AUTOMOTIVE SERVICE TECHNICIAN

EXAM PART I

1. How is the source of the oil contamination determined when oil is found in

the cooling system?

a. check for excessive radiator cap pressure

b. check for excessive water pump pressure

c. remove oil cooler and pressure test

d. remove water pump and pressure test

Ans. C

2. What is a final step before returning a vehicle to service?

a. clear active fault codes

b. clear history fault codes

c. road test vehicle

d. update vehicle service records

Ans. D

3. How do you test the function of the antilock relay valve?

a. check the ARV differential pressure by applying 15psi to the service port

b. check the antilock modulator between the ARV and the brake chamber

c. install a tee fitting at the ARV service port and at one delivery port, and

install a gauge in each

d. build air pressure of 120psi and make a few service brake applications

Ans. C

4. If the engine stops after the ignition switch is put back to the run position

after starting, the fault is?

a. spark plug cables

b. spark plugs

c. ignition switch

d. cap and rotar

Ans. C

5. What causes constant low mileage U joint failure?

a. excessive spline joint lubrication

b. high speed, high angle operation

c. excessive torque on bearing bracket

d. low speed, low angle operation

Ans. B

6. What is done to prevent flame flanges from collapsing when installing

items with U bolts?

a. install soft wooden blocks in the frame flanges

b. install PVC blocks

c. welding support bars

d. install steel blocks in the frame flanges

Ans. D

7. What is the cause when the armature on a starter has made contact with

the field winding?

a. field winding swelling

b. armature swelling

c. worn armature bushing

d. worn commutator shaft

Ans. B

8. A 12V battery with a rating of 600 cold cranking amps, needs a load of

300A. After 20 seconds what is the minimum acceptable voltage reading?

a. 9.6 V

b. 7.6 V

c. 5.6 V

d. 11.6V

Ans. A. If the battery stays above 9.6V it will pass

9. What is a possible cause when oil is found in the secondary reservoir, the

fault is?

a. purge valve

b. turbo charger

c. air compressor

d. air drier

Ans. C

10. A diesel fuel engine system has a leak on the primary side, what is done to

inspect it?

a. cap fuel return line and pressurize line at primary filter

b. add fluorescent to fuel and check with black light

c. add minimal pressure to fuel tank and check line for leaks with soap

water

d. check all fuel lines with soap and water

Ans. C

11. How should oxy-acetylene tanks be stored?

a. laying down on their side

b. capped and vertical

c. capped and chained vertically

d. capped and chained horizontally

Ans. C

12. With no external leakage, you are losing coolant. How would you solve

this problem?

a. Drain oil, pressurize drainage system, and check for coolant leaks at drain

plug

b. Pressurize fuel system and check for leaks

c. Pressuring oil system and check for oil in the cooling system

d. Check exhaust manifold for heat loss for cylinder performance

Ans. A

13. If an engine is running at 1000RPM, the output reads 12v and 0 amps on

a single alternator wire, what is the fault?

a. one negative diode is open

b. one positive diode is open

c. faulty battery

d. faulty voltage regulator

Ans. D

14. What is done before uncoupling an air ride tractor from the trailer?

a. deflate air suspension

b. ensure maximum tractor air pressure

c. place wheel chocks on wheels

d. inflate air suspension

Ans. A

15. The final inspection after rebuilding an automatic transmission torque

converter is?

a. stator clutch

b. balance test

c. oil pump end play

d. leak test

Ans. D

16. How do you connect an ammeter to check an electrical circuit?

a. in parallel with load

b. across the voltage supply

c. in series parallel with load

d. in series with load

Ans. D

17. What is done to the oil cooler on an engine overhaul when there is a

connecting rod bearing failure?

a. steam clean and air dry

b. reverse flush with solvent

c. replace core assembly

d. clean with solvent and use high air pressure to dry

Ans. C

18. When oil pressure fluctuates, what is done?

a. check engine oil level and send out sample for testing

b. check engine oil level and check pressure with gauge

c. test oil pump

d. test engine oil sensor

Ans. B

19. When performing a road test on a diesel engine, what tests are done to

verify low power?

a. boost and crankcase pressure

b. exhaust temperature

c. fuel pressure

d. boost and fuel pressure

Ans. D

20. What is causing a truck to have front crank seal failures?

a. breather filter is clogged

b. damper bolts are over torqued

c. Fan belts are too loose

d. Missing breather filter

Ans. A

21. With an automatic transmission, what causes a low stall speed?

a. slip forward clutch

b. wrong torque converter

c. freewheeling stator

d. damaged converter pump

Ans. C

22. When removing rear wheel hubs, if the axle can not come out what is

done?

a. make sure brakes are released

b. remove driveline

c. inspect wheel bearing adjustment

d. inspect torque wheel nuts

Ans. A

23. After installing a new accessory belt you should?

a. set tension to 0 deflection

b. check belt tension next service

c. check belt tension after running engine

d. make sure top of belt is fully recessed on the pulleys

Ans. C

24. On an electronic ignition system, how do you test the pick up coil?

a. check resistance with an ohmmeter

b. remove coil before testing

c. test coil at 120deg F

d. test voltage

Ans. A

25. When replacing engine coolant with standard antifreeze, the

recommended ratio is?

a. 70% water, 30% antifreeze

b. 30% water, 70% antifreeze

c. 75% water, 25% antifreeze

d. 50% water, 50% antifreeze

Ans. D

26. What is done when engine oil is found to be diluted with fuel after an

injector has been removed?

a. replace fuel pump and filter

b. pressure test fuel gallery and check for leaks

c. pressure test the fuel transfer pump

d. replace fuel regulator valve

Ans. B

27. What are the possible causes of low or discharged battery?

a. defective battery

b. defective alternator

c. defective regulator

d. all of the above

Ans. D

28. What device can give a very close approximation of a road test in the shop

is called?

a. Diagnostic testing machine

b. an engine tester

c. dynamometer

d. a tachometer

Ans. C

29. A cylinder leakage tester applies air pressure to the cylinder with the

piston?

a. at BDC and both valves open

b. at TDC and both valves open

c. at TDC and both valves closes

d. starting the compression stroke

Ans. C

30. What does a tachometer measure when connected to the engine?

a. engine power

b. engine speed

c. engine compression

d. engine vacuum

Ans. B

31. The purpose of the PVC valve on a running engine is?

a. opens more as engine speed increases

b. closes as engine speed increases

c. allows only a small volume of air to flow through during idle

d. both a and c

Ans. D

32. An uncontrolled fuel tank breathes as?

a. engine speed increases

b. engine speed decreases

c. temperature changes

d. none of the above

Ans. C

33. The fuel vapor emissions control system stores gasoline vapor in?

a. charcoal canister

b. plastic container

c. the fuel tank

d. none of the above

Ans. A

34. What prevents excessive air flow through the intake manifold during

engine idle?

a. manifold valve

b. PVC

c. Crankcase valve

d. Vacuum valve

Ans. B

35. What two fuel system components that vent gasoline vapor in the charcoal

canister are?

a. crankcase and manifold

b. carburetor and fuel tank

c. air cleaner and carburetor

d. fuel pump and carburetor

Ans. B

36. What is the pollutant formed by high combustion temperatures?

a. CO

b. HC

c. H2O

d. NOx

Ans. D

37. Three ways of cleaning exhaust gas are to control the combustion, air fuel

mixture and?

a. combustion

b. add tetraethyl lead

c. treat the exhaust gas

d. none of the above

Ans. C

38. The purpose of the fuel vapor return line is to return to the fuel tank any

vapor?

a. escapes the charcoal canister

b. leaks from the carburetor

c. escapes from the fuel tank cap

d. develops in the fuel pump

Ans. D

39. To control the air fuel air mixture and reduce atmospheric pollutions,

carburetors have been modified to deliver a cleaner air fuel mixture

during what?

a. idling

b. high speed operation

c. low speed operation

d. acceleration

Ans. A

40. What can a plugged PVC valve cause?

a. stalling

b. rough idle

c. oil in the air cleaner

d. all of the above

Ans. D

41. What should you do if a PVC valve is defective?

a. clean with solvent

b. replace PVC valve

c. disassemble for cleaning and repair

d. blow out with air compressor

Ans. B

42. What is the cause of a strong fuel odor?

a. leaks in fuel, vapor, or vent line

b. damaged fuel tank cap

c. over filled fuel tank

d. all of the above

Ans. D

43. In the EGR system, rough engine idle and stalling could be caused by?

a. restricted vacuum line

b. defective thermal vacuum switch

c. a leaky EGR valve or valve gasket

d. any of the above

Ans. D

44. Reducing the compression ratio of an engine reduce the combustion

temperature and what else?

a. Reduces the amount of HC formed

b. Increases the amount of H2O formed

c. Increases the amount of NOx found

d. Reduces the amount of NOx found

Ans. D

45. One method of reducing the NOx in the exhaust gas is to?

a. reduce valve overlap

b. increase valve over lap

c. prevent valve overlap

d. none of the above

Ans. B

46. If the exhaust gas is low in oxygen, the air fuel mixture is?

a. Lean

b. Rich

c. Perfect

d. None of the above

Ans. B

47. Exhaust gas contains?

a. water vapor and carbon monoxide

b. gasoline and water vapor

c. carbon dioxide and water vapor

d. all of the above

Ans. D

48. The ease in which gasoline vaporizes is called?

a. octane number

b. volatility

c. oxidation

d. none of the above

Ans. B

49. What are the two type of fuel systems for spark ignition engines?

a. carburetor and fuel injection

b. diesel and gasoline

c. LPG and alcohol

d. None of the above

Ans. A

50. The two type of fuel gauges are?

a. pressure and vacuum

b. mechanical and electrical

c. magnetic and thermostatic

d. none of the above

Ans. C

51. The purpose of the vapor return line is to return vapor from the?

a. fuel pump to carburetor

b. carburetor to the fuel pump

c. fuel pump to the fuel tank

d. exhaust manifold to the carburetor

Ans. C

52. The two types of electric fuel pumps are?

a. in tank and mechanical

b. in line and in tank

c. diaphragm and bellows

d. motorized and mechanical

Ans. B

53. When the air fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at the

spark plugs, this is called?

a. rumble

b. ignition

c. detonation

d. pre-ignition

Ans. D

54. The ignition coil has?

a. one winding

b. two windings

c. three windings

d. four windings

Ans. B

55. The primary winding of the ignition coil is electrically connected to the

battery through the?

a. distributor cap and rotor

b. spark plug wires

c. distributor gearing

d. distributor contact points

Ans. D

56. The distributor shaft is driven by the?

a. gears on the shaft and the camshaft

b. chain or belt from the camshaft

c. water pump

d. gear from the shaft and the crankshaft

Ans. A

57. What is the procedure for checking an exhaust gas recirculation (EGR)

valve?

a. Pressurize valve and check engine idle quality.

b. Measure pintle travel using dial indicator.

c. Energize valve and check engine coolant temperature.

d. Energize valve and check engine idle quality.

Ans. D

58. How should the expansion pellet be positioned when replacing an engine

coolant thermostat?

a. Towards the engine block.

b. Away from the engine block.

c. Towards the radiator.

d. Towards the hose inlet of thermostat housing.

Ans. A

59. What should be done after replacing a power steering hose?

a. Adjust the power steering belt and top up the reservoir to specifications.

b. Bleed the system by turning the steering wheel from one stop to the other

c. Re-adjust the power steering gear.

d. Bleed the system using a pressure-bleeder.

Ans. B

60. When checking an air conditioning (AC) system with dye for leaks, which

method is used?

a. Flood outside of connections with CO2 gas.

b. Flame test

c. Ultraviolet light inspection.

d. Spray connections with leak detector catalyst.

Ans. C

61. What is the maximum safe operating pressure to use acetylene gas for

welding?

a. 15 psi

b. 10 psi

c. 20 psi

d. 35 psi

Ans. B

62. On an onboard diagnostic vehicle, what will cause a vehicle’s malfunction

indicator light to flash?

a. loose gas cap

b. Cylinder misfire

c. indication of a pending trouble code

d. Vehicle is due for maintenance

Ans. B

63. After disabling the high voltage system on a hybrid vehicle, why is it

necessary to wait before servicing the system?

a. To allow the battery to cool

b. To allow diagnostic codes to clear

c. To allow fuel pressure to bleed

d. To allow the capacitors to dissipate

Ans. D

64. What must be done when using a hoist to raise a vehicle with an air

suspension?

a. Disconnect the radius rods

b. Disconnect the height sensor

c. Activate the air suspension system

d. Disable the air suspension system

Ans. D

65. How do you repair a shudder condition during torque converter lock up?

a. replace the torque converter

b. flush the auxiliary transmission cooler

c. drain and refilling the torque converter

d. replace the shift solenoid

Ans. A

66. Temperature of an aluminum cylinder head before removing spark plugs

should be?

a. Ambient

b. zero deg

c. operational

d. 100 deg

Ans. A

67. Which procedure should be followed when repairing a twisted shielded

wiring harness?

a. use an insulated crimp connector, tape and re-shield harness

b. Twist wires, tape and re-shield harness

c. Straighten wires, solder and seal connections, and re-shield harness

d. Twist wires, solder and seal connections, and re-shield harness

Ans. D

68. When replacing a malfunctioning clutch pressure plate, another item

should be replaced?

a. clutch fork

b. clutch disk

c. master cylinder

d. slave cylinder

Ans. B

69. What is the procedure for testing accessory drive belt tension?

a. Measure belt deflection using a micrometer

b. Using a torque wrench, turn a pulley and measure the force

c. Place a 3-lb. weight on a vertical belt surface and measure deflection

d. Lay a straight edge across 2 pulleys, push and measure belt deflection

Ans. D

70. What is disconnected before removing an air bag-equipped steering

column assembly?

a. Steering column dash supports

b. Battery negative cable for a sufficient amount of time

c. Ignition switch

d. air bag crash sensors

Ans. B

71. Which adjustment is most likely to correct a continual rolling condition

when vehicle is in park?

a. Gear shift linkage

b. Neutral safety switch

c. Brake shift interlock solenoid

d. Throttle valve cable

Ans. A

72. When all alignment adjustments are within specifications, what causes

excessive tire squeal on average speed turns?

a. Under inflated tires

b. Over inflated tires

c. Weak springs

d. Damaged suspension

Ans. A

73. How do you diagnose a lack of air flow through the air conditioning

system?

a. Check high pressure orifice tube

b. Inspect the cabin air filter

c. Remove and check the evaporator

d. Remove and check the condenser

Ans. B

74. How do you correct a noisy and stiff steering problem after replacing a

deployed air bag?

a. Replace shorted clock spring

b. Lubricate dry horn contacts

c. Replace collapsed column

d. Repair seized transmission linkage

Ans. C

75. On an onboard diagnostic system, what is indicated if the upstream and

downstream oxygen sensors show the readings are the same?

a. Defective upstream sensor

b. Defective catalyst

c. Plugged catalytic converter

d. Defective downstream oxygen sensor

Ans. B

76. After a remote start on a remote starter system, when the brake is

applied, what causes the engine not to shut OFF?

a. Defective stop lamp switch

b. Defective ignition switch

c. Faulty motion sensor

d. Faulty hood pin switch

Ans. A

77. After obtaining trouble codes from a vehicle, in what order is the diagnosis

performed?

a. Record the codes and consult failure records

b. Clear codes and duplicate freeze frame on road test

c. Record the codes and consult freeze frame data

d. None of the above

Ans. C

78. What is the correct process for repairing broken computer wiring?

a. Replace the complete harness then secure the terminals at the computer

with solder

b. Secure the wires by twisting and then use a heat sink when soldering the

wire

c. Replace the wire in the harness, then install and solder new terminals at

the computer.

d. Strip and connect the wires, then twist and tape them before soldering the

connection

Ans. B

79. When a shift valve in a hydraulically operated automatic transmission

fails to open, the cause of this problem is?

a. Mainline pressure has reached or surpassed maximum value

b. torque converter has locked up prematurely

c. Governor pressure is less than throttle pressure and spring force

combined

d. Throttle pressure is greater than governor pressure and spring force

combined

Ans. C

80. What could be the cause if the fuel pump keeps running after the ignition

key is switched off?

a. Fuel pump relay contacts stuck closed.

b. Oil pressure switch grounded out.

c. Fuel pump relay control open.

d. PCM fuel pump control grounded.

Ans. A

81. A vehicle at 3000 feet above sea level has a weak radiator cap that can

only maintain 1.5 psi of pressure. If the coolant is mixed 50/50, what

temperature will the coolant boil?

a. 100 deg C

b. 107deg C

c. 110 deg C

d. 95deg C

Ans. B

82. A customer complains of shaking and pedal pulsation under hard braking

on a vehicle equipped with ABS. The pedal is high and hard most of the

time. The vehicle stops smoothly under light braking. What is the

problem?

a. The brake booster has a small tear in the diaphragm.

b. There is excessive wear in the rotors.

c. The quick take-up valve is sticking.

d. The ABS brakes are operating normally.

Ans. D

83. How do you identify a problem with the automatic leveling feature of a

vehicle suspension has stopped working. Which procedure will identify the

problem?

a. Install a scan tool and then check for communication among the control

modules.

b. Bypass the level sensor, and then check if the pump runs.

c. Check the fuses, and then test the pump.

d. Replace the level sensor, and test for leaks in air bags

Ans. A

84. What is the proper procedure to clean seatbelt webbing?

a. Replace all soiled belts with new ones, and label them before installing.

b. Remove belts from the retractor, and have them dyed and reinstall.

c. Use only a mild soap and water solution and a soft brush or cloth, then air

dry.

d. Use a commercial cleaner, and dry with a heat gun.

Ans. C

85. In a minor collision, what will cause a seat belt to seem loose and let the

passenger fly forward?

a. Seat belt assembly is stretched.

b. Seat belt retractor has failed.

c. Anchor is placed in the wrong position, allowing the belt to lie across the

shoulder of the driver.

d. Energy management loop is compromised.

Ans. B

86. What is the cause when a hissing sound and high pedal position while

braking seems to be coming from around the pedal?

a. Vacuum check valve on the booster is faulty.

b. Brake booster atmospheric valve is leaking.

c. Vacuum booster diaphragm is torn.

d. Brake booster vacuum valve is leaking.

Ans. D

87. When a steering wheel that is not centered, the technician notices the

thrust angle is +0.7 degrees. There is wear on the outside of the right rear

tire. What is the cause?

a. Front wheel alignment is not adjusted to specifications.

b. There are bent components in the right rear suspension.

c. Right rear wheel is adjusted with too much negative camber.

d. Bent components in the left rear suspension.

Ans. B

88. What test procedures should be followed before deciding an automatic

transmission needs a major overhaul?

a. Check fluid levels, pressure test and then inspect pan deposits.

b. Check fluid levels, inspect pan deposits and then pressure test.

c. Stall test, pressure test and then adjust bands and pressures.

d. Change the transmission fluid and filter, stall test and then pressure test.

Ans. A

89. What must a technician do to allow a diagnostic monitor to run?

a. Follow the enable criteria for the monitor then perform a bi-directional test

to confirm the monitor will run

b. Road test the vehicle to complete the drive cycle then look up the enable

criteria to run the monitor

c. Meet the enable criteria for the monitor then clear the codes and road test

the vehicle

d. Insure that the enable criteria will be satisfied then perform the drive cycle

and monitor the readiness status until complete

Ans. D

90. A coolant sensor code is stored. A DVOM shows 0.0 volts on the coolant

temperature sensor sense line circuit. A faulty connection or an open in the

sense line could cause this. How should this be tested?

a. Disconnect the sensor then test the resistance of the sensor and compare to

the service chart.

b. Disconnect the sensor, jump the terminals then watch the scan tool for a

high temperature reading.

c. Measure the sense line for an open circuit with a voltmeter then replace

the sensor.

d. Measure voltage drop on the sensor circuit, then monitor the scan tool for

changing temperature.

Ans. B

91. A transverse mounted engine with front wheel drive must be removed

from the car. All of the following are normally recommended except?

a. removing the differential gears

b. disconnecting the speedometer cable

c. removing the engine and transaxle as a unit

Ans. A

92. After the gear selector has been placed in drive, it takes a moment for the

car to move. Which would cause this problem?

a. defective neutral safety switch

b. inappropriate lock up converter clutch

c. partially plugged screen

Ans. C

93. The main reason for making a rear end gear tooth contact pattern is to

check which of the following?

a. carrier bearing preload

b. carrier end play

c. pinion depth

d. axle gear clearance

Ans. C

94. If a vehicle has excessive lean on turns, which of the following may be the

cause of this?

a. weak springs

b. bad shock

c. worn sway bar bushings

d. all of the above

Ans. D

95. What may be the cause if a vehicle has a soft pushy pedal?

a. internal master cylinder leak

b. warped brake disc

c. worn brake pads

d. air in the system

Ans. D

96. A maximum allowable voltage drop across the ground circuit of the

starter system is which of the following?

a. .6

b. .2

c. 1.0

d. .8

Ans. B

97. How would you locate an apparent vacuum leak on an A/C control system

has an?

a. trace the origin of the hissing sound

b. install known good hoses and components in place of the original

components

c. spray water on the suspected areas

Ans. A

98. The automotive computer memory contains information that tailors the

computer to the vehicle is know as?

a. random access memory

b. controllable access memory

c. programmable read only memory

Ans. C

99. Two part epoxy primers provide which of the following?

a. have an indefinite pot life

b. provide corrosion protection close to OEM E coat

c. should be used on structural parts only

Ans. B

100. Oil circulation in the engine goes from which of the following?

a. filter to bearings to oil pump

b. sump to oil pump to bearings to filter

c. sump to oil pump to filter to bearings.

Ans. D

101. Before opening a connection in the sensor harness of an electronic

control system, which of the following must be done?

a. Use a high impedance digital multi-meter.

b. Ensure the key switch is turned off.

c. Bring the system to operating temperature.

d. Record the wiring color code.

Ans. B

102. Which of the following would cause low output from the heater core?

a. Low coolant level.

b. faulty radiator cap.

c. Heater control valve stuck open.

d. Air in the evaporator core.

Ans. A

103. When moving the heater control from hot to cold, which of the following

would cause no change in vent temperature?

a. Plugged evaporator core.

b. Plugged heater core.

c. Faulty compressor relay.

d. Improper heater valve adjustment.

Ans. D

104. When the air conditioning system starts working normally then the vent

temperature slowly starts to warm up, which of the following is the main

problem?

a. Thermostatic switch stuck closed.

b. Faulty thermal expansion valve.

c. Thermostatic switch stuck open.

d. Faulty compressor clutch.

Ans. A

105. Which of the following tests is used to verify a plugged heater core before

removal?

a. Measure the flow through the heater core.

b. Measure pressure drop across heater core.

c. Compare the inlet and outlet temperatures.

d. Pressure test the cooling system.

Ans. C

106. When evacuating refrigerant from an air conditioning system, what of

the following is the first step?

a. Check the high side and low side pressures.

b. Identify the type of refrigerant.

c. Measure the weight of the refrigerant.

d. Check the refrigerant oil level.

Ans. B

107. What is the primary voltage of a transformer when the secondary

voltage is 240V with 750 primary turns and 400 secondary turns?

a. 350

b. 450

c. 550

d. 250

Ans. B

108. Which of the following is the correct procedure to wire an ammeter into a

circuit?

a. series

b. series-parallel

c. parallel

d. closed circuit

Ans. A

109. In order to reverse rotation of a capacitor start motor, which of the

following would you reverse?

a. connection to the capacitor

b. running coil leads

c. running and starting coil leads

d. any of the above

Ans. A

110. Which of the following would cause one u-joint to wear out repeatedly

with signs of brinelling?

a. 1º difference in working angle.

b. Bent or damaged yoke.

c. Insufficient driveline working angle.

d. Water contamination.

Ans. C

111. Which of the following would cause a hydraulically controlled automatic

transmission to shift from first to second too quick, while all the other shift

points are normal?

a. Return spring tension in the second speed clutch is low.

b. Spring tension at the 1-2 shift signal valve is too low.

c. Spring tension at the 1-2 shift signal valve is too high.

d. Governor pressure is too low.

Ans. B

112. Which of the following below would cause a high temperature reading on

the input pinion of a rear axle after overhaul?

a. Excessive carrier bearing preload.

b. Excessive pinion bearing preload.

c. Excessive ring gear backlash.

d. Insufficient pinion bearing preload.

Ans. B

113. Which of the following below would cause a heavy heel pattern on a

hypoid gear set?

a. Backlash is insufficient.

b. Pinion is out too far.

c. Backlash is excessive.

d. Pinion is in too far.

Ans. C

114. Which of the following procedures should be performed when replacing a

clutch?

a. Measure flywheel housing depth, then face alignment.

b. Install the transmission, then check bore alignment

c. Install the pressure plate, then check friction disc alignment.

d. Check bell housing alignment before installing clutch assembly.

Ans. D

115. When installing a torque converter on a transmission, which of the

following is the final procedure?

a. Torque the drive/flex plate retaining bolts.

b. Measure crankshaft endplay.

c. Check converter run-out.

d. Engaging the pump impeller with the shaft.

Ans. D

116. Which of the following should be done if a universal joint bearing cup

fails to purge?

a. Replace grease zerk and use grease impact.

b. Release seal tension, then apply grease.

c. Replace grease zerk and use lighter grease.

d. Replace universal joint and grease.

Ans. B

117. Which of the following steps would a technician follow to adjust bearing

endplay on a transfer case?

a. Torque the output shaft yoke nut to achieve specified endplay.

b. Reuse the original shims to maintain specified endplay.

c. Measure endplay with a dial indicator and calculate shim pack.

d. Measure rolling torque and shim to specifications.

Ans. C

118. Which of the following pulleys turn in the same direction as pulley A

which happens to be the driver?

a. B and C

b. C and D

c. B and D

d. A and B

Ans. B

119. What is this symbol?

a. Weld gap

b. Groove weld

c. Field weld

d. Fillet weld contoured with a grinder

Ans. D

120. The term Flash burn is when?

a. damage to equipment and clothing due to the extreme heat of the welding

b. burns the eyes caused by exposure to ultraviolet light from the welding arc

c. another name for severe sunburn

d. a burn caused by the welding arc coming in contact with bare skin

Ans. B

121. What does the term “MIG” stand for?

a. metallic-inert gas

b. metal-integrated gas

c. manganese-inert gas

d. magnesium-integrated gas

Ans. A

122. Which of the following is a flexible wire rope for overhead crane use?

a. 6-20

b. 6-37

c. 8-16

d. 6-8

Ans. B

123. Which of the following is a type of knot used to tie two lines of the same

size together so they will not slip?

a. Sheet bend

b. Granny

c. Reef

d. Bowline

Ans. C

124. Which of the following problems will a plugged diesel particulate filter

cause?

a. DPF inlet temperature sensor failure.

b. Excessive tailpipe temperatures.

c. EGR valve failure.

d. Excessive exhaust system backpressure.

Ans. D

125. What should be the proper procedure when installing a new or rebuilt

turbocharger?

a. Restrict the return line while cranking the engine to fill the turbo cavity.

b. Inspect air filter and pre-lubricate turbo with clean engine oil.

c. Restrict the air inlet to prevent the turbo from motoring without oil.

d. Inspect exhaust system and purge air from the oil supply line

Ans. B

126. Which of the following would be the cause of the problem when the

transmission shifts hard, the input bearing is noisy and the unit has had

repeated clutch failures?

a. Improper adjustment.

b. Wrong clutch material.

c. Seized pilot bearing.

d. Clutch housing alignment.

Ans. D

127. What are the service procedures on the air tank that has excessive

amounts of oil and water build-up?

a. Replace the air dryer and turbocharger seals.

b. Repair the compressor and flush the air tanks.

c. Replace the air dryer and oil cooler.

d. Repair compressor and replace the air dryer.

Ans. D

128. In relation to piton ring end caps, they should be measured by which of

the following in a worn cylinder?

a. the center of the cylinder

b. above the ring traveling area

c. the bottom of the cylinder

d. the top of the cylinder

Ans. C

129. Oil holes in the main bearing shells should be which of the following?

a. faces the block

c. in both upper and lower bearings

c. faces the cap

d. small enough to retain high oil pressure

Ans. A

130. Which of the following are most engine bearing clearance specifications

in the range of?

a. 0.00-0.002inch

b. 0.002-0.004inch

c. 0.025-0.075inch

d. 0.075-0.100inch

Ans. C

131. Technician 1 thinks a vibration at high speed will be caused by an

incorrect rear "U" joint operating angle. Technician 2 thinks a squeaking

noise in reverse is caused by a worn cross shaft bearing surface. Which tech is

correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. C

132. Technician 1 thinks the drive shafts on a front wheel drive vehicle are

usually removed with a pry bar or special puller. Technician 2 thinks the axle

nuts on a front wheel drive vehicle are not reusable. Which tech is correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. C

133. In relation to an axle drive shaft removal on a vehicle with a transaxle,

technician 1 thinks when removing the axle, drive shafts match marks

should be made to prevent a vibration after reassembly. Technician 2 thinks

the front wheel bearings could be damaged if the vehicle is moved while the

drive shafts are removed. Which tech is correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. B

134. Which of the following is the most likely cause on a transfer case that

will not shift from the low gear ratio up to direct drive or 1:1 ratio?

a. damaged planetary gear-set

b. broken shift shaft

c. faulty shift indicator

d. broken shift shaft spring

Ans. B

135. Technician 1 says if the steering column input shaft is not aligned

correctly there will be some noise. Technician 2 says if the lubricant level is

very low in a linkage-assist type power steering column, there will be some

noise when turning the steering wheel. Which tech is correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. C

136. On a car with single piston floating caliper disc brakes, the disc brake

pad between the caliper piston and the rotor is badly worn. The other brake

pad is slightly worn. Technician 1 says excessive rotor run out could be the

cause. Technician 2 says insufficient clearance between the pads and caliper

slider could be the cause. Which tech is correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. B

137. A vehicle has excessive pedal travel before the brakes apply. Technician

1 says the master cylinder pushrod adjustment is incorrect. Technician 2 says

the cause is a faulty residual pressure check valve admitting air. Which tech

is correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. A

138. With the brakes applied on a vehicle with power brakes, the pedal moves

down slightly when the engine is started. Technician 1 says the cause could

be a leaking power brake booster diaphragm. Technician 2 says the cause

could be a stuck closed residual check valve in the hose from the intake

manifold to the power brake booster. Which tech is correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. D

139. Technician 1 says the vacuum supply test involves inspecting the

vacuum supply hose for kinks. Technician 2 says the test involves checking

the level of vacuum supplied by the engine or vacuum pump. Which tech is

correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. C

140. When performing a vacuum booster function test, you should begin by

pumping the brake pedal several times with which of the following?

a. vacuum hoses removed

b. engine off

c. driving the vehicle slowly

d. engine running

Ans. B

141. How would you check compression on a diesel engine?

a. a cylinder balance test

b. the spark plug opening

c. the glow plug opening

d. crankcase pressure test

Ans. C

142. Usually oil pressure tests are performed at idle speed and which RPM?

a. 1000

b. 2500

c. 3000

d. 750

Ans. B

143. Engine oil leaks are usually located by adding fluorescent dye to the oil

and checking with which of the following?

a. black light

b. visual inspection

c. aerosol powder spray

d. shop trouble light

Ans. A

144. Which of the following orders should the bolts/nuts be loosened when

removing a cylinder head?

a. the reverse order of assembly

b. start in middle and work to both ends

c. front of the engine to the rear

d. lower, or outer, row first

Ans. A

145. During the service of a hydraulically controlled clutch, which of the

following must be replaced?

a. clutch linkage

b. clutch fluid

c. input shaft

d. pilot bearing

Ans. B

146. A vehicle comes in with hard shifting concerns, particularly into first

gear. Technician 1 thinks the first speed blocking ring is the cause.

Technician 2 thinks the clutch could be out of adjustment. Which tech is

correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. B

147. Which of the following is the likely cause if a transmission can be shifted

into two gears at the same time?

a. worn countershaft bearings

b. worn speed gears

c. defective input bearing

d. faulty interlock

Ans. D

148. Which of the following would be the most likely complaint for a damaged

transmission case, center adapter plate or rear extension housing mating

surface?

a. Will not shift

b. Jumps out of gear

c. Oil leak

d. Hard to shift

Ans. C

149. All of these components can be removed from a transmission/transaxle

before removing it from the vehicle, except which of the following?

a. front bearing retainer (quill)

b. axle drive shafts

c. reverse (backup) light connector

d. vehicle speed sensor

Ans. A

150. In relation to snap rings used in manual transaxles, technician 1 thinks

snap rings are used as a selective fit on some main shafts. Technician 2

thinks snap rings have a right side that should always face up so that the

snap ring pliers can be applied. Which tech is correct?

a. tech 1

b. tech 2

c. both techs

d. neither techs

Ans. C