GENERAL AWARENESS

1. On which date in 2009 did the government announce to intro­duce Haemophilus influenza type b pentavalent vaccine in the im­munisation programme from 2010? (1) November 1 (2) November 2 (3) November 13 (4) November 21 (5) None of these

2. The Cabinet Committee on Eco­nomic Affairs, on November 5, 2009, decided that all listed CPSEs would offload per cent of their holding in the pub­lic domain. (1)5 (2)10 (3)12 (4)7 r (5) None of these

3. India and , on November 9, 2009, renewed their commit­ment to "develop an Action Plan to advance security cooperation. ( l )U.SA. (2) China (3) Russia (4) Japan (5) None of these

4. The 'India Economic Summit,' was organised by the World Eco­nomic Forum (WEF) in associa­tion with CII in New Delhi in No­vember 2009. (1) 12th (2) 19th (3) 23rd (4) 25th (5) None of these

5. In November 2009, cyclone , passed along the Mumbai and Konkan coasts, claiming lives and causing massive damage to property in the coastal districts. (l)Phyan (2) Damrey (3) Lekima (4) Krosa (5) None of these

6. On which date in 2009 did the Election Commission announce that transgenders will hereafter be referred to as "other" on the basis of willingness of the indi­vidual?

(1) November 12 , (2) November 23

(3) November 29 (4) November 9 (5) None of these

7. A Joint Declaration on Security Cooperation was adopted at the end of the meeting between Prime Minister Manmohan Singh and in New Delhi in Novem­ber 2009. (1) Vladimir Putin (2) Angela Merkel (3) Kevin Rudd (4) Hillary Clinton (5) None of these

8. Union Minister of State for Civil Aviation Praful Patel, on Novem­ber 14, 2009, inaugurated India's first SEZ dedicated to the aerospace industry, at . (1) Rourkela (2) Salem (3) Hattargi (4) Kochi (5) None of these

9. The European Commission, on November 19, 2009, signed a $1 billion deal in Brussels to help

tackle challenges in its res­tive oil-producing region. (l)Iraq (2) Saudi Arabia (3) Kuwait (4) Nigeria (5) None of these

10. Prime Minister, Herman Von Rompuy was elected as Europe's first President in November 2009. (1) Belgian (2) Polish (3) French (4) Romanian (5) None of these

11. The U.N. Hunger Summit in _ on November 16, 2009, de­clared hunger as an unaccept­able blight on the lives, liveli­hoods and dignity of the world's population. (l)Tokyo (2) Beijing (3) Rome (4) Vienna (5) None of these

12. On which date in 2009 did United States President Barack Obama announce America's par­

ticipation in the evolving Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)? (l)November 3 (2) November 14 (3) November 19 (4) November 26 (5) None of these

13. and the United States, on No­vember 13, 2009, agreed to ex­plore ways to enhance a new framework for civil nuclear co­operation. (1) India (2) China (3) Japan (4) Russia (5) None of these

14. On which date did thousands of people line the streets of Berlin and crowd around the Brandenburg Gate to celebrate the 20th anniversary of the fall of the Berlin Wall? (1) November 9 (2) November 5 (3) November 12 (4) November 17 (5) None of these

15. The U.N. Development Fund for Women, on November 8, 2009, launched a campaign, Say NO — UNiTE to End Violence against Women, in . (1) Kabul (2) Khartoum (3) Dhaka (4) Nairobi (5) None of these

16. The Reserve Bank of India, in November 2009, concluded the purchase of tonnes of gold from the IMF, under its limited gold sales programme. (1)100 (2)200 (3)300 (4)400 (5) None of these

17. Which bank, on November 4, 2009, made an agreement with FIM Bank of Malta and Italy-based Banca IFIC for setting up a joint venture for trade finance related business? (1) State Bank of India (2) Bank of Baroda (3) Punjab National Bank

BANK PO SPECIALIST OFFICER EXAMS

(4) Canara Bank (5) None of these

18. National Multi-Commodity Ex­change of India Ltd., on Novem­ber 7, 2009, introduced an in­novative futures contract in gold, called the Gold Contract. (l)Easy (2) Access (3) Guinea (4) Value (5) None of these

19. On which date in 2009 did the Securities and Exchange Board of India prescribe norms for list­ing small and medium enter­prises (SMEs) on stock ex­changes? (1) November 17 (2) November 13 (3) November 4 (4) November 9 (5) None of these

20. Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), in November 2009, an­nounced its first oil discovery in the onland exploratory block in the Cambay basin, called "Dhirubhai ". (1)43 ( (2)36 (3)41 (4)39 (5) None of these r

21. India, on November 10, 2009, signed a bilateral investment promotion and protection agree­ment with . (1) Thailand (2) Colombia (3) Chile (4) South Africa (5) None of these

22. World Champion Viswanathan Anand, on November 3, 2009, tamed former World Champion _ to win the rapid four-game chess series in Ajaccio in France. (1) Anatoly Karpov (2) Bobby Simpson (3) Garry Kasparov (4) Vaselie Ivanchuk (5) None of these

23. of India, in November 2009, became the girls' champion in the World junior chess champi­onship at Puerto Madryn, Argen­tina. (l)Deepika Dahiya (2) Sumila Mohanty (3) Soumya Swaminathan (4)JagritiTandon (5) None of these

24. , in November 2009, won the Australian Masters by two shots after dominating the final round at Kingston Heath in Melbourne. (l)JeevMilkha Singh (2) Tiger Woods (3) Alex Burton (4) Ted Rex (5) None of these

25. Spain's Dani Pedrosa, on No­vember 8, 2009, took advantage of a Casey Stoner crash on the warm-up lap to win the Grand Prix. (1) Malaysian (2) Brazilian (3) Lisbon (4) Valencia (5) None of these

26. , on November 7, 2009, claimed the top honours, fol­lowed by Ukraine and Poland in the World Power lifting champi­onship in Gurgaon. (1) India (2) Iran (3) Russia (4) U.S.A. (5) None of these

27. Actor was, on November 1, 2009, appointed first Goodwill Ambassador of the 'Smile Train.

' (l)AamirKhan (2) Aishwarya.Rai Bachchah (3) Naseeruddin Shah

Shahrukh Khan (5) None of these

28. The European Molecular Biology Organization, on November 4, 2009, announced as one of the most talented young re­searchers as EMBO Young In­vestigators. (1)M. MadanBabu (2) Suryakant Saxena (3)AmitVerma (4) Shishir Pandey (5) None of these

29. U.S. President Barack Obama, on November 11, 2009, nomi­nated Indian-American to head the U.S. Agency for Inter­national Development (USAID). (1) Avinash Singhal (2) Krishna Lai (3)ShobhitMathur (4) Rajiv Shah (5) None of these

30. Amia Srinivasan, a philosophy student of Indian origin, was elected a Fellow of at Oxford University's prestigious Col­lege in November 2009.

31.

32.

33.

34.

35.

36.

(l)St.Xavier's (2) St.'Andrews (3) Str'Paul's (4) All Souls (5) PWne of these The sixth edition of'Indian Sum­mer,'-the festival of Indian film ancfdance held by the Guimet Museum of Asian Arts in , came to an end on November 7, 2009. (1) Brussels (2) Lisbon (3) Frankfurt (4) Paris (5) None of these The Orissa state government held the historic Baliyatra festi­val-2009 in in front of Majes­tic Barabati fort on the bank of the river in November 2009. (l)Puri (2) Cuttack (3) Bhubaneshwar (4) Koraput (5) None of these The ASI, in November 2009, enlisted nine-storey 'baori' in , a fort of Jaipur and the Todarais-ingh Palace in Tonk — for inclu­sion in the category of protected buildings. (l)Pushkar (2)Jaisalmer 1

(3)Jodhpur (4)Alwar (5) None of these Which Asian city hosted the first ever U.S.-ASEAN Summit and APEC CEO Summit in November 2009? (1) Seoul (2) Jakarta (3) Singapore (4) Manila (5) None of these A team, on November 7, 2009, collected a $900,000 prize in a NASA-backed compe­tition in Los Angeles to develop the concept of an elevator to space. (1) London (2) New Delhi (3) Paris (4) Seattle (5) None of these Prime Minister Manmohan Singh was conferred the degree of Doctor of Law [honoris causal by the . university on November 3, 2009. (1) Delhi (2)Mumbai (3) Punjab (4) Kolkata (5) None of these

37. N. Ram, Editor-in-Chief of the Hindu, was chosen for the 2009

Award on November 12, 2009, for his outstanding con­tribution to journalism in India. (1) K.R. Narayan (2) Munshi Premchand (3)KaiflAzmi (4)Nirala (5) None of these

38. The Europe-based International Sikh Forum, in November 2009, selected Union Minister of State for External Affairs for the 'Sikh of the Year' award - 2009. (1) Jasmeet Singh (2) Gumain Singh (3) Malvinder Kaur (4) Preneet Kaur (5) None of these

39. Which of the following books, re-cently published, has been authored by Kiran Bedi? (1) Riots as Rituals (2) Light in the House (3) Codes of Misconduct (4) I Dare (5) None of these

40. Which of the following pairs (Re­cent Books: Authors) is not cor­rect? (l)Stop the Excuses: W. Dyer (2) Neo-Classical Odissi Dance:

Ratna Roy (3) Have Some Chilli Snakes: Priti

Aisola (4) How to Sell Yourself: Arch

Lustberg (5) None of these

41. Who among the following has authored the recently published book, 'The Lost Years of Jesus?" (1) Elizabeth Clare Prophet (2) Susan Wheeler (3) Nancy Allen Schlesinger (4) Patricia Shenoy (5) None of these

42. Which of the following pairs (Re­cent Books: Authors) is not cor­rect? (1) Arming the Arsenal: Deba

Mohanty (2) Empire of the Moghul Raid­

ers From the North: Alex Ru­therford

(3) Terrorism Challenge Diplo­macy: H.M. Viruprakshia

(4) Tipu's Tigers: Jim Willis (5) None of these

43. On which date in 2009 did the International Cricket Council (ICC) introduce anti- racism and anti- corruption codes in its re­vised Code of Conduct? (1) November 1 (2) November 9 (3) November 12 (4) November 14 (5) None of these

44. __, oh November 8, 2009, claimed its second Fed Cup title in three years on the red clay in Reggio Calabria in Italy. (1) England (2) Italy (3) Spain (4) Serbia (5) None of these

45. On which date in 2009 did Sachin Tendulkar complete twenty years in international cricket? (1) November 14 (2) November 15 (3) November 16 (4) November 17 (5) None of these

46. According to the latest figures re­leased by TRAI in November

r 2009, the telecom sector crossed a milestone with the to­tal subscriber base crossing the

-crore mark. (1)30 (2)40 (3) 50 (4) 60 (5) None of these

47. On which date in 2009 did the Large Hadron Collider, the world's largest machine devel­oped by European Organisation for Nuclear Research, started operating in London? (1) November 12 (2) November 20 (3) November 7 (4) November 1 (5) None of these

48. NASA's space shuttle Atlantis was launched from Kennedy Space Center, on November 16, 2009, for installing spare parts to the International Space Station. (1) Seattle (2) San Francisco (3) Los Angeles (4) Florida (5) None of these

49. Meteorite, "Bunburra Rockhole", that could reveal crucial infor­mation about the evolution of the solar system was found in the Nullarbor desert in in Novem­ber 2009. (1) Australia (2) Egypt (3) Morocco (4) Mexico (5) None of these

50. On which date in 2009 was "South Asian Link," a website de­signed by Institute of South Asian Studies, as a global hub for the South Asian diaspora, activated in Singapore? (1) November 1 (2) November 11 (3) November 4 (4) November 9 (5) None of these

ENGLISH LANGUAGE Directions (51-62) : Pick out the

most effective pair of words from the given pair of words to make the sen­tence/sentences meaningfully com­plete. 51. Nothing is impossible in the world

of politics. States which were foes and had their deadly

missiles pointed at each other find themselves in military alliances. (1) implacable partners (2) intense joining (3) deadly approaching (4) known soliciting (5) enviable grouping

52. of whether leaders are born or made, it is clear that leaders are not like other people. (1) Pursuant manifestly (2) Sequel amply (3) Regardless unequivocally (4) Instead purely (5) Inspite normally

53. There is a common talk today that women have made the in many professions, that they have total freedom of opportunity. But the majority of women are still left ' at their goals and am­bitions through an almost un­breakable glass ceiling. (1) entry inward (2) grade gazing (3) progress trying (4) m a r k * p r o j e c t i n g (5) achievement wondering

54. Inferring attitudes from ex­pressed opinion has many . People may their attitude and express socially acceptable opinions. (1) limitation conceal (2) advantages show (3) drawbacks support (4) benefits avoid (5) reasons acknowledge

55. We should move towards a sys­tem where the banks can capital in the market with safeguard so that they continue to be public sector banks. (1) improve proper (2) strengthen durable (3) raise adequate (4) stimulate effective (5) provide delicate

56. Human Resource Manage-ment is an of mind rather than a

of techniques. (1) organisation quality (2) attempt mix (3) evolution measure (4) attitude set (5) expertise collection

57. Statistics is an tool for re­searchers that _ _ them t o make inferences of generalisations about population^ from their observations of the characteristics of samples. (1) outstanding proposes (2) invaluable proceeds (3) invaluable displays (4) important proclaims (5) indispensable enables

58. The Dalits have never had a of freedom in the suffocating so­ciety. They are a wounded people

and broken. (1) glimpse mitigated (2) sigh rejected (3) moment criticised (4) satisfaction prohibited (5) breath battered

59. His vision could well be the that the policy-makers use to

the banking sector. (1) roadmap restructure (2) manner shape (3) blueprint plan (4) remedy revise (5) approach represent

60. A person's formal educational background may rich but

complex information. To some degree education a person's knowledge and skill base. (1) reveal advocates (2) yield indicates (3) exhibit develops (4) cover evolves (5) surmount shows

61. The RBI in consultation with Gov­ernment of India has work­ing group to suggest measures for of weak public sector banks. (1) commissioned appreciat­

ing (2) established accommoda­

tion (3) reshaped merger (4) constituted revival (5) organised development

62. The textile industry in India has rough weather in recent

times. The Textile mill is one of the few companies to have this storm. (1) overcome empowered (2) managed absorbed (3) protested fought (4) withstood survived (5) ventured managed

Directions (63-72): In the follow­ing passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These num­bers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropri­ately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The urgent need of the hour is to 1631 up the moral 1641 of our society in general and of our student commu­nity in particular, if we want to save ourselves and our society from the present 165) of mass indiscipline and [661 of basic human values, which has become a (67) phenomenon. We must, therefore, (68) and practise the most (69) basic human values like co-opera­tion, tolerance, patriotism, generosity, truth, justice and excellence-the ide­als which are universal in nature and which are (70) in themselves and which are worthy of (71) for their own sake. These ideals are both personally as well as socially (72). 63. ( l )g ive (2)stand

(3) jack (4) climb (5) tone

64. (1) fibre (2) enactment (3) reconstruction (4) situation (5) appreciation

65. (1) polarisation (2) degradation (3) chaos (4) provocation (5) sentiments

66. (1) calamity (2) focus (3) realisation (4) erosion (5) criticism

67. (1) durable (2) universal (3) perpetual (4) segmental (5) prolific

68. (1) incorporate (2) induce (3) implicate (4) inculcate (5) involve

69. (1) absorbing (2) cherished (3) introspective{4) famous (5) productive

70. (1) distinctive (2) appreciated (3) formative (4) helping (5) end

71. (1) evolving (2) spreading (3) esteem (4) wisdom (5) popularity

72. (1) desirable (2)manageable (3) redundant (4) vulnerable (5) possible

Directions (73-77): Rearrange the following seven sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E), (F) and (G) in the proper se­quence to form a meaningful para­graph, then answer the questions given below them.

(A) It is obvious from the above that the Commission has accorded highest priority to securing speedy justice to women.

(B) These members continue to pur­sue their mandated activities, namely review of legislation, Inter-vention in specific individual complaints of atroci­ties and denial of rights.

(C) The functions assigned to the Commission, as per the Act, are wide and varied covering almost all facets of issues relating to safeguarding women's rights and promotion.

(D) The National Commission for women was set up on 31 s l January 1992 in pursuance of the National Com­mission for Women Act 1990.

(E) Towards this end of speedy jus­tice to women, the Commission is or­ganizing Parivarik Mahila Lok Adalats, offering counselling in family disputes and conducting training programmes for creating legal awareness among women.

81. (A) Feed (B) Avoid (C) Hoick (D) Eschew ( l )B-D (2) A-B (3) A-C (4) A-D (5) C-D

82. (A) Stupendous (B) Calm (C) Livid (D) Pretentious (1) B-D (2) A-D (3) A-B (4) A-C (5) B-C (5) B-C

83. (A) Shambles (B) Flexible (C) Periodic (D) Organised (DA-D (2) B-C (3) A-C (4) C-D (5) A-B

84. (A) Prophetic (B) Strange (C) Poor (D) Sterling ( l )A-B (2) C-D (3) B-D (4) A-D (5) B-C

85. (A) Plunge (B) Grouch (C) Grumble (D) Despise (DA-B (2) A-C (3) A-D (4) B-C (5) B-D

86. (A) Prosaic (B) Interesting (C) Stupid (D) Marathon (DA-C (2) B-C (3) B-D (4) C-D (5) A-B

87. (A) Debility . (B) Stength (C) Prosperity (D) Sociability (DA-C (2)A-B

' (3) B-D (4) B-C (5) A-D

Directions (88-100): Read the fol­lowing passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Working Group on minorities at its Geneva session in May 2002 high­lighted that construction resolution of tensions involving minorities is by way of "integrating diversity". This means that persons belonging to minorities, acting alone or in community, should be given adequate opportunity to main­tain and develop their distinct identi­ties, while at the same time participat­ing in and making a contribution to the wider society and respecting the ter­ritorial integrity of the State.

Integrating diversity goes hand in hand with good governance which is firmly grounded in international human rights law. This requires that States

protect the rights of all those residing within their jurisdiction without distinc­tion of any kind. It is immaterial whether these persons are recognised by the State as a national minority.

The Human Rights Committee func­tioning under the International Cov­enant on Civil and Political Rights, 1966 has expressed the view that to secure State protection, members of the minority community need not be citizens of the country nor its perma­nent residents. The protection extends to migrant worker who constitute a minority.

In order to accord this protection, States should take special measures to ensure the existence of conditions for minorities to maintain and develop their own distinct cultural identities. More specifically what is required is : (A) sensitivity to the needs, especially linguistic and educational, of persons belonging to minorities so as to enable each individual to develop his/her iden­tity, (B) allowing minorities the oppor­tunity to participate effectively in pub­lic life, including the political decision­making processes, and (C) providing minorities with access to a fair share of public goods, including economic opportunity.

Such measures do not constitute preferential treatment. Their aim is to achieve equal and meaningful enjoy­ment of above rights in order to en­sure de facto equality. 88. What is the meaning of the term

"integrating diversity" as used in the passage? (1) Achieving national solidarity

and integration (2) Achieving the objectives of Hu­

man Rights Committee (3) Giving linguistic and educa­

tional independence to back­ward communities by making them empowered and bring­ing them into the national mainstream.

. (4) Giving minorities sufficient chances to maintain and de­velop their distinct identities.

(5) None of these 89. To achieve protection from the

State, a member of the minority community (1) must be a citizen of the coun­

try (2) should be below the poverty

line

(3) can be even a migrant worker (4) must be a permanent resident

of the state (5) must be ready to stick to its

minority status 90. Choose the word which is SIMI­

LAR in meaning as the word 'de facto' as used in the passage. (1) actual (2) primary (3) superficial (4) profound (5) latent

91. With which of the following does "Integrating diversity" go well ? (1) Proper distribution of wealth (2) Secularism as a political creed (3) Observance of political and

social morality (4) Providing educational oppor­

tunities to all (5) None of these

92. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word 'accord' as used in the passage. (1) constitute (2) withdraw (3) precipitate (4) suppress (5) abandon

93. What should the States do to pro­tect the rights of the minorities ? (1) They should create institu­

tional set up to monitor the integration of diverse subcul­tures of minorities.

(2) They should allow the Work­ing Group on Minorities to come to the States and evalu­ate the conditions of minori­ties.

(3) They should allow and facili­tate minorities to maintain and develop their own distinct cultural identities.

(4) They should join hands in eradication of poverty among minority communities.

(5) None of these 94. Which of the following state-

ment/s is/are true in the con­text of the passage ? (A) The Working Group on Minori­

ties had met at Geneva in May 2002.

(B) 'Integrating diversity' means national solidarity and secu­larism.

(C) 'Integrating diversity' and good governance are the two sides of the same coin.

(1) Only A (2) Only B and C

(3) Only A and B (4) Only A and C (5) All A, B ana C

95. What special measures should the State take to accord protec­tion to minorities ? (1) Giving them preferential treat­

ment (2) Giving them social and politi­

cal rights (3) Providing them basic neces­

sities of life (4) Inculcating in them the na­

tional pride and sentiment (5) Bringing them above the pov­

erty line . 96. The term "integrating diversity"

suggests that —-(1) minorities have been subjected

to social discrimination. (2) minorities should make con­

tributions to the wider soci­ety.

(3) conflicts involving minorities must be legalised.

(4) minorities should be given preferential treatment.

(5) members of the minority com­munity must be citizens of the country.

97. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage? (1) Linguistic and educational

needs of minorities should be recognised.

(2) Minorities should be allowed to participate effectively in public life.

(3) Minorities should be involved in political decision making process.

(4) Minorities should be allowed to maintain their own distinct political identities.

(5) Minorities should be given preferential treatment.

98. Choose the word which is SIMI­LAR in meaning as the word 'cov­enant' as used in the passage ? (1) agreement (2) meeting (3) conference (4) reforms (5) objective

99. Which of the following is the spe­cific measure to be taken by the States to protect the rights of minorities ? (1) Making them the permanent

citizens of the state

(2) Including their names in the vot«fs list

(3) Providing them fair share of economic opportunities

(4) Providing them free educa­tional and medical facilities

(5) Building their self-confidence and self-esteem

100. What is required of the State while maintaining integrating di­versity ? (1) Protect the right of all those

residing within their jurisdic­tion without distinction of any kind.

(2) Provide employment opportu­nities to all as per the provi­sions in the constitution.

(3) States should clearly state their policies with regard to minorities.

(4) Formulate Human Rights Committee to supervise the status of minorities.

(5) Safeguard their territorial in­tegrity.

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE Directions (101-110) : What will

come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions ?

101

102.

110.

113.

114.

Directions (116-120) : Answer these questions on the basis of the in­formation given in the following table.

Production (in lakh tons) of six companies over the given years

2002 2003 2004 2005 2006 2007

A 465 396 524 630 408 650

B 372 482 536 480 512 580 C 694 528 492 575 550 495 D 576 602 387 426 632 518 E 498 551 412 518 647 610 F 507 635 605 6C0 485 525

116. What is the difference between total productions of Companies A and C for all the given years together ? (1) 2,61,00,000 tons (2) 2,61,900 tons (3) 3,31,00,000 tons (4) 3,39,000 tons (5) None of these

117. Approximately, what is the per­centage rise/fall in total produc­tion of all the Companies together from 2003 to 2004 ? (1) 4.5% rise (2) 6% rise (3) 3.5% fall (4) 7 fall * (5) 7.5% fall

118. During which year is the per­centage rise/fall from the previ­ous years in production of Com­pany 'F* is the highest ? (1)2006 (2)2007 (3) 2004 (4) 2003 (5) None of these

119. Production of Companies A & B together in 2004 is approx­imately what percentage of the production of Companies E & F together in 2005 ? (1)90 (2)95 (3) 97 (4) 86 (5) 92

120. What is the difference between average production for the given years between Companies B & E (in lakh tons rounded off to two digits after decimal) ? (1) 56.50 (2) 45.50 (3) 45.67 (4) 55.78 (5) None of these

121. The ratio of present ages of Nisha and Shilpa is 7 : 8 respectively. Four years hence this ratio be­comes 9 : 10 respectively. What is Nisha's present age in years? (1) 18 (2) 14 (3) 17 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

122. A 300 metre long train crosses a platform in 39 seconds while it crosses a signal pole in 18 sec­onds. What is the length of the platform? (1) 320 metres (2) 650 metres (3) 350 metres (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

x + y / then what is the value of x - y ? (1)9 (2)6 (3)4 (4)3 (5) None of these

124. Mr. Sane invested a total amount of Rs. 16,500 for two years in two Schemes A & B with rate of Simple interest 10 per cent and 12 per cent respectively. If the total amount of interest earned was Rs. 3,620, what was the amount invested in Scheme B ? (1) Rs. 8,000 (2) Rs. 8,600 (3) Rs. 8,150 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

125. In how many different ways can the letters of the word DETAIL be arranged in such a way that the vowels occupy only the odd positions ? (1) 120 (2) 60 (3) 48 (4) 32 (5) None of these

Directions (126-130): Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II-given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the state­ments are sufficients are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and—

Give answer (1) If the data in state­ment I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in state­ment II alone are not sufficient to an­swer the question.

Give answer (2) If the data in state­ment II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in state­ment I alone are not sufficient to an­swer the question.

Give answer (3) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the ques­tion.

Give answer (4) If the data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (5) If the data in both statements I and II together are nec­essary to answer the question. 126. Total how many children are

there in the class ? I. Number of boys and girls are in the respective ratio of 3 : 4. II. Number of girls is more than the number of boys by 18.

127. What was the population of State 'A' in 1999? I. Population of the State in­creases every year by 20% and its population in 1997 was 1, 20, 000. II. Population of State A in 1997 was twice that of State B in the same year.

128. What is the cost of laying carpet in the rectangular hall ? I. Cost of carpet is Rs. 450/- per square metre. II. Perimeter of the hall is 50 metres.

129. What is the rate of interest per cent? I. Difference between corn-pound interest and simple interest on an amount of Rs. 10,000 for two years is Rs. 225. II. The amount doubles itself on

2 simple interest in 6— years.

o

130. What is the two digit number ? I. The number obtained by inter­changing the digits is smaller than the original number by 63. II. Sum of the digits is 11.

Directions (131-135) : Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions that follow : Income and Expenditure of Company 'X' during the period 2002 to 2007 Profit/Loss = Income - Expenditure

% Profit/Loss

Income - Expenditure = x 100

Expenditure

131. What is the average profit earned (in crore Rs.) in the given years ?

(1) 8 3 -

(3) H 3 |

(2) 600

(4) 200

(5) None of these 132. What approximately is the per

cent profit earned during the year 1999 ? (1) 48 (2) 43 (3)52 (4)49 (5) None of these

133. Which of the following years has the maximum per cent increase/ decrease in income from the pre­vious year ? (1) 2000 (2) 1999

(3)1997 (4)2001 (5) 1997 & 1999

134. What is the percentage increase in expenditure from 1997 to 1998 ?

(1)25

(3) 33 :

(2) 3 3 -

(4) 30

(5) None of these 13S. What is the average income (in

crore Rs.) for the given years ?

(1) 3 3 6 -

(3) 450

(2) 280

(4) 366^

(5) None of these

Directions (136-140): Study the following table carefully to answer these questions.

Distribution of marks obtained by 160 students in each of the three Subjects — Hindi, English and Maths out of 100.

Subject/Marks 0-19 20-39 40-59 60-79 80-100

Hindi 12 31 79 30 8 English 21 30 65 42 2 Maths 31 22 34 45 28 Average of 24 28 68 35 5 three Subjects

136. If the criteria for passing is mini­mum 40% marks only in Maths, how many students will pass ? (1) 53 (2) 107 (3) 34 (4) 129 (5) None of these

137. If for passing, the student has to obtain minimum 60% marks on average of three subjects, how many students will pass ? (1) 40 (2) 108 (3) 68 (4) 73 (5) None of these

138. If for passing, a student has to obtain 40% marks in any one of the three subjects, what is the minimum number of students who will definitely pass ? (1) 107 ' (2) 109 (3)117 (4)108 (5) None of these

139. How many students will pass in English if minimum passing marks are 40% ? (1)117 (2)111

(3)119 (4)108 (5) None of these

140. How many students have ob­tained 20 or more marks in at least one of the three subjects ? (1) 148 (2) 139 (3) 129 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

141. A shopkeeper sold an article of­fering a discount of 5% and earned a profit of 23.5%. What would have been the percentage of profit earned if no discount was offered ? (1) 28.5 (2) 24.675 (3)30 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

142. Salaries of A, B and C were in the ratio of 3 : 5 : 7 respectively. If their salaries were increased by 50%, 60% and 50% respec­tively, what will be the new re­spective ratio of their salaries ?

(1) 3 : 6 : 7 (2) 4 : 5 : 7 (3) 4 : 5 : 8 (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

143. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another number, what is the ratio of the first num­ber of the second number ? (1) 7 : 3 (2) 3 :7 (3) 2 : 5 (4) 5 : 3 (5) None of these

144. Which of the following values of x will satisfy the inequality x2 -x - 6 > 0 ? (1) x < - 2 or x > 3 (2) - 2 < x < 3 (3) - 3< x < 2 (4) x > -2 or x < 3 (5) None of these

145. Four of the following five parts numbered (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) are exactly equal. The number of the part which is not equal to the other four parts is your answer? (1) 85 - r 17 x 110 = (2j 45 x 6 + 75 x 4 = (3) 175 "T 25 x 75 + 5 2 = (4) 3 6 x 4 + 2'F - 7 x 5 = (5) 65 x 12 - 46 x 5

Directions (146-150) : Study the following graph carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Distribution of candidates en­rolled for MBA and the candidates who have successfully completed the course from different institutes Candidates Enrolled = 2500

Candidates who have success­fully completed I course = 1900

percentage of students success­ful to enrolled ? (1) D (2) E (3) A (4)B (5) None of these

147. What percent of candidates from institute D have come out to to be successful out of the total can­didates enrolled from this insti­tute? (1)115 (2)95 (3)80 (4)85 (5) None of these

148. What is the approximate per­centage of students successful to enrolled from institute A ? (1) 92 (2) 89 (3) 86 (4) 96 (5) 88

149. What is ratio of candidates suc­cessful to enrolled from the in­stitutes B and C together ? (1) 55 : 12 (2) 5 :7 (3) 135 : 271 (4) 3 : 5 (5) None of these

150. What is the percentage of stu­dents successful from institutes E and F together, over the stu­dents enrolled from these insti­tutes together ? (1) 76 (2) 105 (3)80 ' (4)74 (5) None of these

REASONING 151. Four of the following five are alike

in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? ( l )Pear (2)Jackfruit (3) Watermelon (4) Papaya (5) Mango

152. If it is possible to make a num­ber which is the square of a two-digit odd number using the sec­ond, the fourth and the sixth dig­its of the number 93217648 us­ing each only once, which of the following is that two-digit odd number ? (1) 17 (2) 19 (3) 15 (4) 21 (5) 13

153. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(1) Pencil (2) Sharpener (3) Blackboard (4) Chalk (5) Pen

154. In a certain code OVER is writ­ten as 'PWFSQ' and BARE is writ­ten as CBSFD'. How is OPEN written in that code ? (1) PQFOM (2) NODMO (3) PQFOO (4) POFMM (5) None of these

155. Pointing to a boy, Meena says "He is the son of my grandfather's only son". How is the boy's mother related to Meena? (1) Mother (2) Aunt (3) Sister (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

156. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DREAMLAND each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the alphabet ? ( l )None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

157. In a certain code language OM­NIPRESENT' is written as •QJONPTSMDRD'. How is 'CRED­IBILITY' written in that code? (1) JEFSDCXSHKH (2) JEFSDDXSHKH (3) DSFEJ DDXSHKH (4)JEFSDDZUJMJ (5) None of these

158. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? (1) 131 (2) 133 (3) 143 (4) 87 (5) 57

159. 'Hamlet' is related to 'Village' in the same way as 'Metropolis' is related to — (1) District (2) Place (3)Tehsil (4) City (5) Urban

160. If'+' means "divided by':'-' means 'added to': 'x' means 'subtracted

» from' and '+' means multiplied by', then what is the value of 24 + 1 2 - 1 8 + 9 ? (1)15.30 (2)290 (3) - 25 (4) 0.72 (5) None of these

161. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is one that does not belong to that group? (1) Tortoise (2) Frog (3) Rat (4) Mongoose (5) Snake

162. 'Income' is related to 'Profit' in the same way as 'Expenditure' is re­lated to — (l )Sale (2) Receipts (3) Surplus (4) Loss (5) Balance

163. The positions of the first and the fifth digits ' of the number 38271965 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the sec­ond and the sixth digits are in­terchanged and so on. Which of the following will be the third digit from the right end after the re­arrangement ? (1)2 (2)9 (3) 8 (4) 6 (5) None of these

164. 'Electricity' is' related to 'Wire' in the same way as 'Water' is related t o ­l l ) Bottle (2) Jug (3) River (4) Pipe (5) None of these

165. Alok walked 30 metres towards east and took a right turn and walked 40 metres. He again took right turn and walked 50 metres. Towards which direction is he from his starting point ? (1) South (2) West (3) South-West (4) South-East (5) None of these

166. If 'white' is called 'rain', 'rain' is called 'green', 'green' is called 'blue', 'blue' is called 'cloud', 'cloud' is called 'red', 'red' is called 'sky', 'sky' is called 'yellow' and 'yellow' is called 'black, what is the colour of 'blood' ? ( l )Red (2) Blue (3) Cloud (4) Sky (5) None of these

167. Anup is fifteenth from the front in a column of boys. There were thrice as many behind him as there were in front. How many boys are there between Anup and the seventh boy from the end of the column ? (1) 33 (2) 35 (3) 34

(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

168. If the letters in the word UNDER­TAKING are rearranged in the al­phabetical order, which one will be in the middle in order after the rearrangement ? (1) I (2) N (3) K (4) G (5) None of these

169. 'Hospital' is related to 'Nurse' in the same way as 'Court' is related t o ­l l ) Justice (2) Lawyer (3) Judgement (4) Trial (5) None of these

170. Arun is fifth from the left end and Navin is twelfth from the right end in a row of children. If Navin shifts by three places towards Arun he becomes tenth from the left end. How many children are there in the row ? (I) 21 (2) 22 (3) 23 (4) 24 (5) None of these

Directions (171-175) : Study the following sequence carefully and an­swer the questions given below :

M E 5 P B 2 A 7 K N 9 T R U 4 6 I J D F 1 Q 3 W 8 V I S Z 171. How many such numbers are

there in the above sequence, each of which is both immediately pre­ceded by and immediately fol­lowed by a consonant ? (1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

172. If the order of the first twenty letters/numbers in the above sequence is reversed and the remaining letters/ numbers are kept unchanged, which of the following will be the fourteenth letter/number from the right end after the rearrangement ? (1) B (2) 6 (3) 2 (4) I (5) None of these

173. Which of the following letter/ number is the eighth to the left of the nineteenth letter/number from the left end ? (1)N (2)T (3) I (4) D (5) None of these

174. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way with regard to

their position in the above se­quence and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ? ( l )WIQ ' (2)PAE (3) NR7 (4) 4JR (5) D16

175. How many such vowels are there in the above sequence, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately fol­lowed by a vowel ? (l )None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three

Directions (176-180) : Study the following information carefully and an­swer the questions given below :

P. Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members in a family, out of which there are three females and four males. There are two managers, two lawyers, one teacher, one engineer and one doc­tor. No lady is either a teacher or an engineer. R is a lawyer and is married to P who is a teacher. V, the engineer is married to S who is neither a lawyer nor a doctor. No two ladies have same profession. Q is sister of W who is a manager. 176. What is T's profession ?

(1) Manager (2) Lawyer (3) Manager or Lawyer (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

177. Which of the following is the group of male's ? ( l )PQVW (2) TVSW (3) PRTV (4) PTVW (5) None of these

178. What is Q's profession ? (1) Doctor (2) Manager (3) Lawyer (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

179. Who among them has the same profession as that of W ? (1)R (2)T (3)S (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these

180. Which of the following pairs have the same profession ? (DPS . (2)RS. (3) TP : (4)WT " (5) None of these

II. Navin's brother was on leave on Friday.

194. M, J, K, N and D are sitting around a circular table facing at the centre. Who among them is sitting to the immediate right of K ? I. J is sitting between M and D and D is sitting to the immediate right of N. II. J is the second to the left of K and is the second to the right of N.

195. Which Village is to the South-West of Village Q ? I. Village P is to the West of Vil­lage N which is to the West of Village Q. II. Village W is to the South of Village N which is to the West of Village Q.

Directions (196-200) : In each of the questions below are given two state­ments followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from com­monly known facts. Read all the con­clusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding com­monly known facts. 196. Statements:

All tables are boxes. Some boxes are windows. Conclusions: I. Some tables are windows. II. All boxes are tables. III. No window is table. (1) None follows (2) Only either I or III follows (3) Only either II or III follows (4) Only I and II follow (5) None of these

197. Statements: No room is tiger. All tigers are goats. Conclusions: I. Some goats are rooms. II. All goats are rooms. III. Some goats are tigers. (1) None follows (2) Only either II or III follows (3) Only either I or III follows (4) Only II follows (5) None of these

198. Statements: Some cars are roads. Some roads are buses.

Conclusions: I. Some roads are cars. II. Some buses are cars. III. Some buses are roads. (1) All follow (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II and III follow (4) Only I and III follow (5) None of these

199. Statements: Some men are lions. All foxes are lions. Conclusions: I. Some foxes are men. II. Some lions are men. III. All lions are foxes. (1) All follow (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) None follows

200. Statements: All birds are flowers. All flowers are trees. Conclusions: I. Some trees are birds. II. Some flowers are birds. III. All birds are trees. (1) All follow * (2) Only I and II follow (3) Only I and III follow (4) Only II and III follow (5) None follows

Directions (201-205) : Study the following information carefully and an­swer the given questions :

A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.

Input: sky forward 17 over 95 23 come 40 Step I: come sky forward 17 over 95 23 40 Step I I : come 95 sky forward 17 over 23 40 Step i n : come 95 forward sky 17 over 23 40 Step IV: come 95 forward 40 sky 17 over 23 Step V: come 95 forward 40 over sky 17 23 Step V I : come 95 forward 40 over 23 sky 17

Step VI is the last step of the rear­rangement of the above input.

As per the rules followed in the above steps, answer the following ques­tions. 201. Input : machine hire for 19

against 85 21 46 Which of the following will be step II ? (1) against 85 hire machine for

19 21 46 (2) against 85 machine 19 hire

for 21 46 (3) against 85 machine hire for

19 21 46 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

202. Input: box at 20 53 62 gift now 32 Which of the following is step IV? (1) at 62 box 53 gift 32 20 now (2) at 62 box 53 gift 32 now 20 (3) at 62 box 53 gift 20 now 32 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

203. Input: on at 33 27 42 sky mat 51 Which of the following steps will be the last ? (1) VI (2) VII (3)V (4) VIII (5) None of these

204. Step III of an input is : bring 63 desk 11 29 together fight 30 Which of the following steps will be the last but one ? (1) VI (2) VII (3) VIII (4) V (5) None Of these

205. Step II of an input is : earn 72 31 46 higher goal 20 more Which of the following is defi­nitely the input ? (1) 46 72 31 earn higher goal 20

more (2) 20 31 72 46 higher goal earn

more (3) higher 20 31 72 46 goal earn

more (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Directions (206-210): In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between 'strong' arguments and 'weak' arguments. 'Strong' arguments are

those which are both important and directly related to the question. 'Weak' arguments are those which are of mi­nor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the ques­tion.

Give answer (1) if only argument! is strong

Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong.

Give answer (3) if either I or II is strong.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is strong

Give answer (5) if both I and II are strong. 206. Should there be a total ban on all

tobacco products in India ? Arguments: I. No, this will render a large number of people jobless. II. No, the government will lose huge amount of money as it will not earn by way of taxes on these products.

207. Should Hindi language be made compulsory at school level in all the States in India ? Arguments: I. No, students should not be forced to learn any language. II. Yest, it is the national language, so every-body must learn.

208. Should the retirement age of all government employees in India be made 55 years ? Arguments: I. Yes, this will help government to offer employment to youth at lower cost and with higher pro­ductivity. II. No, the government will be de­prived of the expertise of the ex­perienced employees and this will have adverse effect on the pro­ductivity.

209. Should India pull out of Common­wealth Confederation ? Arguments: I. No, India will lose an interna­tional forum to express its opin­ion on world matters. II. Yes, Commonwealth has lost its relevance in the post cold war scenario.

210. Should all the profit making pub­lic sector units be sold to private companies ?

Arguments: I. Yes, this will help the govern­ment to augment its resources for implementing the development programmes, II. No, the private companies will not be able to run these units effectively.

Directions (211-215) : In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or .taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.

Give answer (1) if only Assump­tion I is implicit

Give answer (2) if only Assump­tion II is implicit.

Give answer (3) if either I or II is implicit.

Give answer (4) if neither I nor II is implicit. .

Give answer (5) if both I and II are implicit. 211. Statement: "Leam computer at

no cost and make your life more meaningful"—An advertisement. Assumptions: I. People prefer to join courses without any fees. II. Knowledge in computer makes life more meaningful. r

212. Statement: The government has decided to launch food for work programme in all the drought af­fected areas. Assumptions: I. The government has the ma­chinery to implement the food for work programme in all the

! drought affected areas. II. There is enough food in stock to implement the programmes successfully.

213. Statement : The head of the organisation has decided to re­ward those employees who will help reducing expenditure sub­stantially by suggesting innova­tive techniques. Assumptions: I. The employees may be able to come out with innovative ideas. II. The employees may be en­couraged to apply their mind to earn the reward.

214. Statement: The civic authority has advised the residents in the area to use mosqujtp repellents

or sleep inside nets as large num­ber of people are suffering from malaria. Assumptions: I. Local residents have enough money to arrange for the repel­lents or nets. II. People may ignore and con­tinue to get mosquito bites as they have other pressing needs.

215. Statement : "If you are intelli­gent, we are the right people for improving your performance"— An advertis-ement of a coaching class. Assumptions: I. Brilliant students prefer to join coaching classes. II. Coaching classes help the stu­dents to improve their perfor­mance.

Directions (216-220): Read the fol­lowing information carefully and answer the questions given below :

F( mowing are the conditions for ad­mitting students in an engineering col­lege :

The student must— (i) have secured at least 80 per cent

aggregate marks in XII Std. Exam in Science stream.

(ii) have secured an average of atleast 90 per cent marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics in XII Std. Exam.

(iii) pay Rs. 20,000/- at the time of admission.

(iv) be atleast 17 years old as on 1st September, 2007.

However, in the case of a candi­date who fulfills all other criteria ex­cept —

(a) at (ii) above, but has secured 95 per cent aggregate marks be referred to Principal.

(b) at (iii) above, but can pay atleast Rs. 15,000/- be referred to Chair­man—Admissions.

Based on the above criteria and in­formation provided below', make a de­cision in each case. You are not to as­sume anything. If the data given are not enough to take a decision mark your answer as 'data inadequate'. These cases are given to you as 01.09.2007.

Mark answer (1) if the student is to be admitted.

Mark answer (2) if the student is not to be admitted.

Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to the Principal.

Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to Chairman, Admission.

Mark answer (5) if the data are inadequate to take decision. 216. Anup Shrivastava has passed XII

Std. Exam in Science stream with 95 per cent aggregate marks. He was born on Decem­ber 2, 1989. He has secured 90 per cent average marks in Phys­ics, Chemistry and Mathematics. He can pay Rs. 20,000 at the time of admission.

217. Sudha Malhotra has secured an average of 95 per cent marks in Physics, Chemistry and Math­ematics. She has secured 75 per cent aggregate marks in XII Std. Exam in Science stream. She can pay Rs. 20,000 at the time of admission. She is 18 years old.

218. Ashok Khera has secured 80 per cent marks in XII Std. Exam in Science stream. He can pay Rs. 15,000 at the time of admission. He has secured 90 per cent av­erage marks in Physics, Chem­istry and Mathematics.

219. Usha Nadkarni was 16 years old as on January 5, 2005. She can pay Rs. 20,000 at the time of admission. She has secured 80 per cent average marks in Phys­ics, Chemistry and Mathematics. Her aggregate marks in XII Std. Ex^m in Science stream are 96 per cent.

220. Vibha Cadre has secured 90 per cent aggregate marks in XII Std. Exam in Science stream and 95 per cent average marks in Phys­ics, Chemistry and Mathe-matics. She was born on April 25, 1989. She can pay Rs. 15,000 at the time of admission. Directions (221- 225) : In each

of the questions given below which one of the five answer figures should come after the problem figures if the se­quence were continued ? 221. Problem Figures

222. Problem Figures