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AMIMI ( INDIA) EXAMINATIONTHE INSTITUTE OF MOTOR INDUSTRY

CHENNAI-10Code No- 1701

Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100

ALL QUESTION CARRIES EQUAL MARKS:

I. WRITE THE MEANING OF THE FOLLOWING TECHNICAL WORDS:a. Ignition b. Erosion c. Ductile d. Currente. Melting f. dissolving g. Electron h. retardationi. oscillation j. pressure k. kinetic energy l. conductionm. reactance n. generator o. reflection p. opaqueq. nucleus r. fusion s. reactor t. radio isotope

II. a. REWRITE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE USING NOUN FORM OF THE VERBS UNDERLINED:1. If the engine overheats, then the efficiency will decrease2. Both cold pressure and resistance welding requires small amount of heat.3. If the machines are tested by this method, there will be some loss of power.4. The use of superheated steam improves the performance.

b. COMPLETE THE STATEMENT GIVEN BELOW USING ADJECTIVE FORM OF WORDS GIVEN IN BRACKET: 1. __________ (case ) handling of chemicals is necessary in laboratories. 2. A ______ ( protect) area can be opened to development only after approval from state legislature. 3. The growth of _____ (industry) town causes many people leave the country side. 4. Better performance of a machine is ensured by ______ (regularity) maintenance.

c. FILL IN THE BLANKS IN THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE USING VERBS IN SIMPLE PRESENT FORM: 1. Pressure waves _____ sub surface water, turning solid sediments into fluids. 2. Ultrasonic welding _______ from resistance welding only by amount of heat applied. 3. Enormous oil deposits _________ under the surface of earth. 4. Every year scientists all over the world ______ new grains with increased yields.

d. FILL IN THE BLANKS WITH SUITABLE WORDS: 1. Over the last forty years computer ________ dramatically 2. Nuclear fuels give out dangerous and very ______ radiations. 3. She left the theatre when the play ________ on 4. The _______ yet found an effective means of safety dumping the nuclear waste.

f. COMPLETE THE FOLLOWING SENTENCE USING APPROPRIATE FUTURE FORM OF VERB. CHOOSE THE VERB FROM THE GIVEN LIST.1. With surfaces software, the company _______ a fifty percent reduction in modeling time.2. Ozone molecules ______ 3 atoms of oxygen bound together3. If he had some practical training in a workshop, he _____ the defects in the engine.4. If he does his masters degree in material science, he _____ admission to the ME courses.

( Test, contain, achieve, rectify, come, do, get, attend)

III. READ THE PASSAGE BELOW AND ANSWER BRIEFLY THE QUESTIONS APPENDED BELOW: Oil, the major source of energy in the world today, has had a dramatic effect of the world’s economy. Until quite recently, the demand for oil seemed unlimited. This enormous demand motivated several multinational companies to invest vast sums of money in locating and exploiting any large oil deposits that could be found. Some of these multinationals became extremely wealthy, although the countries in which they found oil did not always have much of a share in this new-found wealth.

However, oil-rich countries came to realize that if they acted together, their all deposits could be a source of great power and wealth. Indeed in 1973, the organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) which together produced 56 percent of the world’s petroleum at that time decided to act together to force an increase in the price in oil. By united action OPEC was able to take control of the rates of production and of prices away from the multinational companies. This action, by a group of developing countries almost held the developed world of random. Limiting the supply of oil led to sharp increase in what was becoming a scarce, though still vital, commodity. Without oil, the economics of the developed countries would have come to a virtual stand-still. Almost overnight, there was a huge shift of wealth from industrial nation as to the oil-exporting nations. Another effect was that industrialized countries became more interested in energy conservation. Indeed, by effect was that industrialized countries came more interested in energy conservation. Indeed, by 1980, World Oil consumption was down by 3 percent on 1973 levels. A more long term effect was that other sources of energy which has previously been considered too costly now became economically feasible.

a. Write whether the following statements are True or False:i. Oil is a fossil fuelii. England showed little interest in energy conservation as she could affor to buy oiliii. Even without oil, the developed countries would have improvediv. Oil is a renewable energyv. The increase in the price of oil has not affected the economy of the developed countries.b. Give brief answer to the following questions:

i. Why do the multinational companies invest in locating oil?ii. How did the oil-rich countries make use of the World’s demand for oil?iii. List any two effects of the demand for oil

c. i. Choose the correct answer: Feasible means _________ a. encouragement b. impossible c. possible d. imperfection ii. Complete the following sentence meaningfully: In 1980, when compared to 1973, the world consumption of oil has shown _______ iii. Find out one word substitute to the following: 1. not much, hard to find 2. almost what is stated

IV. LETTER WRITING: Read the following advertisements & draft a suitable letter of application: We are looking for a competent mechanical engineer with about 10 years experience in the field of technical services of Engineering products, sound and broad based technical knowledge and good interpersonal skills are required. Apply with biodata.

V. WRITE AN ESSAY OF ABOUT 300 WORDS ON : Waste Management in India Or Impact of new technology on Automobile Engineering



Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100SECTION-A

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 20 x 2 = 40 Marks1. If 1 3 5

m 5 7 = 0, then find the value of m. 3 9 1

2. Find the value of the determinant cos θ -sin θ

sin θ cos θ

3. Multiply the matrices. A= 2 3 with B = a b 4 5 c d

4. Define i. Unit matrix ii. Diagonal matrix.5. if nP2 = 2 Find the value of n.6. How many teams of 6 members can be formed from a group of 12 players?7. Find the coefficient of x5 in the expansion of ( x- 1/x)11

8. Find the general term in the expansion of (a/b + b/a) n

9. Find the unit vector parallel to 3i + j - 2k10. Find the projection of i +2j + 2k on 2i + j + 2k.11. If a= 2i-j+k, b=i+mj, c=3i-4j +5k are coplanar. Find the value of m.12. Define moment of a force about a point.13. Find the conjugate of (1+i)(3+4i)14. If Z1 = (2,5) and Z2 =(-1,4) Find Z1 Z2.15. Simplify (sin θ + cos v) n

16. State Demoivre’s theorem.17. A box contains 6 white balls and 5 black balls. If 3 balls are drawn at random, what is the probability that the balls drawn are white?18. When two dice are thrown, find the probability of getting the sum of the face number greater than 2.19. P(A) = 0.24 P(B) = 0.035 and P(AB)= 0.03 Find P(A/B)20. For 2 events A and B, Prove that P(AB) = 1 P(n). P(B/A).

II. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTION. 6 x 10 = 60 Marks1. Solve using Cramer’s Rule. 3x + y +z =3, 2x +2y + 5z =-1, -3y -4z = 2 (doubt?)2. Find the Rank of A+B and AB in case of the following matrices

1 1 1 1 5 4 A = 2 2 2 B = 0 3 2 3 3 3 2 13 10

3. Prove by mathematical induction 2 + 4 + 6 + 8 + ……….+2n = n(n+1)4. If x is small, show that 1 - x/1 + x = 1 - x + x2/2 (approx) using Binomial theorem.

5. Prove that the points 2i + 4j + 3k, 4i+ j+9k and 10i + j + 6k form a right angled triange.6. Find the angle between 2 diagonals of a cube.7. Prove that the points 2- 2i, 8+4i, 5+7i, -1 + i form a rectangle.8. If n is a positive integer, prove that ( 1+ i√3)n + (1- i√3)n = 2n+1 cos (n /3)9. Find the probability distribution of number of sixes in throwing two dice once.10.A player tosses 2 fair coins. He wins Rs. 5 if 2 heads appear, Rs. 2 if 1 head appears

and Rs. 1 if no head occur. Find the amount he expects to win.



Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100PART-A

I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. (40 Marks)1. Convert the following a. 4/11 to degree b. 240 to radians2. Prove that 1 + 1 = 2 sec2θ 1 + sin θ 1 - sin θ3. Give the cosine formula for any triangle ABC.4. Give any two formulae for area of triangle.5. Give the condition for (x1,y1),(x2,y2),(x3,y3) to be collinear.6. The distance of a point from y axis is 5 times its distance from origin, find the equation of the locus.7. Find the distance between the parallel lines 3x + 4y + 6 =0 and 3x +4y -7 =08. The equation of line passing through (1, -2) and (5,8)9. Give the condition of 2 circles to cut orthogonally.10. Find the centre and radius of x2 + y2 -8x -6y -24 =011. Solve Lt x3 +1 x -1 x + 112. Solve Lt sin 3θ θ 0 sin 4θ13. Differetiate x + 1/x14. y = e -4x find d2y/dx2

15. Find the slope of the tangent at (2,6) on 2y = 3x2

16. Determine the domain of increase and decrease of the function y = x2 - 4x +317. Find ∫dx / 16 - x2

18. Find ∫ 36 - x2 dx 19. Evaluate ∫dx / 1 + x2

20. State any two properties of definite integral.

PART-BII. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10 = 60 Marks

1. Show that Cos A + Cos B + Cos C = 1 + 4 sinº A/2 sinº B/2 sinº C/22. Solve the triangle A = 72º 19’ B= 83º1’ c= 92.933. A and B are the fixed points (a,0) and (-a,0) respectively. Find the equation of the locus

of the point P such that PA + PB = constant.4. Find the equation of the straight line passing through the intersection of 3x + 4y = 7 and

x -y +2 = 0 and slope = 5.5. Find the equation of circle which touches the x and y axes and passes through the

point (2,1) 6. If x is a positive integer and Lt xn -2n = 80 find n x 2 x - 27. Differentiage cosec2 (x/2)8. Examine for maxima and minima using first derivative test 2x3 + 3x2 - 36x + 10.9. Integrate ∫ 2x + 3 / -1 + x - 2x2 dx10. Evaluate ∫ x log x dx




PART-A

I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 20 x 2 = 40 Marks1. Define One standard metre.2. What are the uses of dimensional formula?3. Define a vector.4. What is a projectile? Give examples.5. What is Hooke’s law?6. A 4m long aluminium wire with cross sectional area 1x10-6 m2 is used to support a weight

of 50 N. If the elongation of wire is 2.5 mm. Calculate the Young’s modulus for aluminium.7. Write any two postulates of kinetic theory of gases.8. Define Kirchoff’s law.9. The length of simple pendulum is 2.45m. What is its frequency?10.Define simple harmonic motion.11.Why is the central image of Newton’s ring dark?12.State Brewster’s law.13.Define magnetic field. Give its units.14.Give the formula for Tan A and Tan B position?15.State Coulomb’s inverse square law.16.Three resistors have resistances 20kΩ 15 kΩ , 5kΩ . What is their effective resistance

when they are connected in (i) series (ii) parallel17.Write any 2 properties of cathode rays?18.Define Photo electric effect?19.Why is the base of transistor extremely thin?20.What are universal gates? Why are they called so?

PART - BANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10= 60 Marks1. Using Dimension derive an expression for the period of a simple pendulum?2. Derive an expression for the resultant velocity of a body projected horizontally from the

top of a building.3. In Carnot engine explain isothermal and adiabatic expansion.4. Determine the surface temperature of water by capillary rise method.5. What is the cause for oscillating pendulum to come to rest after sometime?6. Write notes on a. Brewster’s law b. Double refraction7. Write in detail the principle and construction of Tangent Galvanometer.8. Explain in detail how a galvanometer is converted into voltmeter.9. Describe the uses of Radio isotopes in Medicine.10.With a neat diagram explain the working of a full wave rectifier?




PART-AI. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS: 20 x 2 = 40 Marks

1. State Hund’s rule.2. State any two uses of lanthanides.3. What are simple salts?4. Name the following complexes : i. Pt IV(NH3)Cl2)2+ ii. (CoIII(NH3)6)3+

5. Give any two characteristics of Ionic bond.6. What is meant by hybridization?7. State Raoults Law.8. What is Osmosis?9. Define Reaction rate10.What is meant by Catalysis?11.What is meant by cell constant? Give its equation.12.What is common ion effect?13. How do you prepare acids from Grignard reagents? Give an example.14.What is Dow’s process?15.Give two test for aldehyde.16.How is acetone prepared from alchohol?17.Give the structure of Benzene diazonium chloride?18.What is diazotization? Give an example.19.How is TNT prepared?20.Write any 2 difference between thermosetting and thermoplastics?


1. How is phosphine prepared? Explain its (i) properties (ii) Uses2. Explain Werner’s theory of coordination compounds?3. How do you predict the shapes of BeCl2, BF3, NH3 and CH4 molecules by application of

VSEPR theory?4. Describe the measuring of depression in freezing point using Beckman thermometer?5. Derive the expression for rate constant k= 2.303 / t log a/ a-x6. Give the postulates of Arrhenius theory?7. Explain vector Meyer’s test for distinction between three classes of alcohols?8. Discuss the optical activity of Tartaric acids?9. How are the following prepared from aniline?

a. 2,4,6 tribromo aniline b. p-nitro aniline c. benzoquinoned. benzene diazonium chloride

10. Write short notes on a. Thermosetting plastics b. Thermoplastics with examples. Also give their differences.




PART-AI. ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS: 20 x 2= 40 Marks1. Who is called the father of computer? What was his contribution?2. What is the characteristics difference between arithmetic engine and analytical engine?3. Name the five major characteristics of computer.4. What are the 3 parts of central processing unit?5. Define RAM.6. How is data organized on a magnetic tape drive?7. Name the physical devices used to construct memories.8. How does a pen plotter work?9. How are computers classified based on computer power?10.What is e-mail used for?11. What is the difference between an ideal microcomputer and an actual microcomputer?12.What is the purpose of address bus and data bus in a microprocessor?13.What is the binary equivalent of (23) 10 ?14. Find the hexadecimal equivalent of ( .5828) 10.15.State the duality principle.16. What are the elements used to fabricate a transistors?17.What is an operating system?18.What is a shell in Unix?19.What does COBOL stand for?20.What is an assembler?


1. Describe briefly the components used in I, II, III and IV generation computers.2. With the help of a block diagram of a personal computer describe the various units in it.3. Explain how data is organized on a hard disk.4. Write in brief about the different output devices used in a computer.5. Write the application and examples of analog, digital & hybrid computers.6. Describe the logic structure of a typical microprocessor.7. Divide the following by long Hand

i. 1011011 / 11 ii. 110111 / 10118. Illustrate the identity ( A+B).(A+C) = (A+B).C by Venn diagram.9. Describe the Batch operating system of a computer.10.Compare and classify the high level, low level and assembly level language.




I. ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS. ALL QUESTIONS CARRY EQUAL MARKS.

1. Construct an equilateral triangle ABC of 40 mm side. Construct a square, a regular pentagon and a regular hexagon on its sides AB, BC and CA respectively.

2. Draw an ellipse by concentric circles method and find the length of the minor axis with the help of the following data: (i) Major axis = 100 mm (ii) Distance between foci 80 mm.

3. A line AB, 65 mm long, has its end A in the H.P. and 15 mm in front of the V.P. The end B is in the third quadrant. The line is inclined at 30º to the H.P. and at 60º to the V.P. Draw its projections.

4. A cube of 65 mm long edges has its vertical faces equally inclined to the V.P. It is cut by a section plane, perpendicular to the V.P. so that the true shape of the section is a regular hexagon. Determine the inclination of the cutting plane with the H.P. and draw the sectional top view and true shape of the section.

5. Draw the isometric view of the clamping piece shown in the figure.



Time: 3 Hrs Max. Marks: 100ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS: ( 25 Marks)I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER:1. Vector Quantities are those quantities which have a. Magnitude as well as direction b. Magnitude only c. Direction only d. All of the above2. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position is called a. potential energy b. Kinetic energy c. electrical energy d. chemical energy3. The linear velocity of a body rotating at ω rad/s along a circular path of radius r is given by a. ω.r b. ω / r c. ω2.r d. ω2 / r4. Which of the following is an inversion of single slider crank chain? a. Beam engine b. Watt’s indicator mechanism c. Ellliptical Trammerls d. Whitworth quick return motion mechanism e. all of the above f. none of the above5. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body and is at a distance equal to a. h / kg b. h.g c. h2 / kg d. k2

g /hl6. The instantaneous centre which vary with the configuration of the mechanism are called a. permanent instantaneous centre b. fixed instantaneous centres c. neither fixed nor permanent instantaneous centres d. none of the above7. The direction of linear velocity of any point on a link with respect to another point on the same link a. parallel to the link joining the points b. perpendicular to the link joining the points c. at 45º to the link joining the points d. none of the above8. The coriolis component of acceleration is taken into account for a. slider crank mechanism b. four bar chain mechanism c. quick return motion mechanism d. none of these9.The driving and driven shafts connected by a Hooke’s joint will have equal speeds, if a. cos θ = sin α b. sin θ = ± √ tan α c. tan θ = ± √cos α d. cot θ= cos α10. The efficiency of a screw jack is given by a. tan ( α + Φ) / tan b. tan α / tan α + Φ c. tan ( α - Φ) / tan α d. tan α / tan (α- Φ)11. The centrifugal tension in bells a. increases power transmitted b. decreases power transmitted c. have no effect on the power transmitted d. increases power transmitted upto a certain speed and then decreases12. The two parallel and coplanar shafts are connected by gears having teeth parallel to the axis of the shaft. This arrangement is called a. spur gearing b. helical gearing c. Bevel gearing d. spiral gearing13. The train value of a gear train is a. equal to velocity ratio of a gear train b. reciprocal of velocity ratio of a gear train c. always greater than unity d. always less than unity14. When the pitching of a ship is upward, the effect of gyroscopic couple acting on it will be a. to move the ship towards port side b. to move the ship towards star-board c. to raise the bow and lower the stern d. to raise the stern and lower the bow15. When the crank is at the inner dead centre, in a horizontal reciprocating steam engine,then the velocity of the piston will be a. zero b. minimum c. maximum

16. The ratio of the maximum fluctuation of speed to the main speed is called a. Fluctuation of speed b. maximum fluctuation of speed c. coefficient of fluctuation of speed d. none of these17. In Meyer’s expansion value, main value is driven by eccentric having an angle of advance a. 10º - 15º b. 15º - 25º c. 25º - 30º d. 30º - 40º18. When the speed of the engine fluctuates continuously above and below the main speed, the governor is a. stable b. unstable c. isochronous d. hunt19. Which of the following is an absorption type dynamometer?

a. prony brake dynamometer b. rope brake dynamometerc. epicyclic-train dynamometer d. torsion dynamometer e. both a and b

20. In a radial cam, the follower moves a. In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis b. in a direction parallel to the cam axis c. in any direction irrespective of the cam axis d. along the cam axis21. For static balancing of a shaft a. the net dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero b. the net couple due to dynamic force acting on the shaft is equal to zero c. both a and b d. none of the above22. The swaying couple is due to the a. primary unbalanced force b. secondary unbalanced force c. two cylinders of locomotive d. partial balancing23. Longitudinal vibrations are said to occur when the particles of a body moves a. perpendicular to its axis b. parallel to its axis c. In a circle about its axis 24. At a nodal point in a shaft, the amplitude of a torsional vibration is a. zero b. minimum c. maximum25. A simple Bourdon tube pressure gauge is a a. closed-loop control system b. open-loop control system c. manually operated system d. none of these

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 15 = 15 Marks1. What is energy?2. State Kennedy’s Theorem.3. What is centrifugal tension in a belt?4. Define the term co-efficient of fluctuation of speed?5. What is meant by torsionally equivalent length of a shaft to a stepped shaft?

III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10 = 60 Marks1. A particle moving with a uniform velocity has no tangential acceleration. Explain clearly.2. Describe the method to find the velocity of a point on a link whose direction (or path) is

known and the velocity of some other point on the same link in magnitude and direction is given?

3. Sketch a pantograph, explain its working and show that it can be used to reproduce to an enlarged scale a given figure.

4. What is meant by the expression ‘friction circle’? Deduce an expression for the radius of friction circle in terms of the radius of the journal and the angle of friction.

5. Discuss the effect of the gyroscopic couple on a two wheeled vehicle when taking a turn?

6. Draw and explain Klien’s construction for determining the velocity and acceleration of the piston in a slider crank mechanism

7. What is the difference between absorption and transmission dynamometers? What are torsion dynamometers?

8. Derive the following expressions, for an uncoupled two cylinder locomotive engine: a. Variation is tractive force b. swaying couple c. hammer blow

9. Derive an expression for the natural frequency of free transverse and longitudinal vibrations by equilibrium method.

10.Derive the expressions for displacement, velocity and acceleration for a circular arc cam operating a flat-faced follower

i. when the contact is on the circular flank, andii. when the contact is on circular nose




ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS.I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWERS: (25 Marks)

1. Which of the following are the thermal properties of materials? a. Fatigue b. specific heat c. thermal conductivity d. fracture e. both a and d f. both b and c2. Which bond is available in the three states of matter? a. metallic bond b. covalent bond c. ionic bond d. Vander Waal’s bond3. The bond in which atoms of the same or different elements give up their valence electrons to form an electron cloud ( or electron gas ) throughout the space occupied by the atoms, is known as a. ionic bond b. metallic bond c. covalent bond d. none of the above4. A material having different properties in different directions is known as a. amorphous b. copolymer c. anisotropic d. austenite5. The Miller Indices are the same for a. parallel planes b. perpendicular planes c. orthogonal planes d. crystallographic planes6. The mass of an electron varies with variation in a. Electrostatic field b. magnetic field c. gravitational field d. speed7. Cathode rays are a. stream of cathodes b. moving charges of either sign c. moving electrons d. moving ions8. Manganin contains a. copper, nickel and manganese b. copper, nickel and lead c. Zinc, nickel and aluminium d. nickel, cobalt and chromium9. Out of the four materials, manganin, nichrome, tantenum and kanthal, the following has the highest resistivity a. Manganin b. Kanthal c. Nichrome D. Tantenum10. For a given dielectric, the electronic polarizability αe

a. Increases with temperature b. is not affected by temperature c. decreases with temperature d. may increase or decrease with temperature11. Dielectric strength of a material is a. the capacity to take two or more stresses b. the capacity to withstand higher voltage c. the capacity to withstand electrical and mechanical shocks d. none of the above12. Above the Curie temperature, a magnetic materials becomes a. Ferromagnetic b. paramagnetic c. Diamagnetic d. none of the above13. The following material is used for making permanent magnets a. Platinum cobalt b. Alnico V c. carbon stee d. all the three14. Super conductivity results due to a. all electrons having Fermi energy at 0 K

b. crystal structure having no atomic vibrations at 0Kc. all electrons interacting in the super conducting stated. crystal structure having infinite atomic vibrations at 0K

15. At critical temperature Tc, the value of the critical magnetic fields Hc is a. critical temperature Tc b. critical magnetic field strength Hc

c. critical current density Jc d. none of these16. The number of semiconductors in periodic table is a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 1317. The structure of a semiconductor is like that of a

a. triangle b. diamond c. circle d. rhombus18. Araldite isa. Epoxy resin b. a thermo setting plastic c. a vegetable oil resi d. none of the above19. Polyethylene is produced by

a. condensation polymerization b. additional polymerizationc. substitutional polymerization d. any of the above

20. Radiography is based on thea. differential absorption b. reflection of radio wavesc. reflection of the civil light d. transmitting and receiving the radio waves

21. Which of the following tests are known as destructive testa. radiography b. ultrasonic inspection c. Tensile testd. Bend test e. only a and b f. only c and d

22. FRP is a a. composite material b. Highly conductive materialc. high strength material than steel d. Highly ductile material than copper

23. Lithium Niobate is useda. as a SAW material b. as a LED material c. to make optical fibred. to make laser

24. Which of the following are the heat treatment processes?a. normalizing b. annealing c. hardening of quenchingd. tempering e. all of the above f. none of the above

25. In case of Rockwell harness test as compared to Brinell hardness testa. Indenters and loads are larger b. Indenters and loads are smallerc. Indenters are larger but loads are smaller d. Indenters are smaller but loads are

smaller (doubt:larger ?)

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 5 x 3 = 15 Marks1. Define the terms Unit Cell, Space lattices and Millers Indices.2. What is meant by tuned effect?3. What is ferromagnetism?4. What are SAW materials?5. Define creep.

III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS. (ESSAY TYPE QUESTION) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks1. Briefly explain the various properties of Engineering materials?2. Explain the term symmetry in crystal structure. Show that a five fold symmetry is not

possible in crystal structure?3. Explain the covalent binding in molecular hydrogen. Give reasons for the formation of

four covalent bonds in carbon?4. State the general features of electrical condition in metals. Develop the Drude-Lorentz

theory to get an expression for the conductivity ‘ ‘.How fat the above result agree with observed variation of conductivity with temperature.

5. Write an essay on superconducting materials and their applications.6. Describe the different types of polymers and their applications in Engineering?7. Describe the Electrical and Magnetic nondestructive testing methods?8. Discuss the different fiber optic materials along with their properties related to

communication.9. Discuss the various technological properties associated with the engineering materials.10. Explain the high temperature corrosion with a suitable example.




ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS.I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks) 1. Which of the following statement is correct?

a. a force is an agent which produces or tens to produce motionb. a force is an agent which stops or tends to stop motionc. a force may balance a given number of forces acting on a bodyd. both a and b

2. A couple consists of two a. like parallel forces of same magnitude b. like parallel forces of different magnitudesc. unlike parallel forces of same magnituded. unlike parallel forces of different magnitudes

3. If a body is in equilibrium, we may conclude thata. No force is acting on the bodyb. the resultant of all the forces acting on it is zeroc. the moments of the forces about any point is zerod. both b and c

4. The centre of gravity of a right circular cone of diameter (d) and height(h) lies at a distance of _____ from the base measured along the vertical radius

a. h/2 b. h/3 c. h/4 d. 4/65. The moment of inertia of a triangular section of base(b) and height (h) about and axis passing through its vertex and parallel to the base is _____ as that passing through its C.G. and parallel to the base a. twelve times b. nine times c. six times d. four times6. The force of friction between two bodies in contact

a. depends upon the area of their contractb. depends upon the relative velocity between themc. is always normal to the surface of their contact d. all of the above

7. A wedge is generally used for lifting aa. light load through a small distance b. light load through a large distancec. heavy load through a small distance d. heavy load through a long distance

8. If the number of pulleys in a system is equal to its velocity ratio, then it is a set ofa. first system of pulleys b. second system of pulleys c. third system of pulleys9. A lecturer told the class that if a body is projected upwards from any point, then the body while coming down at the same point will have the same velocity with which it was projected upwards. Is his statement correct?

a. agree b. disagree10. The relationship between linear velocity and angula velocity of a cycle

a. exists under all conditions b. does not exist under all conditionsc. exist only when it does not slip d. exists only when it moves on horizontal plane

11. The range of projectile on a downward inclined plane is ____. The range on upward inclined plane for same velocity and angle of projection

a. less than b. equal to c. more than

12. Which of the following statement is wrong? a. the matter contained in a body is called is massb. the force with which a body is attracted towards the centre of the earth is called

weightc. the total motion possessed by moving body is called impulsive forced. none of the above

13. The potential energy of a mass (m) kg raised through a height(h) metres isa. m.h newtons b. g.h newtons c. m.g.h. newtons d. none of these

14. Modulus of elasticity is the ratio oa. stress to strain b. stress to original lengthc. deformation to original d. all of these

15. Thermal stress is caused, when the temperature of a bodya. is increased b. is decreased c. remains constant d. either a or b

16. The total strain energy stored in a body is known asa. impact energy b. resilience c. proof resilience d. modulus of resilience

17. The point of contra flexure is a point wherea. shear force changes sign b. bending moment changes signc. shear forces maximum d. bending moment is maximum

18. An inverted T-section is subjected to a shear force F. The maximum shear stress will occur at

a. top of the section b. neutral axis of the sectionc. junction of web and flange

19. Two imply supported beams of the same span carry the same load. If the first beam carries the total load as a point at its centre and the other uniformly distributed over the whole span, then ratio of maximum slopes of first beam to the second will be

a. 1:1 b. 1:1.5 c. 1.5:1 d. 2:120. The maximum slope of a cantilever carrying a point load at its free end is at the a. fixed end b. center of the span c. free end d. none of these21. A shaft revolving at (N) r.p.m. transmits torque(T) in kg-m. The power developed is

a. 2 NTkW b. 2 NT / 30 kW c. 2 NT / 60 kW d. 2 NT / 120 kW22. When one plate overlaps the other end and both the plates are riveted with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as

a. single riveted lap joint b. double riveted lap jointc. double riveted single cover butt joint d. double riveted double cover butt joint

23. The design of a thin cylindrical shell is based ona. internal pressure b. diameter of shell c. longitudinal stress d. all of

these24. A framed structure is perfect, if the number of members are _____ ( 2j-3), where j is the number of joints.

a. less than b. equal to c. greater than d. either a or c25. If in a vector diagram, any two points coincides, then the force in the member represented by two letters is zero a. true b. false

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 5 = 15 Marks1. State triangle of force?2. What is Routh’s rule for finding out the moment of Inertia of an area?3. Distinguish between Mass & Weight.4. Define strain energy.5. What do you understand by the term ‘riveted joint’?

III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS (ESSAY TYPE QUESTION) 6 x 10= 60 Marks1. What is meant by moment of a force? How will you explain it mathematically?2. What are the different methods of studying the equilibrium of coplanar forces? Describe

any one of them.3. A 4m long ladder has to support a load of 500N applied at its mid-point. The ladder is

to rest against a rough vertical wall and rough horizontal floor. The coefficient of friction between the ladder and wall is 0.2 and that between ladder and floor is 0.3. Determine the least possible inclination of the ladder with the horizontal.

4. What is a pulley? State the working of first system, second system and third system of pulleys. Derive relations for their respective velocity ratios.

5. Derive an expression for the tension in the cable supporting a lift when(i) it is going up (ii) it is coming down

6. Describe the procedure for finding out the stresses in a composite bat.7. Explain briefly the relationship between shear force and bending moment at a section?8. Describe the procedure for drawing the shear stress distribution diagram for composite

sections. 9. With the help of moment area method, derive an expression for the slope of a

cantilever beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its span.10.Derive a relation for the changes of diameter and length of a thin cylindrical shell, when

subjected to an internal pressure.




ANSWER THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS.I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks)

1. The specific heat at constant pressure is ______ that of specific heat at constant volume. a. equal to b. less than c. more than2. An adiabatic process is one in which a. no heat enters or leaves the gas b. the temperature of the gas changes b. the change in internal energy is equal to the work done d. all of the above3. The change of entropy when heat is absorbed by the gas is

a. positive b. negative c. positive or negative4. A cycle consisting of two constant volume and two isothermal processes is known as

a. Carnot cycle b. Joule cycle c. Diesel cycle d. Stirling cycle5. The throttling process, on the h-s diagram, will be a

a. horizontal line b. vertical line c. inclined line d. curve6. The Rankine cycle, as compared to Carnot cycle, has _____ work ratio.

a. high b. low7. The fuel mostly used in boilers is

a. brown coal b. peat c. caking bituminous coald. non-caking bituminous coal

8. Which of the following boiler is best suited to meet the fluctuating demand of steam?a. Locomotive boiler b. Lancashire boilerc. Cornish boiler d. Babcock and Wilcox boiler

9. In a boiler, various heat losses takes place. the biggest loss is due toa. moisture in fuel b. dry flue gases c. steam formation d. unburnt carbon

10. The actual power supplied by the engine crankshaft is calleda. indicated power b. brake power c. frictional power

11. The ratio of actual vacuum to the ideal vacuum in a condenser is calleda. condenser efficiency b. vaccum efficiencyc. boiler efficiency d. nozzle efficiency

12. In a nozzle, the effect of super saturation is toa. decrease the dryness fraction of steamb. decrease the specific volume of steamc. increase the entropy d. increase the enthalpy drop

13. In an impulse turbinea. the steam is expanded in nozzles only and there is a pressure drop and heat dropb. the steam is expanded both in fixed and moving blades continuouslyc. the steam is expanded in moving blades onlyd. the pressure and temperature of steam remains constant14. The purpose of governing in steam turbines is to

a. reduce the effective heat drop b. reheat the steam and improve its qualityc. completely balance against end thrust d. maintain the speed of the turbine

15. The thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is ____ a four stroke cycle enginea. equal to b. less than c. greater than

16. The ratio of the indicated thermal efficiency to the air standard efficiency is calleda. mechanical efficiency b. overall efficiencyc. volumetric efficiency d. relative efficiency

17. In a single stage, single acting reciprocating air compressor without clearance volume the work done is minimum during

a. isothermal compression b. isentropic compressionc. polytrophic compression d. none of these

18. The rotary compressors are used for deliveringa. small quantities of air at high pressuresb. large quantities of air at high pressuresc. small quantities of air at low pressuresd. large quantities of air at low pressures

19. Reheating in a gas turbinea. increases the thermal efficiency b. increases the compressor workc. increases the turbine work d. decreases the thermal efficiency

20. High air-fuel ratio is gas turbinesa. increases power output b. improves thermal efficiencyc. reduces exhaust temperature d. do not damage turbine blades

21. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is used in problems ofa. conduction b. convection c. radiationd. conduction and convection e. conduction and radiation

22. In air-conditioning of aero planes, using air as a refrigerant, the cycle used isa. reversed Carnot cycle b. reversed Joule cyclec. reversed Baryton cycle d. reversed Otto cycle

23. During sensible cooling of air, the dry bulb temperaturea. increases b. decreases c. remains constant

24. For winter air conditioning, the relative humidity should not be more thana. 40% b. 60% c. 75% d. 90%

25. The value of specific heat at constant pressure (cp) ____ with increase in temperaturea. increases b. decreases c. remains constant

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 5 = 15 Marks1. What is absolute temperature?2. What are the characteristics of adiabatic Expansion?3. State the advantages of compounding a steam Engine?4. Define Volumetric efficiency for an I.C. Engine?5. What is a gas turbine?

III. ESSAY TYPE QUESTION. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS: 6 x 10 = 60 Marks1. Explain the adiabatic process. Derive an expression for the work done during the

adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas.2. Derive an expression for the average kinetic energy possessed by a gas molecule.3. Show the following processes on T-s diagram:

a. Heating of water from 0º C to boiling temperature b. Evaporation of water and c. Superheating of steam

4. What are the conditions of reversibility? Prove that all reversible engines are equally efficient between the same temperature limits.

5. List the methods of improving the efficiency and specific output of a simple gas turbine.6. Describe briefly and with appropriate sketches, the actual sequence of events in the

cylinder of a petrol engine working on the four stroke cycle.7. Define volumetric efficiency for an I.C. engine What is the effect of volumetric

efficiency on (i) engine power and (ii) specific fuel consumption8. Sketch and explain the use of Orsat apparatus used in determining the percentage of

flue or exhaust gases. Does this help in controlling combustion?9. Describe thermodynamic cycle for a rotary air compressor?

10.Describe unitary and central air conditioning systems?




I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (20 Marks)1. The service facility that moves likely performs warranty workers a. a new-car dealer b. an independent garage c. a service station d. a department store2. Long loose sleeves around moving machinery could

a. protect your arms b. protect the machineryc. get caught in the machinery and injure you d. keep you clean

3. When working in the automotive shop, your attention should be directed toa. the clock b. the weather outsidec. any new car that has been bought into the shop d. the job you are doing

4. The “reinstall” means toa. repair a disassembled part b. put back a component or part you have removedc. reassemble a component d. remove and replace a part5. Connecting-rod-bearing clearance for an imported car is given as 0.051 mm. What is this in the USC system?

a. 0.0002 inch b. 0.002 inch c. 0.020 inch d. 0.200 inch6. The purpose of the cotter pin is to

a. prevent the nut from loosening b. fasten the cotter securelyc. prevent the cotter from dropping off d. keep the splines from loosening

7. To make a gasket on a valve corner, you should usea. RTV silicone rubber b. anaerobic sealantc. antiseize compound d. none of the above

8. To remove a bolt that has broken off flush with the cylinder block, usea. a file and wrench b. a drill and stud exactorc. a hacksaw and screwdriver d. any of the above

9. The three types of power tools area. pneumatic, air and electric b. pnewmatic, hydraulic and electricc. hydraulic, brake and electric d. electric, mechanical and hydraulic

10. The portable crane is used toa. life (Lift?)the engine out of the car b. life the car to change oilc. suspend parts so they can be worked on d. apply force to straighten parts

11. Fettling of castings is done toa. smoothen surface b. fill the void by weldingc. remove the extra material from castings d. to remove internal stresses from castings.12. The thickness of clearance can be checked by

a. shape gauge b. Ring gauge c. Go and not go gauged. Feeler gauge e. Any of the above

13. Drop-forging hammer is a. Board drop hammer b. Friction drive hammerc. Kinematic & power forging hammer d both a and b d. None of the above

14. The purpose of an automatic process control system generally isa. to automatically produce goodsb. to automatically detect inferior quality goodsc. to automatically process the raw materialsd. to direct the forces that give stable plant and process operation by maintaining

desired values of process variable or conditions.15. Jigs and fixture are used

a. to increase the production b. Saving labourc. Reduced quality control expense d. None of the above e. All the above

16. During oxyacetylene flame cutting, the metal is cut due toa. molecular transfer b. evaporation of metalc. burning of metal d. intensive oxidation e. reduction process

17. In a gas welding, the maximum flame temperature occurs ata. the tip of the flame b. the inner cone c. the outer coned. next of the inner cone e. inside of the inner cone

18. Which of the following material cannot be forged?a. carbon chrome steel b. dead mild steel c. low carbon steeld. Eutecroid steel e. cast iron

19. If a drill has different lengths of cutting edgesa. the drilled hole will not be circular b. cutting edges will become blunt rapidlyc. cutting edge will be oversized d. the drilled hole will be roughe. the drilled hole will be smooth

20. Coolant used while turning cast iron isa. Lard oil b. soluble oil c. Kerosene d. soda water e. none of the above

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTION: 2 x 5 = 10 Marks1. What is outside Micrometer?2. State the types of Power tools used in Automotive shop?3. Define and Moulding? (doubt?)4. What is gauge?5. Define Tolerance.

III. ANSWER ANY FIVE QUESTIONS(ESSAY TYPE QUESTON) 5 x 14= 70 Marks1. Describe shop hazards due to various causes such as faulty working habits. working

conditions, equipment defects and incorrect use of tools?2. List the cutting tools used in the automotive shop and describe the use of various

cutting tools.3. With the help of suitable sketch, explain the working of “Steam drop hammer” and

“Board drop hammer”?4. Describe with sketch the operation of cylinder boring machine.5. What are the main difference between a Jig and a fixture What is the six point location

principle? Explain it with the aid of suitable sketches.6. Describe the safety precautions for gas and arc welding ?7. What are the jobs can be done on a lathe machine? What is meant by speed, cutting

speed and feed.




ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks) 1. During combustion of gasoline in the engine

a. some of the gasoline does not burnb. some gasoline only partly burns, producing COc. polluting gases exit from the tail pipe d. all of the above

2. Atmospheric pressure is produced bya. vacuum b. gravity c. temperature d. barometer

3. The two basic types of piston engines are thea. rotary and reciprocating b. pushrod and reciprocatingc. spark-ignition and compression-ignition d. gasoline and gasohol

4. The engine flywheel a. smooth out the flow of power b. serves as part of the clutch on cars with manual transmissions c. has teeth that mesh with the starting motor drive pinion

d. all of the above5. The power from a small engine can be increased without increasing engine weight by

a. making cylinder larger b. turbo chargingc. increasing piston stroke d. adding more cylinders

6. The pushrod enginea. uses pushrods b. has an overhead camshaftc. has an L-type valve arrangement d. uses bucket tappets

7. The two basic types of cylinder heads for spark-ignition engines are for thea. valve-in-head and overhead-valve enginesb. camshaft-in-block and camshaft-in-head enginesc. crankshaft-in-block and crankshaft-in-head engined. in-line and V-type engines

8. The purpose of the expander spring in the multiple piece oil-control ring is toa. force the two rails upward and downward b. force the two rails outwardc. improve oil control d. all of the above

9.The camshaft turns ata. half the speed of the crankshaftb. the same speed as the crankshaftc. twice the speed of the crankshaft d. none of the above

10. The size of an engine cylinder is referred to in terms of ita. diameter and bore b. displacement and efficiencyc. bore and stroke d. bore and length

11. The ease with which gasoline vaporizes is called ita. oxidation b. octane number c. volatility d. cetane number

12. When the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at the spark plug, the condition is called

a. detonation b. ignition c. preignition d. rumble13. The two types of fuel gauges are

a. thermostatic and magnetic b. electric and mechanical

c. pressure and vacuum d. none of the above14. A major difference between superchargers and turbochargers is that the

a. supercharger is driven by a belt from the engine crankshaftb. turbocharger is driven by the force of the exhaust gasc. both a and b d. neither a nor b

15. The portion of the carburetor air horn that reduces pressure to cause fuel to flow is called the

a. throttle body b. Air bleed c. venture d. fuel nozzle16. Mechanic A says the automatic choke is opened by manifold vacuum. Mechanic B says the automatic choke is closed by spring force. Who is right?

a. A only b. B only c. both A and B d. neither A nor B17. If the engine cranks normally but does not start, the trouble could be

a. an ignition problem b. over choking c. lack of fuel d. all of the above18. A vehicle with poor drive ability might have

a. hard starting b. poor acceleration c. stalling d. all of the above19. Gasoline fuel-injection systems can be classified in two ways, according to whether they are

a. timed or pulsed b. continuous or controlled c. times or continuousd. none of the above

20. The gasoline fuel-injection system used by Cadillac from 1975 to 1980 hasa. one injection valve for each cylinderb. one injection valve for each two cylinderc. one injection valve for each bank of cylindersd. one injection valve for the injury

21. In the diesel engine, the fuel is injected into the engine cylindersa. at the end of the power stroke b. at the beginning of the power strokec. towards the end of the compression stroke d. at the end of exhaust stroke

22. In the cam-operator in-line plunger pump, the amount of fuel delivered depends on the a. effective length of the plunger strokes b. power demands on the engine c. operating conditions d. all of the above

23. The substance added to the oil which helps keep the engine clean is calleda. detergent-dispersant b. soap c. grease d. thickening agent

24. The part of the cooling-system thermostat that opens and closes the valve is thea. seater b. wax pellet c. pressure valve d. vacuum valve

25. If the coolant boils, when the engine has been turned off after a long drive, the condition is know as

a. overheating b. hardening c. clogged radiator d. after boil

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 5 = 15 Marks1. What is an Engine and what is compression Ratio?2. What is the function of Piston ring?3. How many types of cooling systems are used, why cooling system is essential?4. What do you mean by hot and cold plugs?5. How many types of injection pumps are used in diesel engines?

III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTION. ESSAY TYPE QUESTION. 6 x 10 = 60 Marks1. Explain with a figure, the working of four stroke spark ignition engine?2. State different types of gudgeon pins fitting in piston

OrExplain with figure (i) Fix Pin (ii) Semi-floating pin (iii) Fully floating pin

3. State briefly: i. Valve guide ii. Valve seat inserts iii. Hydraulic valve lifter4. How many types of cooling systems are used, why cooling system is essential?

Describe in detail with figure the working of pump circulation system?

5. How many types of oil pumps are used in automobile engine?Explain their working.What free plays you will check up while overhauling a gear type oil pump?

6. Explain working of Maruti carburetor?7. Explain the working of a distributor. What parts of this require more maintenance?8. How many types of governors are used in injection system? Explain the working of

mechanical and pneumatic governor?9. How many types of air cleaners are used? Explain the working of these.10.State the working of single open type turbine.




I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks)ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS1. The friction disk is positioned between the flywheel and the

a engine b. crankshaft c. pressure plate d. differential2. Heat checks or cracks on the flywheel and pressure-plate faces will cause

a. excessive clutch slippage b. rapid flywheel and pressure-plate wearc. rapid wear of friction-disk facings d. excessive pedal pulsation

3. The three-speed transmission hasa. one shift fork b. two shift forks c. three shift forks d. four shift forks

4. Noise from the transmission when it is in neutral could be caused bya. failure of the clutch to engage b. worn or dry bearingsc. main-shaft gears having chipped or broken teeth d. all of the above

5. Noise from the transmission is reverse could be caused bya. worn or damaged reverse idler gear b. defective synchronizerc. clutch not disengaging d. all the above

6. If the noise is a knock at low speed, the cause is probablya. worn drive-axle joints b. a worn side-gear-hub counter borec. defective tires d. a and b

7. Gear clash when shifting could be caused by an incorrect linkage adjustment, internal transaxle problems, of

a. a damaged drive axle b. internal differential problemsc. the clutch not disengaging d. worn constant-mesh gears

8. If the shift lever is difficult to move, it could be caused bya. excessive lubricant in the case b. binding inside transfer casec. worn gears d. a defective synchronizer

9. The governor is driven bya. the stator clutch b. the transmission input shaftc. the engine crankshaft d. the transmission output shaft

10. Two controlling devices in the automatic transmission operated by hydraulic pressure are the bands and

a. pistons b. clutches c. gears d. planetary gearsets11. Severe service that requires periodic changing of the fluid and filter includesa. taxi service b. trailer pulling c. stop-and-go delivery service d. all of these12. Bands are adjusted by

a. tightening the adjusted screw a specified number of turnsb. installing an oversize drumc. tightening and then loosening the adjusting screw a specified number of turnsd. installing an oversize band

13. The typical front-engine, front-wheel-drive system hasa. two universal joints b. three universal jointsc. four universal joints d. five universal joints

14. The distance between adjacent meshing teeth of mating gears is calleda. clearance b. pitch line c. backlash d. flank

15. Noise when going around a curve indicates the trouble isa. due to heavy contact on the heel ends of the bevel gearsb. due to heavy contact on the toe heels of the bevel gearsc. in the differential case d. due to slippage of the clutch surfaces

16. In the coil-spring rear-suspension system, the axle housing is kept in place by a. U bolts b. the stabilizer bar c. control arms d. none of the above17. When the shock absorber is compressed or telescoped, fluid passes through the piston orifices and

a. out of the reservoir b. into the upper part of the cylinderc. into the piston rod d. out of the piston rod

18. As viewed from the front of the car, the tilting of the front wheels away from the vertical is called

a. camber b. caster c. toe-in d. toe-out19. Positive caster tends to make front wheels

a. toe in b. toe out c. have neutral camber d. none of the above20. Load-carrying ball joints with load indicators

a. should be unloaded for checkingb. should be checked with ball joints loadedc. should be checked on a frame-contact hoistd. should be checked with a pry bar and ball-joint checking gauge

21. When comparing the front and rear wheel-cylinder pistons in the front wheel cylinders usually are

a. larger in diameter b. smaller in diameter c. the same size d. none of the above22. In the dual master cylinder, the primary piston is the piston that is

a. directly actuated by the brake-pedal pushrod b. closed to the fire wallc. toward the rear of the car d. all of the above

23. The driver of a car with front-disk and rear-drum brakes complains that the brake pedal moves slowly to the floor while the pedal is depressed at a traffic light. This problem could be caused by

a. a leaking cup in the master cylinder b. a leaking power-brake boosterc. a leaking residual check valve in the master cylinderd. an internal leak in the combination valve

24. Two general types of tires are a. tube type and tubeless b. solid and tubelessc. air and pneumatic d. split-rim and drop-center

25. Bias-ply tires have a. all plies running parallel to one anotherb. belts of steel mesh in the tiresc. one ply layer that runs diagonally one way and another layer runs diagonally the other way

d. all of the above

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS 5 x 3 = 15 Marks1. State the functions of Automobile transmission system?2. What is the purpose of pressure plate in a clutch?3. How many universal joints are used with a torque tube derive? How many on a Hotchkiss

drive? Why?4. Define camber, SAI and castor?5. What is static unbalance? What is dynamic unbalance?

III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS(ESSAY TYPE QUESTIONS) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks

1. Explain briefly the various types of chassis construction with the help of suitable diagrams. Make a list of various components mounted on the chassis.

2. Explain the working of a single plate clutch with the help of a simple diagram?3. What is an overdrive? Explain its construction and discuss its working, explaining also

the method of control?4. Explain with the help of a neat sketch the construction of a propeller shaft?5. What is an interconnected suspension system? Discuss the main constructional

features of any such system and also its working?6. Describe in detail the rack and pinion type manual steering gear by means of a simple

sketch and discuss its advantages?7. Discuss with the help of simple sketches, the construction of various types of disc

wheels?8. Describe any type of mechanical brake with the help of neat sketches?9. How is the vacuum from the engine inlet manifold utilized to actuate the vehicle

brakes? Explain fully with diagrams.10.Which materials are commonly used for auto-body? Explain in detail.




ANSWER ALL THE FOLLOWING QUESTIONS:

I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (25 Marks)1.The pressure to make electrons move is called a. electricity b. voltage c. amperage d. magnetism2. The device that acts as a one-way check valve for electric current is called a

a. triode b. diode c. monode d. transistor3. The battery is an electromechanical device. This means that the battery

a. makes chemicals by mechanical meansb. uses chemical action to provide electricityc. has curved instead of flat plates d. does not use an electrolyte

4. A loose-battery-cable clamp could causea. battery overcharge b. high battery voltagec. overheating d. a run-down battery

5. The starting system includes thea. battery and ignition switch b. battery and starting motorc. starting motor and wiring d. all of the above

6. If the headlights go out when you try to start the cause is probablya. a defective light switch b. a disconnected batteryc. a defective connection at the battery d. a defective starting motor

7. Jump starting a car with a dead battery should not be tried if the dead battery isa. frozen b. the maintenance-free type and indicator shows light yellowc. a different voltage than the booster battery d. all of the above

8. The purpose of the regulator is to a. prevent the alternator voltage from going too highb. all the alternator to produce a high currentc. keep alternator speed from going too highd. keep the alternator voltage high enough to charge the battery

9. To make an output check of the General Motors alternatora. connect an ammeter into the circuit at the F terminalb. connect an ammeter into the circuit at the BAT terminalc. turn off all electrical devices except ignitiond. operate the engine at about 500 rpm

10. An overcharged battery willa. have a relatively short life b. lose electrolytec. result from high alternator voltage d. all of the above

11. The primary winding of the ignition coil is electrically connected to the battery through thea. spark-plug cables b. distributor cap and rotorc. distributor gearing d. distributor contact points

12. The contact-point distributor is two separate devices in one, a fast-acting switch, anda. condenser b. a high-voltage distribution systemc. an electronic signaling system d. an oil-pump drive

13. The device on the distributor that shifts the position of the breaker plate to produce a change in the timing of the spark is operated by

a. engine intake-manifold vacuum b. engine speedc. centrifugal advance d. throttle opening

14. To adjust the ignition timing, a. turn the cam on the camshaftb. turn the distributor in its mountingc. install different centrifugal-advance springsd. readjust the contact points

15. The secondary circuit of the electronic ignition system has been altered toa. handle the quicker response of the systemb. handle higher voltagesc. fit the overhead-cam enginesd. work faster

16. The Hall-effect distributor has shutters that move between the a. contact points b. sensor coil c. two poles of the magnetic sensord. terminals of the distributor cap

17. The electronic spark control used on some turbocharged enginesa. retards the spark if detonation beginsb. takes the palce of mechanical advance mechanismc. advances the spark to suit operating conditiond. reduces spark voltage if detonation begins

18. Engine overheating can be due toa. low battery b. early ignition timing c late ignition timing d. high voltage setting

19. In a comparison of the oscilloscope patterns for contact-point and electronic ignition systems, the dwell

a. is the same for both b. increases with speed in the electronic systemc. decreases with speed in the electronic system d. none of the above

20. The magnetic probe is inserted into the receptacle to sensea. engine speed b. piston position c. engine rpm d. all of the above

21. The four sizes that headlamps are made in includea. three square and one round b. three round and one rectangularc. two round and two rectangular d. all rectangular

22. The purpose of the automatic level control is toa. increase the car height as it is loadedb. maintain the correct level of the rear as it is loaded or unloadedc. pump up the shock absorbers if a rough pavement is encounteredd. instantly correct the car level as a load is applied

23. The air-conditioner system that turns the compressor on and off with signals from the passenger compartment is called

a. a defective system b. a cycling-clutch systemc. an evaporator control system d. a condenser control system

24. If there is very little or no difference in temperature between the low pressure and the high-pressure pipes the system is

a. full b. operating normally c. empty or nearly d. none of the above25. Oil should be added after you have discharged and evacuated the system and

a. any time a system component is replaced b. every 4 monthsc. every time the engine oil is changed d. at no other time

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS: 3 x 5 = 15 Marks1. What is the function of cut-out?2. What are the main parts of a self starter?3. How electricity produced in alternator?

4. Why magneto not used in cars?5. What is wiring harmers?

III. ESSAY TYPE QUESTIONS (ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks

1. Describe how the ammeter works. Explain the purpose of Insulation and why it works?2. Define and Explain briefly battery rating.3. Explain with neat sketch the purpose, construction and operation of the starting

system?4. List out for troubles that might cause by the charging system and explain the possible

cause of these troubles?5. Explain with sketch the construction and operation of centrifugal and vacuum advance

mechanism.6. Describe the working of the following:

a. Sensor coil b. Hall effect7. Draw a simplified wiring circuit for the lighting system of car and discuss the same?8. Using simple diagram discuss the construction and working of the following

accessories in an Automobile i.Windscreen wiper ii. Loon iii. Speedometer

9. Explain the need for ventilating the passenger compartment and describe the operation of heater?

10.How will you disguise troubles in the heater or Air conditioner and write their possible causes?




I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: 15 x 1 = 15 Marks1. In a unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on a. one side of the actual size b. one side of the nominal size c. both sides of the actual size d. both sides of the nominal size2. According to Indian standards, total no. of tolerance grades are

a. 8 b.12 c. 18 d. 203. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the tip of the locking set screw, is called

a. castle nut b. jam nut c. ring nut d. screw nut4. The length of cotter, in a sleeve and cotter joint, is taken as

a. 1.5 d b. 2.5 d c. 3 d d. 4 d5. The type of stresses developed in the key is/are

a. shear stress alone b. bearing stress alonec. both shear and bearing stresses d. shearing, bearing and bending stresses

6. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a a. thin cylinder b. thick cylinder c. solid shaft d. hollow shaft

7. Two shafts will have equal strength, ifa. diameter of both the shafts is same b. angle of twist of both shafts is samec. material of both the shafts is same d. twisting moment of both the shaft is same e. all of the above

8. The cross-section of the arm of a bell crank lever isa. rectangular b. elliptical c. I-section d. any of the above e. none of the

above9. A connecting rod subjected to an axial load may buckle with

a. X-axis as neutral axis b. Y-axis as neutral axis c. X-axis or Y-axis as neutral axis d. Z-axis e. none of the above10. When a belt to drive is transmitting maximum power,

a. effective tension is equal to the centrifugal tensionb. effective tension is half of the centrifugal tensionc. driving tension in slack side is equal to the centrifugal tensiond. driving tension in tight side is twice the centrifugal tension

11. The included angle for the V-belt is usuallya. 20º to 30º b. 30º to 40º c. 40º to 60º d. 60º to 80º

12. A leaf spring in automobiles is useda. to apply forces b. to measure forces c. to absorb shocksd. to store strain energy

13. Due to the centrifugal force acting on the rim, the fly wheel arms will be subjected to a. tensile stress b. compressive stress c. shear stress d. none of these

14. The black lash for spur gears depends upona. module b. pitch line velocity c. tooth profile d. both a and bc. both b and c f. none of these

15. In worm gears, the angle between the tangent to the thread helix on the pitch cylinder and the plane normal to the axis of worm is called

a. pressure angle b. lead angle c. helix angle

II. ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS. ALL QUESTION CARRIES EQUAL MARKS.

1. Discuss in brief about the standardization in design?2. Find the size of bolts required for the leak proof joints of cylinder head of steam engine

whose effective diameter is 350mm. No. of bolts required for the joint is 12. A soft copper gasket is employed to make the joint leak proof. Assume the design stress for the bolt material is limited to 100/mm2.

3. A 10KW power is transmitted at 800 rpm from a motor shaft, through a key, to a machine shaft by means of a pulley and belt. Design the key so that its allowable shear stress is 45 MPa and crushing stress is 100 Mpa.

4. Find the diameter of a piston rod for a engine of 250mm diameter. The length of the piston rod is 800mm and the stroke is 500mm. The pressure of the steam is 1.5Mpa. Assume factor of safety as 5.

5. Design a cast iron fly wheel to store 7 kN.m of energy and to keep the speed 306 and 294rpm. Outside diameter of flywheel is not be more than 1.5m. Design the rim and arms of the flywheel. Power developed by the machine is 20 kW. Maximum torque = 1.5 times the mean torque.




I. CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER: (20 Marks)1. In time and motion studied, the symbol X represents

a. crossing b. opposite directional momentsc. rejections d. completion of operation e. none of the above

2. Which one of the following factors does not provide funds for the mortgage market?a. mutual funds b. mutual savings banks c. pension funds d. commercial banks

3. Which one of the following is not an incentive plane?a. Straight piece work b. straight piece work with guaranteed basec. Halsey 50-50 plan d. 100% bonus plan e. straight salary

4. Jobs going behind the schedule are conveniently shown ina. mile stone chart b. Pi chart c. Bar chart d. Gantt chart

5. In X and R harts, X representsa. random numbers b. lot size c. average of the measured quality characteristicsd. least of the measured quality characteristics

6. Which of the following is a resource?a. time b. men c. money d. all of the above

7. Which of the following does not constitute the direct cast of a project?a. cost of materials b. wages of labour c. penalty imposed by governmentd. all of the above

8. Under the Apprenticeship Acta. all industries have to necessarily train the apprenticeb. Industries have to train apprentice according to their requirementc. only industries owned by government have to recruit apprenticed. only industries employing more than 500 workers have to recruit apprenticee. none of the above

9. A process layout is generally suggested for a. jobbing work b. Batch product c. continuous type of productiond. efficient machine utilization ratio e. none of the above

10. An organization having annual material consumption of Rs. 24 lakhs has an average inventory of 3 months. The value of inventory would bea. Rs. 72 lakhs b. Rs. 4 lakhs c. Rs. 6 lakhs d. Rs. 4 lakhs e. Rs. 2 lakhs(doubt?)11. The salient feature of functioning organization is

a. work is properly planned and distributedb. strict adherence to specifications c. each individual maintains functional

efficiency d. separation of planning and designing e. all of the above12. Public goods are different from private goods because

a. the government produces public goods while private goods are produced by private persons b. public goods are preferred to private goods

c. the amount consumed by one does not affect the amount available for othersd. private goods can be consumed only by private individuals while public goods can

be consumed government and private citizens e. all of the above

13. A decrease in the quantity supplied to the market at given prices leads to a. Higher price and a contraction of demand b. a lower price and an expansion of demand

c. a higher price and an expansion of demand d. a lower price and a contraction of demand e. none of the above14. Sellers “reserve price” means

a. the seller refuses to sell the product till the minimum price (covering the cost of production) is offered

b. Seller refuses to sell the product at any pricec. seller demands the price for whole of his productd. a price which includes economic profitse. a price determined for a batch of production

15. The performance of a company can be judged by itsa. share capital b. total production c. no. of employees d. profit

16. The share holders have limited liability in case of a a. cooperative b. partnership firm c. public limited company d.all of the above17. Finance for small scale industries is not provided by

a. state financial corporations b. State Bank of India c. Traveller’s chequed. Punjab National Bank

18. Which of the following item is not produced under mass production?a. Ball bearings b. automobile tyres c. air crafts d. passenger cast

19. A joint sector undertakinga. jointly managed by several share holdersb. jointly owned by only two directorsc. jointly owned by state and central governmentsd. is jointly owned by private parties and government e. none of the above

20. The main disadvantage of line organization isa. communication delay b. rigid structure c. top level executions overworkd. all of the above e. none of the above

II. SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS. 5 x 4 = 20 Marks1. What do understand by “Plan Design”?2. What is linear programming?3. What do you understand by Productivity?4. Why inspection is important in Industry?5. Explain the Term “Inventory”?

III. ANSWER ANY SIX QUESTIONS. (ESSAY TYPE QUESTION) 6 x 10 = 60 Marks

1. a. What factors are considered while designing a factory building? Will you prefer an “L” shape building or a rectangular building for a new plant? Why? b. Give the advantages of a multistory building over a single storey building for a factory?2. a. What do you understand by “Centralised Production Planning and Control”? Give its advantages. b. What is the position of P.P.C. in a works organization? Show it with the help of a chart?3. a. What do you understand by the “Follow up” function of production planning and control? Explain. b. Give a specimen of “Gantt Chart” which is normally used in the production planning and control department and describe briefly how it could be used for checking the actual progress of a job against the schedule.4. a. What do you understand by acceptance sampling? When is it used? Give is advantages and disadvantages? b. Describe briefly the double acceptance sampling plan.5.a. What are the objectives of Method Study? b. Which are the recording techniques used in the Method Improvement?

6. a. What is the purpose of Work Measurement? Enumerate its uses. b. What are the various allowances considered in Time Study?7. a. Describe clearly the function of routing, scheduling and dispatching? b. Show how the Gantt chart is used for planning a project?8. a. Discuss the fundamental requirements of a good financial incentive system. b. What is meant by non-financial incentive? Name few non-financial incentive schemes.9. Write short notes on: a. SIMO charts b. Evaulating ‘Performance Rating’ of an operator c. ‘Time span’ for measuring ‘responsibility’10. State the sources of Pollution. Name the types of Pollution and explain.




I. ANSWER ALL THE QUESTIONS: 2 x 15 = 30 Marks

1. What is the functioning of Insurance Accident Asessor?2. Define Passenger Vehicle.3. What is sale depreciation?4. Define Traffic Engineering.5. What is the need for Traffic forecasting?6. State some parking regulation?7. What is called one-way streets?8. What are the types of road marking?9. What is vehicle skidding?10.Define fuel consumption.11.Define congestion.12.Define Pedestrianisation.13.What is called Noise Pollution?14.What is entry charges?15.What is Direction signs?

II. ANSWER ANY FIVE QUESTION: 14 x 5 = 70 Marks

1. What is the object of the ‘Permit systems’?2. Is carriage of goods by road more advantageous If so why? What are the drawbacks of

other forms of transport?3. Explain in brief scientific management in Profession?4. Write an essay about centralization and delegation in Transport organization?5. Define a committee. What are its advantages and disadvantages. Name various type of

committee?6. Write about the maintenance and duty schedule of a Transport organization?7. Describe the importance of selection and placement of workers. Enumerate and

explain the advantages of training employable?


CHENNAI-10Code No- 1718A


ANSWER ANY SEVEN QUESTIONS:

1. Define particulate emission. Write the effects of pollution on environment?2. Describe the method of measuring Noise pollution level. Suggest the measure to

control it.3. Describe the effect of Pollution on environment? How the carbon monoxide form in the

smoke of Automobile?4. What is Gas chromatography? How will you do smoke measurement? Explain briefly.5. Explain the purpose and operation of the EGR system?6. Describe the effects of short term toxity illustrated by the case of CO, Ozone and

oxidants.7. Describe why the emission control is required in the present condition.8. Describe the methods of cleaning the exhaust gas.9. Explain the operation of electronic engine control system that include an oxygen sensor

and feed back system.10. What is heated Air system? Describe briefly.

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