admission-cum-scholarship test...roll no. and test-booklet code have been filled and marked...
TRANSCRIPT
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INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES
1. The initial 10 minutes are earmarked for the candidates to carefully read the instructions. (Note : The
candidates are not allowed to either look inside the question booklet or start answering during these
initial 10 minutes.)
2. The question booklet and answer sheet are issued separately at the start of the examination.
3. This question booklet contains 90 questions.
4. Read each question carefully.
5. Determine the correct answer, one out of the four available choices given under each question.
6. It is mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the appropriate circle in the answer sheet.
7. For each correct answer, four marks will be awarded. There is no negative marking.
For Example
Q. 12 : In the Question Booklet is : Which one is known as ‘black gold’?
(Answer Sheet)
(1) Old gold Q.12. � � � �
(2) Petroleum
(3) Silver
(4) Coal
Thus as the correct answer is choice 2, the candidate should darken completely (with a blue/black Ball
point pen only) the circle corresponding to choice 2 against Question No. 12 on the Answer Sheet. If
more than one circle is darkened for a given question such answer will be rejected.
8. Do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on answer sheet. No change in the answer once
marked is allowed. Before handing over the answer sheet to the invigilator, candidate should check that
Roll No. and Test-Booklet code have been filled and marked correctly.
9. Rough work should be done only on the space provided in the question booklet.
10. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet and Question booklet
are to be returned to the invigilator. If the candidate wants to leave the examination hall before time,
he/she should hand over the question paper and answer sheet to the invigilator. However, no student can
leave the examination hall before half time.
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456
Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018)
(Syllabus of the Test : Science & Mathematics of Class IX)
Time : 2 Hrs. Max.Marks : 360
Test Booklet Code : A
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
SCIENCE
Choose the correct answer :
1. Two objects of mass 1 kg and 2 kg are fixed at a
certain distance between them. If a mass of 4 kg,
placed between them, attains equilibrium at a
distance r from the smaller mass, then its distance
from the larger mass will be
(1) r (2) 2 r
(3) 2r (4) 4r
2. Which of the following speed-time graph is not
possible physically?
(1)
t
v
(2)
t
v
(3) t
v
(4) t
v
3. Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth
is g. What will be the acceleration due to gravity
on the surface of a planet having same mass and
diameter half as that of earth?
(1)2
g(2)
4
g
(3) 4g (4) 2g
4. A body of mass 15 kg moving with a velocity of
10 m/s, is brought to rest by applying brakes.
Work done by the brakes is
(1) –250 J (2) –500 J
(3) –750 J (4) –1000 J
5. A shell explodes and its pieces fly off in opposite
directions. Which of the following quantities will be
conserved?
(1) Kinetic energy only
(2) Momentum only
(3) Neither momentum nor kinetic energy
(4) Both momentum and kinetic energy
6. Identify the mechanical wave from the following.
(1) Sound waves (2) X-rays
(3) -rays (4) -rays7. According to Archimedes principle when a body is
immersed fully or partially in a liquid, it
experiences an upward force that is equal to
(1) Weight of the body
(2) Weight of the part of body which is immersed
(3) Weight of the liquid displaced by it
(4) Weight of the part of body not immersed
8. If the wavelength of a sound wave is 35 cm and its
frequency is 2 kHz, then speed of the wave is
(1) 350 m/s (2) 700 m/s
(3) 175 m/s (4) 7000 m/s
9. For an object undergoing uniformly accelerated
motion, average velocity is given by [symbols have
their usual meaning]
(1)–
2
v u
(2)2
v u
(3)
2 2
2
v u(4)
2 2–
2
v u
10. Sound from a source vibrating at frequency 200 Hz
travels at speed of 300 m/s in air. Wavelength of
the sound is
(1) 15 m (2) 1.5 m
(3) 150 m (4) 6 m
11. The distance and displacement of a moving object
are equal only when it
(1) Moves in a circle
(2) Slows down
(3) Speeds up
(4) Moves straight without turning back
12. The momentum of a body is always in the
direction of
(1) Its motion (2) Its acceleration
(3) Force acting on it (4) Its weight
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
13. A net force of 20 N acts on a 5 kg mass kept at
rest. Distance travelled by the mass in 6 s is
(1) 72 m (2) 36 m
(3) 24 m (4) 12 m
14. Universal gravitational constant is measured in
(1) N kg2/m2 (2) (Nm)2/kg2
(3)
2
2
Nm
kg(4)
22
Nkg
m
15. Maximum acceleration that can act on a 2.5 kg
mass under the action of a 16 N and a 4 N force is
(1) 8 m/s2 (2) 4.8 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 6.5 m/s2
16. Which of the following has the maximum number
of moles?
(1) 112 g of Na (2) 50 g of Ne
(3) 40 g of He (4) 60 g of C
17. If 10 g of sugar is dissolved in 90 g of water, then
what will be the mass percentage (w/w) of the
solution?
(1) 10% (2) 9%
(3) 1.11% (4) 0.11%
18. Which of the following elements has the valency of 2?
(1) Sodium (2) Carbon
(3) Boron (4) Oxygen
19. Brass is an alloy of
(1) Copper and tin (2) Copper and zinc
(3) Iron and copper (4) Iron and zinc
20. The process ‘X’, ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ respectively are
Salt +Sand+Ammoniumchloride
Process ‘X’Salt +Sand
+ Ammonium chloride
Dissolu-tion inwater
Sand +Salt +Water
Salt +Water
Process ‘Y’Process ‘Z’Puresaltcrystals +
Sand
(1) Melting, filtration and evaporation
(2) Evaporation, crystallisation and filtration
(3) Sublimation, filtration and crystallisation
(4) Sublimation, crystallisation and evaporation
21. Which of the following elements becomes liquid at
a temperature slightly above room temperature?
(1) Boron (2) Gallium
(3) Germanium (4) Bromine
22. Read the following statements carefully
(A) One water atom contains two hydrogen atoms
and one oxygen atom.
(B) Number of moles of oxygen atom present in
0.22 g of carbon dioxide is 0.01.
(C) The charge on the particle which was
discovered by J.J. Thomson is negative.
The correct statements are/is
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) & (C)
(3) Both (B) & (C) (4) All (A), (B) & (C)
23. The electronic configuration of an element with
atomic number 20 is
(1) 2, 8, 10 (2) 2, 8, 8, 2
(3) 2, 8, 2, 8 (4) 2, 2, 8, 8
24. The composition of the nuclei of three elements are
given as
A B C
Number of neutrons 6 8 7
Number of protons 6 6 7
Elements
Consider the following statements
(i) The atomic number of element 'B' is 6 and
mass number of both 'A' and 'C' is 14
(ii) Element 'A' and 'B' are isotopes
(iii) Element 'A' and 'C' are isobars
Which of the given statement(s) is/are correct?
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (i) & (ii)
(3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii)
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
25. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of
solids because
(1) Particles of liquid have more forces of
attraction between them than that of solids
(2) Particles of liquid have less spaces between
them and hence they stick to each other and
move freely
(3) Particles of liquid have more inter-particle
spaces between them and they can move freely
(4) Particles of solid have more inter-particle
spaces between them as compared to liquids
26. Which of the following gases is essential for the
survival of aquatic animals and plants?
(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Carbon monoxide
(4) Both oxygen and carbon dioxide
27. Which of the following is an example of
homogeneous mixture?
(1) Cloud (2) Sugar solution
(3) Distilled water (4) Milk
28. The ratio by mass of calcium to oxygen in quick
lime is
(1) 4 : 1 (2) 2 : 3
(3) 5 : 2 (4) 5 : 1
29. Find the incorrect pair.
(1) Silver – Element
(2) Steel – Mixture
(3) Sugar – Compound
(4) Blood – Suspension
30. Which of the following is not a polyatomic ion?
(1) Ammonium (2) Sulphite
(3) Sulphate (4) Sulphide
31. Who divided kingdom Monera into Archaebacteria
and Eubacteria?
(1) Robert Whittaker (2) Carolus Linnaeus
(3) Carl Woese (4) Aristotle
32. 'X' which causes Japanese Encephalitis is carried
by 'Y' and affect the organ 'Z' in humans. Identify
'X', 'Y' and 'Z'.
(1) X-bacterium, Y-mosquito and Z-liver
(2) X-virus, Y-air and Z-lung
(3) X-fungus, Y-water and Z-kidney
(4) X-virus, Y-mosquito and Z-brain
33. Which of the following cell organelles is
responsible for storage, modification and packaging
of products in vesicles?
(1) Lysosomes
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Golgi apparatus
34. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the organism
given in the figure.
(Housefly)Musca
(1) It has bilateral symmetry and segmented body
(2) It belongs to the largest group of animals
(3) It has closed circulatory system
(4) It has jointed legs
35. How many of the following crops are grown in rainy
season?
(i) Paddy (ii) Wheat
(iii) Linseed (iv) Mustard
(v) Soyabean (vi) Cotton
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) Five (4) Four
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
36. Select an incorrect statement w.r.t. the given
figure.
(1) It controls a voluntary actions
(2) Its cells are spindle-shaped and uninucleate
(3) It is also called unstriated muscle
(4) It is found in ureters and bronchi
37. Which of the following groups of diseases are
caused by bacteria?
(1) Dengue, anthrax and cholera
(2) Typhoid, cholera and tuberculosis
(3) Malaria, AIDS and elephantiasis
(4) Kala azar, influenza and typhoid
38. Statement-1: Oxygen is an abundant element on
our earth.
Statement-2: Oxygen from atmosphere is used up
in processes like combustion, photosynthesis,
respiration, etc.
(1) Both the statements are true
(2) Both the statements are false
(3) Statement-1 is true and statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false and statement-2 is true
39. Cell A Cell AAfter 1 hour
A student observed the above change in the cell
size when the cell is kept in
(1) Both isotonic and hypotonic solution
(2) Hypotonic solution
(3) Hypertonic solution
(4) Isotonic solution
40. How many character(s) is/are common in pisces
and amphibians?
a. They are cold blooded animals.
b. Heart is three chambered.
c. Respiration is through gills only.
d. They have scales.
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Two (4) Four
41. Which of the following nutrients required in large
quantities by plants?
(1) Iron, Calcium and Boron
(2) Nitrogen, Copper and Zinc
(3) Phosphorus, Manganese and Magnesium
(4) Potassium, Calcium and Sulphur
42. Which of the following tissues contains haversian canal?
(1) Adipose (2) Bone
(3) Cartilage (4) Blood
43. Identify the plant tissue on the basis of given
information.
(i) It provides strength.
(ii) It is present in the hard covering of seeds.
(1) Parenchyma
(2) Chlorenchyma
(3) Sclerenchyma
(4) Collenchyma
44. The cell organelle found in both prokaryotes and
eukaryotes is
(1) Lysosome (2) ER
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Ribosome
45. Find the incorrect match.
(1) Sycon – Porifera
(2) Echinus – Echinodermata
(3) Antedon – Arthropoda
(4) Chiton – Mollusca
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
MATHEMATICS
46. Which of the following is not a rational number?
(1)7
11 (2) 7.232332333.....
(3) 0 (4) 18.25
47. Which of the following points is a solution of the
linear equation 2 3 4?x y
(1) (3, 2) (2) ( 2, 4)
(3) ( 3, 2) (4) ( 2, 2)
48. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral
with its circumcircle having centre O. Side DC is
extended to E. If BOD = 160°, then BCE is of
160°
O
A B
CD E
(1) 40° (2) 80°
(3) 20° (4) 160°
49. Area of a rhombus, whose diagonals are of length
10 cm and 24 cm respectively, is
(1) 240 sq. cm
(2) 120 sq. cm
(3) 60 sq. cm
(4) 480 sq. cm
50. Which of the following angles cannot be constructed
with the help of a compass and a scale?
(1) 30° (2)1
222
(3) 165° (4) 87°
51. The difference between total surface area and
curved surface area of a hemisphere of radius r is
(1) 2r2
(2) 3r2
(3) r2
(4) 4r2
52. If there are 20 blue balls, 15 red balls and 10
green balls in a bag and a ball is drawn at random
from the bag, then the probability of the ball not to
be green is
(1)2
9(2)
4
9
(3)13
9(4)
7
9
53. If PQ || RS || UV and a transversal AB intersects
PQ, RS and UV at C, D and E respectively, then
which of the following is an incorrect conclusion?
A
C
D
E
S
QP
R
U V
B
(1) ACQ + VEB = 180°
(2) ACQ = UEB
(3) RDE + VEB = 180°
(4) ACP = DEV
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
54. ABC and PBC are two isosceles triangles onthe same base BC such that AB = AC and
PB = PC. If BAC = 30° and BPC = 40°, thenABP is
B C
P
A
(1) 170° (2) 135°
(3) 145° (4) 180°
55. In the given ABC, if AC > AB and ADB >ADC, then
B D C
A
(1) BAD > CAD (2) BAD < CAD
(3) BAD = CAD (4) BAD CAD
56. x3 + 3x2 – 2x – 6 can be factorised as
(1) ( 3)( 3)( 2)x x x
(2) (x + 2) (x – 3) (x + 1)
(3) (x – 2) (x + 3) (x – 1)
(4) ( 2)( 2)( 3)x x x
57. If the ratio of curved surface area and total surface
area of a cone is 3 : 4, then the ratio of height and
radius of the cone is
(1) 4 2 :1 (2) 2 2 :1
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
58. A polynomial of degree 6 in y has at most____
unlike terms
(1) 6 (2) 5
(3) 7 (4) 2
59. In the given figure, PQ || SW and QT || UV. If
PQT = 70°, then the measure of VUW is
PS
R
U
W
Q T
V
(1) 110° (2) 70°
(3) 120° (4) 20°
60. The mean of first eight composite natural numbers
is
(1) 10 (2) 9.75
(3) 3.625 (4) 8
61. The probability of an event of a trial cannot be
(1)1
2(2)
2
3
(3)4
3(4)
5
6
62. The distance of the point (–6, –2) from the x-axis
is
(1) 8 units (2) 6 units
(3) 2 units (4) 4 units
63. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle. If
OA = 10 cm, AB = 16 cm, then the distance of
AB from the centre is
A C B
O
(1) 12 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 8 cm (4) 6 cm
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
64. If 1
,3 2 2
x
then the value of
2
1
x
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
is
(1) 17 12 2 (2) 17 2 2
(3) 12 17 2 (4) 12 17 2
65. If p2 + 4p + q2 + 8q + r2 + 10r = –45, then the
value of p + q – r is
(1) 11 (2) –1
(3) 1 (4) –11
66. In the given figure, NETA is a square. If PQ || EA
and M is the mid-point of PQ, then which of the
following is true?
3 12
4 8
6
M
PA T
7
5
Q
EN
(1)1
7 82
(2) 3 = 24
(3) 12 (4) 56
67. On putting x = 15 in x – 10 0,7
y we get
y2 – 5 as
(1) 1225 (2) 1210
(3) 1220 (4) 1230
68. To construct a triangle, if its base and a base
angle are given, then which of the following
conditions must also be given?
(1) Product of other two sides
(2) Sum of other two angles
(3) Difference of other two sides
(4) Difference of other two angles
69. The capacity (in liters) of a cylindrical vessel of
height 100 cm and radius 70 cm is
(1) 1540
(2) 15.4
(3) 154
(4) 1.54
70. Three coins are tossed 570 times and the
outcomes are recorded as below
Number of Tail 3 2 1 0
Frequency 255 90 125 100
Based on this information, the probability of getting
at most two tails is
(1)23
28(2)
21
38
(3)3
19(4)
15
38
71. In the given figure, AC and BD are two diameters
and O is the centre of the circle. If OP and OR are
the angle bisectors of DOC and AOBrespectively, then BR is always equal to
R
A
P
OC
B
D
(1) DC (2) PC
(3) AO (4) OC
72. If the area of an equilateral triangle is2
4 3 cm ,
then the perimeter of triangle is (in cm)
(1) 16 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 10
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Sample Paper Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018
73. ABCD is a rhombus and OP AD. If AOP = 20°,then measure of CBO is equal to
20°
D B
A
C
P
O
(1) 70° (2) 90°
(3) 20° (4) 50°
74. ABCD and PQCA are two parallelograms. If
ar(ABCD) = x sq. units, then ar(APQC) is equal to
A
P
B
Q
CD
(1) 2x sq. units (2) x sq. units
(3)2
x
sq. units (4) 3x sq. units
75. In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class
is 12.5 and the width of the class is 7. The lower
limit and upper limit of the class are respectively
(1) 10, 17 (2) 9, 16
(3) 12, 19 (4) 8, 17
76. The volume of the largest right circular cone that can
be fitted in a cube whose edge is 4r is equal to
(1) Volume of a hemisphere of radius r
(2) Volume of a sphere of radius 2
r
(3) Volume of a hemisphere of radius 2r
(4) Volume of a sphere of radius 2r
77. If x3001 + 71 is divided by x + 1, then the remainder is
(1) 72 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 70
78. A rational number between 3 and 5 is
(1)3 5
2
(2)
3 5
2
(3) 1.9 (4) 2.5
79. The graph of y = 7 is a line
(1) Parallel to x-axis at a distance of 7 units above
the origin
(2) Parallel to y-axis at a distance of 7 units on
the left of the origin
(3) Making an intercept of 7 cm on the x-axis
(4) Making an intercept of 7 cm on both the axes
80. If an isosceles right triangle has an area of
32 cm2, then the length of its hypotenuse is
(1) 128 cm (2) 64 cm
(3) 96 cm (4) 160 cm
81. With the help of a ruler and a compass, it is not
possible to construct an angle of
(1) 15° (2) 11.25°
(3) 18.75° (4) 20°
82. The figure obtained by joining the mid-points of all
the adjacent sides of a rectangle of sides 48 cm
and 14 cm is a
(1) Rectangle of area 336 cm2
(2) Square of area 324 cm2
(3) Rhombus of area 336 cm2
(4) Trapezium of area 330 cm2
83. The value of 2.9 + 2.19 in the form p
q, where p
and q are integers and q 0 is
(1)21
5(2)
26
5
(3)17
5(4)
14
5
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Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018 Sample Paper
� � �
84. Which of the following expressions is a
polynomial?
(1)1
1 5
3 xx (2) 1 3x
(3)( 3)( 5)x x
x
(4)
7/29 2
5
x x
x
85. The coordinates of a point on the graph of the linear
equation 3x + 4y = 11, whose abscissa is 1
23
times its ordinate are
(1)7,1
3
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(2)28
, 43
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(3)7 1,
6 2
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
(4)7 1,
9 3
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
86. If the sides of a triangle are 11 cm, 60 cm and
61 cm, then the length of its longest altitude is
(1) 60 cm (2) 10.8 cm
(3) 50 cm (4) 12.4 cm
87. In the given figure, the measure of SRQ is
50°
OQP
S
R
(1) 60° (2) 40°
(3) 100° (4) 50°
88. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram,
then which of the following alternatives is not true?
O
Q
SM
N
R
P
(1) ar(POM) = ar(QOR)
(2) ar(QRM) = ar(SMN)
(3) ar(PSM) = ar(SMN)
(4) ar(PRS) = ar(PNS)
89. If S is a point on the side QR of PQR such thatPS bisects QPR, then
(1) QS = RS
(2) QP > QS
(3) QS > QP
(4) RS > RP
90. A closed cylinder of base diameter 42 cm and
height 14 cm is dipped vertically one third in a
bucket full of paint. How much area gets painted?
(1) 2002 cm2 (2) 6776 cm2
(3) 1001 cm2 (4) 4224 cm2
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Answers
Test Booklet Code: A
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph. 011-47623456
19. (2)
20. (3)
21. (2)
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53. (4)
54. (3)
Admission-cum-Scholarship Test(Sample Paper)
(Integrated Classroom Course for Olympiads, NTSE & Class X 2018)
55. (2)
56. (4)
57. (2)
58. (3)
59. (1)
60. (2)
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88. (3)
89. (2)
90. (1)
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