d) V40 - 145.200 MHz

182. Which of the following operating conditions of the power amplifier stage of a-transmitter is likely to produce the highest harmonic content in the output waveform?

a) Class C c) Class B

b) Class AB d) Class A

183. What is a loop antenna?

a) a large circularty-polarised antenna

b) a small coil of wire tightly wound around a toraidal ferrite core

c) several turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil

d) any antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire

184. What device is used in place of an antenna during transmitter tests so that no signal is radiated

a) an antenna matcher

b) a dummy load

c) a low-pass titter

d) a decoupling resistor

185. What phenomenon has the most effect on radio communication beyond ground-wave or line-of-sight ranges

a) solar activity

b) lunar tidal effects

c) the Fl region of the ionosphere

d) the F2 region of the ionosphere

186. The ionosphere layer mainly responsible for long distance communication at HF is:

a) D c) E

b) F2 d) F1

187. To prevent unwanted radiation in the shack, RF connections between units should be by

a) open wire feeder

b) good quality coaxidel cable

c) bell wire

d) mains type cable

188. What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile transceiver

a) apply shielding and filtering where necessary

b) insulate alt place sheet metal surfaces from each other

c) apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces

d) install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring

189. The resonant frequency of a tuned circuit can be checked by:

a) a DC Voltmeter

b) a DIP Oscillator

c) a Digital Frequency Meter

d) an Ohm-Meter

190. Spurious oscillations may be caused by:

a) self resonance of a carbon resistor

b) self resonance in diode

c) self resonance of an RF choke

d) damping

191. The correct order for caitsign in a calisign exchange at the start and end of a transmission is

a) the other cailsign followed by your own cailsign

b) your cailsign followed by the other cailsign

c) your own calisign, repeated twice

d) the other cailsign, repeated twice

192. A signal report of’S and 9’ indicates

a) very low intelligibility but good signal strength

b) perfect intelligibility but very low signal strength

c) perfect intelligibility, high signal strength

d) medium intelligibility and signal strength

193. The standard frequency offset (split) for 70 cm repeaters in Malaysia is

a) plus 600 kHz c) minus 500 kHz

b) minus 5 MHz d) plus 5 MHz


194. The squelch or muting circuitry on a VHF receiver

a) inhibits the audio output unless a station is being received

b) compresses incoming voice signals to make them more intelligible

c) reduces audio burst noise due to lightning emissions

d) reduces the noise on incoming signals

195. In a CW contact WX refers to:

a) working conditions b) weather

c) wife d) type of antenna

196. The priority on usage of any amateur radio repeater is

a) base station to base station

b) portable station to mobile station

c) mobile station to mobile station

d) answer b & c above

197. What is the activity known as fox hunting

a) amateurs using receivers and direction-finding techniques attempt to locate a hidden transmitter

b) amateurs using transmitting equipment and direction- finding techniques attempt to locate a hidden receiver

c) amateurs helping the government track radio- transmitter collars attached to animals

d) amateurs assemble stations using generators and portable antennas to test their emergency communications skills

198. What does a very high SWR reading mean

a) the antenna is not tuned, or there may be an open or shorted connection somewhere in the feed line

b) the signals coming from the antenna are unusually strong, which means very good radio conditions

c) the transmitter is putting out more power than normal, showing that it is about to go bad

d) there is a large amount of solar radiation, which means very poor radio conditions

199. VOX stands for

a) volume operated extension speaker

b) variable oscillator transmitter

c) voice operated transmit

d) voice operated expander

200. Define Peak Envelope Power

a) means power supplied to an antenna by a radio receiver in a condition of no modulation

b) means the average power supplied to the antenna transmission lines by a transmitter during one radio- frequency cycle at the highest crest of the modulation envelope taken under conditions of normal operation

c) means the average power that is supplied to the antenna transmission lines in a condition of no modulation

d) means the average power that is supplied to the antenna in a condition where such power does not create a danger to life


ANSWERS

1. B

2. D

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. C

7. D

8. B

9. B

10. B

11. B

12. B

13. B

14. C

15. C

16. D

17. C

18. D

19. A

20. C

21. D

22. A

23. B

24. A

25. B

26. B

27. C

28. B

29. C

30. C

31. D

32. A

33. C

34. B

35. C

36. D

37. B

38. D

39. D

40. A

41. D

42. C

43. A

44. B

45. C

46. D

47. D

48. C

49. B

50. C

51. D

52. B

53. D

54. B

55. D

56. B

57. D

58. A

59. C

60. D

61. A

62. C

63. D

64. A

65. C

66. C

67. D

68. B

69. D

70. A

71. A

72. B

73. A

74. A

75. B

76. B

77. D

78. D

79. A

80. A

81. C

82. B

83. A

84.

85. B

86. B

87. C

88. D

89. A

90.

91. D

92.

93. D

94. B

95. B

96. D

97. B

98. C

99. B

100. C

101. A

102. B

103. D

104. D

105. A

106. C

107. C

108. C

109. C

110. C

111. D

112. A

113. B

114. D

115. B

116. B

117. C

118. C

119. B

120. A

121. D

122. D

123. D

124. B

125. A

126. A

127. A

128. B

129. A

130. C

131. D

132. C

133. A

134. A

135. B

136. D

137. C

138. A

139. D

140. B

141. A

142. B

143. A

144. A

145. A

146. A

147. A

148. D

149. C

150. B

151. A

152. B

153. B

154. C

155. C

156. D

157. C

158. B

159. A

160. B

161. C

162. A

163. B

164. B

165. A

166. B

167. B

168. D

169. C

170. D

171. C

172. C

173. C

174. D

175. D

176. A

177. C

178. D

179. B

180. A

181. C

182. A

183. C

184. B

185. A

186. B

187. B

188. A

189. B

190. C

191. A

192. C

193. B

194. A

195. C

196. D

197. A

198. A

199. C

200. B


ANSWERS SHEET

1. A B C D

2. A B C D

3. A B C D

4. A B C D

5. A B C D

6. A B C D

7. A B C D

8. A B C D

9. A B C D

10. A B C D

11. A B C D

12. A B C D

13. A B C D

14. A B C D

15. A B C D

16. A B C D

17. A B C D

18. A B C D

19. A B C D

20. A B C D

21. A B C D

22. A B C D

23. A B C D

24. A B C D

25. A B C D

26. A B C D

27. A B C D

28. A B C D

29. A B C D

30. A B C D

31. A B C D

32. A B C D

33. A B C D

34. A B C D

35. A B C D

36. A B C D

37. A B C D

38. A B C D

39. A B C D

40. A B C D

41. A B C D

42. A B C D

43. A B C D

44. A B C D

45. A B C D

46. A B C D

47. A B C D

48. A B C D

49. A B C D

50. A B C D

51. A B C D

52. A B C D

53. A B C D

54. A B C D

55. A B C D

56. A B C D

57. A B C D

58. A B C D

59. A B C D

60. A B C D

61. A B C D

62. A B C D

63. A B C D

64. A B C D

65. A B C D

66. A B C D

67. A B C D

68. A B C D

69. A B C D

70. A B C D

71. A B C D

72. A B C D

73. A B C D

74. A B C D

75. A B C D

76. A B C D

77. A B C D

78. A B C D

79. A B C D

80. A B C D

81. A B C D

82. A B C D

83. A B C D

84. A B C D

85. A B C D

86. A B C D

87. A B C D

88. A B C D

89. A B C D

90. A B C D

91. A B C D

92. A B C D

93. A B C D

94. A B C D

95. A B C D

96. A B C D

97. A B C D

98. A B C D

99. A B C D

100. A B C D

101. A B C D

102. A B C D

103. A B C D

104. A B C D

105. A B C D

106. A B C D

107. A B C D

108. A B C D

109. A B C D

110. A B C D

111. A B C D

112. A B C D

113. A B C D

114. A B C D

115. A B C D

116. A B C D

117. A B C D

118. A B C D

119. A B C D

120. A B C D

121. A B C D

122. A B C D

123. A B C D

124. A B C D

125. A B C D

126. A B C D

127. A B C D

128. A B C D

129. A B C D

130. A B C D

131. A B C D

132. A B C D

133. A B C D

134. A B C D

135. A B C D

136. A B C D

137. A B C D

138. A B C D

139. A B C D

140. A B C D

141. A B C D

142. A B C D

143. A B C D

144. A B C D

145. A B C D

146. A B C D

147. A B C D

148. A B C D

149. A B C D

150. A B C D

151. A B C D

152. A B C D

153. A B C D

154. A B C D

155. A B C D

156. A B C D

157. A B C D

158. A B C D

159. A B C D

160. A B C D

161. A B C D

162. A B C D

163. A B C D

164. A B C D

165. A B C D

166. A B C D

167. A B C D

168. A B C D

169. A B C D

170. A B C D

171. A B C D

172. A B C D

173. A B C D

174. A B C D

175. A B C D

176. A B C D

177. A B C D

178. A B C D

179. A B C D

180. A B C D

181. A B C D

182. A B C D

183. A B C D

184. A B C D

185. A B C D

186. A B C D

187. A B C D

188. A B C D

189. A B C D

190. A B C D

191. A B C D

192. A B C D

193. A B C D

194. A B C D

195. A B C D

196. A B C D

197. A B C D

198. A B C D

199. A B C D

200. A B C D

200 q rae english (with answer sheet)

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