2006 cpl exam 1
TRANSCRIPT
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
1/36
Instructor Copy Page 1 of 28
HIGHER EDUCATION DIVISION
Examinations: Teaching Period: 4 2006 Paper 2 of 2
Faculty: Engineering & Industrial Sciences Campus: Hawthorn
Subject Code(s): HES1905
Full Subject Title: Commercial Pilot Licence Pt 2
STUDENTS NAME: _____________________________________ ID No: ______________________
Duration: 3 hours Percentage of overall assessment
covered by this paper: 30%
Reading Time: 15 minutes
Total marks on this paper 104 Number of pages in this paper (inc.
this page):
28
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Materials Allowed:
Non-Programmable CalculatorAIP and PCA Chart
Answering Requirements:
This paper is presented in three parts:Part A Aircraft General KnowledgePart B AerodynamicsPart C Meteorology
Each Part should require approximately one hour to complete. Each part is worth 1/3 of the total marks for thispaper or 10% of the overall assessment of this subject.
Answer all questions.
The answers to all questions should be entered in the workbook provided, showing all calculations and
assumptions where appropriate.
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
2/36
INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 2 of 35
PART A HUMAN FACTORSPart A of this examination consists of 28 questions. Each question is worth 1mark, giving a total possible score of 28 marks for Part A.
Q 1.
The part of the retina which has the worst visual acuity is
a. the fovea, due to the greatest concentration of conesb. the blind spot, due to least concentration of rodsc. the fovea, due to the greatest concentration of rodsd. the optic spot, due to the greatest concentration of rods and cones
Q 2.
The fact that the concentration of cones is greatest at the fovea, whilethe rods are distributed over the whole of the retina means that
a. Night vision is best achieved by looking directly at the objectb. Colour sensitivity is best away from the foveac. At night the eye effectively has two blind spotsd. None of the above are correct
Q 3.
The approximate time of useful consciousness for an average person
engaged in moderate activity, following an oxygen supply failure at40,000 ft will be
a. 45 secondsb. 150 secondsc. 20 secondsd. 60 seconds
Q 4.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the alleviation of
the effects of hypoxia at cabin altitudes above 10,000 ft without the useof supplemental oxygen?
a. the effects cannot be alleviatedb. mild exercise accompanied by regular breathingc. slow, deep breathingd. rapid shallow breathing
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
3/36
INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 3 of 35
Q 5.
Flying while suffering from a head cold increases the risk of
a. Hypoxiab. Pressure vertigo
c. Carbon monoxide poisoningd. Decompression sickness
Q 6.
If, during flight in non-VMC, you sense a descending turn to the left, themost important action to take is to
a. immediately apply opposing control inputs to that which has beensensed
b. Trust your body sensations implicitly
c. keep your head still to reduce any disorientating sensationsd. Trust your instruments implicitly
Q 7.
Loss of hearing due to the ageing process is termed
a. Presbycusisb. Presbyopiac. Presbytinnitusd. Presbyterianism
Q 8.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the effectsresulting from exposure over many years to aircraft noise?
a. Some loss of hearing may occur but it will last for only a few minutesafter each exposure.
b. Some loss of hearing may occur but total recovery will eventually takeplace.
c. Some loss of hearing may occur but full recovery may never eventuate.
d. Some loss of hearing may occur but partial recovery will eventuallytake place.
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
4/36
INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 4 of 35
Q 9.
A pilot showing the symptoms of dizziness, tingling at the fingertips andblurred vision may be suffering from
a. hyperventilation
b. hypoxiac. hypertensiond. hyperthermia
Q 10.
Alcohol can be detected in the blood after ingestion of alcohol after
a. 8 hoursb. 10 hoursc. 24 hours
d. 14 hourse. 48 hours
Q 11.
The part of the retina which has the greatest visual acuity
a. The fovea, due to the greatest concentration of conesb. The blind spot, due to the least concentration of rods.c. The fovea, due to the greatest concentration of rods.d. The optic spot, due to the greatest concentration of rods and cones.
Q 12.
Visual acuity decreases away from the fovea because
a. The number of rods decreaseb. The number of cones decreasec. The number of cones increased. The number of rods increase
Q 13.
How long is needed for full dark adaptation?
a. 5-10 minb. 20-30 minc. 10-20 mind. 35-45 min
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
5/36
INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 5 of 35
Q 14.
The eye moves in what are termed saccades (jerks and rests). Invisual searching, a saccade/rest cycle usually occupies roughly
a. 1.0 seconds
b. 0.3 secondsc. 2.0 secondsd. 3.0 seconds
Q 15.
The ideal pilot in an emergency is
a. P+G+b. P-G-c. P-G+
d. P+G-
Q 16.
What percentage of aircraft accidents have been deemed to have beendirectly attributed to human factors-related related causes?
a. 80-90%b. 25-30%c. 40-50%d. 75%
Q 17.
An untrained pilot in IMC engaged in a prolonged constant bank and ina balanced turn, will perceive himself to be flying
a. At a constant angle of bankb. Straight and Levelc. Pitched downd. In a turn in the opposite direction
Q 18.
The oxygen demand of muscles during activity increases by a factor of-
a. 20b. 2c. 10d. 7
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
6/36
INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 6 of 35
Q 19.
What is the approximate time of useful consciousness for an averagepilot engaged in moderate activity at 25,000 feet?
a. 30 sec
b. 1 minc. 2 mind. 15 sece. 45 sec
Q 20.
With age, the lens of the eye generally becomes
a. Too looseb. Too elastic
c. Too stiffd. Cracked
Q 21.
The part of the eye which bends incoming light the most is
a. The lensb. The corneac. The irisd. The pupile. The tympanic membrane
Q 22.
On approach to a long thin runway, with rising terrain towards thethreshold will provide which of the following apparent visual effects
a. No effect, a normal approach path will be experiencedb. Undershootingc. Overshoot, then undershoot when on short final
d. Overshooting
Q 23.
A pilot should not fly with a common cold. What drug causes sideeffects related to the common cold?
a. Pseudo-ephedrine, causing heart weakness at high altitudesb. Anti-histamines, causing drowsinessc. Antibiotics, causing diarrhoead. Tranquilizers, increases pilot fatigue
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
7/36
INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 7 of 35
Q 24.
A good Captain will encourage the Co-pilot to use communicationstyles which are
a. Aggressive and supportive
b. Assertive and supportivec. Assertive and submissived. Supportive and submissive
Q 25.
A rise in carbon dioxide concentration in the blood causes
a. No change in respiration rateb. An increase in respiration ratec. A reduction in respiration rate
d. An increase or decrease in respiration rate depending on thecorresponding oxygen concentration in the blood
Q 26.
The recommended precaution regarding flying following a period ofscuba-diving in excess of four hours which was limited to a depth notrequiring decompression stops is
a. The four-hour period after diving should be spent at sea level.b. Supplemental oxygen should be available for all flights for the four-hour
period following the diving.c. In the 24-hour period following the diving, total flight time should not
exceed four hours.d. Flight altitude should be limited to 8,000 ft for the four-hour period
following the diving.
Q 27.
Under the Holmes-Rahe scale, the most stressful life event is
a. Divorceb. Death of a spousec. Pregnancyd. Jail terme. Death of a mouse
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
8/36
INSTRUCTOR COPY Page 8 of 35
Q 28.
While in flight you notice the other pilot is breathing heavily, his speechis slurred and he complains from feeling dizzy. You notice that his lipsand fingertips are blue-tinged. He is probably suffering from
a. Hyperventilationb. CO poisoningc. Emphysemad. Hypoxia
END OF PART A-HUMAN FACTORS
PART B-AIR LAW BEGINS NEXT PAGE
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
9/36
Instructor Copy Page 2 of 28
PART A AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Part A of this examination consists of 30 questions. Each question is worth1 mark, giving a total possible score of 30 marks for Part A.
1. For a normally aspirated engine running at full power on an ISA day at sealevel, the MP gauge should read:
a) 29.92b) slightly more than 29.92c) slightly less than ambientd) slightly more than ambient
2. The battery compartment in an aircraft is vented to allow:
a) transfer of water vapour in and out of the areab) room for cables and wiring and allow for a lighter circuitc) the escape of hydrogen and oxygen, produced during chargingd) birds to neste) none of the above
3. During a very high speed dive a constant speed propeller may hit its
a) fine pitch stop and then under speedb) fine pitch stop and then over speedc) course pitch stop and then under speedd) course pitch stop and then over speed
4. Hydraulic pressure is controlled by
a) a hand pump and an engine driven pumpb) a hand pump and a pressure regulatorc) the accumulator and a pressure relief valve
d) a pressure relief and a pressure regulator valve
5. For most light aircraft with retractable undercarriages the gear warninghorn will sound if the undercarriage is not down and locked when
a) IAS is reduced below a certain valueb) The aircraft is in the circuit areac) MP is reduced below a certain valued) Rpm is reduced below a certain value
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
10/36
Instructor Copy Page 3 of 28
6. During the landing roll there is a firm feel to the brakes but at constantpressure the pedals move further toward the cockpit floor. The likely causeis
a) Overheated brakes
b) Brake fluid level lowc) Air in the braking systemd) Master cylinder leak
7. Rate gyros such as those employed in turn coordinators rely on whichfundamental property of gyroscopes
a) Space rigidityb) Precession
c) Inertiad) Nausea
8. An aircraft is cruising with throttle with the propeller pitch control set for2300 rpm. If a failure locks the propeller pitch setting then movement of thethrottle can
a) Vary the rpm below 2300 but not above itb) Vary the rpm above 2300 but not below itc) Vary rpm both above and below 2300d) Have no effect on the rpm
9. The wastegate in a turbocharger system is used to
a) Control turbine rotational speedb) Control manifold pressure in the induction manifoldc) Control the pressure in the exhaust manifoldd) Bleed the exhaust gases downstream of the turbine
10. Lower than specified gas accumulator pressure causes
a) Increasing friction and vibration between moving partsb) Increased system operating pressurec) Reduced damping of pressure surgesd) Reduced fluid storage capacity
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
11/36
Instructor Copy Page 4 of 28
11. While operating a CSU equipped aircraft, and maintaining a set manifoldpressure. The tendency for the engine to detonate will:
a) decrease, with a decrease in RPMb) increase, as mixture is enriched
c) increase, with a decrease in RPMd) decrease, with the application of carburettor heat
12. In most aircraft equipped with retractable undercarriages, the squatswitch is attached to
a) A mainwheel gear strutb) A nosewheel gear strutc) The hydraulic accumulatord) Nosewheel axle
13. During a ground power check, the blade angle of a constant speedpropeller should be fully fine so that
a) Propeller thrust does not become excessiveb) The engine does not overspeedc) Rpm can be used to assess power outputd) Rpm will remain constant throughout the check
14. The idling jet in a carburettor is designed to maintain,
a) An adequate supply of fuel with the engine at idling RPMb) A proper fuel/air mixture at idling RPMc) Excess air supply to the carburettor at idling RPMd) Linear engine acceleration during abrupt power changes
15. An aircraft with a non-turbocharged engine and a CSU is in cruising flightwith 22 / 2300 rpm set. If rpm is increased to 2500 with the prop pitchcontrol then
a) BHP will increaseb) MP and BHP will increasec) MP will decrease but BHP will increased) MP will decrease but BHP will remain constant
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
12/36
Instructor Copy Page 5 of 28
16. What will be the effect on turbocharger operation if a significant exhaustgas leak develops upstream of the waste gate
a) Engine will overboostb) Power surges will occur
c) Power output reducedd) No effect
17. If the wastegate is jammed (closed) shut and the throttle is advanced
a) MP increases normallyb) MP increases slowlyc) MP fails to increase above ambient pressured) MP increases rapidly
18. Which of the following combinations is most likely to produce chargedetonation
a) High MP high rpm and low octane fuelb) High MP high rpm and high octane fuelc) Lean mixture high MP and low octane fueld) Rich mixture high MP and high octane fuel
19. In flight accumulation of ice in an aircrafts induction system will
a) Increase MP and decrease IASb) Decrease both MP and IASc) Not effect MP but will decrease IASd) Decrease MP but will not effect IAS
20. What is the primary purpose of a hydraulic accumulator?
a) Relieve excess pressure from the hydraulic system
b) Accumulate hydraulic fluid downstream of the reservoirc) Alleviate hydraulic pressure surgesd) Filter contaminants from the hydraulic fluid
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
13/36
Instructor Copy Page 6 of 28
21. In most throttle-operated wastegate applications:
a) Throttle movement first closes the wastegate, then opens the butterflyvalve
b) Throttle movement first opens the butterfly valve, then closes the
wastegatec) Wastegate position is controlled automaticallyd) Wastegate position cannot be altered in flight. It must be preset on the
ground.
22. Ice forms in the carburettor of an engine fitted with a CS prop during thecruise. What effect does carburettor heat have on MP and rpm
a) Both MP and rpm decrease slightly then increaseb) Both MP and rpm decrease slightly then remain steady
c) MP decreases slightly and then increases, whilst rpm remains steady
d) MP increases and then remains steady whilst rpm remains steady
23. You are in cruising flight in an aircraft equipped with a non-super chargedengine and a CSU. The propeller pitch control is set to 2000 rpm, whichis fully coarse. If the throttle is advanced to increase the MP, then rpmwill
a) Decreaseb) Increasec) Remain constantd) Decrease then increase
24. An exhaust system leak downstream of the turbocharger wastegate will
a) Decrease power output if the wastegate is openb) Cause an overly lean mixturec) Not alter engine power output
d) Cause an overly rich mixture
25. During a full power run up of a non-supercharged engine on the ground,the MP gauge should register a MP value that is
a) Slightly greater than ambient pressureb) Slightly below ambient pressurec) Significantly greater than ambient pressured) Significantly below ambient pressure
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
14/36
Instructor Copy Page 7 of 28
26. What should you test prior to flight in respect to a fire protection system?
(a) System wiring(b) Annunciators and warnings(c) Thermocouples
(d) Firewall Protection
27. As an unsupercharged aircraft with a constant speed propeller climbs:
a) volumetric efficiency will increase if the throttle setting is kept constant.b) volumetric efficiency will increase if the throttle is advanced.c) volumetric efficiency will decrease if the throttle setting is kept constant.
d) volumetric efficiency will decrease if the throttle is advanced.
28. The pitch of a propeller is the angle between:
a) the chord and the direction of rotation.b) the chord and direction of the relative airflow.c) the direction of the relative airflow.d) the chord angle and the angle of attack of the blade.
29. An aircraft fitted with a fixed pitch propeller is put into a dive withoutaltering the throttle:
a) the engine RPM, propeller RPM and helix angle all increase.b) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase but helix angle decreases.c) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as the angle of advance and
propeller torque decrease.d) the engine RPM and propeller RPM increase as angle of advance and
propeller torque increase.
30. Blade angle of a constant speed propeller is the angle between the:
a) mean chord of a blade and the plane of rotation and varies automaticallywith a change in airspeed.b) mean chord of a blade and the relative airflow and varies automatically
with a change in airspeed.c) relative airflow and the plane of rotation and varies automatically with a
change of airspeed.d) mean chord of the blade and plane of rotation and remains constant with
a change of airspeed.
END OF PART A - AIRCRAFT GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
PART
B AERODYNAMICS BEGINS
ON
NEXT
PAGE
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
15/36
Instructor Copy Page 8 of 28
PART B AERODYNAMICS
Part C of this examination consists of 30 questions. Each question is worth1 mark, giving a total possible score of 30 marks for Part B.
Question 1
During flight if a change is made in pitch attitude, an aeroplane will rotateabout its:
a) Centre of Pressureb) Longitudinal Axisc) Lateral Axisd) Chordline
Question 2
The net effect of all forces acting on an aerofoil can be attributed to a singleimaginary force called:
a) liftb) the total reactionc) induced dragd) total drag
Question 3
The force of drag during flight always acts parallel to the:
a) thrust lineb) wing chordc) longitudinal axisd) relative airflow
Question 4
The term 'coefficient' when applied to lift and drag for a particular aerofoil ismost closely related to:
a) angle of attackb) camberc) speedd) wing area
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
16/36
Instructor Copy Page 9 of 28
Question 5
The aspect ratio is calculated by the expression:
a) the span divided by the chord
b) the chord divided by the wing areac) the chord squared divided by the wing aread) the span squared divided by the chord
Question 6
Pick the statement winch best describes the term 'lift'.
a) The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to thelongitudinal axis
b) The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to the chordc) The force produced by an aerofoil at right angles to the relative
airflowd) The force produced by an aerofoil which is equal and opposite
to weight
Question 7
For a piston engine aircraft, the maximum rate of climb possible at a givengross weight is governed by-.
a) the maximum lift possibleb) the minimum drag possiblec) excess thrustd) excess power
Question 8
The recommended IAS to achieve the maximum angle of climb at sea level is
74 kts for a particular aircraft. Which of the following would reduce the angleof climb?
a) a decrease in IASb) a headwindc) a reduction in density heightd) a reduction in take-off weight
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
17/36
Instructor Copy Page 10 of 28
Question 9
The effect of fitting an aeroplane with a more powerful engine would be mostnoticeable during:
a) a maximum rate of climbb) a maximum angle of climbc) maximum speed during level flightd) minimum speed during level flight
Question 10
The speed at which produces the maximum lift/drag ratio angle of attack inlevel flight is also the speed which requires:
a) maximum thrustb) minimum thrustc) maximum powerd) minimum power
Question 11
An aircraft takes off in calm conditions climbs through a wind shear where astrong tail wind is encounted. What initial effects will this have on IAS andflight path ?
a) IAS will decrease and the flight path will be steeperb) IAS will increase and the flight path will be steeperc) IAS will decrease and the flight path will be shallowerd) IAS will increase and the flight path will be shallower
Question 12
If bank is increased and power kept constant during a level turn, what will be
the effect on turn performance ?
a) rate and radius of turn will increaseb) rate of turn will increase and radius of turn will decreasec) rate of turn will decrease and radius of turn will increased) radius and rate of turn will decrease
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
18/36
Instructor Copy Page 11 of 28
Question 13
As the pilot raises the tail of a tailwheel aircraft during take off run :
a) the tendency to swing to the left will increase
b) there will be a tendency to swing to the rightc) there will be a tendency to overpitchd) there will be no noticeable change in the tendency to swing
Question 14
Wake turbulence will increase with:
a) an increase in aspect ratiob) an increase in weight
c) a increase ion IASd) a decrease in AOA
Question 15
An aircraft flying with a constant heading shows the balance ball deflected tothe left. The ground adjustable trim tab:
a) on the left aileron should be bent upb) on the right aileron should be bent upc) on the rudder should be bent leftd) on the rudder should be bent right
Question 16
For an aircraft to remain in the air for the greatest possible time per litre of fuelconsumed, it must be flown at a speed which requires:
a) the best lift/drag ratio
b) the smallest AOAc) the least amount of powerd) the least amount of drag
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
19/36
Instructor Copy Page 12 of 28
Question 17
The application of high power with low IAS is accompanied by:
a) slipstream effect producing a roll
b) engine torque producing a rollc) gyroscopic effect producing a rolld) engine torque producing a yaw
Question 18
The term washoutrefers to wing design in such a way that:
a) its riggers angle at the tip is less than at the rootb) one wing is set at a different angle of incidence to the other
c) the riggers angle is negatived) the angle of incidence increases outboard from the root
Question 19
Floating during landing can be caused by ground effect when within howmany wing spans of the ground ?
a) 3b) 1.5c) 2d) 1
Question 20
The primary function of rudder, while entering a turn from straight and levelflight is to:
a) overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the higher wing
b) overcome the yaw caused by the lowered aileron on the lower wingc) make the aeroplane turnd) overcome he yaw caused by the raised aileron on the higher wing
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
20/36
Instructor Copy Page 13 of 28
Question 21
To achieve maximum range when a wind exists, the correct speed to use is:
(a) the best lift/drag ratio speed in all conditions
(b) higher than best lift/drag ratio speed in a tailwind and slower in aheadwind
(c) higher than best Iift/drag ratio speed in a headwind and slower ina tailwind
(d) lower than best lift/drag ratio speed in both a headwind and atailwind
Question 22
The value of the minimum drag coefficient of a particular aerofoil is a factor in
determining:
(a) the maximum range of the aeroplane(b) the minimum speed in level flight(c) the stalling speed of the aeroplane(d) the maximum speed in level flight
Question 23
An effect of lowering flap during a descent is to:
(a) reduce the induced drag(b) decrease the gliding angle(c) increase the lift/drag ratio(d) increase lift and drag
Question 24
The initial effect of propeller torque on a single engine aeroplane when power
is increased is:
(a) the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the left(b) the aeroplane will tend to yaw to the right(c) the aeroplane will tend to roll to the left(d) the aeroplane will tend to roll to the right
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
21/36
Instructor Copy Page 14 of 28
Question 25
"P factor" refers to the displacement of the thrust line towards the 'down goingblade' side of the propeller arc. The effect is greatest:
(a) at high angles of attack with low power applied(b) at low angles of attack with high power applied(c) at low angles of attack with low power applied(d) at high angles of attack with high power applied
Question 26
Laminar flow in the boundary layer tends to persist:
(a) across most of the upper surface
(b) across most of the lower surface(c) while ever the aerofoil section is thickening(d) to the separation point
Question 27
For a body to be in a state of equilibrium there must be:
(a) no motion occurring(b) no force acting on the body(c) no change in its motion(d) the minimum amount of drag acting
Question 28
Thrust stream turbulence varies with:
(a) engine power and IAS(b) engine power and distance from the source
(c) distance from the source and IAS(d) distance from the source and angle of attack
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
22/36
Instructor Copy Page 15 of 28
Question 29
What is one advantage of an aeroplane said to be inherently stable?
(a) The aeroplane will not spin
(b) The aeroplane will require less effort to control(c) The aeroplane will return to its original condition after being
disturbed(d) The aeroplane will be difficult to stall
Question 30
If more power is required to maintain altitude when indicated airspeed isreduced, the aeroplane must be flying below:
(a) Vno (maximum structural cruising speed)(b) the speed for maximum endurance(c) the speed for best angle of climb(d) the speed for minimum drag
END OF PART B AERODYNAMICS
PART C METEOROLOGY BEGINS ON NEXT PAGE
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
23/36
Instructor Copy Page 16 of 28
PART C METEOROLOGY
Part C of this examination consists of 44 questions. Each question is worth1 mark, giving a total possible score of 44 marks for Part C.
Q1) What is the extent of coverage of a domestic TAF?
A) it is valid for an area of 5 nm from the centre of the
airfield
B) it is valid for an area of 5 km from the centre of the airfield
C) it is valid for an area of 10 km from the centre of the airfield
D) it is valid from an area of 10 km from the centre of the
airfield
Q2) The most likely situation for the occurrence of radiation fog is:
A) a depression with no cloud cover
B) a col with high level cloud cover
C) a trough with no cloud cover
D) an anticyclone with no cloud cover
Q3) Tropical thunderstorm occurring in the hours just before dawn are
most likely to form:
A) a rapid decrease of air pressure with altitude
B) an area of light winds
C) an area of strong winds
D) a rapid change of surface pressure at a particular
location
Q4) A moist airflow over a mountain range in stable atmospheric
conditions is likely to result in:
A) a lower cloud base on the windward slope
B) a lower cloud base on the leeward slope
C) more cloud on the lee slope than on the windward slope
D) lower temperature on the leeward slope
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
24/36
Instructor Copy Page 17 of 28
Q5) Which of the following is most favourable for the formation of a
dust storms near Adelaide?
A) an approaching cold front with a high pressure area to the
East
B) a high pressure area over South Australia with a cold front
to the East
C) a "col" near Adelaide
D) a ridge line passing through Adelaide
Q6) Visibility, as reported in a METAR in the Australian region, refers to:
A) visibility along the runway
B) visibility along the landing approach path
C) the greatest visibility over half or more of the horizonD) the minimum visibility over half or more of the horizon
E) the average visibility over the whole horizon.
Q7) An approaching idealised (fast moving) cold front may generally
be recognised by the accompanying:
A) overcast Nimbostratus cloud and heavy rain
B) extensive low Stratiform cloud and widespread drizzle
C) extensive middle level Stratiform cloud and steady rainD) broken Cumuliform cloud and rain showers
E) widespread fog
TAF refers to questions 8 to 10:
TAF AMD YSSY 142215Z 0024 30015KT 9999 SCT100
FM 08 18018KT 9999 SH FEW010 SCT020
FM 14 20012KT 9999 SCT030
INTER 0410 3000 TS SCT050CBT 22 24 24 21 Q 1012 1010 1008 1008
Q8) For what period is the forecast valid?
A) for 24 hrs commencing at midnight local time
B) for 24 hrs commencing at midnight UTC
C) for 24 hrs commencing at midnight on the 24th
D) for 12 hrs commencing at midnight on the 24th
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
25/36
Instructor Copy Page 18 of 28
Q9) During what period does the forecast indicate the possibility of
cloud with a 1000 ft base at YSSY?
A) between 0800 and 1000 UTC
B) between 0800 and 1400 UTC
C) between 0800 and 1600 UTC
D) between 0800 and 2400 UTC
Q10) Which statement is correct concerning the forecast wind
velocity?
A) at 0500 UTC it will be 300/15 with the chance of short term
variations
if thunderstorms are present.
B) at 0800 UTC there will be a rapid wind change associatedwith the arrival of thunderstorms.
C) at 1100 UTC it will be 190/15
D) at 1200 UTC it will be 200/12
Q11) Strong horizontal wind shear would most likely be encountered:
A) at a strong surface inversion boundary
B) within a decaying thunderstorm cell
C) near a low pressure systemD) in cirrus cloud
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
26/36
Instructor Copy Page 19 of 28
AREA 23 AREA FORECAST 142300 TO 151100
Overview:
WIND:
2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500
28020 27030 27030 26050 MS04 26055 MS12 26070
MS21CLOUD:
SCT CU 4000FT/8000FT
WEATHER:
ISOL RA SH IN SE TILL 02Z
VISIBILITY:
40KM DTRT 6KM RA SH
FREEZING LEVEL:
6000FT
ICE: MOD RIME INC ABV FZL
TURBULENCE:MOD ALL LEVELS
Questions 12 to 15 refer to Area Forecast above:
Q12) You are flying in Area 23 and you find there is little cloud. Is this
consistent with the forecast?
A) yes, because the forecast is for a 50% probability of
scattered cloud
B) yes, because the forecast is for scattered cloud and youare obviously in the 4/8 of the sky with no cloud
C) yes, because weather forecasters always deliberately
mislead the public
D) no, because there is cloud forecast, but none is seen
Q13) Cloud heights in ARFORS are given as:
A) height above 1013 hpa datum
B) height above mean sea levelC) height above the highest point in the area
D) height above ground level
Q14) Would VFR flight be permissible in AREA 23 at A065?
A) no
B) yes
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
27/36
Instructor Copy Page 20 of 28
Q15) What is the forecast Outside Ait Temperature (OAT) at 10000ft in
Area 23?
A) positive four degrees C
B) negative four degrees C
C) ISA minus four degrees C
Q16) An area QNH is routinely issued by the Meteorology Office
every?
A) 3 hours
B) 1 hour
C) 4 hours
D) 2 hours
Q17) Turbulence within a thunderstorm cell is greatest?
A) in the growing stage because of the largest size and
concentration of water droplets
B) in the growing stage because of the strong updrafts
C) in the mature stage because of the large size and
concentration of water droplets
D) in the mature stage because of the strong updrafts and
downdrafts
Q18) From the list of weather situations given below, select that one
which would be favourable for the formation of fog
A) movement of warm moist air over a cool surface
B) frontal uplift near a depression
C) extremely low dew points in a deep southerly stream
D) an anticyclonic circulation of cold air over a warm land
surface
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
28/36
Instructor Copy Page 21 of 28
Q19) With reference to the TAF below, which of the following conditions
are forecast to occur at time 0800 UTC?
TAF YSSY 270648Z 0024 16012KT 9999 SH BKN025
PROB40 INTER 0006 5000 TS SCT040CB
T 22 24 26 21 Q 1020 1021 1022 1025
A) the visibility is 9999 m, with 2/8 cloud at 800 ft
B) probability of thunderstorms with 4/8 CB at 4000 ft
C) showers from cloud with a base of 2500 ft
D) visibility 10 km or greater reducing to 5000 m, for periods up
to 30 minutes.
Q20) Which statement correctly describes the presentation of
information in a METAR?
A) height of the cloud base is expressed as a three figure
group
B) height of Cumulus cloud is expressed as six figure group
giving the height of both base and tops
C) wind speed is expressed as a five figure group
D) the period of validity is expressed as a four figure group.
Q21) A shear thunderstorm is most likely to form
A) in the tropics
B) at a frontal boundary
C) at an inversion
D) at high latitude
Q22) The cloud type most commonly associated with an approaching
idealised (fast moving) cold front is
A) broken cumulus
B) nimbostratus
C) stratus
D) altostratus
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
29/36
Instructor Copy Page 22 of 28
Q23) You are flying in thick altostratus cloud with an OAT of -3C. The
type of ice (if any) you would be most likely to encounter is
A) rime
B) a mixture of rime and clear
C) clear
D) nil
Q24) Cloud will form when
A) the temperature falls below 0 degrees C
B) an air mass is heated to above its dew point
C) air is cooled below its dew point
D) evaporation occurs
Q25) A feature of the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is
A) strong updraughts
B) severe vertical windshear
C) downdraughts
D) formation of the anvil
Q26) An increase in the water vapour content of a sample of air willresult in
A) a reduction in both air density and relative humidity
B) an increase in air density and relative humidity
C) a reduction in air density and an increase in relative
humidity
D) an increase in air density and a reduction in relative
humidity
Q27) A subsidence inversion is produced by:
A) terrestrial radiation
B) insolation
C) adiabatic compression
D) expansion
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
30/36
Instructor Copy Page 23 of 28
Q28) The most likely situation for the occurrence of thunderstorms is
A) a depression with abundant moisture
B) a col with high level cloud
C) a trough with no cloud cover
D) an anticyclone with no cloud cover
Q29) As part of the general circulation, the winds over South Australia
and the southern part of western Australia are known as the:
A) south-east trade winds
B) north-east trade winds
C) mid-latitude easterlies
D) mid-latitude westerlies
Q30) A tropical cyclone moving south off the Queensland coast is
identified on a synoptic chart. The central pressure of the
cyclone is 958 HPA. Where would the strongest winds be
located?
A) in the south-east quadrant within 100 nm of the eye
B) in the south-west quadrant within the 100 nm of the eye
C) on the whole eastern side of the cyclone up to 300 nmfrom the eye
D) in the north-east quadrant within 100 nm of the eye
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
31/36
Instructor Copy Page 24 of 28
Q31) A cold front has passed through Bass Strait. Winds are from the
south. Which answer best describes the type of cloud (if any)
you would expect to follow behind the front and for what reason?
A)Expect clear skies behind the front as the air is cold and
therefore dry, preventing cloud development.
B) Expect low stratified cloud and associated drizzle and possibly
fog as evening approaches.
C)Expect cumuliform cloud and possibly cold stream
thunderstorms, due to the cold air being warmed through
contact with the warmer sea surface.
D)Expect high cirrus type cloud only as the air is too dry behind
the cold front for any low cloud to form.
E) Expect steam fog, due to the cooling of the already cold
moist air to its dew point, through conduction with the
relatively cold sea surface temperature.
Q32) With regard to visibility in a METAR, which statement is most
correct?
A)Visibility at night is less than visibility by day.
B) Visibility at night is more than visibility by day, due largely to
the lack of convective dust in the air.
C)Visibility at night remains the same as the day value, provided
atmospheric transparency has not changed.
Q33) A cold front has passed though Bass Straight. What type of
thunderstorms could you expect behind this front, if any?
A) No thunderstorms as atmosphere is cold and therefore stable.
B) Equatorial nocturnal types
C)Airmass type
D) Orographic type
E) Cold stream type
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
32/36
Instructor Copy Page 25 of 28
Q34) Which of the following weather phenomena could be associated
with a large cumulus cloud:
A) a shower of hail
B) virga
C) drizzle
D) intermittent rain
Q35) A cloud is described, in part, as: a generally grey cloud layer
with fairly uniform base, which may give drizzle. The cloud to
which this description applies is:
A) altostratus
B) nimbostratus
C) stratocumulusD) stratus
Q36) The primary difference between rime ice and clear is determined
by:
A) the size of the supercooled water droplets.
B) the temperature of the supercooled water droplets
C) the height of the supercooled water droplets
D) the size and temperature of the supercooled waterdroplets.
Q37) Precipitation lasting for periods of up to 50 minutes in any 1 hour
period usually with sky remaining overcast is classified as:
A) Continuous precipitation.
B) rain or snow showers.
C) intermittent precipitation
D) cyclonic rainfall
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
33/36
Instructor Copy Page 26 of 28
Refer to the following TAF for Mildura for Questions 38 - 40
YMIA TAF AMD YMIA 131916Z 2008 33008KT 8000 RAIN BKN010 BKN120
FM23 27010KT 8000 LIGHT DRIZZLE BKN010 BKN030 FM04 27012KT
9999 FEW015 BKN030 INTER 2205 5000 THUNDERSTORMS WITH
RAIN BKN008 FEW030CB T 18 18 20 24 Q 1012 1014 1014
1013
Q38) What are the operational requirements providing if any, required
for a VFR aircraft planned arrival time at 0415UTC.
A) No alternate required
B) alternate required or 15 minutes holding
C) alternate required or 30 minutes holding
D) alternate required
E) alternate or 60 minutes holding
Q39) What is the visibility forecast for an arrival at Mildura time
2100UTC.
A) 8km visibility
B) 8km visibility reducing in rain
C) 5km visibility reducing in thunderstormsD) 8km visibility reducing to 5km in thunderstorms
Q40) What are the operational requirements providing if any, require
for a VFR aircraft planned arrival at 0520UTC.
A)No alternate required
B) alternate required or 15 minutes holding fuel
C)alternate required or 30 minutes holding fuel
D)alternate requiredE) alternate or 60 minutes holding fuel
F) 10 minutes holding fuel
G)holding fuel required
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
34/36
Instructor Copy Page 27 of 28
Refer to the area forecast at the end of this Part B:
Q41) You plan to depart Moorabbin at time 0100UTC for a flight to
Bankstown via Albury. What cloud would you expect enroute
near the ranges?
A) ISOL CB 3000/3500
B) BKN ST 0500/2500
C) BKN ST 1000/3000
D) BKN CU/SC 3000/8000
Q42) What would be the freezing level during the time of your
departure:
A) 7000 feetB) 11,500 feet
C) 10,000 feet
D) 20,000 feet
Q43) In the Area forecasts how is cloud and wind measured?
A) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (MAGNETIC)
B) CLOUD (AGL), WIND (TRUE)
C) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (TRUE)D) CLOUD (AMSL), WIND (MAGNETIC)
Q44) What is the lowest cloud forecasted west of the tough?
A) BKN CU/SC 3000/8000.
B) BKN ST 1000/3000
C) BKN CUSC 2500/8000
D) SCT ST 0500/2500
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
35/36
-
8/3/2019 2006 CPL EXAM 1
36/36
AREA FORECAST
AREA30 AREA QNH 22/01AREA 30/32 N OF YLAO/MNG/YMCO 1012REST 1009
AREA30 AMEND AREA FORECAST 132300 TO 141100 AREAS 30/32AMD OVERVIEW:TROUGH NEAR RENMARK/CAMUS 23Z, BALRANALD/FLINDERSISLAND 05Z AND COROWA/ORBOST 11Z. RA/DZ AND FG AREASPARTICULARLY ON AND N OF RANGESWITH EXTENSIVE LOW CLOUD NEAR AND E OF TROUGH. ISOL TSRANEAR TROUGH.DRIZZLE PATCHES / ISOLATED SHOWERS W OF TROUGH. SMOKEPATCHES IN E.FOG PATCHES OVER SEA E OF 146E AND GIPPSLAND TILL 24Z.
SUBDIVISIONS:A: E OF TROUGHB: W OF TROUGH
WIND:2000 5000 7000 10000 14000 18500
A: 340/25 320/30 320/25 320/25 PS01 320/30 MS04 300/40 MS14B: 270/15 270/20 280/25 290/30 ZERO 300/35 MS06 300/40 MS16REMARK:WIND ABOVE 10000FT 10/15KNOTS STRONGER IN SW AFTER 05ZCLOUD:A: ISOL CB 3000/35000 NEAR TROUGH. BKN ST 0500/2500 ON AND N OF
DIVIDING RANGE, SCT TO SOUTH BUT BKN WITH RAIN/TSRA NEAR TROUGHAND OVER SEA E OF 146E. BKN CUSC 2500/8000 ISOL TOPS 12000.BKN ACAS ABOVE 10000.
B: BKN ST 1000/3000 NEAR TROUGH AND IN SHRA/DZ, BUT TENDING SCTFROM W. AREAS BKN CU/SC 3000/8000. SCT ACAS ABOVE 12000CLEARING E.
WEATHER:TSRA, FG, DZ, RA, SHRA, FU
VISIBILITY:500M FG, 3000M TSRA/DZ, 6KM FU/RA/SHRA
FREEZING LEVEL:11500 BUT 10000 W OF TROUGH
ICING:MOD ACAS/CU TOPS
TURBULENCE:MOD AC/CU. ISOL MOD BLW 7000 LEE RANGES.
AMD CRITICAL LOCATIONS: [HEIGHTS ABOVE MSL]KILMORE GAP: 0500 FG RA BKN ST 1200 BKN ACAS 10000 [CLOUD ON GROUND]
FM05 6000 SHRA BKN ST 1400 BKN CUSC 2500INTER 2302 4000 TSRA FEW030CB
END OF PART C METEOROLOGY
END OF EXAM