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NEET Practice SET Section Total Qs Total Marks Time -ve Mark

Biology 90 360 3 Hrs

¼ negative marking

Chemistry 45 180

Physics 45 180

Biology 1. System of classification used by Linnaeus was (a) natural system (b) artificial system (c) phylogenetic system (d) asexual system 2. In five kingdom system, the main basis of classification is (a) structure of nucleus (b) mode of nutrition (c) structure of cell wall (d) asexual reproduction 3. Genetic information in Paramecium is contained in (a) micronucleus (b) macronucleus (c) both micronucleus and macronucleus (d) mitochondria 4. Protista includes (a) heterotrophs (b) chemoheterotrophs (c) chemoautotrophs (d) all the above 5. Puccinia forms (a) uredia and aecia on wheat leaves (b) uredia and telia on wheat leaves (c) uredia and aecia on barberry leaves (d) uredia and pycnia on barberry leaves 6. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1 – 3 in number and (a) can be circular as well as linear within the same cell (b) are always circular (c) are always linear (d) can be either circular or linear, but never both with in the same cell

7. Ringworm in humans is caused by: (a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (c) Nematodes (d) Viruses 8. Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris were released together near the archegonia of Pteris. Only its sperms enter the archegonia as (a) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria sperms (b) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris sperms (c) Funaria sperms are less mobile (d) Pteris archegonia release chemical to attract its sperms 9. A well developed archegonium with neck consisting of 4-6 rows of neck canal cells, characterises (a) Gymnosperms only (b) Bryophytes and pteridophytes (c) Pteridophytes and gymnosperms (d) Gymnosperms and flowering plants 10. Which of the following is without exception in angiosperms? (a) presence of vessels (b) double fertilisation (c) secondary growth (d) autotrophic nutrition 11. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched? (a) Ginkgo -Archegonia (b) Salvinia - Prothallus (c) Viroids - RNA (d) Mustard - Synergids 12. Wish bone of birds is from (a) pelvic girdle (b) skull (c) hind limbs (d) pectoral girdle/clavicles 13. Eye of the molluscan group that resembles vertebrate eye is (a) bivalvia (b) gastropoda (c) pelecypoda (d) cephalopoda 14. Pneumatic bones are expected to be found in (a) pigeon

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(b) house lizard (c) frog’s tadpole (d) flying fish 15. In which one of the following sets of animals do all the four give birth to young ones? (a) Platypus, Penguin, Bat, Hippopotamus (b) Shrew, Bat, Cat, Kiwi (c) Kangaroo, Hedgehog, Dolphin,, Loris (d) Lion, Bat, Whale, Ostrich 16. Which of the following are correctly matched with respect to their taxonomic classification? (a) Centipede, millipede, spider, scorpionInsecta (b) House fly, butterfly, tse tse fly, silverfishInsecta (c) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea cucumberEchinodermata (d) Flying fish, cuttlefish, silverfish-Pisces 17. Which one of the following is a true fruit? (a) Apple (b) Pear (c) Cashew nut (d) Coconut 18. An example of axile placentation is: (a) Dianthus (b) Lemon (c) Marigold (d) Argemone 19. Cork is formed from (a) cork cambium (phellogen) (b) vascular cambium (c) phloem (d) xylem

20. A leaf primordium grows into the adult leaf lamina by means of (a) apical meristem (b) lateral meristem (c) marginal meristems

(d) at first by apical meristem and later largely by marginal meristems. 21. Which one of the following is not a lateral meristem? (a) Intrafascicular cambium (b) Interfascicular cambium (c) Phellogen (d) Intercalary meristem 22. The layer of actively dividing cells of skin is termed as (a) stratum compactum (b) stratum corneum (c) stratum malpighii/ stratum germinativum (d) stratum lucidum 23. The kind of tissue that forms the supportive structure in our pinna (external ears) is also found in: (a) nails (b) ear ossicles (c) tip of the nose (d) vertebrae 24. Cell wall shows (a) complete permeability (b) semipermeability (c) differential permeability (d) impermeability 25. Genes located on mitochondrial DNA (a) generally show maternal inheritance (b) are always inherited from the male parent (c) show biparental inheritance like the nuclear genes (d) are not inherited 26. Cytoskeleton is made up of: (a) callose deposits (b) cellulosic microfibrils (c) proteinaceous filaments (d) calcium carbonate granules 27. Mineral associated with cytochrome is (a) Cu (b) Mg (c) Fe and Mg (d) Fe and Cu 28. The secondary structure of that portion of an integral protein that is buried in the lipid bilayer of a cell membrane is (a) b-strand

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(b) b-bend (c) random coil (d) a-helix 29. Which one is the most abundant protein in the animal world (a) Trypsin (b) Haemoglobin (c) Collagen (d) Insulin 30. Which one of the following precedes reformation of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the cell cycle (a) Decondensation from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina (b) Transcription from chromosomes, and reassembly of the nuclear lamina (c) Formation of the contractile ring, and formation of the phragmoplast (d) Formation of the contractile ring, and transcription from chromosomes 31. Amino acids are mostly synthesised from (a) mineral salts (b) fatty acids (c) volatile acids (d) a-ketoglutaric acid 32. Guttation is the result of: (a) diffusion (b) transpiration (c) osmosis (d) root pressure 33. Manganese is required in: (a) plant cell wall formation (b) photolysis of water during photosynthesis (c) chlorophyll synthesis (d) nucleic acid synthesis 34. Photosynthetic pigments found in the chloroplasts occur in (a) thylakoid membranes (b) plastoglobules (c) matrix (d) chloroplast envelope 35. The enzyme which fixes CO2 in C4 plants is (a) Hydrogenase (b) PEP carboxylase (c) Reductase

(d) RuBP carboxylase 36. Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in: (a) Oscillatoria (b) Rhodospirillum (c) Chlorobium (d) Chromatium 37. ATP is injected in cyanide poisoning because it is (a) necessary for cellular functions (b) necessary for Na+ – K+ pump (c) Na+ – K+ pump operates at the cell membranes (d) ATP breaks down cyanide 38. Aerobic respiratory pathway is appropriately termed: (a) parabolic (b) amphibolic (c) anabolic (d) catabolic 39. Klinostat is employed in the study of (a) osmosis (b) growth movements (c) photosynthesis (d) respiration 40. An enzyme that can stimulate germination of barley seeds is (a) lipase (b) protease (c) invertase (d) a-amylase 41. Most of the fat digestion occurs in (a) Rectum (b) Stomach (c) Duodenum (d) Small intestine 42. Which one is correctly matched? (a) Vitamin E — Tocopherol (b) Vitamin D — Riboflavin (c) Vitamin B — Calciferol (d) Vitamin A — Thiamine 43. Where do certain symbiotic micro-organisms normally occur in human body? (a) Caecum (b) Oral lining and tongue surface (c) Vermiform appendix and rectum (d) Duodenum

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44. Child death may occur in the marriage between (a) Rh+ man and Rh+ woman (b) Rh+ man and Rh– woman (c) Rh– man and Rh– woman (d) Rh– man and Rh+ woman 45. The life span of human W.B.C. is approximately (a) less than 10 days (b) between 20 to 30 days (c) between 2 to 3 months (d) more than 4 months 46. There is no DNA in: (a) mature RBCs (b) a mature spermatozoan (c) hair root (d) an enucleated ovum 47. Formation of concentrated (hyperosmotic) urine in vertebrates generally depends on (a) length of the proximal convoluted tubule (b) length of Henle's loop (c) area of Bowman's capsule epithelium (d) capillary network forming glomerulus 48. Select the option which shows correct matching of animal with excretory organs and excretory product Animal Excretory Excretory organs product (a) Housefly Renal tubules Uric acid (b) Labeo (Rohu) Nephridial Ammonia tubes (c) Salamander Kidney Urea (d) Peacock Kidney Urea 49. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibre is due to: (a) The central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band. (b) The central gap between actin filaments extending through myosin filaments in the A-band (c) Extension of myosin filaments in the central portion of the A-band. (d) The absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band. 50. Which of the following statements is correct for ‘nodes of Ranvier’ of nerve? (a) Neurilemma is discontinuous (b) Myelin sheath is discontinuous (c) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath are discontinuous (d) Covered by myelin sheath

51. ADH or vasopressin is (a) enzyme that hydrolyses peptides (b) hormone secreted by pituitary that promotes reabsorption of water from glomerular filtrate (c) hormone that promotes glycogenolysis (d) energy rich compound connected with muscle contraction. 52. When both ovaries are removed from rat then which hormone is decreased in blood? (a) Oxytocin (b) Prolactin (c) Estrogen (d) Gonadotropin releasing factor 53. Which one of the following pairs of hormones are the examples of those that can easily pass through the cell membrane of the target cell and bind to a receptor inside it (Mostly in the nucleus) (a) Insulin, glucagon (b) Thyroxin, insulin (c) Somatostain, oxytocin (d) Cortisol, testosterone 54. Meiosis takes place in: (a) Conidia (b) Gemmule (c) Megaspore (d) Meiocyte 55. Double fertilization is characteristic of (a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophytes (c) Gymnosperms (d) Bryophytes 56. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant is called (a) Xenogamy (b) Geitonogamy (c) Karyogamy (d) Autogamy 57. Amniocentesis is a technique (a) by which the essential amino acids in the body can be estimated (b) by which any chromosomal anomalies in the foetus can be detected (c) in which the sex of the foetus can be reversed (d) that can be used for correcting genetic disorders of the foetus

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58. The part of fallopian tube closest to the ovary is (a) isthmus (b) infundibulum (c) cervix (d) ampulla 59. What contribute to the success of Mendel? (a) Qualitative analysis of data (b) Observation of distinct inherited traits (c) His knowledge of biology (d) Consideration of one character at one time 60. In a cross between AABB × aabb, the ratio of F2 genotypes between AABB, AaBB, Aabb and aabb would be (a) 9: 3: 3: 1 (b) 2: 1: 1: 2 (c) 1: 2: 2: 1 (d) 7: 5: 3: 1 61. The polytene chromosomes were discovered for the first time in (a) Drosophila (b) Chironomus (c) Musca nebulo (d) Musca domestica 62. Drosophila flies with XXY genotype are females but in case of humans, such individuals are abnormal males (Klinefelter's syndrome). This indicates that (a) The Y chromosome has no role in sex determination (b) In Drosophila, the Y chromosome is essential for sex determination (c) The Y chromosome is male determining in humans (d) The Y chromosome is female determining in Drosophila 63. Christmas disease is another name for (a) sleeping sickness (b) haemophilia (c) hepatitis B (d) Down's syndrome 64. The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are (a) discontinuous (b) antiparallel (c) semi-conservative (d) parallel. 65. Which one is the incorrect statement with regards to the importance of pedigree analysis?

(a) It helps to trace the inheritance of a specific trait (b) It confirms that DNA is the carrier of genetic information (c) It helps to understand whether the trait in question is dominant or recessive (d) It confirms that the trait is linked to one of the autosome 66. The lac operon is an example of (a) arabinose operon (b) inducible operon (c) repressible operon (d) overlapping genes 67. Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism in E.coli and proposed operon concept. Operon concept is applicable for (a) all prokaryotes (b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes (c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes (d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans 68. During transcription, RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds to a gene promoter and assumes a saddle-like structure, what is it’s DNA-binding sequence? (a) AATT (b) CACC (c) TATA (d) TTAA 69. Phenomenon of organisms resembling others for escaping from enemies is (a) Adaptation (b) Mimicry (c) Homology (d) Analogy 70. Which one of the following is regarded as the direct ancestor of modern man? (a) Homo erectus (b) Ramapithecus (c) Homo habilis (d) Australopithecus 71. In which condition the gene ratio remains constant for any species? (a) Sexual selection (b) Random mating (c) Mutation (d) Gene flow

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72. The finches of Galapagos islands provide an evidence in favour of (a) evolution due to mutation (b) retrogressive evolution (c) biogeographical evolution (d) special creation. 73. Cells involved in immune mechanism are (a) Erythrocytes (b) Lymphocytes (c) Eosinophils (d) Thrombocytes 74. Hybridoma cells are (a) nervous cells of frog (b) hybrid cells resulting from myeloma cells (c) only cells having oncogenes (d) product of spore formation in bacteria 75. Consider the following statements about biomedical technologies (a) During open heart surgery blood is circulated in the heart-lung machine (b) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by angiography (c) Computerised axial tomography (CAT) shows detailed internal structure as seen in a section of body (d) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of organs like prostate glands and lungs Which two of the above statements are correct? 76. Which one of the following is a hallucinogenic drug? (a) Opium (b) Caffeine (c) Morphine (d) Lysergic acid diethylamide 77. Before European invader which vegetable was absent in India? (a) Potato and Tomato (b) Simla mirch and Brinjal (c) Maize and Chichinda (d) Brinjal and Lady's finger 78. What is antisense technology? (a) A cell displaying a foreign antigen used for synthesis of antigens (b) Production of somaclonal variants in tissue cultures (e) When a piece of RNA that is complementary in sequence is used to stop expression of a specific gene

(c) RNA polymerase producing DNA (d) 79. The common nitrogen fixer in paddy fields is (a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum (c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia 80. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain insecticidal protein. (a) binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest ultimately killing it (b) is coded by several genes including the gene cry (c) is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect pest. (d) does not kill the carrier bacterium which is itself resistant to this toxin 81. Maximum number of existing transgenic animals is of: (a) fish (b) mice (c) cow (d) pig 82. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (a) uricotelism - aquatic habitat (b) parasitism - intra-specific relationship (c) excessive perspiration - xeric adaptation (d) stream lined body - aquatic adaptation 83. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they (a) have more than 90 per cent similar genes (b) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites (c) have same number of chromosomes (d) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds. 84. If we completely remove the decomposers from an ecosystem, its functioning will be adversely affected, because (a) energy flow will be blocked (b) herbivores will not receive solar energy (c) mineral movement will be blocked (d) rate of decomposition will be very high 85. The slow rate of decomposition of fallen logs in nature is due to their (a) low moisture content

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(b) poor nitrogen content (c) anaerobic environment around them (d) low cellulose content 86. Soil fertility is reduced by (a) crop rotation (b) nitrogen fixing bacteria (c) decaying organic matter (d) intensive agriculture 87. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the parliament in the year (a) 1992 (b) 1996 (c) 2000 (d) 2002 88. Gas released during Bhopal tragedy was (a) Methyl isocyanate (b) Potassium isothiocyanate (c) Sodium isothiocyanate (d) Ethyl isothiocyanate 89. Green house effect refers to (a) cooling of earth (b) trapping of UV rays (c) production of cereals (d) warming of earth 90. DDT residues are rapidly passed through food chain causing biomagnification because DDT is (a) moderately toxic (b) non-toxic to aquatic animals (c) water soluble (d) lipo soluble

Chemistry 1. Ratio of Cp and CV of a gas ‘X’ is 9.4. The number of atoms of the gas ‘X’ present in 99.0 litres of it at NTPwill be (a) 6.02 ×1023 (b) 1.2 × 1023 (c) 3.01 × 1023 (d) 2.01 × 1023 2. What volume of oxygen gas (O2 )measured at 2° C and 9 atm, is needed to burn completely 9L of propane gas (C3H8 )measured under the same conditions? (a) 7 L (b) 6 L (c) 5 L

(d) 10 L 3. The orbitals are called degenerate when (a) they have the same wave functions (b) they have the same wave functions but different energies (c) they have different wave functions but same energy (d) they have the same energy 4. According to the Bohr Theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the least energetic photon? [0299 M] (a) n = 6 to n = 1 (b) n = 5 to n = 4 (c) n = 6 to n = 5 (d) n = 5 to n = 3 5. Among K, Ca, Fe and Zn the element which can form more than one binary compound with chlorine is (a) Fe (b) Zn (c) K (d) Ca 6. Strongest hydrogen bond is shown by (a) Water (b) Ammonia (c) Hydrogen fluoride (d) Hydrogen sulphide. 7. Which one of the following molecules will form a linear polymeric structure due to hydrogen bonding? (a) NH3 (b) H2O (c) HCl (d) HF 8. The correct order of increasing bond angles in the following triatomic species is:

(a) (b) (c) (d) 9. Agas is said to behave like an ideal gas when the relation PV/T= constant. When do you expect a real gas to behave like an ideal gas? (a) When the temperature is low (b) When both the temperature and pressure are low

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(c) When both the temperature and pressure are high (d) When the temperature is high and pressure is low 10. By what factor does the average velocity of a gaseous molecule increase when the temperature (in Kelvin) is doubled? (a) 2.0 (b) 2.8 (c) 4.0 (d) 1.4 11.

(a) –200 kJ (b) –356.2 kJ (c) + 200 kJ (d) – 396.2 kJ 12.

(a) 910K (b) 1110K (c) 510K (d) 710K 13. Aphysician wishes to prepare a buffer solution of pH= 3.58 that efficiently resists a change in pHyet contains only small concentrations of the buffering agents. Which one of the following weak acids together with its sodium salt would be the best to use? (a) m-chlorobenzoic acid (pKa = 3.98) (b) p-chlorocinnamic acid (pKa = 4.41) (c) 2, 5-dihydroxy benzoic acid (pKa = 2.97) (d) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58) 14. Aweak acid, HA, has a Ka of 1.00 × 10–5. If 0.100 mole of this acid dissolved in one litre of water, the percentage of acid dissociated at equilbrium is closest to (a) 1.00% (b) 99.9% (c) 0.100% (d) 99.0%

15.

(a) 1: 10 (b) 4: 5 (c) 10: 1 (d) 5: 4 16. Which one of the following properties of alkali metals increases in magnitude as the atomic number rises? (a) Ionic radius (b) Melting point (c) Electronegativity (d) First ionization energy. 17. Which one of the following is present as an active ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action? (a) CaOCl2 (b) Ca(OCl)2 (c) CaO2Cl (d) CaCl2 18. Cyclic hydrocarbon ‘A’ has all the carbon and hydrogen atoms in a single plane. All the carbon carbon bonds have the same length, less than 1.54 Å, but more than 1.34 Å. The C– C– C bond angle will be (a) 109° 28' (b) 100° (c) 180° (d) 120° 19. Decreasing order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition to carbonyl group among cyclopentanone, 3-pentanone and n-pentanal is (a) 3-pentanone, cyclopentanone, n-pentanal (b) n-pentanal, 3-pentanone, cyclopentanone (c) n-pentanal, cyclopentanone, 3-pentanone (d) cyclopentanone, 3-pentanone, n-pentanal

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20. Number of chiral carbons in ED( (a) (b) (c) (d) 21. The correct order of increasing reactivity of C– Xbond towards nucleophile in the following compounds is: XNO2 NO2 X(CH3) 3 C– X, (CH3) 2CH– X (II) (III) (IV) (a) I< II< IV< III (b) II< III< I< IV (c) IV< III< I< II (d) III< II< I< IV 22. In commercial gasolines the type of hydrocarbons which are more desirable, is (a) branched hydrocarbons (b) straight-chain hydrocarbons (c) aromatic hydrocarbons such as toluene (d) linear unsaturated hydrocarbons 23. Roasting of sulphides gives the gas Xas a by product. This is colorless gas with choking smell of burnt sulphur and caused great damage to respiratory organs as a result of acid rain. Its aqueous solution is acidic, acts as a reducing agent and its acid has never been isolated. The gas Xis: (a) SO2 (b) CO2 (c) SO3 (d) H2 S 24. With which one of the following elements silicon should be doped so as to give p-type of semiconductor? (a) Germanium (b) Arsenic (c) Selenium (d) Boron 25. The beans are cooked earlier in pressure cooker, because (a) Boiling point increases with increasing pressure (b) Boiling point decreases with increasing pressure (c) Internal energy is not lost while cooking in pressure cooker (d) Extra pressure of pressure cooker, softens the beans 26. The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against corrosion is

(a) nickel plating (b) copper plating (c) tin plating (d) zinc plating 27.

(a) 1.968 V (b) 2.0968 V (c) 1.0968 V (d) 0.0968 V 28. When a biochemical reaction is carried out in laboratory in the absence of enzyme then rate of reaction obtained is 10–6 times, then activation energy of reaction in the presence of enzyme is (a) 6/RT (b) Different from Ea obtained in laboratory (c) Pis required (d) Can't say anything 29. What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised from 20°C to 35°C? (R= 8.314 Jmol–1 K–1) (a) 269 kJmol –1 (b) 34.7 kJmol–1 (c) 15.1 kJmol–1 (d) 342 kJmol–1 30. The metal oxide which cannot be reduced to metal by carbon is (a) Fe2O3 (b) Al2O3 (c) PbO (d) ZnO 31. In the manufacture of bromine from sea water, the mother liquor containing bromides is treated with (a) Carbon dioxide (b) Chlorine (c) Iodine (d) Sulphur dioxide 32. Which of the following is the most basic oxide? (a) Sb2O3 (b) Bi2O3 (c) SeO2 (d) Al2O3

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33. The electronic configuration of Cu (atomic number 29) is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 34. The correct order of ionic radii of Y3+, La3+, Eu3+ and Lu3+ is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 35. The complex ion [Co(NH3)6]3+ is formed by sp3d2 hybridisation. Hence the ion should possess (a) Octahedral geometry (b) Tetrahedral geometry (c) Square planar geometry (d) Tetragonal geometry. 36. Which of the following coordination compounds would exhibit optical isomerism? (a) pentamminenitrocobalt(III) iodide (b) diamminedichloroplatinum(II) (c) trans-dicyanobis (ethylenediamine) chromium (III) chloride (d) tris-(ethylendiamine) cobalt (III) bromide 37. In a particular isomer of [Co(NH3) 4Cl2]0, the Cl-Co-Cl angle is 90°, the isomer is known as (a) Linkage isomer (b) Optical isomer (c) -isomer (d) Position isomer 38. When phenol is heated with CHCl3 and alcoholic KOH when salicyl adehyde is produced. This reaction is known as (a) Rosenmund’s reaction (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (c) Friedel-Crafts reaction (d) Sommelet reaction 39. Phenol is distilled with Zn dust followed by Friedel Crafts alkylation with propyl chloride in the presence of AlCl3 to give a compound . is oxidised in the presence of air to form the compound . The structural formula of is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 40. Which one of the following esters cannot undergo Claisen self-condensation? (a) CH3 CH2 CH2 CH2 COOC2H5 (b) C6H5COOC2H5 (c) C6H5CH2COOC2H5 (d) C6H11CH2COOC2H5 41. Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C2H5ONa, yields a stable compound which has the structure.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 42. An isocyanide is prepared by

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(a) Friedel-Crafts reaction (b) Perkin reaction (c) Carbylamine reaction (d) Wurtz reaction 43. The alpha-Dglucose and beeta-Dglucose differ from each other due to difference in carbon atom with respect to its (a) conformation (b) configuration (c) number of OHgroups (d) size of hemiacetal ring 44. The enzyme which hydrolyses triglycerides to fatty acids and glycerol is called (a) Maltase (b) Lipase (c) Zymase (d) Pepsin 45. Vitamin B12 contains (a) Ca(II) (b) Fe(II) (c) Co(III) (d) Zn(II)

Physics 1. If x = at + bt2, where x is the distance travelled by the body in kilometers while t is the time in seconds, then the units of b is (a) km/s (b) kms (c) km/s2 (d) kms2 2.

(a) ML2 T–2 (b) ML–1T–2 (c) ML2T–1 (d) MLT–1 3. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is (a) (u + gt) t (b) ut (c) 1/2gt2

(d) ut - 1/2gt2 4. Two bodies of same mass are projected with the same velocity at an angle 30° and 60° respectively. The ratio of their horizontal ranges will be (a) 1: 1 (b) 1: 2 (c) 1: 3 (d) 2: √2 5. Two particles of mass Mand m are moving in a circle of radii Rand r. If their time-periods are same, what will be the ratio of their linear velocities? (a) MR: mr (b) M: m (c) R: r (d) 1: 1 6.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 7. A man weighing 80 kg, stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5m/s2. What would be the reading on the scale? (g = 10 m/s2) (a) 1200 N (b) zero (c) 400 N (d) 800 N 8. A molecule of mass m of an ideal gas collides with the wall of a vessel with a velocity v and returns back with the same velocity. The change in linear momentum of molecule is (a) 2 mv (b) 4 mv (c) 8 mv (d) 10 mv 9. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done (a) upon the system by a non conservative force (b) by the system against a conservative force

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(c) by the system against a non conservative force (d) upon the system by a conservative force 10. A thin uniform circular ring is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 30° without slipping. Its linear acceleration along the inclination plane will be (a) g/2 (b) g/3 (c) g/4 (d) 2g/3 11. The ratio of the radii of gyration of a circular disc about a tangential axis in the plane of the disc and of a circular ring of the same radius about a tangential axis in the plane of the ring is (a) 1: √2 (b) 1: 3 (c) 2: 1 (d) √5: √6 12. Three masses are placed on the x-axis: 300 g at origin, 500 g at x = 40 cm and 400 g at x = 70 cm. The distance of the centre of mass from the origin is: (a) 40 cm (b) 45 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 30 cm 13. Assuming the radius of the earth as R, the change in gravitational potential energy of a body of mass m, when it is taken from the earth's surface to a height 3 R above its surface, is (a) 3 mg R (b) 3/4 mg R (c) 1 mg R (d) 3/2 mg R 14.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 15. The temperature of inversion of a thermocouple is 620° C and the neutral temperature is 300° C. What is the temperature of cold junction? (a) 320°C (b) 20°C (c) –20°C (d) 40°C 16. An ideal gas undergoing adiabatic change has the following pressure-temperature relationship

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 17.

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(a) Q1> Q2> Q3 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3 (b) Q3> Q2> Q1 and ΔU1 = ΔU2 = ΔU3 (c) Q1 = Q2 = Q3 and ΔU1> ΔU2> ΔU3 (d) Q3> Q2> Q1 and ΔU1> ΔU2> ΔU3 18. The composition of two simple harmonic motions of equal periods at right angle to each other and with a phase difference of S results in the displacement of the particle along (a) circle (b) figures of eight (c) straight line (d) ellipse 19. The potential energy of a simple harmonic oscillator when the particle is half way to its end point is (a) 1/2 E (b) 2/3 E (c) 1/8 E (d) 1/4

20. Velocity of sound waves in air is 330 m/s. For a particular sound wave in air, a path difference of 40 cm is equivalent to phase difference of 1.6 π. The frequency of this wave is

(a) 165 Hz (b) 150 Hz (c) 660 Hz (d) 330 Hz 21. A vehicle, with a horn of frequency n is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s in a direction perpendicular to the straight line joining the observer and the vehicle. The observer perceives the sound to have a frequency n + n1. Then (if the sound velocity in air is 300 m/s) (a) n1 = 10n (b) n1 =0 (c) n1 =0.1n (d) n1 = –0.1n 22. Two waves are represented by the equations y1 = a sin (ωt + kx +2.57) m and y2 = a cos (ωt + kx) m, where x is in meter and t in sec. The phase difference between them is (a) 1.0 radian (b) 1.25 radian (c) 1.57 radian (d) 0.57 radian 23.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 24. The capacity of a parallel plate condenser is 92 μF when the distance between its plates is 8 cm. If the distance between the plates is reduced to 4 cm then the capacity of this parallel plate condenser will be (a) 5 μF (b) 92 μF (c) 02 μF (d) 42 μF

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25. 1. The masses of the three wires of copper are in the ratio of 1: 3: 5 and their lengths are in the ratio of 5: 3:The ratio of their electrical resistance is (a) 1: 3: 5 (b) 5: 3: 1 (c) 1: 25: 125 (d) 125: 25: 1 26. The resistance of a discharge tube is (a) zero (b) ohmic (c) non-ohmic (d) infinity 27.

(a) 9V/35 (b) 18V/5 (c) 5V/9 (d) 5V/18 28.

(a) 4 V (b) 2 V (c) 12 V (d) 6 V 29.

(a) on AB (b) on CD (c) on both AB and CD (d) on both OD and BO 30.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d) 31. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the form of (a) electric field (b) magnetic field

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(c) dielectric strength (d) heat 32.

(a) V0 (b) V0/ 2 (c) V0 /2 (d) V0/ 3 33. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves? (a) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and same time. (b) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors (c) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of wave (d) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation. 34. Wavelength of light of frequency 100 Hz (a) 2 × 166 m (b) 3 × 106 m (c) 4 × 106 m (d) 5 × 106 m 35. A rod of length 10 cm lies along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm in such a way that its end closer to the pole is 20 cm away from the mirror. The length of the image is: (a) 10 cm (b) 15 cm (c) 2.5 cm (d) 5 cm 36. The threshold frequency for photoelectric effect on sodium corresponds to a wavelength of 5000 Å. Its work function is (a) 4 × 10–19 J (b) 1 J (c) 2 × 10–19 J (d) 3 × 10–19 J

37. When ultraviolet radiation is incident on a surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. If a second beam causes photoelectrons to be ejected, it may consists of (a) infra-red waves (b) X-rays (c) visible light rays (d) radio waves 38. If the momentum of electron is changed by P, then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes by0.5%. The initial momentum of electron will be: (a) 200 P (b) 400 P (c) P/200 (d) 100 P 39. Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal quantum number n is given by E= – 13.6/n2 eV. The energy of photon ejected when the electron jumps from n = 3 state to n = 2 state of hydrogen is approximately (a) 1.9 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 0.85 eV (d) 3.4 eV 40.

(a) 7N14 (b) 7N13 (c) 5B13 (d) 6C13 41.

(a) n–1Xm–4 (b) n–2Ym–4 (c) n–4Zm–4 (d) nZm–4 42.

(a) the electrons produced as a result of the decay of neutrons inside the nucleus (b) the electrons produced as a result of collisions between atoms

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(c) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus (d) the electrons present inside the nucleus 43. In a common base amplifier the phase difference between the input signal voltage and the output voltage is (a) 0 (b) π/4 (c) π/0 (d) π 44. In forward bias, the width of potential barrier in a p-n junction diode (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) first ‘9’ then ‘0’ 45.

(a) NAND gate (b) NOR gate (c) OR gate (d) AND gate 1. b 2. b 3. a 4. d 5. b 6. b 7. b 8. d 9. b 10. b 11. a 12. d 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. b 17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. d 22. c 23. c 24. a 25. a 26. c 27. d 28. d 29. c 30. b 31. d 32. d 33. b 34. a 35. b 36. a 37. a 38. b 39. b 40. d 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. b 48. c 49. b 50. b 51. b 52. c 53. d 54. d 55. a 56. b 57. b 58. b 59. d 60. c 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. b 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. c 73. b 74. b

75. c 76. d 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. a 81. b 82. d 83. d 84. c 85. d 86. d 87. d 88. a 89. d 90. d 1. a 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. a 6. c 7. d 8. b 9. d 10. d 11. c 12. b 13. d 14. a 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. a 22. a 23. d 24. d 25. a 26. d 27. c 28. b 29. b 30. b 31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. a 36. d 37. c 38. b 39. c 40. b 41. a 42. c 43. b 44. c 45. c 1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. d 7. a 8. a 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. a 13. b 14. c 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. c 19. d 20. c 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. c 25. d 26. c 27. d 28. b 29. a 30. a 31. b 32. b 33. c 34. b 35. d 36. a 37. b 38. a 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. a 43. a 44. b 45. d