analog ias institute upsc prelisem test series - 2014 indian polity no 02

ANALOG IAS INSTITUTE TEST SERIES - 2014 C.S.(P)-2014

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T.B.C. : P-PFC-L-CGJB TEST BOOKLET SERIES

Serial No.

TEST BOOKLET GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER I)

INDIAN POLITY - 2

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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printed both in Hindi and English. Each item comprises four

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GENERAL STUDIES TEST SERIES 2014: INDIAN POLITY - 2

Number of Questions: 100 Marks: 200 Time : 120 Min

1. Which one of the following is not a characteristic

of a departmentally managed Public sector

undertaking in India?

(a) It is financed and annual appropriation is

from the treasury

(b) Its permanent staff consists of Civil servants (c) It is created by an Executive order of

Government

(d) The price of products and Services of the

enterprise are determined by the market

forces

2. Consider the following Statements

1. The number of Election Commissioners will

be fixed by president

2. Regional Election Commissioners conduct

elections to local bodies 3. Regional Election Commissioner tenure will

be fixed by State Election Commission.

Which of the above are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of the above


1. President cant suspend the member of UPSC while enquiry is going on him for proved

misbehavior

2. SC advice after enquiry into misbehavior of UPSC chairperson or members is binding on

President

Which of the above is/are true?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither


1. Constitution specified specific condition for

UPSC membership in categorical sense.

2. Any member of UPSC can have paid

employment outside of duties of his office,

Constitution didnt bar private employment Which of the above is/are correct?



1. Election Commission is a permanent and an independent body

2. Elections to office of Vice President is done by

Rajya Sabha secretariat

3. Election Commission is common to Central

and State Governments.

Which of the above are true? (a) 1, 2 only (b) 1, 3 only

(c) 2, 3 only (d) All of the above


1. UPSC needed to ratify the recommendation of

Government departments promotions and transfer policies relating to Civil servant

2. Any irregularity in the consultation process

with the UPSC or acting without UPSC advice in matters of removal and dismissal from

Service invalidates the Governments decisions.




1. The grounds mentioned in Constitution for

removal of members of UPSC can be altered

by President.

2. The Chairman of UPSC can be given appointment in GOI after retirement

3. Member of UPSC is not eligible for

reappointment in UPSC

Which of the above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) none of the above


1. Presiding officer can take up defection case

only when he receives complaints from a

member of house. 2. Anti Defection Law banned only retail

defections and legalized wholesale defections

3. The Government of India not sued for

contracts but can be sued for torts in respect

of its Sovereign functions Which of the above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above


1. Constitution authorize the Governor to determine the conditions of Services of

Chairman and members of Commission of

SPSC

2. Governor can remove the Chairman and

member of SPSC (State Public Service Commission)

3. The expenses including salaries, allowances

and pensions of Chairman and members of

SPSC are charged from Consolidated fund of

India

Which of the above is/are incorrect? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) none of the above

2



1. It is the duty of Election Commission to

determine the territorial areas of electoral constituencies throughout the country on the

basis of Delimitation Commission Act of

Parliament

2. Election Commission advice on matter

relating is disqualification of members is not

binding on President 3. Collector acts as District returning officer in

case of elections


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3


11. Match the following

List-I

(Types of

Delegation)

List-II

(Explanation)

A. Specific delegation

1. Subordinate can delegate his authority to

his immediate superiors

B. Accured

delegation

2. Authority is delegated

on the basis of custom

or usage B. Unwritten

delegation

3. A person delegates

authority to another

who is also in the same

rank in the organization

D. Sideward

delegation

4. Orders, instructions or

directions are delegated to a particular person

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2 1 4 3

(d) 4 3 2 1


1. Criminal proceedings can be initiated against

Civil servants for acts done in their capacity, with prior permission from Governor or

President, where necessary

2. Any Inclusion or exclusion from the

Presidential notification of any caste or tribe

can be done by the State assembly with previous consent of Governor.

3. State can make special provisions for SC, ST

regarding their admission to educational

institutes including private educational

institutes

Which of the above are correct? (a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3

(c) 1, 3 (d) all of the above

13. In India, who among the following can only be

removed from the office in like manner and on

the like grounds as a Judge of SC. 1. CAG

2. CEC Chief of Election Commission 3. Chairman UPSC (Union Public Service Commission)

4. Attorney General of India

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 4

(c) 1, 2 (d) 2, 3 only


1. There is a provision under an Article of the

Constitution of India that may by law provide

for adjudication of disputes related to

waters of interstate rivers or river valleys

2. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, has been amended by the centre to empower states to

abolish the State administrative tribunals, if

they desire so.



15. Assertion (A): The Classification of Services in

USA is more scientific than that of Great Britain

Reason (R): In America, the system of position

classification prevails as against the Great

Britain where in the system of rank classification has been adopted.

Code:

(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R

is correct explanation of A

(b) Both R and A are individually true, but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

16. Assertion(A): The District Collector in

independent India has less judicial authority than in pre-independent India

Reason(R): Article 50 of the Constitution of

India separates Judicial from Executive

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true, and R is correct explanation of A

(b) Both R and A are individually true, but R is

not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true


1. Since at the time of initial years of

independence, we had three All India

Services

2. All India Services Act of 1951 authorized the Central Government to make rules in

consultation with the State Governments for

the regulation of recruitment and Service

conditions of the members of All-India

Services.

Which of the above is/are true? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither


1. Constitution imposes the duty upon the

centre to promote the spread and

development of Hindi language so that it may become the Lingua-Franca of the composite

culture of India.

2. Every State and Local authority in the State

should provide adequate facilities for

instruction in the mother-tongue at the


primary stage of education to children

belonging to the linguistic minority group.

Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither


1. UPSC is concerned with classification of

Services, pay and Service conditions and

cadre management and training 2. UPSC is Central Personal agency in India.

3. The emergence of CVC in 1964 affected the

role of UPSC in disciplinary matters

Which of the above are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above

20. With regards to judicial control over

administration, what does Malfeasance stand for?

(a) Error of procedure (b) Abuse of authority (c) Error of fact (d) Error of law

21. Consider the following Statements:

1. The President should place before Parliament

the report of UPSC and also the reason for non-compliance of recommendation

2. An individual ministry has power to reject the

advice of UPSC

3. All such reasons for non-acceptance of UPSC

report recommendation should be approved

by Appointment Committee of Cabinet. Which of the above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3


22. Consider the following Statement 1. Zonal Councils have been setup under a

provision of Constitution of India

2. Parliament may by law provide for the

exclusion of the jurisdiction of all courts,

except the SC for the adjudication of any

dispute with respect to use, distribution or control of waters of, or in, any inter-State

river or river valley

Which of the above Statements is/are correct?


23. Which of the following are exemptions regarding

appointments by UPSC?

1. For making reservations of appointments or

posts in favour of BC citizens

2. For taking into consideration the claims of

SC and ST in making appointments to Services and posts

3. Selections for Chairmanship of Tribunals

4. For posts of highest diplomatic nature

5. The selection for temporary or officiating

appointment to post, if the person appointed

is not likely to hold the post for more than a year

Code:

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 5

(c) 1, 2, 4, 5 (d) All of the above


1. The Chairman of SPSC can be appointed as

Chairman of other SPSC after his term 2. State Legislature can confer new functions to

the SPSC which were not specified in the

Constitution

3. The Joint Public Service Commission is a

Constitutional body and its members

appointed by President. Which of the above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


25. Consider the following Statements 1. Finance Commission is quasi judicial body

2. Finance Commission members can be

reappointed

3. Constitution specified the qualifications for

the Chairman and members of Commission

4. The Chairman should be a person having specialized knowledge of Finance and

accounts of State.


(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4

(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) All of the above

26. Which of the following audit reports submitted by

Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) to

President?

1. Report on Appropriation accounts

2. Report on Finance accounts 3. Report on Public sector undertakings


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3



1. There should be special officer for Linguistic

Minorities, who is to be appointed by

President.

2. The Linguistic Minorities Commissioner Office falls under the Ministry of Social Justice.

Which of the above are true?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 2 (d) none of them


1. Finance Commission recommends the

measures needed to augment the

Consolidated Fund of State to complement

the resources of Panchayats and

Municipalities. 2. President can refer any other matter for

Finance Commission in the interests of

sound finance.




1. Article 338, of Constitution provided for

appointments of a Special officer for SC and

STs to investigate all issues relating to


constitutional safeguards for the SCs and

STs.

2. National Commission for SC has the powers of a Civil court

3. The President will forward any report of the

Commission pertaining to a State

Government to the state Governor


(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1 only


1. The National Commission for ST was created

by 65th Constitutional Amendment Act of

1990 2. National Commission for ST came to

existence in 2004.

Which of the above is/ are true?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) Neither

31. Consider the following Statements 1. Finance Commission recommendations are

binding on the Government

2. The reference in Article 275 to grants-in-aid

to revenue of States is not confined to

revenue expenditure only. 3. So far 13 Finance Commissions were

appointed by GOI

Which of the above is/are not true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3



1. CAG is the Head of the Indian Audit and

Accounts department

2. CAG is eligible to be reappointed to any post,

under the Government of India 3. The Service conditions of audit officers can be

prescribed by President


(a) 1 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only (d) none of them

33. Which of the following is statutory Commission?

1. National Commission for women

2. National Commission for Minority

3. National Commission for SCs

4. National Commission for BC 5. National Commission for protection of HR

6. National Human Rights Commission

(a) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6 (b) 1, 3, 5, 6, 2

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (d) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

34. Consider the following Statements 1. CAG is responsible only to Parliament

2. CAG can audit secret Service expenditure of

CBI

3. CAG of Britain and CAG of India were

designed on same lines.

Which of the above are true? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 3 only (d) neither


1. Election Commissioner will hold post on the

satisfaction of President

2. Constitution specified minimum qualification

for the members of Election Commission

3. Constitution debarred retiring Election Commissioners for any further appointment

by the Government.

Which of the above incorrect

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of the above


1. CAG audits Consolidated Fund of Union

Territories also

2. CAG audits Contingency Fund of each State

and Public accounts of each State also 3. CAG ascertains and certifies the net proceeds

of any tax or duty. His certificate is final.

4. CAG is the member of the PAC ( Public

Accounts Committee) of Parliament


(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 4 (c) 1, 2, 4 (d) All of the above


1. No ordinance can be withdrawn by the

Administrator except after obtaining instructions from the President in that

behalf with respect to Union Territories.

2. Lt. Governor can promulgate ordinance

during the period of dissolution or

suspension of legislature of Delhi.

Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) both (d) none of them

38. CBI was estimated under Delhi special police

establishment (DSPE) act 1946 under overall supervision of CVC, DOPT. Consider the

following statements: 1. CBI can take up suo moto cognizance of any

crime ONLY in Union territories

2. CBI, entertains anonymous complaints but

CVC does not entertain anonymous complaints.

3. National investigation agency (NIA) can be

asked by the Central Government to inquire

in States without previous sanction from

concerned State Government.

Which of the above is/are true? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) none


1. State Information Commissioners are

appointed by the Governor on the recommendations of committee consisting

of Chief Minister as chairperson.

2. Governor has exclusive power to remove

State Information Commissioners from the

post, on his pleasure.

3. ARC-2(Administrative Reforms Commission) kept the judiciary out of Lok Pal purview.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3




1. If any question arises as to the age of a

Judge of High court, the question shall be decided by President after consultation with

Chief Justice of High court and the decision

of President shall be final

2. Permanent Judge of a High court can plead

before the other High courts and Supreme

Court. Which of the above is/are correct?


(c) both of them (d) none of the above

41. Consider the following Statements: 1. For the time being, official language of Union

would be the link language for

communications between Union and State.

2. President should direct the particular

language to be /shall be officially recognized

in any State. 3. The Governor can change the language of the

decree of High Court with the previous

permission of President


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) all of the above


1. Constitution presented the Devanagari form

of numerals in the official language of the

Union. 2. Official Language Act, 1963, provided for the

continued use of English, in addition to

Hindi, for all official purposes of Union and

also for transaction of business in Parliament

3. Constitution specified the official languages of different States.

Which of the above are not true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 3 (d) none of the above

43. Consider the following Statements 1. There is no uniformity in the jurisdiction of

Lokayukta in general for all States.

2. Lokayutas have power to start investigation on suomoto

Which of the above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(c) both (d) None of the above


1. Chief Information Commission has the

power of Civil court in respect of summons and enforcing attendance of persons

2. Information Commissions should be persons

of eminence in law, science, technology,

administration, social Service




1. Central Vigilance Commission members hold

office for a term of 4 years or until they attain

the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

2. Central Vigilance Commission gives

directions to the CBI for the purpose of

discharging the responsibility entrusted to it under the Delhi police special establishment

Act, 1946

3. Central Government, need not to

communicate the reasons, if it does not

agree with Central Vigilance Commission

recommendation Which of the above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3


46. Consider the following Statements 1. State Human Rights Commissions doesnt have authority to inquire into concurrent list

2. The protection of Human Rights Act (1993)

provides for the establishment for the human

rights court in every distinct for the speedy

trial of violation of Human Rights. Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) neither (d) both


1. The NHRC is not empowered to inquire into any matter after the expiry of 2yr from the

date on which the acts consisting of human

rights is alleged to have been committed.

2. Commission can treat violations of Human

rights cases by members of armed forces like

the rest of the cases. Which of the above is/are true?



1. NHRC (National Human Rights Commission) has 4 ex-officio members as its membership

2. Sitting Judge of HC can be made as NHRC

member but prior approval of Chief Judge of

HC is required

3. Members of NHRC can be reappointed by

Government, after their term. Which of the above is/are true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


49. Consider the following Statements 1. Dr. Gadgil recommended for removing

membership of Prime Minister and Finance

minister in the Planning Commission

2. The secretary of Planning Commission also

acts as the secretary of the NDC (National

Development Council) 3. Among the advisory bodies of NDC, Planning

Commission is one such and plays a primary

role.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only (d) all of the above


1. Attorney General of India represents GOI in

SC only not in High Court.


2. Attorney General enjoys the immunities

available to Members of Parliament.

3. He can defend accused persons in Civil prosecutions.

Which of the above one true?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


51. Consider the following Statements: 1. The whole of the normal administrative

machinery operating in the State is not

extended to the scheduled areas and the

Central Government has somewhat greater

responsibility 2. Tribal advisory council has to be established

to advice on welfare and advancement of

scheduled tribes in scheduled areas.

3. Governor is empowered to direct that any

particular act of Parliament or State

legislature does not apply to a scheduled area Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


52. State may, by law, can make provisions with respect to the incorporation, regulation, winding

up of cooperative societies based on which of the

following functions

1. Principles of voluntary participation

2. Democratic member control

3. Member-economic participation 4. Autonomous functioning

Code:

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 2, 4 (d) all of the above

53. Which of the following are correctly matched?

UT Executive Judiciary

1. Andaman &

Nicobar

Lt Governor Madras

High Court

2. Lakshadweep Administrator Kerala High

Court 3. Pondicherry Administrator Madras

High Court

4. Chandigarh Lt Governor Punjab-

Haryana

High Court Which of the above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) none of the above


1. Existence of Union territories is a conspicuous departure from the federation in

India.

2. Parliament can make legislation on all 3 lists

in all Union territories except Delhi and

Pondicherry

3. Constitution specifies provisions for administration of acquired territories


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3



1. Multi-State cooperative society means a

society with objects not confined to one State 2. Maximum number of directors of a

cooperative society shall not exceed 21.

3. Banking Regulation Act, 1949 provisions will

be applies to cooperative society in case of

society carrying business of banking.

4. Government can supersede cooperative society, if Government has given financial

assistance, guarantees, loan, or if having

shares in Cooperative society.


(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 only (d) none of the above


1. Recently Government of India has declared

Jats as Other Backward Castes.

2. The statutory body National Commission for Backward Castes., had given a nod to the

proposal few yrs ago.


(a) 1 only true (b) 2 only true

(c) both are true (d) none true

57. VIGEYE is a project launched by Central Vigilance Commission. Choose the incorrect

statement:

1. Its a citizen centre initiative where citizens join hands with CVC in fighting corruption in India.

2. Here citizens can complain to CVC through

mobile/intend/voice calls where the

complaint is processed.

Code: (a) only 1 (b) only 2 (c) both (d) none

58. The Model Code of Conduct comes into force a

few weeks before elections. Which of the

following comes as violation of Model code of

Conduct? 1. The party in power making promise of

construction of roads, provision of drinking

water

2. Any political party using any individuals property even with his permission for propaganda is violation of Model code.

Code:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) none

59. The Supreme Court in 2013 judgment in

Subramaniam Balaji vs Government of TN has directed EC to frame guidelines for manifestos for

political parties.

1. The Directive principles of State policy can be

no objection to promise of welfare measure in

manifestos

2. The manifestos should also reflect the rationale for promises and shall indicate the

ways to meet financial requirements for it.


(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) neither



1. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions

for Anti-Defection. 2. Originally the tenth schedule was formed

related to Sikkim but was repealed later

after Sikkim was made a State.


(a) only 1 (b) only 2

(c) Both are correct (d) Both are wrong

61. Recently Supreme Court passed few guidelines

over Civil Services Board (CSB).

Consider the following and choose the incorrect:

1. States are mandated to constitute the CSB, headed by Chief Secretary to deal with

transfers, posting etc.

2. The competent authority may reject the

recommendation of CSB by recording the

reasons for same

3. CSB shall include above provisions for IAS, IPS, Indian forest Services also.

(a) all are true except 1

(b) all are true except 2

(c) all are true except 3

(d) all are true

62. Which of the following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: To preserve protect and defend the constitution 1. President.

2. Governor. 3. Chief Justice of India.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 & 2 only

(c) 1, 2 & 3 (d) None of the above.

63. Which of the following funds / authorities /

bodies can be audited by CAG: 1. Consolidated Funds of India, States & UTs

having legislative assembly.

2. Contingency Funds of India.

3. Public Account of States.

4. Receipts and expenditures of PPP. 5. Local bodies.

(a) 1, 2 & 3 only (b) 1, 2 & 5 only.

(c) 1, 3, 4 & 5 only (d) All

64. Which of the following are quasi judicial

bodies? 1. Finance Commission.

2. Central Vigilance Commission

3. National Human Rights Commission.

4. Central Information Commission.

5. Competition Commission of India. 6. Union Public Service Commission.

7. National Commission for SCs

Code:

(a) All except 1, 2 & 6

(b) All except 2, 4 & 6.

(c) All except 6. (d) None of the above options are correct.

65. Which is the correct order for approval of

five year plans:

(a) Planning CommissionNDCCabinet Parliament.

(b) Planning Commission Cabinet NDC Parliament

(c) Planning Commission NDC Cabinet. (d) Planning Commission Cabinet NDC.

66. Which of the following Statements are correct?

1. The salary, allowances and other Service conditions of the Chief Information

Commissioner are similar to those of the

Chief Election Commissioner.

2. The salary, allowances and other Service

conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the

Chief Justice of High Court.

3. The salary, allowances and other Service

conditions of the Chief Vigilance

Commissioner are similar to those of the

Chairman of UPSC. Code:

(a) 1 & 3 only (b) 1 & 2 only.

(c) 2 & 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3.

67. My friend described a tribunal in the following manner: The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.

He/she is probably referring to:

(a) Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT). (b) National Green Tribunal (NGT).

(c) He/she is either referring to CAT or to

NGT.

(d) He/she is neither referring to CAT nor to

NGT

68. Which of the following Statement/s is/are

correct?

1. Indian Territory can be ceded to a foreign

State without amending the constitution

as mentioned in article 368. 2. Resolution of boundary dispute between

India and another country does not

require constitutional amendment.

Code:

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both (d) None

69. Which of the following subject/s is/are

enumerated in the concurrent list:

1. Actionable wrongs.

2. Education.

3. Protection of wild Animals and Birds. Code:

(a) 1 & 2 only (b) 2 & 3 only.

(c) 1 & 3 only (d) 1, 2 & 3.

70. Articles 358 & 359 describe the effect of a

National Emergency on the Fundamental Rights. Which of the following Statements are

correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.

1. Article 358 operates only in the case of

External Emergency and not in the case of

Internal Emergency.


2. Article 359 operates in case of both

External & Internal Emergencies.

3. Article 358 suspends Fundamental Rights under Article 19 for the entire duration of

emergency.

4. Article 358 extends to the entire country

whereas Article 359 may extend to entire

country or part of it.

Code: (a) 1 & 2 only (b) 1, 2 & 3 only.

(c) 2, 3 & 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 & 4.


1. Mandamus may be issued to prevent court martials from exceeding their jurisdiction 2. The maxim Memo judex in causa sua is one of the cardinal principles of natural justice.

3. Writ petition once allowed can be dismissed

in appeal of facts of case, on the ground of

alternative remedy. 4. Constitution empowered legislature of the

State to increase, restrict or abolish the

jurisdiction of High courts over the Union

Territory.


(a) 1, 2, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 2, 3 (d) all of the above


1. Governor of State can appoint persons other

than District Judges to the Judicial Services of a State.

2. Governor should consult State Public Service

Commission along with High Court

3. Session Judge, Chief presidency magistrate,

Chief Judge of small cause court, Assistant

District Judge-all the mentioned terms can be referred under the term- District Judge Which of the above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3



1. There shall be Council of Ministers consisting

of not more than 10% of the total members in

the Legislative Assembly, with the Chief

Minister as the Head to aid and advice the

Lieutenant Governor. 2. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the

President and the other minister shall be

appointed by the Lieutenant Governor on the

advice of Chief Minister.

3. The Administrator of Union Territories can promulgate ordinances even when the

legislature is in session


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3



1. High Court can exercise power to issue

directions, order or writs to any Government

or persons in relation to the its jurisdiction

territories within which the cause of action,

wholly or partly a raised, though the

authority or residence of such person is not

within those territories 2. Generally, the writ of Habeas Corpus applies only after a person has been arrested

3. In exceptional cases, Habeas Corpus can be

granted even when detention is threatened.

4. Supreme Court can issue writ of Habeas

Corpus against State and private individuals, where as High court can issue writ only

against State.


(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 2, 4


75. Consider the following Statements regarding LM

Singh Committee:

1. The Panchayati Raj institutions should be

constitutionally recognized, protected and

preserved 2. Judicial tribunals should be established in

each State to adjudicate controversies about

the elections to Panchayat Raj institutions.



76. In the wake of cricket betting, Mudgal Committee

was appointed and it submitted its report.

In this context, consider the following about

prevention of Sporting Fraud Bill Draft 2013 and

choose the correct code? 1. Disclosing inside information is an offence

2. If a person proves that the act offence

committed was without his knowledge, he is

not liable to punishment

3. No Court shall have suo motu cognizance regarding sports fraud

Code:

(a) 1, 2 (b) 1 only (c) 2, 3 (d) all

77. There has been uproar about opinion and exit

polls regarding their ban etc. In this context consider the following & opt true

statement.

1. Exit poll is a poll of voters taken before they

cast their vote and opinion poll is the one

taken after they cast the vote 2. Election Commission is empowered under

Article 324 to restrict the opinion polls.

3. Existing Law allows Election Commission to

ban opinion polls prior to voting.

(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3 (c) 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3.

78. Consider the following about voting rights o Army

personal and Supreme Court recent observations

about it. Choose the incorrect statement(s):

1. Defense personnel used to exercise their vote

through postal ballot or through a proxy vote

2. SC ruled that voting rights be granted to Defense personnel by registration and

Election Commission gave right to vote for

them but at peace stations only



79. Consider the following Statements regarding

Ashok Mehta committee?

1. The three tier system of Panchayat raj should be replaced by the two tier system, that is,

Zilla Parishad at the District level and

Mandal Parishad below it.

2. There should not be official representation of

political parties at all levels of Panchayat

Elections 3. The Panchayati Raj institutions should have

compulsory powers of taxation to mobilise

their own financial resources

4. Nyaya Panchayats should be abolished and

power to try pretty cases should be given to developmental Panchayats


(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 4 only (d) 2, 4 only

80. Which of the following are true regarding the criteria to declare a party as National party

1. It is to be decided by Parliamentary

committee on legislative affairs

2. If a party secures at least 6% of valid votes

polled in a four or more States 3. If a party wins at least 4 seats in LS

4. If a party wins at least 2% seats in LS

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4 (c) 2, 4 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4


1. The President can make regulations for the Union Territory irrespective creation of

legislature for Union territories on the

grounds of peace, progress and good

governance.

2. The Administrator should not promulgate ordinances without the prior permission of

President



(c) Both (d) none of the above


1. Governor can regulate and amend and repeal

any act of Parliament or State legislature,

which is applicable to scheduled areas.

2. Such regulations dont require the assent of President.




1. 4/5th of the members of the metropolitan Planning committee should be selected by

the elected members of the municipalities

and chairpersons of the pachayats in the

metropolitan area from amongst themselves

2. The representation of these members in the

metropolitan Planning committee should be in the proportion to the ratio between

population of the municipalities and the

Panchayats in that metropolitan area

Which of the above is/arecorrect?



1. Autonomous Districts constituted in the

States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram falls outside the Executive authority

of State concerned.

2. Each Autonomous District constituted under

6th schedule, consists of 5 nominated

member from Governor, whose tenure is 3

year in District Council. 3. All laws made by District and Regional

councils must have the assent of Governor.


(a) 1 and only (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only (d) none of the above


1. The Governor can dissolve the District or

regional council of Autonomous Districts of

6th schedule areas, based on the report of

Commission appointed for the examination of administration of autonomous council.

2. Lai, Mara, Chakma Districts in the Mizoram

are declared as Tribal areas under 6th

schedule

3. Regional councils can make laws with respect to marriage, inheritance, and social

customs.


(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3



1. A Nominated member of house becomes

disqualified for being a member of house. If

he joins the political party before expiry of 6

months from the date on which he takes his seat

2. An Independent member of a house becomes

disqualified to remain a member of house if

joins any political party after such election

before 6 months.

Which of the above are true? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) both (d) neither


1. The Chairperson of a Panchayat at the village

level shall be elected in such manner as the State legislature determines

2. 73rd amendment act 1992 also applies to

area of Jammu and Kashmir, Nagaland,

Mizoram.

3. The President may direct that provisions of

this act shall apply to any Union territories subject to such exceptions and modifications

as he may specify

4. The act doesnt bar the interference by courts in the electoral matters of Panchayats


(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 4 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2

88. Which of the following are correct Statements?

1. The Interim Government members formed

in 1946 were members of Viceroys Executive Council.


2. The President of the Viceroys Executive Council was the Viceroy and Vice-

President of the Council was Jawaharlal Nehru in the Interim Government.

Code:

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both correct (d) both wrong

89. Consider the following Statements 1. Gramsabha means body consisting of

persons present in the villages comprised

within the area of Panchayat at the village

level.

2. Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population

not exceeding 20 lakh people.

3. The establishment of scheme of democratic decentralization, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj, is given by

Ashok Mehta. Which of the above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


90. GVK Rao committee appointed by Planning Commission in 1985, given the phrase Grass without roots and suggested the following 1. Some of the Planning functions at the State

level should be transferred to the District

level Planning units for effective decentralized

District Planning 2. Post of District development Commissioner

should be created, who should act as the

Chief Executive officer of Zillaparishad and

should be in charge of developmental

activities. 3. A Ministry for Panchayat raj should be

created for looking after the affairs of

Panchayat Raj institutes

4. Chief electoral officer of State in consultation

with Chief Election Commissioner should

organize and conduct the Panchayat Raj institutions



91. Consider the following Statements 1. The Executive officer of Cantonment Board is

appointed by Governor of State

2. The Military officer commanding the station

is the ex-officio President of the board and

presides over its meetings

3. Port trust can also created by State Government legislation

4. Housing Boards, Town improvement trusts

established by State Governments acts as

sub-ordinate agencies of the local municipal

bodies

Which of the above is/are incorrect? (a) all of the above except 1

(b) all of the above except 2

(c) all of the above except 3

(d) all of the above except 4


1. Municipalities are created for administration

of smaller cities, whose establishment does not require legislation of State legislature

2. Members of notified area committee are

partly nominated and partly elected, based

on the provisions of State Municipal Act.

3. Members of Town area committee are totally

nominated Which of the above is/are incorrect?

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3


93. Consider the following Statements 1. Municipality shall be given a reasonable

opportunity of being heard before its dissolution

2. The question of disqualification of members

of municipality, shall be referred for the

decision of such authority as the legislatures of State may provide.

3. The Standing committees are created for

Municipal Corporation, which facilitates the

working of municipal council and it is headed

by municipal Commissioner Which of the above is/are correct?


94. Which of the following are functional items

place within the purview of Municipalities?

1. Fire Services 2. Slum improvement and up gradation

3. Registration of births and deaths

4. Regulations of slaughter houses and fineries




1. A Panchayat constituted upon the

dissolution of Panchayat before the

expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remaining for the period for which the

dissolved Panchayat would have continued.

2. The functions of District Planning Committee

in relation to District Planning will be defined

by State Legislature Which of the above is/are correct?


(c) both (d) none of them

96. Which of the following are not compulsory

provisions for the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act:-

1. Holding fresh elections within 6 months in

the event of supersession of any Panchayat

2. Reservation of 1/3rd seats for women in

Panchayats at all 3 levels

3. Providing reservations of seats for backward classes in Panchayats at all levels

4. Granting financial powers to Panchayats,

authorizing them to levy, collect and

appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees

(a) 1, 3 (b) 1, 4 (c) 3, 4 (d) 1, 2


97. Which of the following items placed in the

purview of Panchayats (Eleventh Schedule?)

1. Fuel and fodder 2. Non conventional energy sources

3. Adult and non formal education

4. Public distribution system

(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 3, 4

(c) 1, 3, 4 (d) All of the them

98. State Finance Commission should recommend

the Governor on which of the following principles:

1. The distribution between States and

Panchayats of the net proceeds of the taxes,

duties, tolls and fees levied by State 2. The determination of taxes, duties, tolls, fees

that may be assigned to the Panchayats

3. The grant-in-aids to Panchayats from

Consolidated fund of State.

4. The measures needed to augment the

Consolidated fund of State to supplement the resources for Panchayats in the States


(a) 1, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4


99. President of India appoints High Court Judge. He

must consult which one of the following in

appointment process under Article 217. 1. Chief Judge of India

2. Governor of State

3. Chief Justice of High court

4. Senior Judges of Supreme Court

Code:



(a) Finance Minister and Prime Minister are

ex-officio members of the Planning Commission

(b) Programme Advisors acts as a link between

Planning Commission and States of Indian

Union in the field of Planning

(c) Planning Commission also referred as Fifth wheel of the Coach Which of the above are true?

(a) a and b (b) b and c

(c) a and c (d) all of the above

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analog ias institute upsc prelisem test series - 2014 indian polity no 02

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