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ELEMENTS, MMOORRPPHHOOLLOO

1. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field exist in a region in the same direction. An electron, projected with velocity pointed in the same direction. The electron will a) turn to its right b) turn to its left c) keep moving in the same direction but its speed will increase d) keep moving in the same directiwill decrease

2. An electron is moving in a circle of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Suddenly the field is reduced to B/2. The radius of the circle now becomesa) r/2 b) r/4

3. A potential difference of 600 V is applplates of a parallel place capacitor. The separation between the plates is 3 mm. A magnetic field also exists between the plates. An electron projected parallel to the

plates as shown with a speed of 2 undeflected between the plates. The magnitude and direction of the magnetic field isa) 0.2 T, into the paper b) 0.2 T, out of the paperc) 0.1 T, into the paper d) 0.1 T, out of the paper

4. A horizontal wire of length 10 cm and mass 0.3 g carries a current of 5A. The magnitude of the magnetic field which can support the weight of the wire is (g = 10 m/s2) a) 3 × 10-3 T c) 3 × 10-4 T

5. A circular coil of diameter 10 cm has 10 turns and carries a current of 5 A. It is placed in a uniform field of 0.5 T with its plane parallel to the field. The torque on the coil, in N m, is a) 6.25 × π × 10-2 c) 6.25 × π × 10-4

6. An electric current is flowing in a long straight wire. The magnetic field due to this current at a distance of 5 cm from the wire is 10 gauss. The magnetic field at a distance of 10 cm from the wire isa) 2.5 gauss c) 20 gauss

2288..0033..1199

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AANNAATTOOMMYY OOFF FFLLOOWWEERRIINNGG PPLL

A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field

region in the same direction. An electron, projected with velocity pointed in the same direction.

c) keep moving in the same direction but its speed

d) keep moving in the same direction but its speed

An electron is moving in a circle of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Suddenly the field is reduced to B/2. The radius of the circle now becomes

c) 2r d) 4r A potential difference of 600 V is applied across the plates of a parallel place capacitor. The separation between the plates is 3 mm. A magnetic field also exists between the plates. An electron projected

plates as shown with a speed of 2 × 106 m/s, moves undeflected between the plates. The magnitude and direction of the magnetic field is a) 0.2 T, into the paper b) 0.2 T, out of the paper

paper d) 0.1 T, out of the paper A horizontal wire of length 10 cm and mass 0.3 g carries a current of 5A. The magnitude of the magnetic field which can support the weight of the

b) 6 × 10-3 T d) 6 × 10-4 T

A circular coil of diameter 10 cm has 10 turns and carries a current of 5 A. It is placed in a uniform field of 0.5 T with its plane parallel to the field. The torque

b) 6.25 × π × 10-3 d) zero

An electric current is flowing in a long straight wire. The magnetic field due to this current at a distance of 5 cm from the wire is 10 gauss. The magnetic field at a distance of 10 cm from the wire is

b) 5 gauss d) 40 gauss

7. A long straight conductor, carrying a current I, is bent into the shape shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is r. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

a) 2r

µ

b) 2r

µ

c) 2r

µ

d) 2r

µ

8. A rectangular loop carrying a current Inear a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to one of tthe loop. If a steady current Iwire as shown in the figure, the loop will

a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wireb) move away from the wirec) move towards the wired) remain

9. A square coil of side a carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is

a) a

µ

c) µ

A

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CONCEPTS IN CHEMISTRY, STATS OF MATTER, HYDROGEN, S BLOCK

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A long straight conductor, carrying a current I, is bent into the shape shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is r. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

0I 1

12r

µ+

π

into the paper

0I 1

12r

µ−

π

out of the paper

0I 1

12r

µ−

π

into the paper

0I 1

12r

µ+

π

out of the paper

A rectangular loop carrying a current I1 is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I2 is established in the wire as shown in the figure, the loop will

a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire b) move away from the wire c) move towards the wire d) remain stationary A square coil of side a carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is

0I

a

µ

π b) 0

2 I

a

µ

π

0I

2a

µ

π d) 0

2 2 I

a

µ

π

Time : 3 Hours

CONCEPTS IN CHEMISTRY, STATS OF MATTER, HYDROGEN, S BLOCK

NN,,

A long straight conductor, carrying a current I, is bent into the shape shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is r. The magnetic field at the centre

is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel

he sides of the loop and is in the plane of is established in the

A square coil of side a carries a current I. The

10. Two long straight wires, each carrying a current I, are separated by a distance r. If the currents are in opposite directions, then the strength of the magnetic field at any point midway between the two wires is

a) 0I

r

µ

π b) 0

2 I

r

µ

π

11. In a moving coil galvanometer the current i is related to the deflection θ as a) i ∝ θ

c) i ∝ θ2 12. A proton is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic

field with energy 1 MeV. The energy of an particle which revolves in the same field in an orbit of the same radius is a) 0.5 MeV b) 1 MeV

13. A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross sectional area 2.0 × 10-

1.0A. The magnetic moment of the coil is a) 0.1 A m2 c) 0.4 A m2

14. A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross sectional area 2.0 × 10-4 mA. If the coil is placed in a uniform field of 0.2 T with the normal to the coil making an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque experiby the coil will be a) 0.02 N – m c) 0.04 N – m

15. If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 units be cut into two halves of equal lengths, the magnetic moment of each half will bea) 80 units c) 40 units

16. A magnetized straight wire has a magnetic moment M. If it is bent into a semicircle its magnetic moment will be a) M b) M/π

17. Work done in rotating a bar magnet of moment M through an angle θ from the equilibrium positmagnetic field B is a) MB cos θ c) MB (1−cos θ)

18. A magnet suspended in a horizontal magnetic field makes 30 oscillations per minute. If the strength of the field is doubled, the time period of oscillation of the magnet will be

a) 1/2 s b) 2 s c) 2 s19. At a certain place the horizontal component of earth’s

magnetic field is 3 times the vertical component. The angle of dip at that place isa) 75° b) 60°

20. Lines of constant dip are calleda) isoclinic lines c) isobaric lines

21. Declination is the angle betweena) the geographic and the magnetic meridiansb) the direction of earth’s magnetic fieldhorizontal direction

Two long straight wires, each carrying a current I, are separated by a distance r. If the currents are in opposite directions, then the strength of the magnetic

between the two wires is

c) 0I

2 r

µ

π d) zero

In a moving coil galvanometer the current i is related

b) i ∝ tan θ

d) i ∝ θ A proton is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic field with energy 1 MeV. The energy of an α – particle which revolves in the same field in an orbit

c) 2 MeV d) 4 MeV A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross –

-4 m2 carries a current of 1.0A. The magnetic moment of the coil is

b) 0.2 A m2 d) 0.6 A m2

A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross – m2 carries a current of 1.0

A. If the coil is placed in a uniform field of 0.2 T with the normal to the coil making an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque experienced

b) 0.03 N – m d) 0.05 N – m

If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 units be cut into two halves of equal lengths, the magnetic moment of each half will be

b) 60 units d) 20 units

A magnetized straight wire has a magnetic moment M. If it is bent into a semicircle its magnetic moment

c) M/2π d) 2M/π Work done in rotating a bar magnet of moment M

from the equilibrium position in a

b) MB sin θ d) MB (1−sin θ)

A magnet suspended in a horizontal magnetic field makes 30 oscillations per minute. If the strength of the field is doubled, the time period of oscillation of

s c) 2 s d) 4 s At a certain place the horizontal component of earth’s

times the vertical component. The angle of dip at that place is

c) 45° d) 30° Lines of constant dip are called

b) isogonic lines d) isodynamic lines

Declination is the angle between a) the geographic and the magnetic meridians b) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the

c) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the vertical directiond) none of the above

22. Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic moment M, are placed perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. The dipole moment is

a) 23. When the current through a solenoid increases at a

constant rate, the induced current a) Is constant and is in the direction of the current b) Is constant and is opposite to the direciton of the inducing current c) Increases with time and is in the direction of the inducting current d) Increases with time and opposite to the direction of the inducing current

24. Two differentplane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop then, is a) Clockwise d) In a direction that depends on the ratioradii

25. The flux linked with a circuit is given by φ = tinduced emf (ya) straight line through the origin b) straight line with positive intercept c) Straight line with negative intercept d) Parabola not through the origin

26. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance moves in its plane with a uniform velocity perpendicular to one of its side. A magnetic induction B constant in time and and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The current induced in the loop is

a) B

c) 2

27. A copper rod operpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with constant angular velocity between two ends is a) 1/2. Bc) B

c) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the vertical direction d) none of the above Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic moment M, are placed perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. The dipole moment of the combination

2 M b) 2M c) M/ 2 d) M/2

When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current a) Is constant and is in the direction of the inducing current b) Is constant and is opposite to the direciton of the inducing current c) Increases with time and is in the direction of the inducting current d) Increases with time and opposite to the direction of the inducing current Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop then, is a) Clockwise b) Zero c) Counter clockwise d) In a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop radii The flux linked with a circuit is given by

= t3 + 3t -7. The graph between time ( x-axis) and induced emf (y-axis) will be a) straight line through the origin b) straight line with positive intercept c) Straight line with negative intercept d) Parabola not through the origin A conducting square loop of side L and resistance moves in its plane with a uniform velocity perpendicular to one of its side. A magnetic induction

constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The current induced in the loop is

RvB l clockwise b) R

vB l anticlockwise

RvB2 l anticlockwise d) Zero

A copper rod of length l is rotated about one end perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with constant angular velocity ω. The induced e.m.f between two ends is a) 1/2. Bω l 2 b) 3/2. Bω l 2 c) Bω l 2 d) 2 Bω l 2

c) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the

Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic moment M, are placed perpendicular to each other as shown

of the combination

d) M/2 When the current through a solenoid increases at a

inducing

b) Is constant and is opposite to the direciton of the

c) Increases with time and is in the direction of the

d) Increases with time and opposite to the direction of

loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner

b) Zero c) Counter clockwise of the loop

The flux linked with a circuit is given by axis) and

A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of its side. A magnetic induction

space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The

anticlockwise

is rotated about one end perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with

. The induced e.m.f

28. Twelve wire of equal length each 10 cm are connected in the form of skeleton tube. If the cube is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of a magnetic field of 0.05 T, the emf induced in the arm of cube is

a) 25 × 10-3 V b) 25V c) Zero29. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed

in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil changes as shown in figure. The graph of induced emf in the coil is represented by

30. A magnetic field of 2 × 10to a coil of area 100cm2 with 50 turns. The average e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0.1 V when it is removed from the field in the time 't'. a) 0.1 sec b) 0.01 sec c) 1 sec

31. A conductor of 3 m in length is moving perpendicularly to magnetic field of 10the speed of 102m/s, then the e.m.f. produced across the ends of conductor will be a) 0.03 volt b) 0.3 volt c) 3

32. Current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing. The direction of induced current in the circular loop is

a) anticlockwise b) clockwise c) No current flows d) None of these

33. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 ampere. The energy stored in joules is a) 1 b) 0.1 c) 0.05

34. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross10 cm2 and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is (µ0 = 4 π × 10

Twelve wire of equal length each 10 cm are connected in the form of skeleton tube. If the cube is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of a magnetic field of 0.05 T, the emf induced in the arm

c) Zero d) 2.5 × 10-3 V

A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil changes as shown in figure. The graph of induced emf in the coil

10-2 Tesla acts at right angles

with 50 turns. The average e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0.1 V when it is removed

't'. The value of 't' is b) 0.01 sec c) 1 sec d) 10 sec

A conductor of 3 m in length is moving perpendicularly to magnetic field of 10-3 tesla with

m/s, then the e.m.f. produced across the ends of conductor will be a) 0.03 volt b) 0.3 volt c) 3×10-3 volt d) 3 volt Current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing. The direction of induced current in the

b) clockwise d) None of these

A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 ampere. The

b) 0.1 c) 0.05 d) 0.5 Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area a =

and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual

× 10-7 mA-1)

a) 4.8 π c) 2.4 π35. When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the

capacitor a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.b) the current is in phase with the applied c) the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage.d) power delivered to the capacitor increases from zero.

36. The reactance of a coil, when used in the domestic AC, power supply (220 V, 50 cycle/s) is 50inductance of the coil is nearly a) 2.2 H

37. In an a.c. circuit, V and I are given byV = 100 sin (100t ) Volt & I = 100 sin (100t +Then the power dissipated in the circuit is a) 10

38. The rate of heating of 10 A AC is the same as the rate of heating of DC of

a) 10

39. A constant voltage at different frequencies is applied across a capacitance C as shown in the figure. Which of the following graphs

Correctly depicts the variation of current with frequency

40. An alternating voltage is given by E = Ecos ωgiven by :

a)

c)

41. An LCR series circuit with R = 100a 200capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current by 60current leads the voltage by 60circuit is

a) 2

a) 4.8 π × 10-4 H b) 4.8 π × 10-5 H c) 2.4 π × 10-4 H d) 4.8 π × 104 H When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.c) the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage. d) power delivered to the capacitor increases from zero. The reactance of a coil, when used in the domestic AC, power supply (220 V, 50 cycle/s) is 50Ω. The inductance of the coil is nearly a) 2.2 H b) 0.22 H c) 1.6 H d) 0.16 H In an a.c. circuit, V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100t ) Volt & I = 100 sin (100t +π/3) mA. Then the power dissipated in the circuit is a) 104W b) 10W c) 2500 W d) 5W The rate of heating of 10 A AC is the same as the rate of heating of DC of

a) 10√2 A b) 10 A c) 10

A2

d) 5A

A constant voltage at different frequencies is applied across a capacitance C as shown in the figure. Which of the following graphs

Correctly depicts the variation of current with frequency

An alternating voltage is given by E = E1 sin ωt + E

ωt. Then the root mean square value of voltage is given by :

22

21

EE + b) 21EE +

2

EE21 d)

2

EE 22

21

+

An LCR series circuit with R = 100Ω is connected to a 200V, 50Hz a. c. source. When only the capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current by 60o. When only the inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage by 60o. The current in the circuit is

A3

2 b) A

2

3 c) 1 A d) 2A

When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the

a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V. voltage.

c) the charge on the plates is in phase with the

d) power delivered to the capacitor increases from

The reactance of a coil, when used in the domestic . The

d) 0.16 H

The rate of heating of 10 A AC is the same as the rate

A constant voltage at different frequencies is applied across a capacitance C as shown in the figure. Which

Correctly depicts the variation of current with

t + E2 t. Then the root mean square value of voltage is

is connected to When only the

capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current . When only the inductance is removed, the

. The current in the

42. A transformer is an appliance for converting a) High current at low voltage to small current at high voltage b) Large current at low voltage to high current at high voltage c) Small current at high voltage to small current at low voltage d) Large current at high voltage to small current at low voltage

43. Power delivered by the source of the circuit becomes maximum, when

a) ωL = ωC b) ωL = 1Cω

c) ωL = ( )21Cω d) ωL = Cω

44. An emf E = 4 cos 1000 t volt is applied to a L-R circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4Ω. The amplitude of current in the circuit is

a) 74 A b) 1 A c) 7

4 A d) 0.8 A

45. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current through the inductor is 0.9A while the current through the condenser is 0.4A. Hence the current drawn from the generator is:

a) I = 1.13 amp b) I = 0.9 amp c) I = 0.5 amp d) I = 0.6 amp

46. 250 mL of xM solution and 500 mL of yM solution of a solute A are mixed and diluted to 2 litre to get a final concentration of 1.6 M. then x and y are respectively a) 2.7 & 3.4 b) 4.9 & 3.9 c) 3.9 & 4.9 d) 3.4 and 2.7

47. Which hydride is an ionic hydride? a) H2S b) TiH1.73 c) NH3 d) NaH

48. When same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium hydroxide solution the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolves is a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 2:1 d) 9:4

49. Reaction of potassium with water is a) exothermic b) endothermic c) hydrolysis d) absorption

50. The decreasing order of solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxides[M(OH)2] is a) Be <Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba b) Ba > Sr > Ca > Mg > Be c) Mg < Be < Ca <Ba < Sr d) Be = Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba

51. Which of the following is called black ash? a) Na2CO3 b) K2CO3 c) Na2CO3 + CaS d) K2CO3 + CaS

52. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is a) gypsum b) seal shells c) dolomite d) a marble statue

53. X mL of Hg2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the

effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is: a) 10 seconds : He b) 20 seconds : O2 c) 25 seconds : CO d) 55 seconds : CO2

54. Amongst the following statements, the correct one is: a) The gas cannot be compressed below the critical temperature b) Below critical temperature, thermal motion of the molecules is slow enough for the intermolecular forces to come into play leading to condensation of the gas. c) At critical temperature liquid and gaseous phase can be distinguished. d) An ideal gas has a characteristic critical temperature

55. When 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of Cl2(g) , each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to: a) 1 mol of HCl(g) b) 2 mol of HCl(g) c) 0.5 mol of HCl(g) d) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

56. In van der Waal’s equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is

a) (V- b) b) RT c) ( )2+ a

Vp d) (RT)-1

57. Rearrange the following (1 to IV) in the order of increasing masses and choose the correct answer . ( Atomic masses : N = 14, O = 16, Cu = 63) I) 1 molecule of oxygen II) 1 atom of Nitrogen III) 1 × 10 -10 (gm molecular weight of oxygen) IV) 1 × 10 -10 (gm atomic weight of copper) a) II < I < III < IV b) IV < III < II < I c) II < III < I< IV d) III < IV < I < II

58. 14 g of element X combines with 16 g of oxygen. On the basis of this information, which of the following is a correct statement:- a) The element X could have an atomic wt. 7 and its oxide is XO b) The element X could have an atomic weight of 14 and its oxide is X2O c) The element X could have an atomic weight of 7 and its oxide is X2O d) The element X could have an atomic weight of 14 and its oxide is XO2

59. What mass of sodium chloride would be decomposed by 9.8 g sulphuric acid if 12 g of sodium bisulphate and 2.75 g of hydrogen chloride were produced in a reaction? a) 14.75 g b) 3.8 g c) 4. 95 g d) 2.2 g

60. In what ratio the amounts of H2SO4 and H3PO4 react with the same amount of NaOH to form normal salts? a) 1: 1 b) 3:2 c) 2: 3 d) 1: 3

61. What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8 % NaCl solution? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na= 23, Cl = 35.5) a) 28 g b) 3.5 g c) 7 g d) 14 g

62. The reaction of calcium with water is represented by the equation Ca + 2 H2O → Ca(OH)2 + HWhat volume of H2 at STP would be liberated when 8 gm of calcium completely reacts with water?a) 0.2 cm3 b) 0.4 cm3 c) 2240 cm

63. A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of sodium hydroxide in distilled water molarity of NaOH in the solution isa) 0.2450 M b) 0.6125 Mc) 0.9800 M d) 1.6326 M

64. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is a) 20 ml b) 40 ml

65. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following : a) 44 g CO2 b) 48 g O3

66. An ideal gas can’t be liquefied becausea) its critical temperature is always above 0b) Its molecules are relatively smaller in sizec) it solidifies before becoming a liquidd) forces between its molecules are negligible

67. The ratio of Boyle’s temperature and critemperature for a gas is:

a) 8

27 b)

27

8

68. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas?a) it cannot be converted into a liquidb) there is no interaction between the moleculesc) All molecules of the gas move with same speedd) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the amount of the gas

69. Consider three one – litre flasks labelled A, Band C filled with gases NO NOeach at 1 atm and 273 K. In which flask do the molecules have the highest average kinetic energy?a) Flask C c) Flask A

70. The inversion temperature (given van der Waal’s constants a and b are atm L2 mol-2 and 0.027 L mola) 440 b) 220

71. A container contains 1 mole of a gas at 1 atm pressure and 27oC, while its volume 24.6 litres. If its pressure is 10 atm and temperature 327volume is a) 2.56 litres b) 3.15 litresc) 4.92 litres d) 5.44 litres

72. I,II, and III are three isotherms, respectively, at Tand T3, Temperature will be in order

The reaction of calcium with water is represented by

+ H2 at STP would be liberated when

8 gm of calcium completely reacts with water? c) 2240 cm3 d) 4480 cm3

A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of sodium hydroxide in distilled water to give 1 L solution. the molarity of NaOH in the solution is

b) 0.6125 M d) 1.6326 M

An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is he volume of 0.1 N NaOH

required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this

c) 10ml d) 4 ml Which has the maximum number of molecules

c) 8 g H2 d) 64 g SO2 gas can’t be liquefied because

a) its critical temperature is always above 0oC b) Its molecules are relatively smaller in size c) it solidifies before becoming a liquid d) forces between its molecules are negligible The ratio of Boyle’s temperature and critical

c) 1

2 d)

2

1

Which is not true in case of an ideal gas? a) it cannot be converted into a liquid

there is no interaction between the molecules c) All molecules of the gas move with same speed d) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the

litre flasks labelled A, Band C filled with gases NO NO2, and N2O, respectively, each at 1 atm and 273 K. In which flask do the molecules have the highest average kinetic energy?

b) All are the same d) None

The inversion temperature Ti(K) of hydrogen is (given van der Waal’s constants a and b are 0.244

and 0.027 L mol-1 respectively ) c) 110 d) 330

A container contains 1 mole of a gas at 1 atm C, while its volume 24.6 litres. If its

pressure is 10 atm and temperature 327oC, then new

b) 3.15 litres d) 5.44 litres

I,II, and III are three isotherms, respectively, at T1, T2 , Temperature will be in order

a) T1

c) T1

73. The root mean square velocity of a gaswhen the temperature is:a) increased four timesb) increased two timesc) reduced to halfd) reduced to one fourth

74. Plaster of Paris on making paste with little water sets to hard mass due to formation of a) CaSOc) CaSO

75. Philospher’s wool on heating with BaO at 1100produces: a) Ba + ZnClc) BaZnO

76. The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides follows the order a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsClb) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiClc) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCld) KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl

77. Which of the following represents a correct sequence of reducing power of the following elements?a) Li > Cs > Rbc) Cs > Li > Rb

78. In photography, sodium thiosulphate a) softening very dark imagesb) making the latent image visiblec) intensifying faint imagesd) dissolving residual silver bromide

79. Bleaching powder slowly loses its activity when it stands in air. This is due to a) loss of CaClb) formatioc) reaction with COd) reaction with water to evolve O

80. Which of the following compounds transforms baking soda into baking powdera) KClc) NaHCO

81. Which product is formed in the following r

2KOa) Potassium sulphideb) Potassium sulphatec) Sulphur dioxided) Sulphur trioxide

82. The amount of Hsolution , is a) 25.5 gc) 8.0 g

83. Which of thea) Water at 4heavy waterb) It is heavier than water (Hc) It is formed by the combination of heavier isotope of hydrogen with oxygend) None of these

84. The alum used for puria) ferric alumc) potash alum

1 = T2 = T3 b) T1 < T2 < T3 1 > T2 >T3 d) T1 > T2 = T3

The root mean square velocity of a gas is doubled when the temperature is: a) increased four times b) increased two times c) reduced to half d) reduced to one fourth Plaster of Paris on making paste with little water sets to hard mass due to formation of a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4.1/2H2Oc) CaSO4.H2O d) CaSO4.2H2O Philospher’s wool on heating with BaO at 1100produces: a) Ba + ZnCl2 b) BaCdO2 c) BaZnO2 d) BaO2 + Zn The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides follows the order a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl b) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl c) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCl d) KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl Which of the following represents a correct sequence of reducing power of the following elements? a) Li > Cs > Rb b) Rb > Cs > Li c) Cs > Li > Rb d) Li > Rb > Cs In photography, sodium thiosulphate is used for a) softening very dark images b) making the latent image visible c) intensifying faint images d) dissolving residual silver bromide Bleaching powder slowly loses its activity when it stands in air. This is due to a) loss of CaCl2 b) formation of Ca(OH)2 c) reaction with CO2 to evolve chlorine d) reaction with water to evolve O2 Which of the following compounds transforms baking soda into baking powder a) KCl b) KHCO3 c) NaHCO3 d) KHC4H4O6 Which product is formed in the following reaction

2KO2 + S Heat→Product a) Potassium sulphide b) Potassium sulphate c) Sulphur dioxide d) Sulphur trioxide The amount of H2O2 present in 1 litre of 1.5 NHsolution , is a) 25.5 g b) 3.0 g c) 8.0 g d) 2.5 g Which of the following is correct about heavy water?a) Water at 4oC having maximum density is known as heavy water b) It is heavier than water (H2O) c) It is formed by the combination of heavier isotope of hydrogen with oxygen d) None of these The alum used for purifying water is a) ferric alum b) chrome alum c) potash alum d) ammonium alum

is doubled

Plaster of Paris on making paste with little water sets

Philospher’s wool on heating with BaO at 1100oC

The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides

Which of the following represents a correct sequence

Bleaching powder slowly loses its activity when it

Which of the following compounds transforms

eaction

present in 1 litre of 1.5 NH2O2

following is correct about heavy water? C having maximum density is known as

c) It is formed by the combination of heavier isotope

d) ammonium alum

85. Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH, NaH, KH, RbH, CsH, the correct order of increasing ionic character is a) LiH > NaH > CsH > KH > RbH b) LiH< NaH < KH < RbH < CsH c) RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiH d) NaH > CsH > RbH > LiH > KH

86. Which statement is wrong? a) Ordinary hydrogen is an equilibrium mixture of ortho and para hydrogen b) In ortho hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in same direction c) Ortho and para forms do not resemble in their chemical properties d) In para hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in opposite direction

87. Saline hydrides react explosively with water, such fires can be extinguished by a) water b) carbon dioxide c) sand d) None of these

88. In Bosch’s process which gas is utilised for the production of hydrogen gas? a) Producer gas b) Water gas c) Coal gas d) None of these

89. Hydrogen molecules differs from chlorine molecule in the following respect a) Hydrogen molecule is non – polar but chlorine molecule is polar b) Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine molecule is non – polar c) Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds but chlorine molecule does not d) Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in coordination bond formation but chlorine molecule can

90. 7 moles of tetra-atomic non-linear gas ‘A’ at 10 atm and T K are mixed with 6 moles of another gas B at

TK

3and 5 atm in a closed, rigid vessel without

energy transfer with surrounding. If final temperature

of mixture was5T

K6

, then gas B is? (Assuming all

modes of energy are active) a) monoatomic b) diatomic c) triatomic d) tetra atomic

91. Prop roots of Benyan tree are meant for a) Respiration b) Absorption of water from soil c) Retention of water in soil d) Providing support to big tree

92. Haustoria or sucking roots occur in a) Betel b) Orchids c) Cuscuta d) Tinospora

93. Velamen takes part in a) Absorption of moisture from air b) Absorption of water from soil c) Exchange of gases d) Transpiration

94. Stem is modified into cladode in a) Casuarina b) Asparagus c) Opuntia d) Euphorbia

95. New Banana plants develop from a) Rhizome b) Sucker c) Stolon d) Seed

96. Largest bud is of a) Cabbage b) Cauliflower c) Agave d) Onion

97. Succulent stem is found in a) Pisum b) Casuarina c) Oxalis d) Euphorbia

98. Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given below

Column I (Stem

Modifications)

Column II (Found in)

A. Underground stem

1. Euphorbia

B. Stem tendril 2. Opuntia C. Stem thorns 3. Potato D. Flattened

stem 4. Citrus

E. Fleshy cylindrical stem

5. Cucumber

a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 5, E – 4 b) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 5, E – 1 c) A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1, E – 2 d) A – 3, B – 5, C – 4, D – 2, E – 1

99. The leaves of Utricularia plant are modified in a) Hooks b) Tendrils c) Bladders d) Pitchers

100. Name the plant having reticulate venation a) Musa b) Mangifera c) Oryza d) Canna

101. Hypanthodium is a specialized type of a) Thalamus b) Ovary c) Fruit d) Inflorescence

102. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis a) Has unlimited growth b) Bears a solitary flower c) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers d) Terminates in a flower

103. Which of these is an example for zygomorphic flower with imbricate aestivation a) Calotropis b) Mustard c) Canna d) Cassia

104. On the basis of position of the ovary, mustard plants are a) Hypogynous b) Perigynous c) Epigynous d) Zygomorphic

105. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of a) Guava b) Peach / Plum c) Cucumber d) Cotton

106. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in a) Groundnut and pomegranate b) Walnut and tamarind c) French bean and coconut d) Cashew nut and litchi

107. Which of the following is a wheat fruit a) Achene b) Cypsella c) Caryopsis d) Endosperm

108. The hardest part of drupe is a) Mesocarp b) Endocarp c) Pericarp d) Epicarp

109. Flower of Fabaceae is a) Complete, zygomorphic, pentamerous b) Complete, actinomorphic, trimerous c) Incomplete, zygomorphic, trimerous d) Incomplete, actinomorphic, pentameous

110. Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of a) Liliaceae b) Solanaceae c) Fabaceae d) Poaceae

111. ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by a) Linnaeus b) Lamark c) Darwin d) Charaka

112. Biological names are generally in a) Latin b) Greek c) English d) French

113. The category that includes related families is a) Class b) Division c) Order d) Genus

114. Select the mismatched one Common name Order a) Man - Primata b) Housefly - Diptera c) Mango - Anacardiaceae d) Wheat - Poales

115. The system of binomial nomenclature was put forward by a) Linnaeus b) Ernst Mayr c) Bentham d) Hooker

116. Find the odd one out a) Hominidae b) Diptera c) Poaceae d) Muscidae

117. The scientific name of Lion and Leopard respectively are a) Panthiera lio and panthera tigris b) Panthera lio and pantera pardus c) Panthera leo and Panthera pardus d) Panthera lio and panthera tigrum

118. Find the true statements A) Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area B) Manuals contain information on any one taxon C) Monographs contain information on names of species found in an area D) Catalogues help in correct identification a) A & C b) B & C c) A & D d) C & D

119. The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called a) Taxonomy b) Phylogeny c) Ontogeny d) Evolution

120. The plant Triticum aestivum belongs to the class a) Dicotyledonae b) Angiospermae c) Monocotyledonae d) Poales

121. Dog belongs to genus a) Canis b) Felis c) Panthera d) Femiliaris

122. Which is a family a) Dicotyledonae b) Sapindales c) Triticum d) Muscidae

123. ICBN represents a) Indian code for Botanical Nomenclature b) International code for Binomial Nomenclature c) International council for Biological Nomenclature

d) International code for Botanical Nomenclature 124. Choose incorrect match

a) Fruit fly - Musca domestic b) Wheat - Poales c) Mango - Sapindales d) Potato - Solanaceae

125. Choose incorrect statement a) ‘Melongena’ is a species under Genus panthera b) Nigrum and tuberosum are placed under different genus c) Datura comes under family Poaceae d) All are incorrect

126. Which one of the following is a taxonomical aid for providing information for identification of names of species found in an area a) Monograph b) Flora c) Catalogue d) Manuals

127. Which of the following is not a character of protista? a) Protists are prokaryotic b) Some protists have cell walls c) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and heterotrophic d) Body organisation is cellular

128. Which of the following is an example of Ascomycetes a) Bread mould b) Yeast c) Smut d) Mushroom

129. Pellicle is a characteristic feature of a) Amoeboid protozoans b) Euglenoids c) Chrysophytes d) Dinoflagellates

130. In five kingdom system of Whittaker, how many kingdoms contain eukaryotes? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

131. Red tide is caused by a) Gonyaulax b) Diatoms c) Desmids d) Amoeba

132. Which of the following categories are exclusively heterotrophic a) Protists b) Fungi c) Plantae d) Monera

133. Which among the following is a filamentous blue green algae a) Rhodospirillum b) Azotobacter c) Nostoc d) Spirogyra

134. Choose the correct one. a) Dinoflagellates have three flagella b) Some members of protista have cilia & flagella c) Rhizopus comes under ascomycetes d) All of these

135. Tall fibres, sheath, collar and head are found in a) Tobacco mosaic virus b) Bacteriophage c) OB virus d) All of these

136. Match the following A) Agaricus - i) Bread mould B) Ustilago - ii) Mushroom C) Rhizopus - iii) Sac fungi D) Pencillium - iv) Imperfect fungi E) Alternaria - v) Smut a) A-ii B-v C-i D-iv E-iii b) A-ii B-i C-v D-iii E-iv c) A-ii B-v C-i D-iii E-iv d) A-ii B-i C-iv D-iii E-v

137. The statement which is false is a) The diatoms belongs to Chrysophytes b) The red tide is cause by a species of dinoflagellates c) The organism euglena belongs to Euglenoids d) None of these

138. Which of the following fungi is used to increase the taste of food a) Claviceps b) Morels c) Puccinia d) Ustilago

139. Which of the following does not have Dikaryon phase a) Smut b) Puccinia c) Neurospora d) Rhizopus

140. Karyogamy involves fusion of a) Protoplasm b) Cytoplasm c) Nuclei d) Cell wall

141. Which of the following pair belongs to Ascomycetes a) Puccinia and ustilago b) Agaricus and Trichoderma c) Claviceps and Neurospora d) Agaricus and Alternaria

142. Which is a sporozoan a) Trypanosoma b) Entamoeba c) Paramoecium d) Plasmodium

143. Find the false statement A) Members of Ascomycetes are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous B) Flagellated protozoans are either free living or parasitic C) Protistan cell body lack a well defined nucleus D) The cyanobacteria are always marine a) C & D b) A & B c) Only B d) A & C

144. Which of the following is a feature of cyanobacteria a) Unicellular b) Colonial or filamentous c) Marine or terrestrial d) All of these

145. Read the following statements and choose right options about Dinoflagellates A) These organism are mostly marine and photosynthetic B) Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface C) Dinoflagellates appear as yellow, green, blue or red a) A & B correct b) B & C correct c) A & C correct d) All are correct

146. Find the mismatched one a) Ciliated protozoan - Paramoecium b) Flagellated protozoan - Trypanosoma c) Sporozoan - Malarial parasite d) None of these

147. Zygospore is formed in a) Rhizopus b) Penicillium c) Aspergillus d) Yeast

148. Find the incorrect match a) Puccinia - Rust fungus b) Alternaria - Branched mycelium c) Ustilago - Basidia d) None of these

149. Which is not a Basidiomycete a) Smut b) Rust fungus c) Claviceps d) Mushroom

150. How many are correct A) The cell wall of phloem parenchyma is composed of cellulose and has pits B) The phloem parenchyma stores food material and other substances like resins, latex and mucilage C) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the monocotyledons D) Bast fibres are absent in the primary phloem a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

151. Which are not incorrect A) Phellogen or cork is a couple of layers thin B) Phellogen is made of narrow, thin walled and nearly rectangular cells C) Phelloderm cuts off cells on both sides D) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are collectively known as periderm a) B & C b) B & D c) B & A d) C & D

152. The statements “these cells are elongated tapering and cylindrical with dense cytoplasm and nucleus” refers to a) Sieve tubes b) Companion cells c) Xylem parenchyma d) Phloem parenchyma

153. Which of the following is not associated with Trichomes a) Unicellular b) Soft or stiff c) Help in preventing water loss due to transpiration d) Branched or unbranched

154. Which of the following statements are true about dicot root a) Many of the epidermal cells protrude in the form of unicellular root hairs b) Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium takes place in Pericycle c) Cortex consists of thin walled parenchyma cells d) All of these

155. Sclerenchyma found in a) Fruit wall of pear b) Seed coat of nuts c) Pulp of legumes d) Leaves of tea

156. Find the mismatched one a) Dicot root - Conjoint open vascular bundle b) Monocot stem - Conjoint closed vascular bundle c) Dicot stem - Conjoint open vascular bundle d) Monocot root - Radial vascular bundle

157. The term “bark” means a) Phellem, phelloderm and vascular cambium b) Phellem, phellogen, phelloderm and secondary phloem c) Periderm and secondary xylem d) Cork cambium and cork

158. Sunflower is a a) Monocot b) Dicot c) Gymnosperm d) Fern

159. In the spring season cambium is very active and produce a) Autumn wood b) Late wood c) Early wood d) None of these

160. Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant is given by a) Parenchyma b) Collenchyma c) Sclerenchyma d) Phloem

161. Bulliform cells are the characteristics of a) Dicot lydons leaf b) Monocotlydenous leaf c) Dicot lydenous stem d) Monocotlydenous stem

162. In monocot leaf a) Stomata presents on both sides b) Mesophyll is not differentiated in to palisade and spongy parenchyma c) Parellel venation d) All of these

163. Anatomically Jute fibres are a) Xylem fibres b) Cortical fibres c) Pith fibres d) Bast fibres/Phloem fibres

164. In monocots, the guard cells are a) Dumb – bell shaped b) Reniform c) Spherical d) Isodiametric

165. Bulliform cells are a) Small, colourful b) Large, empty, colourless c) Large, empty, colourful d) Small, Barrel shaped

166. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides, the outer cell differentiate into a) Cork b) Cork cambium c) Phelloderm d) Periderm

167. Choose the incorrect one regarding phellogen a) It is made up of narrow, thin walled and nearly rectangular cells b) It is a couple of layer thick c) Cuts off cells on both sides d) None of these

168. ------------- is the basic packing tissue in plants a) Collenchyma b) Sclerenchyma c) Parenchyma d) Xylem

169. The science of naming the plant is known as a) Classification b) Identification c) Nomenclature d) Taxonomy

170. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described a) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile

b) Plasmodium faciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria c) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests d) E coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine

171. International code of “Biological nomenclature” in applicable to a) Plants b) Animals c) Both animals and plants d) None of the above

172. Which covers the largest number of organisms a) Genus b) Family c) Phylum d) Class

173. A species is defined as “the group of actually or potentially inter-breeding natural population producing fertile offspring and reproductively isolated from such other groups”. The above statement is given by a) Carolous Linnaeus b) Mayr c) J.B. Lamarck d) Charles Darwin

174. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria lies in the composition of a) Cilia b) Cell wall c) Nucleolus d) Cytoplasm

175. Bacteria bearing flagella all over the body are called a) Peritrichous b) Atrichous c) Monotrichous d) Cephalotrichous

176. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotes cells a) Amoeba b) Paramecium caudatum c) Escherichia coli d) Euglena viridis

177. Many bacteria bear minute hairy structures on their cell wall, these are called a) Hairs b) Flagella c) Pili d) Cilia

178. Prokaryotes are mainly identified by a) Absence of mitochondria b) Absence of nuclear membrane c) Absence of chloroplast d) Absence of cell membrane

179. The arrangement of xylem in stem is a) Endarch b) Exarch c) Mesarch d) Both (a) and (b)

180. In Calotropis ---------- aestivation is seen a) Twisted b) Valvate c) Imbricate d) Vexillery

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1. For the circuit shown in the figure, the current through the inductor is 0.9A while the current through the condenser is 0.4A. Hence the current drawn from the generator is:

a) I = 1.13 amp b) I = 0.9 ampc) I = 0.5 amp d) I = 0.6 amp

2. An LCR series circuit with R = 100a 200 V, 50Hz a. c. source. When only the capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current by 60o. When only the inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage by 60circuit is

a) A3

2 b) A

2

3 c) 1 A

3. The rate of heating of 10A AC is the same as the rate of heating of DC of a) 10√2 A b) 10 A

c) 10

A2

d) 5A

4. The reactance of a coil, when used in the domestic AC, power supply (220 V, 50 cycle/s) is 50inductance of the coil is nearly a) 2.2 H b) 0.22 H c) 1.6 H

5. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 ampere. The energy stored in joules is a) 1 b) 0.1 c) 0.05

6. A copper rod of length l perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with constant angular velocity between two ends is a) 1/2. Bω l 2 b) 3/2. Bc) Bω l 2 d) 2 B

7. A magnetic field of 2 × 10to a coil of area 100cm2 with 50 turns. The average e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0.1 V when it is removed from the field in the time 't'. a) 0.1 sec b) 0.01 sec c) 1 sec

8. A magnet suspended in a horizontal magnetic field makes 30 oscillations per minute. If the strength of the field is doubled, the time period of oscillation of the magnet will be

a) 1/2 s b) 2 s c) 2 s9. A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross

sectional area 2.0 × 10-4 m

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For the circuit shown in the figure, the current

inductor is 0.9A while the current through the condenser is 0.4A. Hence the current drawn from the generator is:

b) I = 0.9 amp d) I = 0.6 amp

series circuit with R = 100Ω is connected to a 200 V, 50Hz a. c. source. When only the capacitance is removed, the voltage leads the current

. When only the inductance is removed, the current leads the voltage by 60o. The current in the

c) 1 A d) 2A

The rate of heating of 10A AC is the same as the rate

b) 10 A

d) 5A

The reactance of a coil, when used in the domestic AC, power supply (220 V, 50 cycle/s) is 50Ω. The inductance of the coil is nearly

b) 0.22 H c) 1.6 H d) 0.16 H A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 ampere. The

b) 0.1 c) 0.05 d) 0.5 is rotated about one end

perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with constant angular velocity ω. The induced e.m.f

b) 3/2. Bω l 2 d) 2 Bω l 2

10-2 Tesla acts at right angles with 50 turns. The average

e.m.f. induced in the coil is 0.1 V when it is removed 't'. The value of 't' is

b) 0.01 sec c) 1 sec d) 10 sec in a horizontal magnetic field

makes 30 oscillations per minute. If the strength of the field is doubled, the time period of oscillation of

s c) 2 s d) 4 s A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross –

m2 carries a current of

1.0 A. If the coil is placed in a uniform field of 0.2 T with the normal to the coil making an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque experby the coil will bea) 0.02 N c) 0.04 N

10. A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross sectional area 2.0 1.0 A. The magnetic moment of the coil is a) 0.1 A mc) 0.4 A m

11. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field exist in a region in the same direction. An electron, projected with velocity pointed in the same direction. The electron willa) turn to its rightb) turn to its leftc) keep mowill increased) keep moving in the same direction but its speed will decrease

12. An electron is moving in a circle of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Suddenly the field is reduced to B/2. The radius of the cira) r/2

13. A potential difference of 600 V is applied across the plates of a parallel place capacitor. The separation between the plates is 3 mm. A magnetic field also exists between the plates. An electron projected parallel to the

plates as shown with a speed of 2 undeflected between the plates. The magnitude and direction of the magnetic field isa) 0.2 T, into the paper b) 0.2 T, out of the paperc) 0.1 T, into the paper d) 0.1

14. A horizontal wire of length 10 cm and mass 0.3 g carries a current of 5A. The magnitude of the magnetic field which can support the weight of the wire is (g = 10 m/sa) 3 c) 3

B

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1.0 A. If the coil is placed in a uniform field of 0.2 T with the normal to the coil making an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque experienced by the coil will be a) 0.02 N – m b) 0.03 N – m c) 0.04 N – m d) 0.05 N – m A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross sectional area 2.0 × 10-4 m2 carries a current of 1.0 A. The magnetic moment of the coil is a) 0.1 A m2 b) 0.2 A m2

0.4 A m2 d) 0.6 A m2

A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field exist in a region in the same direction. An electron, projected with velocity pointed in the same direction. The electron will a) turn to its right b) turn to its left c) keep moving in the same direction but its speed will increase d) keep moving in the same direction but its speed will decrease An electron is moving in a circle of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Suddenly the field is reduced to B/2. The radius of the circle now becomesa) r/2 b) r/4 c) 2r d) 4r A potential difference of 600 V is applied across the plates of a parallel place capacitor. The separation between the plates is 3 mm. A magnetic field also exists between the plates. An electron projected parallel to the

plates as shown with a speed of 2 × 106 m/s, moves undeflected between the plates. The magnitude and direction of the magnetic field is a) 0.2 T, into the paper b) 0.2 T, out of the paperc) 0.1 T, into the paper d) 0.1 T, out of the paperA horizontal wire of length 10 cm and mass 0.3 g carries a current of 5A. The magnitude of the magnetic field which can support the weight of the wire is (g = 10 m/s2) a) 3 × 10-3 T b) 6 × 10-3 T c) 3 × 10-4 T d) 6 × 10-4 T

Time : 3 Hours

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1.0 A. If the coil is placed in a uniform field of 0.2 T with the normal to the coil making an angle of 30°

ienced

A closely wound coil of 1000 turns and cross –

A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field exist in a region in the same direction. An electron, projected with velocity pointed in the same direction.

ving in the same direction but its speed

d) keep moving in the same direction but its speed

An electron is moving in a circle of radius r in a uniform magnetic field B. Suddenly the field is

cle now becomes

A potential difference of 600 V is applied across the plates of a parallel place capacitor. The separation between the plates is 3 mm. A magnetic field also exists between the plates. An electron projected

m/s, moves undeflected between the plates. The magnitude and

a) 0.2 T, into the paper b) 0.2 T, out of the paper T, out of the paper

A horizontal wire of length 10 cm and mass 0.3 g carries a current of 5A. The magnitude of the magnetic field which can support the weight of the

15. A circular coil of diameter 10 cm has 10 turns and carries a current of 5 A. It is placed in a uniform field of 0.5 T with its plane parallel to the field. The torque on the coil, in N m, is a) 6.25 × π × 10-2 c) 6.25 × π × 10-4

16. An electric current is flowing in a long straight wire. The magnetic field due to this current at a distance of 5 cm from the wire is 10 gauss. The magnetic field at a distance of 10 cm from the wire isa) 2.5 gauss c) 20 gauss

17. A long straight conductor, carrying a current I, is bent into the shape shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is r. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is

a) 0I 1

12r

µ+

π

into the paper

b) 0I 1

12r

µ−

π

out of the paper

c) 0I 1

12r

µ−

π

into the paper

d) 0I 1

12r

µ+

π

out of the paper

18. A rectangular loop carrying a current Inear a long straight wire such that the wire is parallel to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current Iwire as shown in the figure, the loop will

a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wireb) move away from the wirec) move towards the wire

19. A square coil of side a carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is

a) 0I

a

µ

π b)

c) 0I

2a

µ

π d)

2

A circular coil of diameter 10 cm has 10 turns and carries a current of 5 A. It is placed in a uniform field of 0.5 T with its plane parallel to the field. The torque

b) 6.25 × π × 10-3 d) zero

An electric current is flowing in a long straight wire. The magnetic field due to this current at a distance of 5 cm from the wire is 10 gauss. The magnetic field at

from the wire is b) 5 gauss d) 40 gauss

A long straight conductor, carrying a current I, is bent into the shape shown in the figure. The radius of the circular loop is r. The magnetic field at the centre

into the paper

out of the paper

into the paper

out of the paper

A rectangular loop carrying a current I1 is situated re such that the wire is parallel

to one of the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the loop. If a steady current I2 is established in the wire as shown in the figure, the loop will

a) rotate about an axis parallel to the wire

wire d) remain stationary

A square coil of side a carries a current I. The magnetic field at the centre of the coil is

02 I

a

µ

π

02 2 I

a

µ

π

20. Two long straight wires, each carrying a current I, are separated by a distance r. If the currents are in opposite directions, then the strength of the magnetic field at any point midway between the two wires is

a) µ

π21. In a moving coil galvanometer the current i is related

to the deflection a) i ∝

c) i ∝22. A proton is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic

field with energy 1 MeV. The energy of an particle which revolves in the same field in an orbit of the same radius isa) 0.5 MeVc) 2 MeV

23. If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 8into two halves of equal lengths, the magnetic moment of each half will bea) 80 unitsc) 40 units

24. A magnetized straight wire has a magnetic moment M. If it is bent into a semicircle its magnetic moment will be a) M

25. Work done in rotating a bar magnet of moment M through an angle magnetic field B isa) MB cos c) MB (1

26. At a certain place the

magnetic field isThe angle of dip at that place isa) 75°

27. Lines of constant dip are calleda) isoclinic linesc) iso

28. Declination is the angle betweena) the geographic and the magnetic meridiansb) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal directionc) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the vertical directiond) none of the above

29. Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic moment M, are placed perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. The dipole moment of the combination is

a)

Two long straight wires, each carrying a current I, are separated by a distance r. If the currents are in opposite directions, then the strength of the magnetic field at any point midway between the two wires is

0I

r

µ

π b) 0

2 I

r

µ

π c) 0

I

2 r

µ

π d) zero

In a moving coil galvanometer the current i is related to the deflection θ as

∝ θ b) i ∝ tan θ

∝ θ2 d) i ∝ θ A proton is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic field with energy 1 MeV. The energy of an αparticle which revolves in the same field in an orbit of the same radius is a) 0.5 MeV b) 1 MeV c) 2 MeV d) 4 MeV If a bar magnet of magnetic moment 80 units be cut into two halves of equal lengths, the magnetic moment of each half will be a) 80 units b) 60 units c) 40 units d) 20 units A magnetized straight wire has a magnetic moment M. If it is bent into a semicircle its magnetic moment will be ) M b) M/π c) M/2π d) 2M/

Work done in rotating a bar magnet of moment M through an angle θ from the equilibrium position in a magnetic field B is a) MB cos θ b) MB sin θ c) MB (1−cos θ) d) MB (1−sin θ) At a certain place the horizontal component of earth’s

magnetic field is 3 times the vertical component. The angle of dip at that place is a) 75° b) 60° c) 45° d) 30° Lines of constant dip are called a) isoclinic lines b) isogonic lines c) isobaric lines d) isodynamic linesDeclination is the angle between a) the geographic and the magnetic meridians b) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the horizontal direction c) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the vertical direction

none of the above Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic moment M, are placed perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. The dipole moment of the combination

2 M b) 2M c) M/ 2 d) M/2

Two long straight wires, each carrying a current I, are separated by a distance r. If the currents are in opposite directions, then the strength of the magnetic field at any point midway between the two wires is

In a moving coil galvanometer the current i is related

A proton is moving in a circular orbit in a magnetic field with energy 1 MeV. The energy of an α – particle which revolves in the same field in an orbit

0 units be cut into two halves of equal lengths, the magnetic

A magnetized straight wire has a magnetic moment M. If it is bent into a semicircle its magnetic moment

d) 2M/π Work done in rotating a bar magnet of moment M

from the equilibrium position in a

horizontal component of earth’s

times the vertical component.

d) isodynamic lines

b) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the

c) the direction of earth’s magnetic field and the

Two identical bar magnets, each of magnetic moment M, are placed perpendicular to each other as shown in the figure. The dipole moment of the combination

d) M/2

30. When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current a) Is constant and is in the direction of the inducing current b) Is constant and is opposite to the direciton of the inducing current c) Increases with time and is in the direction of the inducting current d) Increases with time and opposite to the direction of the inducing current

31. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop then, is a) Clockwise b) Zero c) Counter clockwise d) In a direction that dependsradii

32. The flux linked with a circuit is given by 7. The graph between time ( x(y-axis) will be a) straight line through the origin b) straight line with positive intercept c) Straight line with negative intercept d) Parabola not through the origin

33. A conducting square loop of side L and resistance moves in its plane with a uniform velocity perpendicular to one of its side. A magnetic induction B constant in time and space, pointing perpand into the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The current induced in the loop is

a) RvB l clockwise

c) RvB2 l anticlockwise

34. Twelve wire of equal length each 10 cm are connected in the form of skeleton tube. If the cube is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of a magnetic field of 0.05 T, the emf induced in the arm of cube is

a) 25 × 10-3 V b) 25V c) Zero d) 2.5

35. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil changes as shown in figure. The graph of induced emf in the coil is represented by

When the current through a solenoid increases at a constant rate, the induced current a) Is constant and is in the direction of the inducing

b) Is constant and is opposite to the direciton of the

c) Increases with time and is in the direction of the

d) Increases with time and opposite to the direction of

Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner

b) Zero c) Counter clockwise d) In a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop

The flux linked with a circuit is given by φ = t3 + 3t – 7. The graph between time ( x-axis) and induced emf

a) straight line through the origin b) straight line with positive intercept

with negative intercept d) Parabola not through the origin A conducting square loop of side L and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v perpendicular to one of its side. A magnetic induction

constant in time and space, pointing perpendicular and into the plane of the loop exists everywhere. The current induced in the loop is

b) RvB l anticlockwise

d) Zero

Twelve wire of equal length each 10 cm are connected in the form of skeleton tube. If the cube is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of a magnetic field of 0.05 T, the emf induced in the arm

b) 25V d) 2.5 × 10-3 V

A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil changes as shown in figure. The graph of induced emf in the coil

36. A conperpendicularly to magnetic field of 10the speed of 10the ends of conductor will be a) 0.03 volt b) 0.3 volt c) 3

37. Current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing. The direction of induced current in the circular loop is

a) anticlockwise c) No current flows

38. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a 10 cmhas 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is (

a) 4.8 π c) 2.4 π39. When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the

capacitor a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.c) the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage.d) power delivered to the capaczero.

40. In an a.c. circuit, V and I are given byV = 100 sin (100t ) Volt & I = 100 sin (100t + Then the power dissipated in the circuit is a) 10

41. A constant voltage at different frequencies is applied across a capacitance C as shown in the figure. Which of the following graphs

Correctly depicts the variation of current with frequency

A conductor of 3 m in length is moving perpendicularly to magnetic field of 10-3 tesla with the speed of 102m/s, then the e.m.f. produced across the ends of conductor will be a) 0.03 volt b) 0.3 volt c) 3×10-3 volt d) 3 volt Current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing. The direction of induced current in the circular loop is

a) anticlockwise b) clockwise c) No current flows d) None of these Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area a = 10 cm2 and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual inductance is (µ0 = 4 π × 10-7 mA-1) a) 4.8 π × 10-4 H b) 4.8 π × 10-5 H c) 2.4 π × 10-4 H d) 4.8 π × 104 H When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the capacitor C a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V.b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage.c) the charge on the plates is in phase with the applied voltage. d) power delivered to the capacitor increases from zero. In an a.c. circuit, V and I are given by V = 100 sin (100t ) Volt & I = 100 sin (100t +π/3) mA. Then the power dissipated in the circuit is a) 104W b) 10W c) 2500 W d) 5W A constant voltage at different frequencies is applied across a capacitance C as shown in the figure. Which of the following graphs

Correctly depicts the variation of current with frequency

ductor of 3 m in length is moving tesla with

m/s, then the e.m.f. produced across

volt d) 3 volt Current from A to B in the straight wire is decreasing. The direction of induced current in the

Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin sectional area a =

and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual

When an AC voltage of 220 V is applied to the

a) the maximum voltage between plates is 220 V. b) the current is in phase with the applied voltage. c) the charge on the plates is in phase with the

itor increases from

A constant voltage at different frequencies is applied across a capacitance C as shown in the figure. Which

Correctly depicts the variation of current with

42. An alternating voltage is given by E = Ecos ωt. Then the root mean square value of voltage is given by :

a) 22

21

EE + b)

c) 2

EE21 d)

43. A transformer is an appliance for converting a) High current at low voltage to small current at high voltage b) Large current at low voltage to high current at high voltage c) Small current at high voltage to small current at low voltage d) Large current at high voltage to small current at low voltage

44. Power delivered by the source of the circuit becomes maximum, when

a) ωL = ωC b) ω

c) ωL = ( )21Cω d) ωL =

45. An emf E = 4 cos 1000 t volt is applied to a Lcircuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4amplitude of current in the circuit is

a) 74 A b) 1 A c)

46. 7 moles of tetra-atomic nonand T K are mixed with 6 moles of another gas B at

TK

3and 5 atm in a closed, rigid vessel without

energy transfer with surrounding. If final

of mixture was5T

K6

, then gas B is? (Assuming all

modes of energy are active)a) monoatomic c) triatomic

47. In Bosch’s process which gas is utilised for the production of hydrogen gas?a) Producer gas c) Coal gas

48. Which statement is wrong?a) Ordinary hydrogen is an equilibrium mixture of ortho and para hydrogen b) In ortho hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in same direction c) Ortho and para forms do not resemble ichemical properties

An alternating voltage is given by E = E1 sin ωt + E2

t. Then the root mean square value of voltage is

21EE +

2

EE 22

21

+

A transformer is an appliance for converting a) High current at low voltage to small current at high

b) Large current at low voltage to high current at high

c) Small current at high voltage to small current at

d) Large current at high voltage to small current at

Power delivered by the source of the circuit becomes

ωL = 1Cω

L = Cω

An emf E = 4 cos 1000 t volt is applied to a L-R circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4Ω. The amplitude of current in the circuit is

b) 1 A c) 74 A d) 0.8 A

atomic non-linear gas ‘A’ at 10 atm and T K are mixed with 6 moles of another gas B at

and 5 atm in a closed, rigid vessel without

energy transfer with surrounding. If final temperature

, then gas B is? (Assuming all

modes of energy are active) b) diatomic d) tetra atomic

In Bosch’s process which gas is utilised for the production of hydrogen gas?

b) Water gas d) None of these

Which statement is wrong? a) Ordinary hydrogen is an equilibrium mixture of

b) In ortho hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in same

c) Ortho and para forms do not resemble in their

d) In para hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in opposite direction

49. Which of the following is correct about heavy water?a) Water at 4heavy waterb) It is heavier than water (Hc) It is of hydrogen with oxygend) None of these

50. Which of the following compounds transforms baking soda into baking powdera) KClc) NaHCO

51. A container contains 1 mole of a gas at 1 atmpressure and 27pressure is 10 atm and temperature 327volume isa) 2.56 litresc) 4.92 litres

52. In photography, sodium thiosulphate is used for a) softening very dark imab) making the latent image visiblec) intensifying faint imagesd) dissolving residual silver bromide

53. The ratio of Boyle’s temperature and critical temperature for a gas is:

a) 8

2754. Hydrogen molecules differs from chlorine molecule

in the following respect a) Hydrogen molecule is non molecule is polarb) Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine moleculec) Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds but chlorine molecule does not d) Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in coordination bond formation but chlorine molecule can

55. The root mean square velocity of a gas is doubled when the temperature is:a) increased four timesb) increased two timesc) reduced to halfd) reduced to one fourth

56. Consider three one filled with gases NO NOeach at 1 atm and 273 K. In which molecules have the highest average kinetic energy?a) Flask Cc) Flask A

57. A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of sodium hydroxide in distilled water to give 1 L solution. the molarity of NaOH in the soluta) 0.2450 Mc) 0.9800 M

58. What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO5.8 % NaCl solution?(Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na= 23, Cl = 35.5)a) 28 g

d) In para hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in opposite direction Which of the following is correct about heavy water?a) Water at 4oC having maximum density is known as heavy water b) It is heavier than water (H2O) c) It is formed by the combination of heavier isotope of hydrogen with oxygen d) None of these Which of the following compounds transforms baking soda into baking powder a) KCl b) KHCO3 c) NaHCO3 d) KHC4H4O6 A container contains 1 mole of a gas at 1 atmpressure and 27oC, while its volume 24.6 litres. If its pressure is 10 atm and temperature 327oC, then new volume is a) 2.56 litres b) 3.15 litres c) 4.92 litres d) 5.44 litres In photography, sodium thiosulphate is used for a) softening very dark images b) making the latent image visible c) intensifying faint images d) dissolving residual silver bromide The ratio of Boyle’s temperature and critical temperature for a gas is:

8

27 b)

27

8 c)

1

2 d)

2

1

Hydrogen molecules differs from chlorine molecule in the following respect a) Hydrogen molecule is non – polar but chlorine molecule is polar b) Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine molecule is non – polar c) Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds but chlorine molecule does not d) Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in coordination bond formation but chlorine molecule

The root mean square velocity of a gas is doubled when the temperature is: a) increased four times b) increased two times c) reduced to half d) reduced to one fourth Consider three one – litre flasks labelled A, Band C filled with gases NO NO2, and N2O, respectively, each at 1 atm and 273 K. In which flask do the molecules have the highest average kinetic energy?a) Flask C b) All are the samec) Flask A d) None A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of sodium hydroxide in distilled water to give 1 L solution. the molarity of NaOH in the solution is a) 0.2450 M b) 0.6125 M c) 0.9800 M d) 1.6326 M What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 mL of 16.9% solution of AgNO3 is mixed with 50 mL of 5.8 % NaCl solution? (Ag = 107.8, N = 14, O = 16, Na= 23, Cl = 35.5) a) 28 g b) 3.5 g c) 7 g d) 14 g

d) In para hydrogen spin of two nuclei is in opposite

Which of the following is correct about heavy water? C having maximum density is known as

formed by the combination of heavier isotope

Which of the following compounds transforms

A container contains 1 mole of a gas at 1 atm C, while its volume 24.6 litres. If its

C, then new

The ratio of Boyle’s temperature and critical

Hydrogen molecules differs from chlorine molecule

polar but chlorine

b) Hydrogen molecule is polar while chlorine

c) Hydrogen molecule can form intermolecular

d) Hydrogen molecule cannot participate in coordination bond formation but chlorine molecule

The root mean square velocity of a gas is doubled

litre flasks labelled A, Band C O, respectively,

flask do the molecules have the highest average kinetic energy?

b) All are the same

A solution is prepared by dissolving 24.5 g of sodium hydroxide in distilled water to give 1 L solution. the

What is the mass of precipitate formed when 50 mL is mixed with 50 mL of

59. The decreasing order of solubility of alkaline earth metal hydroxides[M(OH)2] isa) Be <Mg < Ca < Sr < Ba b) Ba > Sr > Ca > Mg > Bec) Mg < Be < Ca <Ba < Sr d) Be = Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba

60. 14 g of element X combines with 16 g of oxygen. On the basis of this information, which of the following is a correct statement:- a) The element X could have an atomic wt. 7 and its oxide is XO b) The element X could have an atomic weight of 14 and its oxide is X2O c) The element X could have an atomic weight of 7 and its oxide is X2O d) The element X could have an atomic weight of 14 and its oxide is XO2

61. Which product is formed in the following reaction

2KO2 + S Heat→Producta) Potassium sulphide b) Potassium sulphate c) Sulphur dioxide d) Sulphur trioxide

62. Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH, NaH, KH, RbH, CsH, the correct order of increasing ionic character is a) LiH > NaH > CsH > KH > RbHb) LiH< NaH < KH < RbH < CsHc) RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiHd) NaH > CsH > RbH > LiH >

63. Philospher’s wool on heating with BaO at 1100produces: a) Ba + ZnCl2 c) BaZnO2

64. I,II, and III are three isotherms, respectively, at Tand T3, Temperature will be in order

a) T1 = T2 = T3 b) T1

c) T1 > T2 >T3 d) T1

65. Bleaching powder slowly loses its activity when it stands in air. This is due to a) loss of CaCl2 b) formation of Ca(OH)2 c) reaction with CO2 to evolve chlorined) reaction with water to evolve O

66. Amongst the following statements, a) The gas cannot be compressed below the critical temperature b) Below critical temperature, thermal motion of the molecules is slow enough for the intermolecular forces to come into play leading to condensation of the gas.

The decreasing order of solubility of alkaline earth ] is

b) Ba > Sr > Ca > Mg > Be

d) Be = Mg > Ca > Sr > Ba 14 g of element X combines with 16 g of oxygen. On

basis of this information, which of the following

a) The element X could have an atomic wt. 7 and its

b) The element X could have an atomic weight of 14

c) The element X could have an atomic weight of 7

d) The element X could have an atomic weight of 14

Which product is formed in the following reaction

Product

Metal hydrides are ionic, covalent or molecular in nature. Among LiH, NaH, KH, RbH, CsH, the correct order of increasing ionic character is a) LiH > NaH > CsH > KH > RbH b) LiH< NaH < KH < RbH < CsH c) RbH > CsH > NaH > KH > LiH d) NaH > CsH > RbH > LiH > KH Philospher’s wool on heating with BaO at 1100oC

b) BaCdO2 d) BaO2 + Zn

I,II, and III are three isotherms, respectively, at T1, T2 , Temperature will be in order

1 < T2 < T3 1 > T2 = T3

Bleaching powder slowly loses its activity when it stands in air. This is due to

to evolve chlorine d) reaction with water to evolve O2 Amongst the following statements, the correct one is: a) The gas cannot be compressed below the critical

b) Below critical temperature, thermal motion of the molecules is slow enough for the intermolecular forces to come into play leading to condensation of

c) At crican be distinguished. d) An ideal gas has a characteristic critical temperature

67. What mass of sodium chloride by 9.8 g sulphuric acid if 12 g of sodium bisulphate and 2.75 g of hydrogen chlorireaction? a) 14.75 g

68. Which hydride is an ionic hydride?a) H

69. Rearrange the following (1 to IV) in the order of increasing masses and choose the correct answer (Atomic masses : N = 14, O = 16, Cu = 63) I) 1 molecule of oxygen II) 1 atom of Nitrogen III) 1 × 10 IV) 1 × 10 a) II < I < III < IV b) IV < III < II <c) II < III < I< IV d) III < IV < I < II

70. X mL of Hgcontainer in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is:a) 10 c) 25 seconds : CO

71. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution isa) 20 ml

72. When 22.4 litres of HCl2(g) , each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to:a) 1 mol of HCl(g)c) 0.5 mol of HCl(g)

73. Which of the following represents a coof reducing power of the following elements?a) Li > Cs > Rbc) Cs > Li > Rb

74. Which is not true in case of an ideal gas?a) it cannot be converted into a liquidb) there is no interaction between the moleculec) All molecules of the gas move with same speedd) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the amount of the gas

75. 250 mL of xa solute A are mixed and diluted to 2 litre to get a final concentration of 1.6 M. respectivelya) 2.7 & 3.4c) 3.9 & 4.9

76. When same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium hydroxide solution the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolves is a) 1:1

77. Reaction of potassium with water isa) exothermicc) hydrolysis

78. Which of the following is called black ash?a) Nac) Na

c) At critical temperature liquid and gaseous phase can be distinguished. d) An ideal gas has a characteristic critical temperature What mass of sodium chloride would be decomposed by 9.8 g sulphuric acid if 12 g of sodium bisulphate and 2.75 g of hydrogen chloride were produced in a reaction? a) 14.75 g b) 3.8 g c) 4. 95 g d) 2.2 g Which hydride is an ionic hydride? a) H2S b) TiH1.73 c) NH3 d) NaHRearrange the following (1 to IV) in the order of increasing masses and choose the correct answer (Atomic masses : N = 14, O = 16, Cu = 63) I) 1 molecule of oxygen II) 1 atom of Nitrogen III) 1 × 10 -10 (gm molecular weight of oxygen) IV) 1 × 10 -10 (gm atomic weight of copper) a) II < I < III < IV b) IV < III < II < I c) II < III < I< IV d) III < IV < I < II X mL of Hg2 gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is: a) 10 seconds : He b) 20 seconds : O2

c) 25 seconds : CO d) 55 seconds : COAn aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this solution is a) 20 ml b) 40 ml c) 10ml d) 4 mlWhen 22.4 litres of H2(g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of

(g) , each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to: a) 1 mol of HCl(g) b) 2 mol of HCl(g)c) 0.5 mol of HCl(g) d) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)Which of the following represents a correct sequence of reducing power of the following elements? a) Li > Cs > Rb b) Rb > Cs > Li c) Cs > Li > Rb d) Li > Rb > Cs Which is not true in case of an ideal gas? a) it cannot be converted into a liquid b) there is no interaction between the molecules c) All molecules of the gas move with same speedd) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the amount of the gas 250 mL of xM solution and 500 mL of yM solution of a solute A are mixed and diluted to 2 litre to get a final concentration of 1.6 M. then x and y are respectively a) 2.7 & 3.4 b) 4.9 & 3.9 c) 3.9 & 4.9 d) 3.4 and 2.7 When same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium hydroxide solution the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolves is

1:1 b) 1:2 c) 2:1 d) 9:4Reaction of potassium with water is a) exothermic b) endothermic c) hydrolysis d) absorption Which of the following is called black ash? a) Na2CO3 b) K2CO3 c) Na2CO3 + CaS d) K2CO3 + CaS

tical temperature liquid and gaseous phase

d) An ideal gas has a characteristic critical

would be decomposed by 9.8 g sulphuric acid if 12 g of sodium bisulphate

de were produced in a

d) NaH Rearrange the following (1 to IV) in the order of increasing masses and choose the correct answer .

I) 1 molecule of oxygen II) 1 atom of Nitrogen

I c) II < III < I< IV d) III < IV < I < II

gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas specified

2 d) 55 seconds : CO2

An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralize 10 ml of this

d) 4 ml (g) is mixed with 11.2 litres of

(g) , each at S.T.P, the moles of HCl(g) formed is

b) 2 mol of HCl(g) d) 1.5 mol of HCl(g)

rrect sequence

c) All molecules of the gas move with same speed d) At a given temperature, PV is proportional to the

solution of a solute A are mixed and diluted to 2 litre to get a

then x and y are

When same amount of zinc is treated separately with

hydroxide solution the ratio of volumes of hydrogen

d) 9:4

79. The substance not likely to contain CaCO3 is a) gypsum b) seal shells c) dolomite d) a marble statue

80. In van der Waal’s equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for intermolecular forces is

a) (V- b) b) RT c) ( )2+ a

Vp d) (RT)-1

81. In what ratio the amounts of H2SO4 and H3PO4 react with the same amount of NaOH to form normal salts? a) 1: 1 b) 3:2 c) 2: 3 d) 1: 3

82. The reaction of calcium with water is represented by the equation Ca + 2 H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 What volume of H2 at STP would be liberated when 8 gm of calcium completely reacts with water? a) 0.2 cm3 b) 0.4 cm3 c) 2240 cm3 d) 4480 cm3

83. Which has the maximum number of molecules among the following : a) 44 g CO2 b) 48 g O3 c) 8 g H2 d) 64 g SO2

84. An ideal gas can’t be liquefied because a) its critical temperature is always above 0oC b) Its molecules are relatively smaller in size c) it solidifies before becoming a liquid d) forces between its molecules are negligible

85. The inversion temperature Ti(K) of hydrogen is (given van der Waal’s constants a and b are 0.244 atm L2 mol-2 and 0.027 L mol-1 respectively ) a) 440 b) 220 c) 110 d) 330

86. Plaster of Paris on making paste with little water sets to hard mass due to formation of a) CaSO4 b) CaSO4.1/2H2O c) CaSO4.H2O d) CaSO4.2H2O

87. The stability of the following alkali metal chlorides follows the order a) LiCl > KCl > NaCl > CsCl b) CsCl > KCl > NaCl > LiCl c) NaCl > KCl > LiCl > CsCl d) KCl > CsCl > NaCl > LiCl

88. The amount of H2O2 present in 1 litre of 1.5 NH2O2 solution , is a) 25.5 g b) 3.0 g c) 8.0 g d) 2.5 g

89. The alum used for purifying water is a) ferric alum b) chrome alum c) potash alum d) ammonium alum

90. Saline hydrides react explosively with water, such fires can be extinguished by a) water b) carbon dioxide c) sand d) None of these

91. Which of the following categories are exclusively heterotrophic a) Protists b) Fungi c) Plantae d) Monera

92. Which among the following is a filamentous blue green algae a) Rhodospirillum b) Azotobacter c) Nostoc d) Spirogyra

93. Choose the correct one. a) Dinoflagellates have three flagella b) Some members of protista have cilia & flagella c) Rhizopus comes under ascomycetes d) All of these

94. Tall fibres, sheath, collar and head are found in a) Tobacco mosaic virus b) Bacteriophage c) OB virus d) All of these

95. The statements “these cells are elongated tapering and cylindrical with dense cytoplasm and nucleus” refers to a) Sieve tubes b) Companion cells c) Xylem parenchyma d) Phloem parenchyma

96. Which of the following is not associated with Trichomes a) Unicellular b) Soft or stiff c) Help in preventing water loss due to transpiration d) Branched or unbranched

97. Which of the following statements are true about dicot root a) Many of the epidermal cells protrude in the form of unicellular root hairs b) Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium takes place in Pericycle c) Cortex consists of thin walled parenchyma cells d) All of these

98. Bulliform cells are the characteristics of a) Dicot lydons leaf b) Monocotlydenous leaf c) Dicot lydenous stem d) Monocotlydenous stem

99. In monocot leaf a) Stomata presents on both sides b) Mesophyll is not differentiated in to palisade and spongy parenchyma c) Parellel venation d) All of these

100. Prokaryotes are mainly identified by a) Absence of mitochondria b) Absence of nuclear membrane c) Absence of chloroplast d) Absence of cell membrane

101. The arrangement of xylem in stem is a) Endarch b) Exarch c) Mesarch d) Both (a) and (b)

102. In Calotropis ---------- aestivation is seen a) Twisted b) Valvate c) Imbricate d) Vexillery

103. Which covers the largest number of organisms a) Genus b) Family c) Phylum d) Class

104. A species is defined as “the group of actually or potentially inter-breeding natural population producing fertile offspring and reproductively isolated from such other groups”. The above statement is given by a) Carolous Linnaeus b) Mayr c) J.B. Lamarck d) Charles Darwin

105. The main difference between Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria lies in the composition of a) Cilia b) Cell wall c) Nucleolus d) Cytoplasm

106. Phellogen cuts off cells on both sides, the outer cell differentiate into a) Cork b) Cork cambium c) Phelloderm d) Periderm

107. Choose the incorrect one regarding phellogen a) It is made up of narrow, thin walled and nearly rectangular cells b) It is a couple of layer thick c) Cuts off cells on both sides d) None of these

108. How many are correct A) The cell wall of phloem parenchyma is composed of cellulose and has pits B) The phloem parenchyma stores food material and other substances like resins, latex and mucilage C) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the monocotyledons D) Bast fibres are absent in the primary phloem a) One b) Two c) Three d) Four

109. Which of the following is a feature of cyanobacteria a) Unicellular b) Colonial or filamentous c) Marine or terrestrial d) All of these

110. Choose incorrect match a) Fruit fly - Musca domestic b) Wheat - Poales c) Mango - Sapindales d) Potato - Solanaceae

111. Choose incorrect statement a) ‘Melongena’ is a species under Genus panthera b) Nigrum and tuberosum are placed under different genus c) Datura comes under family Poaceae d) All are incorrect

112. The scientific name of Lion and Leopard respectively are a) Panthiera lio and panthera tigris b) Panthera lio and pantera pardus c) Panthera leo and Panthera pardus d) Panthera lio and panthera tigrum

113. The leaves of Utricularia plant are modified in a) Hooks b) Tendrils c) Bladders d) Pitchers

114. Name the plant having reticulate venation a) Musa b) Mangifera c) Oryza d) Canna

115. Hypanthodium is a specialized type of a) Thalamus b) Ovary c) Fruit d) Inflorescence

116. Which of the following is an example of Ascomycetes a) Bread mould b) Yeast c) Smut d) Mushroom

117. Pellicle is a characteristic feature of a) Amoeboid protozoans b) Euglenoids c) Chrysophytes d) Dinoflagellates

118. The hardest part of drupe is a) Mesocarp b) Endocarp c) Pericarp d) Epicarp

119. Flower of Fabaceae is a) Complete, zygomorphic, pentamerous b) Complete, actinomorphic, trimerous c) Incomplete, zygomorphic, trimerous d) Incomplete, actinomorphic, pentameous

120. Tricarpellary syncarpous gynoecium is found in flowers of a) Liliaceae b) Solanaceae c) Fabaceae d) Poaceae

121. Prop roots of Benyan tree are meant for a) Respiration

b) Absorption of water from soil c) Retention of water in soil d) Providing support to big tree

122. Haustoria or sucking roots occur in a) Betel b) Orchids c) Cuscuta d) Tinospora

123. Velamen takes part in a) Absorption of moisture from air b) Absorption of water from soil c) Exchange of gases d) Transpiration

124. Stem is modified into cladode in a) Casuarina b) Asparagus c) Opuntia d) Euphorbia

125. New Banana plants develop from a) Rhizome b) Sucker c) Stolon d) Seed

126. Largest bud is of a) Cabbage b) Cauliflower c) Agave d) Onion

127. Succulent stem is found in a) Pisum b) Casuarina c) Oxalis d) Euphorbia

128. Match the following and select the correct combination from the options given below

Column I (Stem Modifications)

Column II (Found in)

A. Underground stem

1. Euphorbia

B. Stem tendril 2. Opuntia C. Stem thorns 3. Potato D. Flattened stem 4. Citrus E. Fleshy cylindrical

stem 5. Cucumber

a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 5, E – 4 b) A – 2, B – 3, C – 4, D – 5, E – 1 c) A – 3, B – 4, C – 5, D – 1, E – 2 d) A – 3, B – 5, C – 4, D – 2, E – 1

129. In a cymose inflorescence the main axis a) Has unlimited growth b) Bears a solitary flower c) Has unlimited growth but lateral branches end in flowers d) Terminates in a flower

130. Which of these is an example for zygomorphic flower with imbricate aestivation a) Calotropis b) Mustard c) Canna d) Cassia

131. On the basis of position of the ovary, mustard plants are a) Hypogynous b) Perigynous c) Epigynous d) Zygomorphic

132. The ovary is half inferior in flowers of a) Guava b) Peach / Plum c) Cucumber d) Cotton

133. Cotyledons and testa respectively are edible parts in a) Groundnut and pomegranate b) Walnut and tamarind c) French bean and coconut d) Cashew nut and litchi

134. Which of the following is a wheat fruit a) Achene b) Cypsella c) Caryopsis d) Endosperm

135. ‘Systema Naturae’ was written by a) Linnaeus b) Lamark c) Darwin d) Charaka

136. Biological names are generally in a) Latin b) Greek c) English d) French

137. The category that includes related families is a) Class b) Division c) Order d) Genus

138. Select the mismatched one Common name Order a) Man - Primata b) Housefly - Diptera c) Mango - Anacardiaceae d) Wheat - Poales

139. The system of binomial nomenclature was put forward by a) Linnaeus b) Ernst Mayr c) Bentham d) Hooker

140. Find the odd one out a) Hominidae b) Diptera c) Poaceae d)Muscidae

141. Find the true statements A) Flora contains the actual account of habitat and distribution of plants of a given area B) Manuals contain information on any one taxon C) Monographs contain information on names of species found in an area D) Catalogues help in correct identification a) A & C b) B & C c) A & D d) C & D

142. The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is called a) Taxonomy b) Phylogeny c) Ontogeny d) Evolution

143. The plant Triticum aestivum belongs to the class a) Dicotyledonae b) Angiospermae c) Monocotyledonae d) Poales

144. Dog belongs to genus a) Canis b) Felis c) Panthera d) Femiliaris

145. Which is a family a) Dicotyledonae b) Sapindales c) Triticum d) Muscidae

146. ICBN represents a) Indian code for Botanical Nomenclature b) International code for Binomial Nomenclature c) International council for Biological Nomenclature d) International code for Botanical Nomenclature

147. Which one of the following is a taxonomical aid for providing information for identification of names of species found in an area a) Monograph b) Flora c) Catalogue d) Manuals

148. Which of the following is not a character of protista? a) Protists are prokaryotic b) Some protists have cell walls c) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and heterotrophic d) Body organisation is cellular

149. In five kingdom system of Whittaker, how many kingdoms contain eukaryotes? a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1

150. Red tide is caused by a) Gonyaulax b) Diatoms c) Desmids d) Amoeba

151. Match the following A) Agaricus - i) Bread mould B) Ustilago - ii) Mushroom C) Rhizopus - iii) Sac fungi D) Pencillium - iv) Imperfect fungi E) Alternaria - v) Smut a) A-ii B-v C-i D-iv E-iii b) A-ii B-i C-v D-iii E-iv c) A-ii B-v C-i D-iii E-iv d) A-ii B-i C-iv D-iii E-v

152. The statement which is false is a) The diatoms belongs to Chrysophytes b) The red tide is cause by a species of dinoflagellates c) The organism euglena belongs to Euglenoids d) None of these

153. Which of the following fungi is used to increase the taste of food a) Claviceps b) Morels c) Puccinia d) Ustilago

154. Which of the following does not have Dikaryon phase a) Smut b) Puccinia c) Neurospora d) Rhizopus

155. Karyogamy involves fusion of a) Protoplasm b) Cytoplasm c) Nuclei d) Cell wall

156. Which of the following pair belongs to Ascomycetes a) Puccinia and ustilago b) Agaricus and Trichoderma c) Claviceps and Neurospora d) Agaricus and Alternaria

157. Which is a sporozoan a) Trypanosoma b) Entamoeba c) Paramoecium d) Plasmodium

158. Find the false statement A) Members of Ascomycetes are saprophytic, decomposers, parasitic or coprophilous B) Flagellated protozoans are either free living or parasitic C) Protistan cell body lack a well defined nucleus D) The cyanobacteria are always marine a) C & D b) A & B c) Only B d) A & C

159. Read the following statements and choose right options about Dinoflagellates A) These organism are mostly marine and photosynthetic B) Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates on the outer surface C) Dinoflagellates appear as yellow, green, blue or red a) A & B correct b) B & C correct c) A & C correct d) All are correct

160. Find the mismatched one a) Ciliated protozoan - Paramoecium b) Flagellated protozoan - Trypanosoma c) Sporozoan - Malarial parasite d) None of these

161. Zygospore is formed in a) Rhizopus b) Penicillium c) Aspergillus d) Yeast

162. Find the incorrect match a) Puccinia - Rust fungus b) Alternaria - Branched mycelium c) Ustilago - Basidia d) None of these

163. Which is not a Basidiomycete a) Smut b) Rust fungus c) Claviceps d) Mushroom

164. Which are not incorrect A) Phellogen or cork is a couple of layers thin B) Phellogen is made of narrow, thin walled and nearly rectangular cells C) Phelloderm cuts off cells on both sides D) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are collectively known as periderm a) B & C b) B & D c) B & A d) C & D

165. Sclerenchyma found in a) Fruit wall of pear b) Seed coat of nuts c) Pulp of legumes d) Leaves of tea

166. Find the mismatched one a) Dicot root - Conjoint open vascular bundle b) Monocot stem - Conjoint closed vascular bundle c) Dicot stem - Conjoint open vascular bundle d) Monocot root - Radial vascular bundle

167. The term “bark” means a) Phellem, phelloderm and vascular cambium b) Phellem, phellogen, phelloderm and secondary phloem c) Periderm and secondary xylem d) Cork cambium and cork

168. Sunflower is a a) Monocot b) Dicot c) Gymnosperm d) Fern

169. In the spring season cambium is very active and produce a) Autumn wood b) Late wood c) Early wood d) None of these

170. Mechanical support to the growing parts of the plant is given by a) Parenchyma b) Collenchyma c) Sclerenchyma d) Phloem

171. Anatomically Jute fibres are a) Xylem fibres b) Cortical fibres c) Pith fibres d) Bast fibres/Phloem fibres

172. In monocots, the guard cells are a) Dumb – bell shaped b) Reniform c) Spherical d) Isodiametric

173. Bulliform cells are a) Small, colourful b) Large, empty, colourless c) Large, empty, colourful d) Small, Barrel shaped

174. ------------- is the basic packing tissue in plants a) Collenchyma b) Sclerenchyma c) Parenchyma d) Xylem

175. The science of naming the plant is known as a) Classification b) Identification c) Nomenclature d) Taxonomy

176. Which one of the following organisms is scientifically correctly named, correctly printed according to the International Rules of Nomenclature and correctly described a) Musca domestica – The common house lizard, a reptile b) Plasmodium faciparum – A protozoan pathogen causing the most serious type of malaria c) Felis tigris – The Indian tiger, well protected in Gir forests d) E coli – Full name Entamoeba coli, a commonly occurring bacterium in human intestine

177. International code of “Biological nomenclature” in applicable to a) Plants b) Animals c) Both animals and plants d) None of the above

178. Bacteria bearing flagella all over the body are called a) Peritrichous b) Atrichous c) Monotrichous d) Cephalotrichous

179. Which one of the following organisms is not an example of eukaryotes cells a) Amoeba b) Paramecium caudatum c) Escherichia coli d) Euglena viridis

180. Many bacteria bear minute hairy structures on their cell wall, these are called a) Hairs b) Flagella c) Pili d) Cilia

NNEEEETT MMOODDEELL EENNTTRRAANNCCEE EEXXAAMM RREEPPEEAATTEERRSS –– MMEEDDIICCAALL ((MMOODDUULLEE –– VVIIII))

VERSION CODE – A

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

D C D B A B C C D B A B B A C

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

D C B D A A A B C D D A C B A

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

B A B C C D C B B D D A B D C

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B D A A B C A B B A C A C C B

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

C D B B C D B C B B C C A D C

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

D A D C D B A C C B C C B D B

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105

D C A B A A D D C B D D D A B

106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

A C B A A A A C C A B C C B C

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135

A D D A D D A B B A A B C B B

136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

C D B D C C D A D A D A D C D

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165

B D A D D A B B C B B D D A B

166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

A D C C B C C B B A C C B A B

VERSION CODE – B

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

C D B D B A A B A B D C D B A

16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30

B C C D B A B C D C D A A A B

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45

C D D C B B A C C C B D A B D

46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60

B B C C D C D B D A B B C B C

61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75

B B C C C B C D A B B A A C B

76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

A A C A C B D C D B D D A C C

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105

B C B B D A D B D B A B C B B

106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120

A D D D A D C C B D B B B A A

121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135

D C A B A A D D D D A B A C A

136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150

A C C A B C B C A D D D A A A

151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165

C D B D C C D A A D A D C B D

166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180

A B B C B D A B C C B C A C C

28.03.19

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

First No: Version code: A Second No: Version code: B 2. 12

4. 14

5. 15

6. 16

7. 17

9. 19

10. 20

12. 22

–

13. 10

14. 9

16. 24

18. 8

19. 26

23. 30

Sol : According to Lenz’s law

24. 31 Sol : The induced current will be in such a direction so that it opposes the change due to which it is produced

25. 32 Sol : E = 3t2 + 3 It is not in the form y = 4ax2

33. 5 Sol :

36. 4

Sol : Resistance of coil XL = 50Ω 2πfL = 50 f = frequency of AC = 50 cycle/s

So, from equation 2 ×722 × 50 × L = 50

447L = = 0.16 H

40. 42

dt

dtE

T

0

T

0

2

2rmsE

∫

∫=

dt

dt)tcosEtsinE(

T

0

21

T

01

2rmsE

∫

∫ ω+ω

=

dt

dt.tcos.tsinEE2dttcosEtsinE(

ET

0

T

021

222

2T

0

21

2rms

∫

∫ ωω+ω+ω∫

=

21

22

212

rms EE2

E2

EE ++= (0)

2EE

E22

21

rms+

=

44. 45 E = 4 cos 1000 t Comparing this equation with E = E0 cos ωt

Peak voltage E0 = 4V, ω = 1000 L = 3 mH = 3 × 10-3 H, R = 4Ω

Impedance of circuit Z = 22 )L(R ω+

Z = 232 )1031000()4( −××+ Hence , Z = 5Ω

Amplitude of current i0 = A8.054

Z

E0 ==

47. 68

48. 76

49. 77

50. 59

51. 78

52. 79

53. 70

55. 72

56. 80

59. 67

60. 81

61. 58

62. 82

63. 57

(Given that molar mass of NaOH = 40.0 g mol-1)

64. 71

65. 83

66. 84

67. 53

68. 74

69. 56

70. 85

71. 51

72. 64

73. 55

74. 86

75. 63

76. 87

77. 73

78. 52

79. 65

81. 61

82. 88

83. 49

84. 89

86. 48

87. 90

88. 47

89. 54

90. 46