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Name: Student ID: MCQ questions and answers for BMS 2 THESE PRACTICE ANSWERS AND QUESTIONS ARE PROVIDED FOR YOUR OWN SELF-DIRECTED STUDY SINCE YOU ARE NOT PARTICIAPTING IN THE RESEARCH PROJECT

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Page 1: BMS-MCQs

Name: Student ID:

MCQ questions and answers for

BMS 2

THESE PRACTICE ANSWERS AND QUESTIONS ARE PROVIDED FOR YOUR OWN SELF-DIRECTED

STUDY SINCE YOU ARE NOT PARTICIAPTING IN THE RESEARCH PROJECT

Page 2: BMS-MCQs

Week 2 Cell injury and acute inflammation

1 Which of the following is characterised by the activation of caspases?

A ApoptosisB NecrosisC Acute inflammatory responseD Tissue regeneration

Correct Answer A

2 Which of the following is not true of acute inflammation?

A The formation of a fluid exudate allows the dilution of toxins.B The fluid exudate has a protein content of 1g/100ml.C The fluid exudate contains immunoglobulins.D The fluid exudate contains fibrin.

Correct Answer B

3 Which of the following is not a cause of cell injury?

A Mechanical traumaB SmokingC Microbial agentsD Apoptosis

Correct Answer D

Page 3: BMS-MCQs

4 Which of the following is true?

A Neutrophils release fibrin.B Neutrophils ingest micro-organisms by pinocytosis.C The C4b component of complement is chemotactic for neutrophils.D Neutrophils contain lysosomes.

Correct Answer D

5 Which type of necrosis is the most common?

A Coagulative B ColliquativeC CaseousD Fibrinoid

Correct Answer A

6 Which of the following is true?

A Acute inflammation is associated with decreased vascular permeability.B Endothelial cells contract in response to chemical mediators of acute inflammation. C Blood flow decreases at the site of acute inflammation.D The osmotic pressure of the extracellular fluid decreases in acute inflammation.

Correct Answer B

Page 4: BMS-MCQs

Week 3 Introduction to immunity

1 Which of the following is a type of monocyte found in tissues?

A BasophilB Dendritic cellC FibroblastD Macrophage

Correct Answer D

2 Which of the following conditions results from Type I hypersensitivity?

A Arthus reactionB Myasthenia gravisC Autoimmune haemolytic anaemiaD Anaphylaxis

Correct Answer D

3 T-lymphocytes mature into T-cells in:

A The blood streamB Bone marrowC The thyroid glandD The thymus

Correct Answer D

4 Which of the following represents the mature progeny of B-cells?

A Myeloid cellB Natural killer cellC NeutrophilD Plasma cell

Correct Answer D

Page 5: BMS-MCQs

5 Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A Barrett oesophagusB Myasthenia gravisC Systemic lupus erythematosusD Addison disease

Correct Answer A

6 An anaphylactoid reaction may be brought about by:

A Anaesthetic induction agentsB PeanutsC Wasp venomD Antibiotics

Correct Answer A

Page 6: BMS-MCQs

Week 4 Repair and regeneration

1 Which cell type is most commonly seen in tissue undergoing chronic inflammation?

A Mast cellsB Polymorphonuclear leukocytesC LymphocytesD Platelets

Correct Answer C

2 Which of the following cells are effectively unable to regenerate ?

A Labile cellsB Stable cellsC Permanent cellsD Stem cells

Correct Answer C

3 Pathological or physiological cellular or organ shrinkage is termed:

A AtrophyB FibrosisC HyperplasiaD Hypertrophy

Correct Answer A

4 Chronically diminished blood supply to a tissue will lead to:

A Metaplasia.B Dystrophy.C Hyperplasia.D Atrophy.

Correct Answer D

Page 7: BMS-MCQs

5 Which of the following describes the increase in skeletal muscle in athletes as a response to increased muscle activity?

A Physiological hypertrophyB Physiological hyperplasiaC Pathological hypertrophyD Pathological hyperplasia

Correct Answer A

6 Renewal of lost tissue in which the lost cells are replaced by identical ones is termed:

A OrganisationB QuiescenceC RegenerationD Restitution

Correct Answer C

Page 8: BMS-MCQs

Week 5 Micro-organisms and health

1 This infection is transmitted predominantly by the faecal oral route:

A InfluenzaB CholeraC ErysipelasD Acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

Correct Answer B

2 Clostridium botulinum, a rare but important cause of food poisoning, causes illness because it produces:

A An aggressin B An exotoxin C EndotoxinD Immune complexes

Correct Answer B

3 An example of a disease whose manifestations are caused mainly by the host response to infected cells, rather than the micro-organism itself or one of its components, is:

A Tuberculosis (infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

B Tetanus (infection with Clostridium tetani)

C Cholera (infection with Vibrio cholerae)

D Gram-negative bloodstream infection (e.g. E. coli bacteraemia)

Correct Answer A

4 Pathogenicity is best defined as:

A The capability of micro-organism to become established in/on a host

B The capability of micro-organism to cause harm to a host

C The capability of micro-organism to be transmitted from one host to another

D The capability of micro-organism to survive in a hostile environment

Page 9: BMS-MCQs

Correct Answer B

5 Which of the following genera contains the bacteria responsible for gonorrhoeae?

A Clostridia B NeisseriaC StreptococciD Staphylococci

Correct Answer B

6 Which of the following infections is least likely to be associated with infection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A Retinitis caused by the human cytomegalovirus (CMV retinitis)

B Diarrhoea caused by Cryptosporidium parvum (cryptosporidiosis)

C Oesophagitis caused by Candida albicans

D Erysipelas caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A βhaemolytic streptococcus)

Correct Answer D

Page 10: BMS-MCQs

Week 6 Vascular disease I

1 Which factor predisposes to the formation of venous thromboses?

A Long distance travelB Non smokersC Progesterone only pillD Marfan’s Syndrome

Correct Answer A

2 Amniotic fluid emboli:

A are associated with short labour time.B are always fatal C may be associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation.D travel in the circulation and lodge in the lung.

Correct Answer D

3 Which of the following may not be caused by atherosclerotic plaques within the coronary arteries?

A Angina pectorisB ArrhythmiasC Aortic stenosisD Myocardial infarction

Correct Answer C

4 Which of the following cell types is least likely to be involved in atheroma formation?

A MacrophagesB FibroblastsC PlateletsD Lymphocytes

Page 11: BMS-MCQs

Correct Answer D

5 Atherosclerosis most often affects which of the following?

A Femoral arteriesB Abdominal aortaC Small pulmonary arteriesD Arteries of the left ventricle

Correct Answer B

6 The first inflammatory cells to appear at the site of a myocardial infarct are:

A EosinophilsB MacrophagesC NeutrophilsD Plasma cells

Correct Answer C

Page 12: BMS-MCQs

Week 7 Vascular disease II

1 Which of the following resting diastolic blood pressure measurements would be indicative of moderate hypertension?

A 85 mmHgB 95 mmHgC 110 mmHgD 120 mmHg

Correct Answer C

2 The commonest cause of right heart failure is?

A Pulmonary embolismB Cor pulmonaleC Left heart failureD Pulmonary valve stenosis

Correct Answer C

3 In malignant hypertension, where can early changes be detected?

A In the aorta B In the retinal arteriolesC In the renal arteriesD In the cerebral arteries

Correct Answer B

4 Which of the following is a common clinical presentation of heart failure?

A TirednessB HeadacheC FeverD Loss of consciousness

Correct Answer A

Page 13: BMS-MCQs

5 The early stages of hypertension are most commonly manifested by which of the following?

A cardiovascular diseaseB cerebral oedemaC few symptoms, if anyD renal disease

Correct Answer C

6 The risk of haemopericardium is greatest how long after an acute myocardial infarction?

A 1 HourB 1 DayC 1 WeekD 1 Month

Correct Answer C

Page 14: BMS-MCQs

Week 8 Tumour classification

1 The majority of rectal carcinomas are:

A CarcinoidsB AdenocarcinomasC Squamous cell carcinomasD Carcinosarcomas

Correct Answer B

2 Which of the following are referred to as carcinomas?

A Benign epithelial tumoursB Malignant epithelial tumoursC Benign mesenchymal tumoursD Malignant mesenchymal tumours

Correct Answer B

3 Which of the tumours listed below is an example of a tumour that may be composed of more than one germ cell type?

A squamous cell carcinomaB adenocarcinomaC teratoma D fibrosarcoma

Correct Answer C

4 The pre-invasive state of cervical squamous carcinoma is known as:

A CGINB CINC cervical hyperplasiaD endometrial hyperplasia

Correct Answer B

Page 15: BMS-MCQs

5 Dysplasia is best defined as:

A OvergrowthB UndergrowthC Disordered growthD Absence of growth

Correct Answer C

6 Which of the following is a benign smooth muscle tumour?

A RhabdomyomaB LeiomyomaC LipomaD Chondroma

Correct Answer B

Page 16: BMS-MCQs

Week 9 Biology of tumour cells

1 Familial adenomatous polyposis is associated with a mutational defect in which gene?

A APCB BRCA1C MLH1D p53

Correct Answer A

2 Matrix metalloproteinases are commonly associated with which of the following features of cancer?

A InvasionB InitiationC ImmortalityD Promotion

Correct Answer A

3 Which of the following tumours does not have an associated viral aetiology?

A Cervical cancerB Hepatocellular carcinomaC Gastric cancerD Burkitt’s lymphoma

Correct Answer C

4 Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

A RAS B TP53C RBD BRCA 1

Page 17: BMS-MCQs

Correct Answer A

5 Which of the following infectious agents is not thought to play an important role in carcinogenesis?

A Hepatitis B virusB Helicobacter pyloriC Human papilloma virusD Herpes simplex virus

Correct Answer D

6 A mutational defect in the TP53 gene is associated with which of the following cancer syndromes?

A Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancerB Li FraumeniC Familial retinoblastomaD Von Hippel-Lindau

Correct Answer B

Page 18: BMS-MCQs

Week 10 Behaviour of tumours

1 The correct TNM nomenclature for a carcinoma greater than 5cm in size, with a single nodal metastases and one distant metastasis would be:

A T1 N1 M1B T4 N2 M2C T3 N1 M1D T3 N2 M1

Correct Answer C

2 Which of the statements below is untrue?

A Poorly differentiated adenocarcinoma has a worse prognosis than moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma

B Benign neoplasms never have life-threatening effectsC Benign tumours are usually well circumscribedD Seminoma is a malignant tumour of the testicular tissues

Correct Answer B

3 Tumour grading is based on the following histological features:

A Mitotic activity, nuclear pleomorphism, and lymph node involvementB Mitotic activity, tumour size, and basement membrane invasionC Differentiation, mitotic activity and nuclear pleomorphismD Invasiveness and mitotic activity

Correct Answer C

4 Which of the following statements is most accurate? Malignant tumours:

A always retain their original differentiated stateB remain localisedC invade surrounding tissueD do not spread to other parts of the body

Page 19: BMS-MCQs

Correct Answer C

5 Expression of the growth factor VEGF is associated with which feature of tumour cells?

A ImmortalityB InvasivenessC AngiogenesisD Resistance to negative growth factors

Correct Answer C

6 The Dukes staging system is used for which malignancy?

A ProstateB CervicalC BreastD Colorectal

Correct Answer D