assignments iind year1

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 502 (Part A)

STRENGTH OF MATERIALS

Note : All questions are compulsory. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Strength of Materials.

Maximum Marks : 100Weightage : 30%

Course Code : ET-502A Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) A steel tube of 24 mm external diameter and 18 mm internal diameter encloses a copper rod 15 mm diameter to which it is rigidly attached at each end. If, at a temperature of 10oC there is no longitudinal stress, calculate the stresses in the tube and rod when the temperature is raised to 200oC.

Esteel = 210 kN/mm2 Ecopper = 210 kN/mm2

Coefficients of linear expansion : αsteel = 11 x 10– 6/oC αcopper = 11 x 10– 6/oC

(b) A cantilever 2.5 m long carries a uniformly distributed load of 20 kN/m run. The breadth of the section remains constant and is equal to 100 mm. Determine the depth of section at the middle of the length of the cantilever and at fixed end if stress remains the same throughout and equal to 120 MN/m2.

Q.2 (a) At a section in a beam the tensile stress due to bending is 70 N/mm2 and there is a shear stress of 25 N/mm2. Determine from first principles, the magnitude and direction of the principal stresses and calculate the max shear stress. Also show the results on a properly oriented elements in each cases.

(b) Derive an expression to find total elongation of a uniformly tapering circular rod subjected to axial load P.

Q.3 (a) Derive the expressions for various stresses induced in a thin spherical vessel subjected to internal fluid pressure.

(b) A cylindrical shell 5 m long which is closed at the ends has an internal diameter of 1 m and a wall thickness of 15 mm. Calculate the circumferential and longitudinal stresses induced in shell and change in the dimensions of the shell, if it is subjected to an internal pressure of 1.5 MN/m2.

Take E = 200 GN/m2, µ = 0.3.

Q.4 (a) Drive the relation to find critical load of columns with both ends hinged. Also mention the assumptions made.

(b) A short column is of hollow circular section, the center of the inside hole being 6 mm eccentric to that of the outside. The outside diameter is 96 mm and the inside 48 mm. The line of action of the load intersects the cross-section at a point in line with the two centers. What are the limiting positions of the load for there to be no tensile stress set up?

3

Q.5 (a) A rectangular beam is to be cut from a circular log of diameter D. Find the ratio of breadth to depth for strongest section in bending.

(b) Prove that the moment of resistance of a beam of square section, with its diagonal in the plane of bending is increased by flatting top and bottom section as shown in figure and that the moment of resistance is maximum when y = 8a/9. Find the percentage increase in moment of resistance also.

Figure 1

Q.6 (a) Determine the sizes of two solid shafts to transmit 200 kW without exceeding an allowable shear stress of 70 MPa. One of the shafts operates at 20 rpm while the other at 20000 rpm. Comment on the results.

(b) A solid circular shaft of length 3 m and diameter of 50 mm rotates at 1200 rpm by a400 HP electric motor at its middle. It derives two machines of 150 HP and 250 HP at left and right ends of the shaft, respectively. Determine the maximum shear stress and relative displacement of the two ends of the shaft. Take G = 85 GPa.

Q.7 The load on a bolt consists of an axial pull of 15 kN together with a transverse shear of 7.5 kN. Determine the diameter of the bolt according to various theories of failure. Elastic limit in tension is 285 N/mm2, and a factor of safety of 3 is applied. Take μ as 0.3.

Q.8 (a) Derive the law of shearing stress distribution over the section of a beam of rectangular cross section and show that maximum shear stress at neutral axis is 50% more than the mean value.

(b) A bar of cross-section 750 mm2 is acted upon by tensile forces of 60 KN applied at each end of the bar. Determine the normal and shearing stress on a plane inclined at 25o to the direction of loading.

Q.9 For the simply supported beam shown in Figure 2 draw the shear force and binding moment diagram :

Figure 2

4

A

2 a

y

B

A

D

C

Q.10 (a) Define Young’s modulus and shear modulus and derive the relation between them.

(b) Determine the reactions at the support of the beam shown in Figure 3 :

Figure 3

5

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 502 (Part B)

STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Structural Analysis.


Course Code : ET-502B Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Draw the influence line diagrams for the following components in the structure given in Figure 1(a).

Figure 1(a)

(i) Reaction at A (ii) Reaction at B

(iii) Reaction at D (iv) Bending Moment at P

(i) Bending Moment at B (vi) Shear at P

(b) Draw the influence line diagram for the forces in members CD, CJ, JK and JD of the truss shown in Figure 1(b). The load is moving on a floor system resting on the bottom cord of the truss.

Figure 1(b)

Find the maximum value of the axial force in the members due to the following moving load systems :

(i) A 2 m long moving uniform load of 12 kN/m.

6

AB C D E F

G

H I J K L

6 @ 4 m

3 m

A B P DC

2 m 2 m 2 m1 m

(ii) A long uniform moving load of 10 kN/m and a concentrated moving load of 80 kN.

(iii) A truck traveling from left to right, the wheel loads of which are shown in Figure 1(c).

Figure 1(c)

Q.2 (a) A three hinged unsymmetrical parabolic arch has a span of 90 m. The right hand springing B is 10 m above the left hand spring A. The crown C is at 50 m from A and30 m above it. It carries two loads of 50 kN and 100 kN at 10 m and 20 m from left hand support A respectively and a uniformly distributed load of 3 kN/m over the right portion starting from crown C. Draw the bending moment diagram and calculate the bending moment, normal thrust and radial shear at a point 30 m from the right hand support.

(b) Find the forces in the members of the truss shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Q.3 (a) Analyse the continuous beam shown in Figure 3(a) using Three Moment Theorem and draw bending moment and shear force diagrams.

Figure 3(a)

7

AB C D E

F

G H I J

5 @ 4 m

3 m

80 kN

120 kN

2 m 4 m 4 m 2 m

2 kN/m20 kN 15 kN 50 kN

EI = Constant

80 kN 50 kN 120 kN 60 kN

2 m 2 m2 m

(b) For a continuous beam shown in Figure 3(b), the support A settles by 5 mm and support B settles by 2 mm along with the given loading. Draw the bending moment diagram for the beam.

Figure 3(b)

Q.4 (a) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 4(a) using slope deflection method and draw bending moment diagram.

Figure 4(a)(b) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 4(b) using moment distribution method.

Figure 4(b)

8

EI = Constant = 72 103 kNm2

3 kN/m80 kN 50 kN

2 m 2 m 2 m 1 m1 m

AB

C

3 m

4 kN/m

100 kN

EI = Constant

A

BC

D

4 m

4 m

80 kN

120 kN

A

B C

D

1 m 1 m

2 m 3 m

4 m

Q.5 (a) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 5(a) using symmetry concept.

Figure 5(a)

(b) Analyse the plane frame shown in Figure 5(b).

Figure 5(b)

Q.6 (a) Find the deflection at B and slope at C in the beam shown in Figure 6(a) for the given loading.

Figure 6(a)

(b) Find the slope and deflection at point C and slope at Point B in the beam shown in Figure 6(b) for the given loading.

9

4 kN/m

A

B C

D

5 m

2 m 2 m

80 kN

80 kN

A

B C

2 m 2 m

120 kN

3 m

3 m

6 mI

2 I

2 m 2 m

4 kN/m

A

B

C

I2 I

50 kN

1 m 1 m 2 m

3 kN/m30 kN

A

EI = Constant

B

C

Hinge

A B

C

P

W

Figure 6(b)

Q.7 (a) Analyse the portal frame shown in Figure 7(a) using unit load method.

Figure 7(a)

(b) A semi-circular arch of uniform flexural rigidity, having one end hinged and other end placed on roller subjected to a horizontal force P and a vertical downward load W at crown C in the middle. Find the horizontal displacement of the roller end.

Figure 7(b)

Q.8 Generate flexibility and stiffness matrix for the plane frame shown in Figure 8.

10

3 m

EI = Constant

A

B

C

D

4 m

5 m

70 kN

A

B C

D

2 m 3 m

4 m5 m

2 I

2 I

I

Figure 8

Q.9 (a) A suspension bridge cable of span 100 m and central dip 10 m is suspended from the same level at two towers. The bridge cable is stiffened by a three hinged stiffening girder which carries two concentrated loads of 30 kN each at points 20 m from both the ends. Draw the Bending Moment and Shear Force diagrams for the girder and calculate the maximum tension in the cable.

(b) A hollow cylindrical cast iron column 175 mm external diameter and 25 mm thick is 7 m in length having both ends hinged. Find the load using Rankine’s formula. Compare this load with that given by Euler’s formula.

Take c = 550 N/mm2 and a = 1/160.

Q.10 Find the collapse load for the frames and beam shown in Figure 9.

Figure 9(a)

11A

BC

D

2 m 2 m

4 m

3 m

4 m

2 m

3 m

P5 m

MP

2 MP

MP

3 P

5 m

A

B

C

D

2 m

4 m

3 m

P

5 m

3 MP

2 MP

MP

4 P

Figure 9(b)

Figure 9(c)

12

2 m 2 m1 m

2 MP MP

2 P P/2


PLANNING AND CONSTRUCTION OF BUILDINGS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Planning and Construction of Buildings.


Course Code : ET-521A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 A plot of land measures 16 m x 32 m, the front road is 18 m wide facing east. Service lane is on the rear measured 6 m. Prepare a suitable plan of a four bedroom residential building keeping in mind the restrictions imposed by municipality of your city.

Q.2 Discuss in brief the various types of buildings as classified by the NBO, 1983.

Q.3 Determine the minimum area of a plot for three storied residential building having four flats of 120 m2 area in each floor for the given data :

(i) Area for stair case and access should not exceed 25% of the ground floor area of the building, and

(ii) FAR is to be restricted to 1.50.

Q.4 (a) Discuss the different types of “Rural Houses”.

(b) Discuss the minimum standards for Rural Housing as per NBO.

Q.5 (a) Explain the various causes of settlement of foundations.

(b) Discuss the various methods to lower sub-soil water level for the purpose of excavation of foundations.

Q.6 (a) Under what conditions would you adopt a Raft Foundation? Explain the features of such a foundation.

(b) Discuss the purpose of providing bond in the construction of a brick work.

Q.7 (a) Classify various types of doors based on materials used.

(b) Discuss the design of windows in a room.

Q.8 (a) Explain the influence of Orientation of building on thermal comfort.

(b) Discuss the various ways in which a stone can be used as facing material.

Q.9 Design an R.C.C. stair located in a stair-case hall measuring 2.5 m x 5.5 m. The vertical distance between the floors is 4 m. Draw a dimensional plan and section of the proposed stair.

Q.10 Write short notes on the following :

(i) Combined Foundation

(ii) Water Proofing of Mud Walls

(iii) 3 Block Masonry

(iv) Interior Finishing Material.

13


BUILDING ARCHITECTURE

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Building Architecture.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) What are the roles of architectural design in constructing a building?

(b) Differentiate between architect, engineer and sculptor. What is the role of science and technology in architecture.

(c) Order and character are two important components required for designing a building. Explain.

(3 + 4 + 3 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Explain difference visual elements of design. How do they affect your Design? How does a principle of design help you to create good design?

(b) ‘Form and space form integral parts of the building design’. Explain in brief with neat sketches.

(c) Explain relation between size of space and nature of activity.

(3 + 4 + 3 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Describe the dowelling of Prehistoric man. List the Prehistoric megalithics.

(b) State factor that affect Egyptian Architecture. What were the systems of construction in Egyptian Architecture? Name the major building types of Egyptian Architecture.

(c) Explain characteristics of Greek Architecture. Describe orders in Greek Architecture. Name the building types in Greek Architecture.

(3 + 3 + 4 = 10)

Q.4 (a) State major characteristic of Roman Architecture. What was the new Materials invented and used by Romans? What was the function of the Roman Forum? What was the system of water supply in Roman Architecture?

(b) What was the basic characteristic features of Romanesque style.

(c) Discuss in brief a typical Gothic Cathedral. What was the system of construction in Gothic Buildings?

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.5 (a) What are the various fitments used in the building water supply system?

(b) What are the important points to consider in house drainage design?

(c) What is a structural system? Name the various types of structural systems? What is space frame?

(3 + 3 + 4 = 10)

14

Q.6 (a) Discuss in details the system of construction in both Buddhist and Hindu Architecture.

(b) Name the scripture of Vastu-Shastra. What are the styles of Indian Architecture?

(c) What is the departure in the system of construction after the arrival of Islamic rule in India?

(d) Which was the earliest mosque on Indian Soil? Discuss in about the construction of“Taj Mahal”.

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 = 10)

Q.7 (a) What are different types of built environment? Design – a problem – solving process – Types of Built Environment. Explain?

(b) What is Anthropometry? What are the types of human dimensions? How are aesthetic visual proportions evolved out of human dimensions?

(c) What is the psychological dimension of space? What is a bubble diagram?

(d) What are the environmental factors and how does a building modulate it? What are the various climatic zones of India? Discuss the main determining factors considered for the classification of the climatic zones in India.

(3 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 10)

Q.8 (a) What is comfort? What conditions make for comfort inside a building? How does an Architect eensure comfort inside a building?

(b) What are shell and pneumatic structures? Where would you use such a structure? Where will you put a space frame?

(c) Discuss the Professional Code of Conduct to be followed by an Architect. Describe different types of tender.

(3 + 3 + 4 = 10)

Q.9 (a) What are the different types of foundation?

(b) Differentiate between shallow and deep foundations.

(c) Differentiate between painting, varnishing and distempering.

(d) What are the different types of bricks and stone masonry?

(e) What are different types of stairs?

(2 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.10 (a) What is the importance of building regulations?

(b) What procedure should be followed during the construction of a building?

(c) How does computer help in architects work?

(d) Differentiate ‘hardware’ and ‘software’.

(2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 + 2.5 =10)

15

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 521 (Part C)

DESIGN DETAILING

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Design Detailing.


Course Code : ET-521C Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Determine the self weight of a brick wall per running meter, considering its height to be4 m when brick wall thickness is 230 mm and plaster of 12 m on inner face while 25 mm on the outer face.

(b) Why do we need concrete cover reinforcement mention the requirement for different member types?

(c) What are the precautions to be taken (a) at the design stage, (b) at the detailing stage and (c) at the construction stage for ensuring a high quality structure?

()

Q.2 (a) Draw neat sketch of a square foundation of 3.5 x 3.5 m for a rectangular Column of size 900 x 300 mm considering sloping footing.

(b) Determine the limit M.R. of balanced rectangular section 550 x 650 mm assuming an effective cover as 50 mm, and using concrete of grade M25 and steel of grade Fe 415. Draw a neat section using bars upto 25 mm diameter Compute the working moment of resistance using load factor = 1.5.

(c) State the advantages of limit- state approach method.

(4 + 4 + 2 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Draw to a suitable scale a layout plan of a continuous beam of size 300 x 800 mm over three spans. The two-end spans being 8m while central one is 4 m construction is monolithic with RCC slab 150 mm thick which is one way continuous in direction perpendicular to the beam. The slab 20 x 9 m is spanning over 4 beam equal spaced at3 m c/c and overhanging by 0.75 m on either side. The slab is subjected to on imposed live load of 5 kN/m2. Assuming slab to be 150mm thick, draw neat detail of continuous slab. Write a suitable schedule of reinforcement detail of the slab.

(b) Draw typical details of two pile group with 550 mm diameter pile supporting a column350 mm x 600 mm.

(c) Indicate the names of some important tests on cement as per IS 269 and state the expected requirements.

()

Q.4 (a) Draw a typical detail of a Purlin supported on truss with neat sketch.

(b) Draw a detail of an open web girder at its end supported on steel column of I-Section for a hinged connection.

(4 + 6 = 10)

16

Q.5 (a) Design the formwork in wood for a retaining wall, 2.5 m below ground level and 3 m above ground level, 25 m long and 220 mm uniform thickness. The clear toe is 1m and heel-slab is 2 meter. Assume the concrete with (a) temp. of 15o (b) slump of 50 mm, and (c) rate of placement of concrete is 3.5 m/hr. Assume wind pressure to be 1.5 kN/m2.

(b) Design the sheeting and beam for RCC flat slab 200 mm thick on 5 m x 5 m module, Height 4 m. Assume 25 m planks are available.

(c) Write duty of site engineer during supervision of form-wok and staging.

(d) Explain in brief notes :

(i) form lining materials

(ii) Telescopic beam

(iii) Slip form

(3 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.6 (a) Determine the working moment of resistance (MR) in kNm units of ISMB 400 andISMB 400. Refer standard tables, in the IS hand book for structural engineer.

(b) ISMC 200 provided @ 250 mm c/c designed to carry a compression load of 300 kN and the two legs are attended by 250 x 10 mm plates @ 1000 c/c. Design the connecting bolts of 20 mm diameters.

(c) How does built-up section achieve economy?

(4 + 4 + 2 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Design the member and gusset plate connection for a tension member for truss to carry an axial tension of 120 KN. Draw a neat sketch showing the connection details.

(b) A column ISHB 300 carries direct load of 1000 kN and has to be spliced by providing plates on the flanges as well as both sides of the web. Design the joint to carry 500 kN through each flange plate and each web plate of the splice.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.8 (a) In how many different ways can one weld two structural member. Draw appropriate sketches to explain them.

(b) Draw a welded detail of bearing stiffener of a solid-web girder supported over a steel column of I section.

(c) Draw a built up column of two I section and show a typical lacing details.

(4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

Q.9 (a) Calculate the number of twin mirror optic fluorescent fixtures with 40 w tube lights for an office area of 20 m x 20 m with a floor to false ceiling height of 2.5 m. The required illumination is 300 lux. Use the following data?

C = Coefficient of utilization for the room with spacing to height ratio of 1.3 is 0.7.

D = lamp derating factor is 0.90.

I = lumens per watt is 55.

M = mutual induction for two lamps in the same fittings is 0.92

(b) Sketch and explain physical requirement for lifts in a building.

(5 + 5 = 10)

17

Q.10 (a) Write short notes on :

(i) Principle of air conditioning

(ii) Water chillers

(iii) Describe UPS system with a block diagram

(iv) Write a brief note on transformers, and

(v) Psychometrics process

(b) Explain the basic principle of air-conditioning with the help of simple block diagram.

(c) Calculate solar and transgain at 4:00 pm for the month of June in New Delhi. Inside design condition is 24C DB and 50% RH. The wall under consideration is facingsouth-west and is 3 m high and 10 m long, with 200 mm thick brick exposed on the exterior but interior plastered.

(41 + 3 + 3 = 10)

18

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 521 (Part D)

QUANTITY SURVEYING & VALUATION

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Quantity Surveying and Valuation.


Course Code : ET-521D Last Date of Submission : Sep. 30, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Enumerate the different methods of valuation. Explain in details the land and the building method of valuation.

(b) Draw a layout plain of a recognized colony in your city and a house of two B/R with attached toilet, Drawing/Dining and a kitchen on one of the plots as per city bye laws. Asses the market value of the house using land and building method. Make your own assumptions.

Q.2 (a) Explain the various methods used by the valuers of working out depreciation in the building.

(b) A building client will need to replace a building at the end of twenty years, and the replacement cost is estimated at Rs. 30,00,000/-. Calculate the amount of annual sinking fund assuming an interest rate of 5%.

Q.3 (a) Enumerate the basic principles of Land Acquisitions Act.

(b) What is the procedure for acquisition of land?

(c) Discuss the methods of valuation for determination of compensation on acquisition of the land?

Q.4 Distinguish between the followings :

(i) Compensation’ and Amount.

(ii) ‘Earning Value’ and ‘Potential Value’ of a property.

(iii) ‘Freehold’ and ‘Leasehold’ land.

(iv) Preliminary estimates and detailed estimates.


(i) Years purchase.

(ii) Capital repairs.

(iii) Doctrines of ultra wires.

(iv) Replacement cost of Building.

Q.6 (a) Enumerate the steps adopted for preparation of preliminary estimate.

(b) Define cost index and explain its importance.

19

Q.7 (a) Explain the terms ‘prime costs’ and ‘secondary costs’. What all do they include?

(b) What are the sub-heads into which a detailed estimate is divided?

Q.8 (a) What do you mean by analysis of rate? Why is it necessary?

(b) Prepare the analysis of rate for 15 mm cement plaster 1 : 6 (1 cement : 6 fine sand) on rough side of a single or half brick wall.

Q.9 (a) Discuss the various applications of computer in Construction Projects.

(b) Enumerate various soft wares available for ‘Quantity Surveying’ and project planning, scheduling and monitoring. State their usage.

Q.10 (a) What do you understand by Quality Assurance and Quality Control of Construction Works?

(b) Is it necessary to write the specifications of every work item to be included in contract document?

(c) Write specifications for workmanship in R.C.C. and Structural Steel Work.

20

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 522

CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY AND CONSTRUCTION TECHNIQUES

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Concrete Technology and Construction Techniques.


Course Code : ET-522 Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 Name the most commonly tests conducted for the measurement of workability of Concrete. With the help of a suitable diagram discuss the Compaction Factor test.

Q.2 Gives reasons for following :

(i) Weigh batching is preferred over volume batching.

(ii) It is not only the quantity but the quality of water has also got equal bearing on the performance of hardened concrete.

(iii) Cube strength is higher than cylinder strength of the same Concrete.

Q.3 (a) What do you understand by the term "Hydration of Cement"? How will you Measure the consistency of cement?

(b) What is meant by bleeding of Concrete and how the harmful effect of bleeding can be minimized?

Q.4 Explain following :

(i) Effect of porosity of Aggregate on Concrete.

(ii) Bulking of sand.

(iii) Advantages of steam curing.

Q.5 List the factors affecting the optimum mixing time of Concrete? Does the mixing time has any impact on the compressing strength of Concrete? Discuss.

Q.6 Distinguish between following :

(i) Aerated concrete and Neo-fins Concrete.

(ii) Flakiness Index and Elongation Index.

(iii) Water Proofing and Damp Proofing admixtures.

Q.7 What is Polymer Concrete and how it can be sub classified. Give a comparison of compressive and tensile strength of PIC in relation to unimpregnated concrete.

Q.8 With the help of neat sketch discuss the functioning of following :

(i) Squeeze pressure Pumps used for pass piles of Concrete.

(ii) Box Caisson.

Q.9 Name the factors that are considered in the selection of piles. How will you calculate the load bearing capacity of single pile by Pile Load Test.

Q.10 What is meant by Formwork and how will you differentiate it with Scaffolding? Discuss the factors that influence the cost of Formwork.

21


CONSTRUCTION WORKS SUPERVISION

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Construction Works Supervision.



BTCM

Q.1 (a) Discuss the responsibilities of the construction supervisor.

(b) Explain the various facilities required on the construction site for smooth running of the project.

Q.2 (a) Describe the purpose and components of an Estimate.

(b) Explain the procedure of Estimating for revision of project budgets.

Q.3 (a) Explain the necessity of Log Books for Construction Equipment.

(b) Describe the typical form of a Contract Agreement.

Q.4 (a) Explain the contents of Interim and Final Bills.

(b) Discuss five important stages of work which are generally recorded in the Inspection Register and passed by Engineer-In-Charge.

Q.5 (a) Explain the format of maintaining Material Requisition and Issue Records.

(b) Explain the procedure of keeping the records of steel consumption.

Q.6 (a) Describe the advantages of filling at optimum moisture content.

(b) Discuss the significance of Workmanship and Quality Assurance in masonryc.

Q.7 (a) Discuss the quality requirement of concrete.

(b) Explain the various factors which should be kept in mind during supervision of making holes in different members in structural steel work.

Q.8 (a) Discuss the various points which should be kept in mind during the execution of different types of wiring.

(b) Explain the common defects occurring in piling work.


(i) Measurement Book

(ii) Purchase Orders

(iii) Bill of Quantities

(iv) POL Consumption Accounting.

Q.10 Differentiate between the following :

(i) Maintenance of a Muster Roll and an Attendance Register

(ii) Direct and Indirect Cost

(iii) Marking and Storing

(iv) Painting and Glazing.

22


OPERATION AND MAINTENANCE OF CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENT

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Operation and Maintenance of Construction Equipment.


Course Code : ET-523B Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) What do you understand by equipment planning? State the advantages and disadvantages of purchase of equipment as compared with renting it.

(b) Enumerate what selection criteria would you bring out for the proper selection of the particular equipment at a project site for speedy and economic construction.

Q.2 (a) Explain the various costs considered while fixing the hire charges of construction equipment. Differentiate between ownership cost and operational cost.

(b) What are the ways by which equipment can be financed? What do you understand by budgetary control and costing?

Q.3 (a) How does the weather affect the output of equipment? Explain how the output of equipment is monitored, evaluated and corrected.

(b) Being head of site maintenance cell, enumerate the elements and total cost of maintenance of the equipment and define an optimal plan of maintenance.

Q.4 (a) Explain the important aspects of planning a compressed air system on a project site. Illustrate the application of diversity factors in designing a compressed air system.

(b) What are the various features to be considered in the planning of access roads and water supply in a project area?

Q.5 (a) Differentiate among routine, periodic, preventive and breakdown maintenance. What information do you obtain from an effective maintenance record system?

(b) Write short notes on replacement of components and replacement of equipment.

Q.6 (a) Write short notes on equipment identification card, equipment rental, and equipment utilization report and maintenance records with their specific advantages.

(b) Discuss the construction and functioning of centrifugal, rotary and reciprocating pumps. What are the characteristics of these pumps?

Q.7 (a) Discuss the factors affecting the performance of pumps. Find out the discharge of duplex double-acting reciprocating pump, size 22 cm (diameter) x 36 cm, and drive by a crankshaft making 85 rpm. If the total head is 45 m and the efficiency of the pump is 80%, calculate the minimum power required to operate the pump assuming weight of water 1 t/cum and slippage 5%.

(b) What is the information considered to select a pump for a particular job? A centrifugal pump operating at 1750 rpm requires 79.1 kW to discharge 72 liters against a head of 87.4 m. Find its capacity, head and power required at 1450 rpm.

23

Q.8 (a) Write short notes on auxiliary apparatus, air cleaner, lubrication system and regulation of IC engines.

(b) What are the different methods of cooling an IC engine? Discuss the consumption of various fuels and the load factors at which IC engines work.

Q.9 (a) Classify and discuss the types of compressor based on the mechanism of compressing.

(c) Explain the terms overall efficiency, compressor efficiency and volumetric efficiency. For a 8.92 cum/min two stage portable compressor, no of low pressure cylinders = 4, no of high pressure cylinders = 2, diameter of low pressure cylinders 180 mm, diameter of high pressure cylinders 150 mm, length of stroke 130 mm, rpm 750 mm. Determine the volumetric efficiency of the compressor.

Q.10 (a) State the advantages and disadvantages of double acting steam hammers and diesel hammers.

(b) Discuss the efficiency of blow and energy wasted per blow for free fall hammer if the materials are inelastic. Given that WH = 4 t, WP = 6 t, height of drop = 2 m and the no of blows is 15 per minute, determine the efficiency of blow and the energy wasted per blow if the materials are inelastic.

24


REPAIR AND MAINTENANCE OF BUILDINGS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Repair and Maintenance of Buildings.


Course Code : ET-523C Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Explain the various measures required to be taken for control of Corrosion of Reinforced steel.

(b) Describe the defects in timber due to insects.

Q.2 (a) Briefly describe the structure of a tree.

(b) Explain the classification of timber.

Q.3 (a) Explain the manufacturing defects in steel.

(b) Briefly describe the defects in bath fittings.

Q.4 (a) Discuss the fire resistance of timber.

(b) Explain the various methods adopted for excluding the external sources of choridion from concrete.

Q.5 (a) Explain the procedure of detecting leaks in the water supply systems.

(b) Discuss some methods to strengthen a column which is deteriorated and not taking any load.

Q.6 (a) Discuss the diagnosis of defects in flooring.

(b) Explain the various chemicals used for strengthening masonry works.

Q.7 (a) What do you mean by water proofing? Explain the method of water proofing a deep well.

(b) Describe the main techniques normally used for repair of cracks.

Q.8 (a) Discuss the various causes of dampress.

(b) Describe the procedure of repair of structures affected by chemical action.


(i) Honey Combed Concrete

(ii) Classification of Defects

(iii) Defects in steel

(iv) Qualities of Good Timber.


(i) Deterioration and Cracking

(ii) Integral Water Proofing and Surface Treatment

(iii) Flanged and Union Joint

25

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 524 (Part A)/ET 534 (Part A)

PRINCIPLES OF ENGINEERING MANAGEMENT AND ECONOMICS

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the bracket. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Principles of Engineering Management and Economics.


Course Code : ET-524A/534A Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM/BTWRE

(iv) Heart and Sap Wood.

Q.1 (a) An organization is defined as social invention for accomplishing goals through group efforts. Discuss this statement giving some examples of organizations and their goals.

(b) Explain the various types of groups. What do you understand by group norms, group values and group cohesiveness? How can group cohesiveness be improved?

Q.2 How does power differ from authority? Explain briefly various types of power, giving examples. Is use of power necessary to control people?

Q.3 Distinguish between the two concept in each of the following pairs :

(i) Job analysis and job enrichment.

(ii) Centralization and decentralization of authority.

(iii) Vertical and horizontal coordination.

(iv) Training and development.

Q.4 (a) Define motivation. Explain briefly the sources of motivation – positive, negative, extrinsic and intrinsic.

(b) Discuss Maslow’s need theory and Herberg’s two-factor theory. What are the salient differences between the two?

Q.5 (a) What is Value Engineering? What is its potential during the conception and preliminary design phase during the life cycle of a construction project?

(b) Discuss in detail how numerous alternatives can be generated during the creativity phase of Value Analysis?

Q.6 (a) Explain briefly various types of project organizations.

(b) Discuss matrix type of project organization. What are its advantages over the other type of organizations?

Q.7 Write short notes on :

(i) Organization culture and climate.

(ii) Environment Impact Assessment.

(iii) Work-breakdown Structure and Codification of tasks.

(iv) Brainstorming.

(v) Detailed Project Report.

26

Q.8 (a) What is Linear Programming? What requirements are to be met before its application? What are the assumptions underlying linear programming?

(b) A firm is engaged in producing two products, A and B. Each unit of the product A requires two kg of raw materials and four labour hour for processing whereas each unit of product B requires three kg of raw materials and three hours of labour of the same type. Every week, the firm has an availability of 60 kg of raw materials and 96 labours hours. One unit of product sold yields Rs. 40/- and one unit of product B sold givesRs. 35/- as profit.

Formulate this problem as a linear programme and determine graphically as how units of each of the products should be produced per week so that the firm can earn the maximum profit. Assume that there is no marketing constraints so that all that is produced can be sold

Q.9 (a) Explain what do you understand by Statistical Process Control? Explain various control charts used for controlling the process both for variables and attributes.

(b) Explain the measures of (i) central tendency and (ii) dispersion.

Q.10 Evaluate in approximately 300 words, the Indian Economy Environment.

27

Q.1 Discuss how site drainage affects a grading plan. What are Run off, Cut off and Fly off? Describe the methods of determining the sub soil composition of a site, where a large and multistoried office building is to be built?

Q.2 What do you understand by controlled blasting? Which all explosives are used for this (give commercial name as well as scientific name)? Describe any two projects where controlled blasting technique was used in a major way.

Q.3 Describe the processes of storing cement, quick lime and timber. In your answer, point out why that process is the best and unique for adaptation.

Q.4 Strength of R.C.C. depends upon a number of factors. Discuss about at least four different factors which you find most important. Explain why they are so important to you.

Q.5 Estimation minimizes the unknown and optimizes the description, dimensions and quantities of the project. Elaborate the principles involved and explain how estimation differs from valuation?

Q.6 A project consists of 13 activities. The dependency table is as given below.

Activity Preceding Activity Time (Weeks)

A 1

B A 14

C B, F 6

D A 4

E B, F 6

F A 18

G C, D, E 2

H B 3

J H 3

K H 4

L J, K 1

M L 1

N G, M 2

Draw CPM network and carryout time analysis. Assume suitable data wherever required.

28


CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT-I

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Construction Management-I.



BTCM

Q.7 Prepare an abstract estimate for a small housing unit comprising a living room with kitchen and attached toilet meant for Economically Weaker Section (EWS) of the society. Assume realistic present rates of all items of work.

Q.8 What do you understand by Approximate Estimate and why this required? Explain the five methods of obtaining Approximate Estimates.

Q.9 What is inflation? Discuss the methods of accounting inflation. Why is inflating accounting necessary?

Q.10 Explain what is meant by “Lawful Consideration” and “Lawful Object” of a contract? Why considerations must be real?

29


HYDROLOGY

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Hydrology.


Course Code : ET-532A Last Date of Submission : Sep. 30, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Enumerate the science associated with hydrology.

(b) Discuss the major components to be considered for carrying out a regional water budget study.

(c) What are the main processes responsible for making water available on land surface? Why do we need to study our atmosphere?

(d) Calculate the perceptible water (mm) in a 10 km high saturated atmospheric column if the surface conditions are : air temperature = 20oC, pressure = 101.3 kPa and the lapse rate (α) is 5.0oC/km.

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Discuss how to express the net solar energy received at the earth’s surface. Explain atmospheric circulation system.

(b) Discuss differential heating of earth and its effect on the atmosphere.

(c) Discuss the important features of different types of rain gauge.

(d) A reservoir with a surface area of 500 hectares had the following average values of parameters during a given week: water temperature = 20oC, relative humidity = 40% and wind velocity at 1.0 m above the ground = 28 km/h. Estimate the average daily evaporation from the lake and the total volume of water evaporated from the lake during that one week.

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.3 (a) Calculate by energy balance method, the evaporation rate from an open water surface, if the net radiation is 220 W/m2 and the temperature is 26oC, assuming no sensible heat or ground heat flux.

(b) Explain analytical methods for the determination of lake evaporation.

(c) A catchment area, near Delhi, is at a latitude of 12o18’N, and at an elevation of 750 m above MSL.

The mean monthly temperatures are given below :

Month Jan Feb March April May June July Aug Sept Oct Nov Dec

Mean Monthly Temp. (˚c)

18.0 20.0 26.0 28.0 25.0 25.0 23.0 23.5 24.5 24.5 23.0 19.0

Calculate the monthly and annual PET for this catchments using Thornthwaite formula.

(d) Bring out the difference between depression storage and surface detention.

(2 + 2 + 4 + 2 = 10)

30

Q.4 (a) What is the importance of infiltration in hydrologic cycle? Explain the typical shape of an infiltration curve. Discuss the practical importance of (φ-index).

(b) Explain the basic steps evolved in estimation of storm runoff.

(c) For a catchments in Uttar Pradesh, the mean monthly rainfall and temperature are given below. Calculate the annual runoff coefficient by Khosla formula.


Temp. (oC)

12 17 20 28 0 35 30 30 27 28 20 14

Rainfall(cm)

6 4 3 0 0 10 37 30 10 2 2 5

(d) Explain flow duration curve and also explain the characteristics of flow duration curve.

(3 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Observed values of runoff at a stream gauging site are given below. Upstream of the gauging site, a weir, built across the stream, diverts 2.8 and 0.6 million m3 of water per month for use in irrigation and industry. The return flows from irrigation, estimated at1 Mm3 per month, and from the industry at 0.3 Mm3 per month, joins the stream upstream of the gauging site. Estimate the virgin flow of the river. If the catchments area is 115 Km2 and the average annual rainfall is 185 cm. Also determine the runoff-rainfall ratio.


Runoff (cm)

2.2 1.6 0.8 0.6 2.1 8.0 28.0 22.0 11.0 9.0 7.0 2.0

(b) The velocity of float in a stream was observed to be 6.0 m/s. Compute the average flow velocity corresponding to this observation. Adopt a reasonable value of the required coefficient and explain why this coefficient is needed.

(c) In a rectangular channel which is 15 m wide, the depth of flow and cross-sectional areas are measured as 3.5 m, 52.5 m2 and 3.4 m, 51.0 m2 at two sections 250 m apart. The drop in the water surface elevation was found to be 0.10 m. Assuming Manning’s coefficient to be 0.016 estimates the discharge through the channel.

(d) Explain “Synthetic unit hydrograph” and methods used for the development of synthetic unit hydrograph.

(4 + 2 + 2 + 2 = 10)

Q.6 (a) The rainfall records at a station for five days in the month of July are 2, 9, 10, 22, 8 mm. Find the mean of the rainfall values.

(b) Evaluate the mean, variance, standard deviation, coefficient of variation, Skewness, coefficient of Skewness, Kurtosis, and coefficient of Kurtosis of the following grouped data :

Rainfall (mm)

15 20 25 30 35 40 45

No. of Days

7 4 5 4 8 5 2

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.7 (a) Explain the methods of parameter estimation techniques.

(b) Explain Index-flood method (USGS method).

(c) Explain “test of independence in time”.

(d) For a hydraulic structure having a design life of 120 years, what will be the risk involved if it is designed for (i) 60-year return period flood, and (ii) 1000-year return period flood?

31

(2 + 2 + 2 + 4 = 10)

Q.8 (a) If a dam is having project life of 60 years then what is the probability that a flood with return period of 100 years will occur.

(i) Once, and

(ii) Twice during the life of the dam.

(b) Write in details the design criteria for hydraulic structures.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.9 (a) A river cross section was divided into strips, and soundings were taken at the end of each strip. Observations are tabulated as under; plot the section, and compute the total discharge :

Strip No 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Remarks

Distance of sounding point from left bank (m)

2.0 2.8 4.0 6.5 8.0 10.0 11.0 11.5 13.5 15.0

Tabulate your results

Value of sounding (m)

2.6 2.95 4.2 6.8 6.4 5.1 8.8 9.7 5 1

Average velocity in the strip (m/s)

0.7 0.9 1.2 1.5 2.4 3.8 1.9 1.9 1.0 0.8

(b) Write notes with neat sketch on “stages in life of lake”.

(6 + 4 = 10)

Q.10 (a) Following observations at a gauging station, at the outlet of a chosen basin, due to a 4-h storm are available as under (Area of the basin = 750 km2) :

Time (Hr) 0 13 16 19 22 25 28 31 34 38 41 43 46

Flow (cumec)

0 80 120 250 320 360 280 202 105 75 35 30 0

Plot this hydrograph to a suitable scale, drawing a smooth curve through the plotted points.

(b) Derive the ordinates (and plot) of a 4-h unit hydrograph.

(c) Explain in details the ultrasonic method of river gauging with figure of equipment.

(4 + 2 + 4 = 10)

32


GROUND WATER DEVELOPMENT

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Ground Water Development.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Explain the pumping test, well test and aquifer test. Write the information which can be derived form pumping test.

(b) Discuss the importance of Thei’s and Theim’s methods.

Q.2 (a) In a phreatic aquifer exending over 4 km2 the water table initially was 30 m below ground level (bgl). Sometimes later after irrigation with a depth of 40 cm of water, the water table rose to a depth of 15 m bgl. Later 8 105 cubic metre water was pumped out which resulted a drop in the water table upto 24.2 m bgl. Determine the specific yield of the well.

(b) What is salt water intrusion? Can it happen in inland aquifers too? If not, then why?

Q.3 Describe the role of conjunctive use of water in water resources management. Describe the status of ground water legislation and regulations in India.

Q.4 What are the different methods of ground water exploration? Discuss any two in detail.

Q.5 Write the major differences between percussion drilling and hydraulic rotary drilling and explain step-by-step the procedure involved in well drigh.

(i) What is well development? Why it is necessary?

(ii) What is the purpose of ground water exploration?

Q.6 What is artificial groundwater recharge? Discuss the various processes which govern the groundwater recharge.

Q.7 (a) Discuss the regional water balance method. What are its practical uses.

(b) Describe any one method of geophysical exploration of groundwater.

Q.8 Explain in detail the different method of groundwater potential assessment.

Q.9 Write short notes :

(i) Pump characteristics curves

(ii) Power requirement and pump efficiency

(iii) Variable displacement pumps

(i) Bioremediation and phyto-remediation

(ii) Observation walls.

33

Q.10 Do as directed :

(i) Porosity (define and explain any method of its determination)

(ii) Hydraulic conductivity (define and write the dimensions)

(iii) Boundary conditions (define)

(iii) Simulation (define and give its significance)

(iv) Aquifer, Aquitard and Aquiclude (differentiate)

34


IRRIGATION ENGINEERING

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Irrigation Engineering.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Discuss water resources in India. How Indian rivers are classified.

(b) Write a note on surface irrigation on methods adopted in India.

Q.2 (a) Discuss type of soils used for irrigation purposes in India.

(b) A Band sample has a volume of 500 C and its weights 800 gm in it s natural state and when it was dried in the oven it weight was 750 gm. Determine soil moisture content, volumetric moisture and degree of saturation of the soil sample. Take G = 2.66.

Q.3 (a) Write a note on Infiltration medals.

(b) Fit the Kostiyakov equation to the data given below and determine the value of a and b.

T (hr) 0.25 0.50 0.75 1.0 1.25 1.50 1.75 2.0

F cm/hr) 6.8 3.20 2.20 1.50 1.20 1.12 0.98 0.98

Q.4 (a) What is evapotranspiration. Discuss Penmanetnal.

(b) How a land can be used for a poor quality water irrigation.

Q.5 (a) Discuss how a sprinkler system is designed.

(b) The average rainfall of four stations A, B, C and D in an area is 100, 120, 90 and 111 cm respectively. In a particular year station D did not function and the rainfall figure of A, B and D are 80, 190 and 75 cm respectively. Compare the missing data at station D.

Q.6 (a) Describe various types of outlet with heat sketches.

(b) What is learning requirements and how it is estimated?

Q.7 (a) What are the steps involved in land grading design?

(b) Describe four corners method for the estimation of cut and fill volumes.

Q.8 (a) What are the factors affecting for the selection of equipment for land grading?

(b) Classify the pumps for irrigation purposes.

Q.9 (a) Write a note on pump characteristics.

(b) How a vertical turbine pumps is selected for the irrigation works?

Q.10 Write short notes on following :

(i) Drip irrigation,

(ii) Water logging,

(iii) Design of canal, and

(iv) Water quality of irrigation.

35


OPEN CHANNEL FLOW

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Open Channel Flow.



BTWRE

Q.1 (a) Explain the modified Moody Diagram, showing the behaviour of friction factor in open channel flow.

(b) A trapezoidal channel of bottom width 2 m and side slope 1 : 1 has a bed slope of 0.00015. Find the normal depth if it carries a discharge of 3 m3/sec. Assume manming’sn as .013.

Q.2 (a) Starting from the momentum principle show that where all the

terms have their usual meaning.

(b) The Froud number of a suberitical stream at the end of a hydraulic jump in a horizontal rectangular channel is 0.22. Determine the sequent depth ratio of this hydraulic Jump.

Q.3 (a) Describe the characteristics of various water surface profiles.

(b) Starting from the basic principles, show that the slope of the water surface with reference to the channel bed in case of gradually varied flow for a wide rectangular channel using mannings’s equation can be expressed as :

Q.4 Show that hydraulic exponent (N) for uniform flow conditions can be expressed as :

Also show that the value of hydraulic exponent (N) varies from 2.0 to 3.3 for a rectangular channel

Q.5 (a) Explain the energy dissipation at the toe of a spillway.

(b) Describe the design criteria of solid roller bucket.

Q.6 (a) What do you mean by surge? Describe various types of surges in brief.

(b) A rectangular channel 4.0 m wide carries a discharge of 12.0 m3/sec at a depth of 2.0 m. Calculate the height and velocity of a surge produced when the flow is suddenly stopped by the complete closure of a sluice gate at the downstream end.

36

Q.7 (a) Explain the prime natural causes for wave propagation.

(b) Classify water waves according to relative depth.

Q.8 Starting from the basic principles, show that dynamic equation of Uniformly progressive flow (wave motion in open channel) can be expressed as :

Where all the terms have their usual meaning.


(i) Pressure Distribution in a section,

(ii) Specific Energy,

(iii) Energy dissipators, and

(iv) Wave action on dams.


(i) Pipe flow and Open Channel flow,

(ii) Steady and unsteady flows,

(iii) Prismatic and Non-Prismatic Channels, and

(iv) Hydraulic Radius and Hydraulic Depth.

37


SYSTEMS METHODS

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Systems Methods.


Course Code : ET-534B Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) What do you understand by Electric Power System? Describe Electric Power Generation System with the help of block diagram.

(b) The DC motor is the most suitable motor for variable speed drives. State the reasons.

Q.2 (a) Differentiate between physical and non-physical system by citing at least two examples of each.

(b) What are the two basic types of control systems? Give at least two examples of each type.

Q.3 (a) Describe static system and dynamic system. Give suitable examples of both type of systems.

(b) Describe scale model and analogue model with the help of examples. Give atleast four examples of each.

Q.4 A diet for sick person must contain at least 4000 units of vitamins, 50 units of minerals and 1400 units of calories. Two foods A and B are available at a cost of Rs. 4/- and Rs. 3/- per unit respectively. If one unit of A contains 200 units of vitamins, 1 unit of minerals and 40 units of calories and 1 unit of food. B contains 100 units of vitamins, 2 unit of minerals and 40 units of calories. Find by the graphic, what combination of foods be used to have least cost. Also solve the problem by SIMPLEX method.

Q.5 A company has 3 factories A, B and C which supply to 4 warehouses situated at P, Q, Rand S. The monthly production capacity tons of A, B and C are 120, 80 and 200 respectively. The monthly requirements (tone) for the warehouses P, Q, R and S are 60, 50, 140 and 50 respectively. Transportation cost (Rs. per ton) matrix is given below :

FactoriesWarehouses

P Q R S

A 4 5 2 5

B 3 8 4 8

C 7 4 7 4

Determine the optimum transportation distribution of products to warehouses to minimize the total transportation cost. Use all the methods described in your study material to find the optimal solution.

Q.6 What do you understand by Kendall’s notation? Customers arrive at a sales counter manned by a single person according to a Poisson process with a mean rate of 20 percent. The time required to serve a customer has an exponential distribution with a mean by 100 seconds. Find the average waiting time of a customer.

38

Q.7 Define EOQ. A purchase manager places order each time for a lot of 500 units of a particular item. From the available data the following results are obtained :

Inventory carry cost = 40%

Ordering cost per order = Rs. 600

Cost per unit = Rs. 50

Annual demand = 1000

Find out the loss to the organization due to his ordering policy.

Q.8 An automobile dealer wishes to put four repairmen to four different jobs. The repairmen has some what different kinds of skills and they exhibit different levels of efficiency from one job to another. The dealer has estimated the number of man houses that would be required for each job man combination. This is given in the matrix from in the following table :

Job

ManA B C D

1 8 10 12 16

2 1 11 15 8

3 9 6 5 14

4 15 14 9 7

Also indicate the total time taken in completing the jobs.

Q.9 A small project consist of seven activities, details of which are given below :

ActivityDuration (Days) Immediate

PredecessorMost Likely Optimistic Pessimistic

A 3 1 7

B 6 2 14 A

C 3 3 3 A

D 10 4 22 B, C

E 7 3 15 B

F 5 2 14 D, E

G 4 4 4 D

Draw the network diagram and find the critical path. Determine the expected project completion time. What project duration will have 95% confidence of completion. For 85% probability, take value of Z as 1.64. Also calculate total float, free float and independent float for each activity.

Q.10 Write short notes on following :

(i) Characteristics of dynamic programming

(ii) Traveling salesman problem

(iii) Dual simplex problem

(iv) Transhipment problem.

39


WATER RESOURCES PLANNING

Note : All questions are compulsory. Marks assigned to the questions have been shown in the brackets. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Water Resource Planning.


Course Code : ET-534C Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTWRE

Q.1 (a) What are the various modes of use of Remote Sensing Techniques? How is it possible to map features that are underneath the earth cover?

(b) What are the distinctive features of coral reefs? What is their significance?

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.2 (a) Enumerate the lnformation/Data that can be obtained by Remote Sensing.

(b) What percentage of dependable flows are used for :

(i) Irrigation projects, and

(ii) Hydropower projects.

Give reasons for your answers.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.3 (a) The observed runoff data for the years 1990 to 2000 for a small stream are given below in cumecs. Compute 75% dependable flow (in cumecs) :

Sl. No. YearObserved Runoff

Cumecs.

1 1990 345

2 1991 184

3 1992 280

4 1993 301

5 1994 682

6 1995 404

7 1996 394

8 1997 202

9 1998 459

10 1999 402

11 2000 378

(b) What are the various systems of water distribution for farmers? Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of these systems.

40

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.4 (a) Explain the following :

(i) Heavy Soils,

(ii) Intensity of Irrigation, and

(iii) Gross Command Area.

(b) What is "Rotation of Crops"? Suggest some crop sequences explaining advantages thereof for your area.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.5 (a) Which authority has laid down Drinking Water Standards that are followed in lndia? Give atleast ten characteristics along with their permissible limits as per BIS.

(b) What is understood by non-consumptive use of water?

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.6 (a) What is Internal Rate of Return Method for comparing alternate investment opportunities? What steps are adopted for comparing alternative proposals?

(b) What are Augmentation Tube-wells? Explain their role in water resources planning.

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.7 (a) What is Internal Rate of Return method for comparing alternative investment opportunities? What steps are adopted for comparing alternative proposals?

(b) How do you differentiate between Economic Analysis and Financial Analysis? Also, explain a typical Cash Flow Diagram and how is it used for comparing alternative projects?

(5 + 5 = 10)

Q.8 What do you understand by Command Area Development (CAD), and what is its impact on the upliftment of the area? What role can “Water Users Associations” play in Irrigation Water Management?

(10)

Q.9 Discuss the importance of training in water resources planning. What are the modern trends in this training? What measures would you suggest to increase the scope of training for Senior Engineering and Agricultural Officers?

(10)

Q.10 Draw out an outline of a plan for the utilisation of surface and ground water resources for the following situations :

(i) a region in Rajasthan,

(ii) a region n Himachal Pradesh, and

(iii) a region in Tamil Nadu.

Bring out the essential differences amongst the respective plans.

(10)

41


TESTING FOR QUALITY CONTROL

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Testing for Quality Control.


Course Code : ET-581A Last Date of Submission : Sept. 30, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 Explain in detail with sequential steps and neat diagram the Tests for the Cement :

(i) Fineness Test

(ii) Consistency Test of Standard Cement Paste

Q.2 Why is testing of water is necessary? Explain the tests required to be conduct on water.

Q.3 What does IS : 2386 (Part III) covers? Explain all these four methods of determining the properties.

Q.4 Which are the six tests required to be conducted for the uniform quality of concrete at site? Explain any two of them with sketches if required.

Q.5 Explain the contents of the following codes in short and bring out the essential details for the ease of understanding :

(i) IS : 4031 (Part 2)

(ii) IS : 4031 (Part 3)

Q.6 How will you make and cure the Compression Test Specimen in field? Explain the failure of compression specimen and effect of light/diameter ration on strength with neat diagram and graphs if required.

Q.7 How will you determine the flexural strength of concrete by Indirect Tension Test Methods? Explain the factors affecting the test strength.


(i) Pulse Echo Method

(ii) Magnetic Methods (for RCC)

(ii) Determination of Efflorescence

(iii) Load Bearing Capacity Test for AC Sheets

Q.9 Explain in detail the sampling of concrete and criteria for acceptance for the same quoting the relevant IS Code provisions.

Q.10 Explain the following tests used for testing concrete and various materials :

(i) Pulse Echo Method

(ii) Electrical Resistivity Method for estimation of compressive strength

(iii) Electrical Method for determination of moisture content in hardened concrete

(iv) Ultrasonic Pulse Velocity are rebound number for RCC.

42

TUTOR MARKED ASSIGNMENTET 581 (Part F)

MECHANICAL EQUIPMENT IN CONSTRUCTION (ELECTIVE-I)

Note : All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks. This assignment is based on all Blocks of Mechanical Equipment in Construction.


Course Code : ET-581F Last Date of Submission : July 31, 2011

BTCM

Q.1 (a) Explain the main characteristics of power shovels. Describe the selection of type and size of a power shovel.

(b) Explain the different types of drilling jumbos used in tunneling.

Q.2 (a) Explain the drilling patterns for a surface work.

(b) Explain the types of front-end loaders with the ratings and operations.

Q.3 Explain briefly the various types of cranes used at project sites.

Q.4 (a) A crawler tractor has bucket capacity (heaped) of 1.60 m3 with forward travel speed80 m/min and reverse travel speed of 100 m/min. Considering that the material has a swell of 20%, operating factor 40 min/hr, fixed time 0.45 min and travel distance 15 m each way find out the production of the tractor in an hour.

(b) Explain elevator and its components.

Q.5 (a) Explain the various types of trucks used at construction sites.

(b) Describe the components of belt conveyors.

Q.6 (a) A construction company has hired a compacting roller at Rs. 1500 per hour. The roller travels at 5 kmph, time of rolling is 45 minutes, length of drum is 2.4 m, number of drums are 2, fraction of overlap is 1/8, layer thickness is 0.30 m and the number of passes given are 6. Find out the hire charges of roller to be paid for compacting 10,000 m3 of clay soil.

(b) Explain the methods of determining depreciation rates with suitable examples.

Q.7 (a) What are the various methods for cooling the aggregate?

(b) Briefly describe the components of post cooling systems for control of concrete temperatures.

Q.8 (a) Explain routine maintenance. How is it different than periodical maintenance?

(b) Define preventive maintenance and maintenance after breakdown.

Q.9 (a) What are the basic principles governing maintenance of tyres, batteries and wire ropes?

(b) Mention the characteristics of hazardous worksites. Explain the types of hazards.

Q.10 (a) Explain the methods of reducing accidents in construction industries.

(b) What are the learning principles and steps in teaching for a trainer?

43

assignments iind year1

Documents