bp aviation audit checklist

7/25/2019 BP Aviation Audit Checklist

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15 April 2013

S&OR Audit

Aviation Audit ProtocolConformance to Requirements questions(Checklist)

GDP 3.7-0001-01, dated 1 July 2012


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Programme: Group Defined PracticeLast Revision Date:15 April 2013

Programme Element: Aviation Annex 1Conformance to requirements

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Section 3 Safety Management

3.1 Regulatory requirements

1. Has the operator, for the grant of an air operators certificate established a safetymanagement system appropriate to the size and complexity of the operation, for theproactive management of safety, that integrates the management of operations andtechnical systems with financial and human resource management, and that reflectsquality assurance principles? (Section 3.1)

3.2 OGP requirements

2. Are SMS requirements in place at the time a Contract for Aviation Services, oreffective Call Off Contract, or prior to a One Time flight being conducted? (Section3.2)

3. Does the contracted operator comply with applicable national safety managementsystem regulations? (Section 3.2)

4. As a minimum or where national regulations have not yet been mandated for safetymanagement systems, do the owned or contracted aircraft operators meet the SMSrequirements detailed in table 1 of the GDP? (Section 3.2)

3.3 Safety management system elements

5. Does the contracted operators SMS contain the following required elements andrelationships listed? (Section 3.3.A)

a) Leadership Commitment Active SMS involvement and support from aninformed company leadership.

b) Policy, accountabilities & KPIs A defined HSE policy, based on a Justculture, defined responsibilities for safety management and Key PerformanceIndicators (KPIs).

c) Documented Procedures - Documented, detailed procedures covering allSMS activities and processes and more broadly documented procedures forsafety critical tasks related to aircraft operations, including flight operations,aircraft maintenance and ground operations.

d) Personnel & Competence Appointment of key safety personnel, withdefined competence requirements. Sufficient resources to manage andoperate an effective SMS.

e) Safety Communications A range and hierarchy of safety communicationprocesses to enable an effective, two way flow of safety informationthroughout the company.

f) Safety Reporting & Investigation Safety reporting procedures coveringregulatory required reports and lower level incidents and occurrences and an

investigation process to generate and follow to closure, internalrecommendations.


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g) Management of Change A defined procedure to manage the risksassociated with significant change related to aircraft operations, including keypersonnel.

h) Hazard/Risk Management See section 3.4 for more detail.i) Quality Assurance (QA) An internal process focused on providing

confidence that the risk controls specified through regulation, companyoperating procedures and the risk management process are effective withinall flight operations, maintenance and ground operations activities. SeeSection 3.6 for more details.

j) Senior Management Review A management review process based on adefined meeting schedule, that gives senior managers visibility of the SMSactivity, in particular safety reporting, hazard management and QA issues.

6. Have the relevant elements been coordinated to ensure actions complement oneanother and support the effectiveness of the whole SMS? (Section 3.3.A)

7. Does the contracted operator conduct and communicate regularly scheduled safetymeetings, not less that quarterly? (Section 3.3.B)

8. Does the contracted operator conduct informal post-flight debriefings bycrewmember? (Section 3.3.C)

9. Does the contracted operators SMS apply to flight operations, maintenance andfacilities, as well as any other areas deemed appropriate by the operator? (Section

3.3.D)

3.4 Hazard/risk management process

10. Does the contracted operator maintain hazard/risk management process thatcontains the elements identified in section 3.4.A? (Section 3.4.A)

11. Does the Hazard/ Risk management process identify and address both generic,mission specific and location specific hazards? (Section 3.4.A)

12. Are the hazards recorded in a format that shows the risk assessment score assigned

to each hazard? (Section 3.4.A)

13. Are the hazards recorded in a format that links the hazards to specific (bowtie)recovery measures? (Section 3.4.A)

14. Are the hazards recorded in a format that provides a document reference for thecontrol and recovery measures? (Section 3.4.A)

15. Are the hazards recorded in a format that assigns a responsible individual to eachcontrol? (Section 3.4.A)

16. Is the Hazard/Risk Management process demonstrably linked to the operators Safety

Reporting and Investigation process, its Management of Change process, and to theQA function? (Section 3.4.A)


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24. Does the QA system have an internal evaluation/audit programme encompassing allsafety and quality critical activities within flight operations, ground operations andmaintenance. (Section 3.6)

25. Does the QA system include the auditing of processes, procedures, documentation,training and records. (Section 3.6)

26. Are Audit activities scheduled and conducted at planned intervals that establishconformity with regulatory and management system requirements?(Section 3.6)

27. Are the results of previous audits, including the implementation and effectiveness ofcorrective action, included within the scope of the program?(Section 3.6)

28. Is the internal audit program managed at the local operational level? (Section 3.6)

29. Is the internal audit program subject to periodic management review?(Section 3.6)

30. Are the QA departmental procedures, duties, responsibilities and reportingrelationships described in the Operations Manual, Maintenance manual or a separateQA manual?(Section 3.6)

3.7 Environmental management

31. Is the contracted operator at all times compliant with local and/or national regulatoryrequirements related to Environmental management controls? (Section 3.7)

32. Does the operator have an effective procedure to effectively manage the hazard ofaircraft noise? (Section 3.7)


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Section 4 Aircraft Operations General

4.3 Pilots

4.3.1 Qualifications and experience levels

1. When pilots do not meet the recommended flying experience and qualificationsdetailed Appendix 5A, is there a mechanism to obtain a dispensation providingmitigating factors in place? (Section 4.3.1.A)

2. When dispensation is requested, are full details of an individuals experience andqualifications under the headings shown in the tables submitted to the Aviation

Advisor for assessment and consideration prior to agreeing or otherwise such adispensation? (Section 4.3.1.A)

3. Has the guidance of the Aviation Advisor been sought to ensure the validity ofcaptaincy under supervision, or P1 U/S as it is sometimes called, to count towardscaptaincy time, usually counting as half captaincy time. Before such an arrangementcan be agreed during the progression of a co-pilot towards captaincy? (Section4.3.1.A)

4. Does the contracted operator use only crewmembers who meet the experience andqualifications outlined in the OGP AMG, Appendix 5A? (Section 4.3.1.B)

5. If using Appendices 5B and 5C in the OGP AMG, has deviation been obtained usingthe deviation process outlined in GDP 0.0-0001? (Section 4.3.1.C)

4.3.2 Alternative to OGP recommended experience levels

6. If an approved operators competency based training management system is used asan alternative to pilot experience levels how are the following conditions met?(Section 4.3.2)

a) Establishment of a formal modular competency based progression schemebased on guidance in Appendix 5B and 5C.

b) Inclusion of ATPL Theory examination and elements for role specific training.c) Use of an in depth audit of the operators training system that addresses

specified topics.d) Use of an Aviation Advisor audit plan.e) Provisions for addressing total time on type for new aircraft, as applicable.f) Conditions for competency based training management system.

4.3.3 Use of freelance pilots

7. If the freelancers time between engagements exceeds time between required OPCs,has the training programme applicable to all company pilots been applied? (Section

4.3.3.A)


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8. Has the freelance pilots competence and suitability been formally endorsed by thesenior management of the contracted company? (Section 4.3.3.A)

4.3.4 pilots flying more than one aircraft type

9. Are pilots prohibited from flying more than one type or variant during any duty day?(Section 4.3.4)

4.3.5 Medicals

10. Do all pilots hold a valid medical certificate? (Section 4.3.5)

11. Does the maximum interval between examinations exceed 12 months? (Section4.3.5)

4.3.6 Payroll/salary

12. Are Aircrew personnel remunerated on the basis of hours or miles flown? (Section4.3.6)

4.4 Maintenance personnel

4.4.1 Qualifications

13. Does the contracted operator only use maintenance personnel who meet theexperience and qualifications outlined in the OGP AMG, Appendix 5D1-3, whencontracted for aviation services that are in scope of GDP 3.7-0001? (Section 4.4.1)

4.4.2 Experience levels

14. If the contracted operator employs a mix of licenced and unlicensed or recentlylicenced personnel, is the proportion of personnel having Certificate of Release toService (CRS) privileges to others, sufficiently high to ensure adequate supervision

of work is provided at all times? (Section 4.4.2.1)

15. Is there a documented maintenance personnel training plan? (Section 4.4.2.2.a)

16. Does the plan include formal training? (basic educational qualifications for entry intoregulator approved maintenance training course(s) in respect of the licensecategories desired). (Section 4.4.2.2.a)

17. Is the training provided by an approved training organisation? (Section 4.4.2.2.a)

18. Is there a relevant and adequately supervised On-the-job training program? (Section4.4.2.2.b)


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4.4.3 Avoidance of fatigue in maintenance personnel

19. Have the following been applied to all engineering staff?

a) Total work periods do not exceed 12 hours in a 24 hour period? (Section4.4.3.1)

b) If necessary, does the Head of Maintenance approve work period extensionson a case-by-case basis? (Section 4.4.3.1)

c) If night maintenance is necessary, is the bulk of work completed by the shiftson duty up to midnight, with the residue completed by a swing shift coveringthe period from approximately 2300 to 0700 hours? (Section 4.4.3.2)

d) Is each work shift followed by a minimum 8 hour rest period? (Section 4.4.3.3)

e) If working a working a 24-hour split shift on line operations, is at least 6 hoursrest provided excluding travel? (Section 4.4.3.3)f) Is entitlement for days off a minimum of 7 per month of which at least 4 in a

minimum of 2-day periods? (Section 4.4.3.3)g) When the location or climate is arduous has this been increased to minimize

fatigue? (Section 4.4.3.3)h) Has the time on site, time off site routine been set up to ensure that

maintenance personnel working under these conditions do not stay in the fieldfor prolonged periods in locations such as seismic camps, where it is notfeasible to provide other than the bare accommodation necessities? (Section4.4.3.4)

4.5 Maintenance requirements

4.5.1 Quality assurance and quality control

20. Are aircraft operated on a BP contract maintained in accordance with a maintenanceprogram approved by the national legislative authority? (Section 4.5.1.A)

21. If an aircraft has been repaired following an accident, has it been repaired oroverhauled to Original Equipment Manufacturers (OEM) specifications? (Section4.5.1.B)

4.5.2 Requirement for duplicate inspections/required inspection items (RII)

22. Does the contracted operator have a duplicate inspections/Required Inspection Items(RII) programme applicable to all aircraft? (Section 4.5.2.B)

23. Does the operator contract require duplicate inspections? (Section 4.5.2.B)

24. When away from main operating &/or maintenance bases are pilots utilized for RII?If yes, is this procedure documented in the MPM? (Section 4.5.2.B)

25. Does the contracted operator utilize pilots to perform inspection duties? (Section4.5.2.B)


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4.5.3 Aircraft Minimum Equipment List (MEL)

Do flight crews and maintenance personnel have an aircraft Minimum Equipment List(MEL) or Minimum Departure Standard (MDS) for the appropriate aircraft typeavailable for reference? (Section 4.5.3)

26. Has the MEL been approved by the local airworthiness authority? (Section 4.5.3)

4.6 Drugs and alcohol policy

27. Does the contracted operator and sub-contractors have a formally documented policyon the use/abuse of alcohol, medical drugs and narcotic? (Section 4.6)

28. Does the contracted operator give guidance to staff on which commonly availablemedical drugs, prescribed or otherwise, may impair an individuals ability to performin the cockpit or workplace? (Section 4.6)

29. Does the contracted operator comply with National legislation/ guidelines regardingdrugs and alcohol? (Section 4.6)


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Section 5 Helicopter Operations

5.1 Helicopter standards

1. Has the BP Entity in consultation with the EAA assessed the aircraft equipment fitlisted in OGP AMG appendix 7 and 10, and any other equipment required for theoperational area of the aircraft to produce an aircraft specification for the contract?(Section 5.1.1.A)

2. Has this assessment been approved by the SAA? (Section 5.1.1.B)

3. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with the M and R, minimum andrecommended equipment as noted in the AMG Appendix 7? (Section 5.1.1.C)

4. Has, new technology that provides an equivalent capability and functionality, for aparticular system, been approved for use following a risk assessment? (Section5.1.1.D)

5. Are piston-powered aircraft prohibited from carrying passengers? (Section 5.1.2)

6. Are Multi-engine helicopters capable of sustaining a 1% net climb gradient at orabove the lowest safe altitude with One Engine Inoperative (OEI) being used?(Section 5.1.3.A)

7. Has the BP entity contracted for twin-engine turbine powered helicopters that areequipped and currently certified to operate in instrument meteorological conditions?(Section 5.1.3.B)

8. Has the BP entity contracted for two pilots who are current and certified to operatethe helicopter in instrument meteorological conditions? (Section 5.1.3.C)

9. Are all of the following prohibited under the GDP 3.7-0001:

a) Multi-engine helicopters without single-engine climb performance. (Section5.1.4.A)

b) Single-engine helicopters. (Section 5.1.4.B)c) Single pilot operated helicopters. (Section 5.1.4.C)

10. Has a Risk Assessment been completed to determine if exposure suits are to beworn if the sea temperature is less than 10C? (Section 5.1.5)

5.2 Helicopter performance classes

11. If the contracted operator is using Performance Class 2 helicopters, has theoperation demonstrated, either separately, or as part of its Safety Case that theprobability of power unit failure during the exposure time at take-off and landing from

elevated helidecks is no greater than 5x10

-8

per take-off or landing? (Section 5.2)


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5.3 Fuel planning

12. For IFR operations, does the contracted operator plan a fuel reserve to be sufficientfor the leg to the destination, plus the leg to an alternate plus 10% trip fuel plus 30minutes with an allowance for start-up and taxi? (Section 5.3.1)

13. Is this fuel computation, to the alternate, calculated at the low altitude cruise fuelconsumption? (Section 5.3.1)

14. For VFR operations, does the contracted operator plan a fuel sufficient for theproposed route plus 30 minutes at the cruising speed consumption with an allowancemade for start-up and taxi? (Section 5.3.2)

5.4 Use of offshore alternates

15. Has the BP entity conducted a Risk Assessment for Use of offshore alternates andput in place mitigations to identified risks? (Section 5.4.A.1 and 5.4.A.2)

16. Has this Risk Assessment and mitigation plan been agreed by the EAA? (Section5.4.B)

17. Are the following conditions met regarding the use of offshore alternates? (Section5.4.B)

a) An offshore alternate shallbe used only after a Point of No Return (PNR).Prior to PNR, onshore alternates shallbe used.

b) One engine inoperative landing capability shallbe attainable at the alternate.c) Deck availability shall be guaranteed. The dimensions, configuration and

obstacle clearance of individual helidecks or other sites shallbe assessed inorder to establish operational suitability for use as an alternate by eachhelicopter type proposed to be used.

d) Weather minima shall be established taking accuracy and reliability ofmeteorological information into account.

e) The helicopter Minimum Equipment List shallreflect essential requirementsfor this type of operation.

f) An offshore alternate shall notbe selected unless the operator has publisheda procedure in the Operations Manual approved or accepted by the regulatoryAuthority.

5.6 Flight and duty time

18. Unless more stringent limits are imposed by regulatory authorities, are the limitslisted in the guide applied for both flight and duty time? (Section 5.6.1)

19. Do the pilotss flight and duty time, including time that might be flown in support ofother companies/customers exceed? (Section 5.6.3)

a) 10 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period.b) 60 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.


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c) 120 hours in any 28 consecutive day period.d) 1,200 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.

20. Does the contracted operator schedule rotating crews to duty upon their arrival to thebase of operation after prolonged travel flights? (Section 5.6.5)

21. After a prolonged travel flight as a minimum are the requirements of paragraph 5.6.4met? (Section 5.6.5)

5.7 Offshore helicopter life jackets and aircraft homing devices

22. Are constant wear life jackets worn for all offshore operations? (Section 5.7.A)

23. Do flight crew constant wear life jackets have homing devices with voice capabilityand GPS? (Section 5.7.B)

5.8 Rotors running refueling/helicopter rapid refueling

24. For Rotors Running Refueling (RRRF) has the contracted operator conducted a riskassessment and completed risk mitigations for the following? (Section 5.8.B)

a) Need for RRRF.b) Procedures to be used.

c) Emergency planning.

25. When rotors running refuelling is authorised for both on and offshore operations, are,local management made aware of the additional risks involved and seek the OGPMembers Aviation Advisor advice, giving sufficient notice for comment or to renderpractical assistance? (Section 5.8.B)

26. If it is an operational requirement to carry out rotors running refuelling does theoperator ensure that there are written procedures and stipulate that all staff involvedhave formal training? (Section 5.8.B)

5.11 Specialist roles

27. Are only approved helicopter types, operated by Contractors approved by the OGPMembers Aviation Advisor, used in support of seismic operations? (Section 5.11.1)

28. Are winching operations, including training, only undertaken when judgedoperationally essential, and then strictly in accordance with specified procedures?(Section 5.11.2)

29. Are twin-engine helicopters always used for winch operations? (Section 5.11.2)

30. Is Out of Ground Effect (OGE) hover capability used at all stages of the operation

other than for actual lifesaving use? (Section 5.11.2)


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31. Are Marine support operations e.g. ship pilot transfer conducted in accordance withthe recommendation of the International Chamber of Shipping Guide?(Section5.11.2)

32. Is training for winch operations always conducted with full single-engine hovercapabilities at the operator-designated heights ASL/ AGL? (Section 5.11.2)


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Section 6 Fixed Wing Operations public transport and aerial work

6.1 Fixed-wing aircraft standards

1. Has the entity in conjunction with the EAA assessed the aircraft equipment fit listed inthe OMG AMG Appendix 7 and other equipment required for the operational area ofthe aircraft to produce an aircraft specification for the contract? (Section 6.1.1.A)

2. Has the assessment been approved by the SAA? (Section 6.1.1.B)

3. If new technology exists that provides an equivalent capability and functionality, for aparticular system, has the new technology been approved for use by the SAAfollowing a risk assessment? (Section 6.1.1.C)

4. Does the contracted operator utilize multi-engine aircraft that are capable ofsustaining a 1% net climb gradient at or above the lowest safe altitude with OneEngine Inoperative (OEI)? (Section 6.1.3.A)

5. Does the contracted operator utilize twin-engine turbine powered aeroplanes that areequipped and currently certified to operate in instrument meteorological conditions?(Section 6.1.3.B)

6. Does the entity contract for two pilots who are current and certified to operate the

aeroplane in instrument meteorological conditions. (Section 6.1.3.C)

7. Are multi engine aeroplanes without single engine performance prohibited? (Section6.1.4)

8. Are piston powered multi engine aeroplanes prohibited? (Section 6.1.5)

6.2 Airfields

9. Does the contracted operator have a risk assessment in place in consultation withthe BP entity for airfields or field landing strips, other than those certified by theNational Aviation Authority (NAA)? (Section 6.2.B)

10. Does the contracted operator have mitigation measures to address the identifiedrisks for airfields or field landing strips, other than those certified by the NationalAviation Authority (NAA)? (Section 6.2.C)

6.3 Fuel planning

11. Is the contracted operators IFR fuel planning sufficient for the leg to destination plusthe leg to an alternate, plus 10% of the above as a navigation contingency, plus 45minutes holding fuel (30 minutes for turbine aircraft) with a contingency allowed forstart-up and taxi? (Section 6.3.1)


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12. Is the contracted operators VFR fuel planning sufficient for the proposed route plus10% of the route fuel, plus 30 minutes at the cruising speed consumption? (Section6.3.2)

6.4 Composition of flight crew

13. Are single pilots prohibited on BP flights? (Section 6.4)

6.5 Flying hour limits recommended maximum

14. Does the contracted operator utilize augmented crews on transoceanic or long-range

flights within national regulations? (Section 6.5.B)

15. Unless more stringent flying time, total hours of duty and mandatory restrequirements are imposed by regulatory authorities, are the limits listed in this guideapplicable to both flight and duty time? (Section 5.6.1)

16. Do pilots flight and duty times exceed? (Section 5.6.3)

Single Pilot8 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period.35 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.100 hours in any 28 consecutive day period.1,000 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.

Dual pilot10 hours daily flight time constitutes a flight period.45 hours in any 7 consecutive day period.120 hours in any 28 consecutive day period.1,200 hours in any 365 consecutive day period.

17. Does the contracted operator schedule rotating crews to duty upon their arrival to thebase of operation after prolonged travel flights? (Section 5.6.5)

18. After a day duty period, does each pilot have a minimum of 12 hours rest? (Section5.6.6)


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Section 7 Fuel system design and management

7.1 Design, operation & inspection references

1. Does the contracted operator use National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 407and/or UK CAP 437 for design/inspection/operational considerations andconstruction or major rework of existing airbases where no local guidance exists?(Section 7.1.B.2)

7.2 Design & periodic review

2. Has the Aviation Advisor been incorporated into all preliminary and critical designprocesses for BP airbase refuelling system construction or modifications? (Section7.2)

3. Has the Aviation Advisor or appropriate regulatory authority conducted an annualsafety, technical and quality assurance reviews of all fuel and supporting firesuppression systems, including those provided by airports or fixed base operators?(Section 7.2)

4. Has the contracted operator conducted six month safety, technical and qualityassurance reviews of all fuel and supporting fire suppression systems, includingthose provided by airports or fixed base operators? Are these reviews documented

and any remedial actions taken? (Section 7.2)

7.3 Variances

5. Are any variances to requirements covered by the deviation process? (Section 7.3)

7.4 Fuel quality control

6. Are All fuel delivery systems fitted with filtration capable of the water blocking (Go-No-Go) type meeting the specifications of API 1583, which locks fuel flow when wateris present? (Section 7.4.1)

7. Are the fuel filter canisters clearly marked with the next date of change or inspectioncycle, and data recorded in an appropriate inspection record? (Section 7.4.1)

8. Are all filters replaced at nominated pressure differentials annotated asrecommended by the manufacturer, but as a minimum annually? (Section 7.4.1)

9. Are all fuel storage supplies, including drums, allowed to settle 1 hour for each 1 footof fuel depth after the tanks have been resupplied or barrels moved to vertical, beforesamples are taken and fuel is approved for use? (Section 7.4.1)

10. Are sign(s) placed on the tank(s) during settling, indicating the time at which the

tank(s) can be used (settling is complete)? (Section 7.4.1)


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11. Are all steel tanks lined with an approved epoxy liner unless the tanks areconstructed of stainless steel? (Section 7.4.1)

12. Are all fuel supply tanks installed with a slope and have a sump drain at the tank lowpoint for sampling purposes? (Section 7.4.1)

13. Are all fuel supply tanks equipped with a fuel quantity sight gauge? (Section 7.4.1)

14. Have all personnel involved in fuelling aircraft received formal documented initial andrecurrent training for refuelling aircraft? (Section 7.4.1)

15. Are the below listed fuel samples retained in a clear jar with a screw top, each tested

for water and marked with the sample source until flights are completed for the day?(Section 7.4.2)

a) Aircraft fuel tank sumps drained and sampled into one container prior to thefirst flight of each day ( litre minimum sample size, unless specifieddifferently by the airframe or water detection device manufacturer).Each fueltank sump (2.0 litres).

b) Each fuel filter and monitor (2.0 litres).c) Each fuel nozzle, prior to first refuelling of the day (2.0 litres).

16. Is fuel going into transport fuel tanks certified and has a water test been completed?(Section 7.4.2)

17. Is fuel that does not pass the water test or is not certified, rejected for use? (Section7.4.2)

18. Does the fuel quality control system contain as a minimum guide and a daily logrecord the following items (Section 7.4.3)

a) The age and delivery date of storage fuel.b) Sample and water test results from the fuel tank sumps, all filters and

monitors, and all fuel nozzles.c) Differential pressure readings.d) Fuel Filter changes annual as a minimum.

e) Certification of fuel, accompanied by a Certificate of Release. Has the fuelbeen sampled, visually inspected for appearance and contaminates,chemically tested for water and measured for density, before delivery intostorage tanks. Maximum variance of the density compared to the density onthe Certificate of Release not in excess of 0.003?

19. Are the interior of all tanks, tank seals, and pressure relief valves inspected on anannual basis? (Section 7.4.3)

20. Are all gauges/ pressure relief valves calibrated annually unless the manufacturerspecifies differently? (Section 7.4.3)

21. Has the primary supply tank(s) and several mobile tanks (if used) been tested formicrobe growth as noted below? (Section 7.4.3)


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Microbe growth testinga) Initial testing to establish normal microbe level: adopt a random routine

testing of a few tanks on a quarterly basis.b) Long-term testing: once the normal microbe level is established as noted

above, it is recommended that fuel supplies be tested on a six-month interval.c) Fuel quality indicators: if any contra-indications from tank drains are apparent,

such as dark coloured (brown, black) water, sulphide smells, water and fuelwith a frothy or lacy interface, immediately conduct a test, as these stronglyindicate microbial activity within the recent time span.

22. If the microbe growth test is positive, as use of the affected tank(s) suspended and

the following protocol followed.

Microbe growth treatmenta) Bulk or transport tanks: fuel tank cleaning including disinfecting the tank

surfaces with Chlorex bleach (or equivalent) followed by fresh water rinsing,inspect and replace all downstream contaminated filter elements.

b) Aircraft tanks and filters: filters replaced and tanks drained and cleanedfollowing the manufacturer recommendations.

c) Use of microbes treatments: any microbe treatments, such as BioBar orequivalent being used with caution and the aircraft manufacturer contacted todetermine is use of such treatments are allowed for that model aircrafts fuel.

23. Once the protocol has been followed, is a repeat microbe presence test thencompleted?

24. Are the following precautions in place that involve the use and storage of drummedfuel? (Section 7.4.4)

a) Drums are tight with no broken seals prior to use.b) Drum stock consumed within 12 months of packaging date.c) Drums are stored with the bungs horizontally at the 9 and 3 oclock positions,

with the bung end tilted slightly lower than the opposite end (non-opening), toprevent moisture/rust formation inside the bung end of the barrel.

d) Each drum of fuel sampled and tested with water detector capsules or anapproved paste to confirm no water contamination is present and visuallyinspected for proper colour and contaminates.

e) Pumps used for drum refuelling equipped with water blocking filtrationsystem.

f) Pump standpipes extend no closer than 50mm (2 inches) of the drum bottom.g) Before fuelling the aircraft, a small amount of fuel pumped into a container to

remove any contaminants from the hose and nozzle.h) The standard marking for a contaminated drum is an X marked on the bung

end.

7.5 Rapid refuelling (refuelling with engines running)

25. Is there an operational requirement to conduct rapid refuelling? (Section 7.5.1)


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26. Has the contracted operators management approved the specific circumstances inwhich rapid refuelling may be conducted? (Section 7.5.1)

27. Does the contracted operators Operations Manual include written procedures to befollowed for the refuelling operation? (Section 7.5.1)

28. Have the aircrew and ground support staff completed the Operators trainingprogramme before refuelling is considered? (Section 7.5.1)

29. In addition to any local regulatory requirements, are the following minimal guidelinesbe used for rapid refuelling? (Section 7.5.2)

a) A pilot shall remain at the controls at all times.b) A minimum of three individuals are required for the refuelling operation, one

for refuelling, one for pump shut-off, and one for fire watch (with appropriateextinguisher).

c) Passengers are to disembark prior to the refuelling operation commencing.d) If for safety reasons the Pilot-in-Command decides to refuel with the

passengers on-board the aircraft, are the passengers informed of thisdecision and actions to take in the event of a fire?

e) Are all seat belts opened, the main exit door away from the side whererefuelling is occurring be opened, and no smoking allowed?

f) Are all radios and all anti-collision lights, radar, radio altimeter, transponder

and DME equipment be switched OFF?g) Prior to removing the fuel cap and inserting the fuel nozzle into the aircraft

fuel tank are grounding wires running from the fuel station and from the fuelhose to the aircraft be connected?

h) Does the Pilot-in-Command verify that all equipment is removed, the fuel caphas been securely replaced and the aircraft is properly configured for flightwhen the fueling procedure is completed?

7.6 Portable offshore fuel transport tanks

30. On portable offshore fuel transport tanks, does the data plate on the transporter tank

state the test pressure requirement? (Section 7.6.1)

31. Is the tank within the 5 year hydrostatic test date? (Section 7.6.1)

32. Is the pressure relief valve tested annually? (Section 7.6.1)

33. Does the 12 month inspection include the following? (Section 7.6.1)

a) Check for build-up of sediment or evidence of microbial growth.b) If inspection reveals such growth or build-up of sediment exceeding 1/10 of

the area of the tank bottom surface, has cleaning been accomplished?c) If the tank has an internal epoxy coating, inspect coating for evidence of

chipping, flaking, or other deterioration?


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34. Are jet fuel tanks cleaned with high pressure water or steam only? (Section 7.6.1)

35. Are solvents, chemicals or detergents used to clean tanks? (Section 7.6.1)

36. Are the dates indicating the inspection/test dates stenciled on the tank? (Section7.6.1)


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Section 8 Training and Experience

8.1 Flight crew training

1. Does the contracted operator conduct flight crew training in a Synthetic TrainingDevice (STD) that replicates the model of aircraft being flown as closely as possible?(Section 8.1.2)

2. Do the contracted operators pilots flying on a BP contract attend flight simulatortraining every 12 months? (Note: This interval may be extended to 14 months toaccommodate scheduling issues). (Section 8.1.2.2)

3. Does the content of the contracted operators Integrated Structured Training programconform to the requirements of Appendix 5A and 5C? (Section 8.1.2.3)

4. Does the contracted operators Integrated Structured Training program include STDTraining? (Section 8.1.2.3)

5. Does the contracted operators Integrated Structured Training program include aminimum of 25% in the simulator and 25% in the actual aircraft? (Section 8.1.2.3)

6. Do all contracted pilots receive annual recurrent training to the standards ofappropriate civil aviation authorities, and flight checks at not less than a frequency ofevery six months for long-term operations? (Section 8.1.3)

7. Do these checks include an annual instrument rating proficiency check/ renewal(where applicable), a proficiency check (including emergency drills) and an annualroute check? (Section 8.1.3)

8. Do all crewmembers receive as a minimum a documented Line Check, whichincludes an orientation of local procedures/ policies before being scheduled for flightduties in a new location? (Section 8.1.3)

9. Does the contracted operator have an acceptable crew resource management(CRM) training programme for all two pilot operations in airplanes? (Section 8.1.4)

10. Does the contracted operator have a Dangerous Goods Awareness training programfor all pilots to ensure that they are aware of the requirements for the carriage ofhazardous materials including relevant legislation, limitations and documentation?(Section 8.1.5)

11. Does the contracted operator utilize ICUS, PICUS, or P1US, for the gaining of pilotcommand time? (Section 8.1.6)

12. Is the ICUS, PICUS, or P1US flight time logged while flying in the Captainsdesignated position? (i.e. RHS for RW and LHS for FW) (Section 8.1.6)

13. Are pilot training records and the pilots personal log books maintained documentingeach flight performed? (Section 8.1.6)


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14. Does the contracted operator have a written ICUS training program establishing thesyllabus and progression program? (Section 8.1.6)

15. Does the contracted operator have an established, appropriate training programwhere there is a requirement to carry out routine (or emergency) flights at night?(Section 8.1.7)

16. Does the contracted operator only use dual pilot crews and are both pilots qualifiedand hold a current instrument rating for the helicopter type being flown? (Section8.1.7)

17. Does the contracted operator, for night operations, utilize Captains that, in the

addition to the requirements specified in Appendix 5 of this guide, have the followingqualifications? (Section 8.1.7)

a) Minimum of 25 hours of night offshore time.b) Completed within the last 12 months initial or recurrent offshore night/ IFR/

CRM/ deck landing proficiency training.

18. Does the contracted operator have all pilots maintain night/ instrument recency of 3offshore approaches and departures, including takeoff and landing, every 90 days?(Section 8.1.7)

19. Is HUET training conducted to the OPITO standard or equivalent? (Section 8.1.8)

20. Does the contracted operator complete HUET using an underwater escape simulatorfor all aircrew and frequent flying offshore passengers at intervals not to exceed 4years if engaged in floatplane or offshore helicopter operations? (Section 8.1.8)

21. Is this training completed in conjunction with wet dingy drills using emergencyequipment similar to that installed on the aircraft? (Section 8.1.8)

22. Is the training scheduled for a minimum of one day? (Section 8.1.8)

23. Do the HUET training facilities have emergency exit mechanisms representative ofthe aircraft flown in offshore or water borne operations? (Section 8.1.8)

24. Where required by the BP, does the HUET also include training in the use of a re-breather self-breathing device or other emergency air devices? (Section 8.1.8)

25. Has a risk assessment been conducted to determine the need for such breathingdevices? (Section 8.1.8)

26. Is there a documented record of the HEUT trained personnel? (Section 8.1.8)

27. Are single pilot operations not permitted? (Section 8.1.9)

28. If external load operations are likely to be required, has this been specified in thecontract? (Section 8.1.10)


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29. Have the pilots nominated for external load work had a competence check formallysigned off by a designated check and training captain? (Section 8.1.10)

30. Do the Pilots have 300 hours of external load experience, or 300 hours of long-lining,whichever is applicable? (Section 8.1.10)

31. Was a competency recheck completed during Visual Base Check procedures or anExternal Load Competence Check (unless at least 10 hours of practical applicationhas been achieved in the preceding six months)? (Section 8.1.10)

32. Do the contracted operator conducting spraying operations, for example in support ofoffshore oil spill response, have a written syllabus for conversion and recurrent

training of aircrew engaged in spraying? (Section 8.1.10)

33. Has spray training and recency requirements been assessed by the BPs AviationAdvisor? (Section 8.1.10)

34. Have the contracted operators Pilots completed a formal and recorded trainingscheme, plus a minimum of 10 hours of winching operations (50 hours where anexclusive SAR contract exists)? (Section 8.1.10)

35. Does the recurrent winch training include a minimum of three winch rescueoperations every 90 days utilizing a winch operator and the recovery of equipmentsuch as a cruciform by grappling hook? (Section 8.1.10)

36. Have all contracted winch operators, whether full or part time met the following?(Section 8.1.10)

a) Is an employee or direct contractor of the helicopter operator?b) Have completed a formal and recorded training scheme specifically for

winchmen, including the following items? Basic weight and balance. Aircraft safety and survival equipment. Emergency procedures to include winch problems, fouling of the cable,

severing of the cable, use of bolt croppers etc. Technical details of winch operation.

First-Aid and cold water recovery techniques including cold shock andhypothermia.

Wet dinghy drill. Search & Rescue/coastguard local organization.

37. Has the wet and dry winching practical instruction included at least twenty lifts as thewinch operator and twenty lifts as the winchman, and have completed recurrenttraining every 90 days to include an aircraft safety and survival check? (Section81.10)

38. Does the training include over water training for pilots and crewmen to practice the

approach and lower into position in reduced visual reference conditions? (Section8.1.10)


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39. Does the contracted operator carry out recency checks for all pilots after 28 or moredays absence from flying? (Section 8.1.11)

8.2 Support and technical personnel requirements

40. Do the contracted operators technical and support personnel such as licenced/unlicenced engineers, loadmasters, and dispatchers, helideck attendants, aerialobservers, cabin crew and radio operators meet the minimum qualification andexperience requirements presented in Appendix 5D1-3? (Section 8.2)

41. Does the aircraft operator provide formal, general and type training for its certifying

maintenance staff to meet the minimum requirements of Section 4.4 and Appendix5D in countries where this is not required by the national licensing authority to belicensed or type approved? (Section 8.2.1.1)

42. Does the contracted operator conduct continuation/ recurrent training at a minimumperiod of every three-years for maintenance personnel? (Section 8.2.1.2)

43. Does this training include but not be limited to the following? (Section 8.2.1.2)

a) Changes in relevant regulatory requirements.b) Organization procedures.c) The standard for the products being maintained.d) Human factors issues identified from any internal or external analyses of

incidents.e) Information on relevant airworthiness directives/bulletins or similar documents

issues since the last training session.

44. Have personnel engaged on helideck related duties been provided with training thatincludes the provisions of the OPITO Training Guide and the experience as shown inAppendix 5D1-3? (Section 8.2.2)

45. Have refueling personnel completed a formal training course at an approved/recommended training facility? (Section 8.2.3)

46. Do controllers undertake formal training in handling and recording radiotransmissions and any actions that may be required for normal and emergencyoperations? (Section 8.2.4)

47. Is there a log of air traffic control radio transmissions? (Section 8.2.4)

48. Are the contracted operators radio operators VHF/ HF licensed, where applicable?(Section 8.2.5)

49. Are all communications and radio logs in the English language? (Section 8.2.5)


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50. When certified weather observers are required for operations under IFR or nightconditions, do the observers attend periodic training to maintain certification inaccordance with local requirements? (Section 8.2.6)

51. Have the contracted operators cabin attendants completed a formal and recordedcourse of training which includes coverage of the following items: (Section 8.2.7)

a) Safety Equipment.b) First Aid.c) Aircraft knowledge.d) Emergency Procedures.e) Loading Procedures.

f) Documentation and the Handling of Dangerous Goods.

52. Is cabin attendant training carried out annually? (Section 8.2.7)

53. Is cabin attendant training recorded formally and a syllabus available for reference?(Section 8.2.7)

54. Does cabin attendants training include the full range of Emergency & Survivaltraining as completed by pilots? (Section 8.2.7)

55. Are dispatchers / traffic clerks completely familiar with the operation of aeroplanes orhelicopters? (Section 8.2.8)

56. Do dispatchers/traffic clerks have a good understanding of basic weight and balanceproblems and manifest documentation? (Section 8.2.8)

57. Are load masters provided with the same basic training as that of the crew andgiven crew status? (Section 8.2.9)

58. Are the load masters trained for load and balance on the aircraft type in use?(Section8.2.9)

8.3 Training records and programmes

59. Does the aircraft operator maintain comprehensive training documentation includingdetails of training programmes and frequency and individual records per person?(Section 8.3)

60. Has the aircraft operator provided the following to the OGP member for long term orsole use contracts: (Section 8.3)

a) A list of personnel that meet the OGP members requirements?b) Details of personnel changes with review and acceptance by the OGP

members aviation advisor?

61. Has the training records been reviewed periodically by the OGP members aviationadvisor? (Section 8.3)


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Section 9 Passengers and Freight

9.1 General

1. Does the contracted operator prohibit smoking on on-board all aircraft? (Section9.1.1)

2. Are personnel not under medical supervision allowed to board an aircraft under theinfluence of alcohol or drugs? (Section 9.1.2)

3. Does the contracted operators pilot in command (PIC) verify that fuel and oilrequirements are correct, and weight and centre of gravity limits of the aircraft have

been calculated and within the limits for flight prior to take-off? (Section 9.1.4)

9.2 Cargo

4. Do cargo only contracted operators carry passengers? (Section 9.2)

5. Does the contracted operator verify the contents of each piece of cargo offered fortransport by air? (Section 9.2.1)

6. Is all cargo weighed separately and manifested? (Section 9.2.1)

7. If cargo is permitted on passenger-carrying flights is it either In a designated cargocompartment and/ or tied down with inspected and tracked cargo restraints?(Section 9.2.2.A)

8. When cargo is inside the passenger cabin, does the cargo impede access toemergency exits? (Section 9.2.2.B)

9. In those cases where freight is carried in the passenger compartment, is a riskassessment completed? (Section 9.2.2.C)

10. In those cases where freight is carried in the passenger compartment, are actions putin place to mitigate any risk? (Section 9.2.2.C)

11. Is loose paper or mail carried in a weighted bag and not loaded as a loose item?(Section 9.2.2.D)

12. Does the contracted operator provide pilots with guidance regarding all aspects oftransporting dangerous goods? (Section 9.2.3)

13. Are these instructions contrary to any pertinent regulatory documents? (Section9.2.3)

14. If hazardous materials are carried, is the Pilot-In-Command provided with a ShippersDeclaration of Dangerous Goods form and comply with the Operators Operations

Manual? (Section 9.2.3)


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9.3 Manifests

15. Is a passenger manifest raised by the contracted operator for each flight and havethe following minimum information recorded? (Section 9.3.1)

a) Name of each passenger.b) Passengers company affiliation.c) Passenger weight and that of personal baggage.d) Aircraft registration.e) Weight of cargo.

16. If additions or deletions occur, is the manifest revised to accurately reflect the names

of the persons on board? (Section 9.3.3)

17. Is this manifest left with or relayed to a responsible party, prior to departure, withinstructions to retain until the trip is completed? (Section 9.3.3)

18. Do designated personnel check the actual passenger names versus the pre-plannedlisting of personnel to be transported? (Section 9.3.4)

9.4 Passenger weights

19. Does the contracted operator use actual body weights (including hand carriedbaggage) for aeroplanes with a maximum gross take-off weight (MGTOW) less than5700kg? (Section 9.4.1)

20. Does the contracted operator use actual body weights (including hand carriedbaggage) for all helicopters regardless of MGTOW? (Section 9.4.1)

21. Does the contracted operator use actual weights for all checked baggage whenpreparing the manifests for all aircraft? (Section 9.4.3)

9.5 Passenger briefings

22. Does the contracted operator properly brief passengers on emergency procedures,

and other safety matters, prior to flight? (Section 9.5.1)

23. Does the contracted operator provide a briefing in the local language as well asEnglish? (Section 9.5.2)

24. Does the passenger safety briefing include, but not be limited to, the following?(Section 9.5.3)

a) A general description of the aircraft and the danger areas of jet engines, andturning propellers on aeroplanes, and the dangers of helicopter main and tailrotors.

b) Procedures for boarding and exiting the aircraft.c) Smoking is not permitted around the aircraft/tarmac area, or during flight.d) Location of non-smoking and fasten seat belt illuminating signs.


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e) Seat belts and shoulder harnesses, including the following: Location and use of seatbelts. Inversion of the seatbelt.

25. Does the passenger safety briefing include the location and operation of oxygenmasks as applicable? (Section 9.5.3)

26. Does the passenger safety briefing include means of communication between thecrew and the passengers, and actions in the event of an emergency? (Section 9.5.3)

27. Does the passenger safety briefing include the following? (Section 9.5.3)

a) Location and operation of doors, emergency exits emergency and lifesavingequipment such as fire extinguishers, first aid kit(s), life vests, life rafts,survival gear, and emergency radio equipment (ELT and EPIRBs).

b) Brace position for emergency landings.c) Passengers to remain seated until the crew/ground crew open the doors and

the captain tells them to disembark.d) Location and review of passenger briefing card. Information contained in the

briefing card shall focus on safety equipment and emergency procedures.e) Proper stowage of any hand carried items.f) Use of personal electronic devices (laptops, personal organisers, etc.) and

guidelines for use.

28. Does the briefing include the following additional points for all helicopter passengers?(Section 9.5.4)

a) Passengers shall not disembark until instructed by the pilot, Helideck LandingOfficer (HLO) (or Helideck Attendant), or other designated personnel.

b) Never approach a helicopter from the rear. Do not proceed any further aft ofthe baggage compartment door than is necessary for the retrieval of baggageor freight.

c) Always approach and leave the helicopter from the side, within view of thepilot or crewmember.

d) Hand carry hats, glasses, and caps to prevent them from being blown awayby the main rotor wash.

e) Long objects over 1 meter must be carried flat to avoid contacting the mainrotor blade.

f) Under no circumstances will passengers depart or approach a helicopter onthe up-slope (high) side when departing on slope landings.

g) Under no circumstance, depart or approach a helicopter during start-up orshutdown.

h) Passengers shall be provided hearing protection and be instructed on its use.i) Only small, soft items such as a paperback book shall be carried inside the

passenger cabin of helicopters; hard-cased items that could be missilehazards or loose items that could be blown away such as newspapers shallnot be carried.

29. Have the following additional helicopter briefing items for offshore flights beencovered? (Section 9.5.5)


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a) Passengers who have completed helicopter underwater escape training(HUET) shall sit adjacent to exits and, if possible, assist non-HUET trainedpassengers in the event of a ditching.

b) If survival suits are worn, passengers shall have suits FULLY zipped withhood on (if equipped with integral hood) during take-off and landing overwater, when flying below 500 feet over water, and as advised by the Pilot-In-Command.

c) Passengers shall be advised that in the event of an emergency landing on thewater, the helicopter shall not be evacuated until the rotor has stopped,unless instructed otherwise by the Pilot in Command.

d) Passengers shall be told not to inflate life vests until they are outside the

helicopter.e) Passengers shall be familiar with and know the location of emergencyequipment such as life rafts, and know how to jettison the emergency exits,pop out windows, and deploy the life rafts outside the helicopter.

f) Passengers shall be briefed on the proper use of reference points fororientation during the event of a rollover ditching.

g) Carriage of loose articles in the aircraft that could present Foreign ObjectDamage (FOD) risk or impede egress in the event of ditching (such asnewspapers) shall be discouraged.

h) Passengers shall be briefed on NO STEP areas.

30. For float plane operations does the briefing include the following? (Section 9.5.5)

a) All floatplane occupants shall wear an approved life vest when operating overwater.

b) Passengers shall be briefed on ditching procedures to include use ofemergency exits, use of life vests, location and use of emergency equipment.

9.6 Video briefing

31. If a video briefing is the only form of briefing, is it shown prior to each flight? (Section9.6)

32. If on long-term operations out of a fixed-base facility, is a video briefing shown topassengers periodically? (Section 9.6)

9.7 Multi-language operations

33. Does the contracted operator use international symbol graphics or multi-languagebriefing cards to convey briefing information to all passengers? (Section 9.7.2)

9.8 Passenger marshalling areas

34. Does the contracted operator have secure waiting areas designated for aircraft

passengers? (Section 9.8.1)


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35. Do these waiting areas have written and graphic material displayed relative to aircraftsafety and localised procedures? (Section 9.8.1)

36. Is there a clearly defined holding area designated for both incoming and outgoingpassengers and freight? (Section 9.8.1)

37. For offshore operations is suitable area identified to provide a safe passenger waitingarea to prevent passenger loitering at the helideck or in the helideck stairwell?(Section 9.8.2)

38. Is an area also provided for changing into/ from survival suits if worn, in order tominimise turnaround time? (Section 9.8.2)

9.10 Passenger dress requirements

39. Do passengers wear clothing and footwear, appropriate to the environment,regardless of the flight duration? (Section 9.10.1)

9.11 Passenger and cargo management on helidecks

40. Do helipad and helideck procedures include the requirement for an inspection of allequipment and items stored in the vicinity of the helipad or helideck to includeadjacent work areas and in the path of the rotor wash danger area to ensure all items

are secured prior to giving Green Deck clearance for landing? (Section 9.11.B.1)

41. Does the procedure highlight typical hazards to be considered such as crates,plywood sheets, flat plate containers, heavy mats, metal sheets or any other itemslikely to be brought into the rotor wash area during routine or non-routine operations?(Section 9.11.B.2)

42. Is there a formalized procedure established in writing and followed includingprocedures for securing the cargo left on a helideck? Has the Aviation advisorreviewed the procedure prior to implementation? (Section 9.11.1)

43. Is a Helideck Landing Officer (HLO) used to control passenger movement on

helidecks? (Section 9.11.3)

44. If a pilot control passenger movement on the helideck, is there a second pilot?(Section 9.11.3)

45. Does the pilot, when offloading or loading passengers with the rotors turning, engagein essential cockpit duties only? (Section 9.11.3)

46. Are any of the following included in essential cockpit duties? (Section 9.11.3)

a) Manifesting.b) Weight and balance calculations.c) Customer paperwork.


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9.12 Passenger seating

47. Does the contracted operator allow passengers to occupy any aircraft seat whereflight controls are installed? (Section 9.12)

48. If available do helicopter seats have? (Section 9.12)

a) A four-point harness with single release.b) Head restraint.

9.13 Survival equipment

49. Do all of the contracted aircraft carry safety equipment and survival kits that, as aminimum, comply with local civil aviation authority or regulation? (Section 9.13.1)

50. Is the capacity of each survival kit proportionate to the number of persons carried inthe aircraft? (Section 9.13.1)

51. Are all aircrew and passengers provided with inflatable life jackets approved foraircraft use for over water flights? (Section 9.13.5)

52. Do the life jackets have a survivor locator light and each life jacket stowed in a posi-tion easily accessible from the seat or berth of the person for whose use it isprovided? (Section 9.13.5)

53. Are these jackets fitted with constant wear covers, and worn at all times unlessexposure suits are equipped with integral vests for offshore helicopter flights?(Section 9.13.5)


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Section 10 Aircraft equipment standards

10.1 Introduction and equipment fit tables

1. Has the equipment specification of all aircraft that are offered for use been examinedin detail to ensure that sufficient equipment is available for the tasks on which theaircraft shallbe used? (Section 10.1.C)

2. Does the aircraft provided for services conform to the matrices for helicopters andfixed-wing aircraft at Appendix 7? (In this section information shallbe provided tohelp in addressing what equipment shallbe on board contract aircraft.) (Section10.1)

3. Listed equipment may in some cases be unserviceable and deferred (if allowed inapproved Minimum Equipment Lists (MEL)). In these cases has it been determinedwhat impact unserviceable equipment will have on contracted operations and has alimit for being out of service been set if authorized by the MEL? (Section 10.1)

4. Does the contracted operators aircraft have standardised cockpit layouts for thesame types of aircraft? (Section 10.1)

10.2 Minimum aircraft equipment - general

5. Has new technology been approved by the SAA following a risk assessment prior touse? (Section 10.2.1)

6. Does the contracted operator have an Automatically Deployable Emergency LocatorTransmitter (ADELT) or Crash Position Indicator (CPI) for offshore helicoptersinstalled? (Section 10.2.2.B)

7. Are ELTs carried on all aircraft? (Section 10.2.2)

8. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with Cockpit Voice Recorders(CVRs)? (Section 10.2.4)

9. Are all of the contracted operators aircraft equipped with Flight Data Recorders(FDRs)? (Section 10.2.5)

10. Has the EAA been referred, regarding the fitment and use of HISLs in areas of itsbenefits are uncertain? (Section 10.2.6.B)

11. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with an Enhanced Ground ProximityWarning System (EGPWS)? (Section 10.2.7.B)

12. Where EGPWS is not available for type and model of aircraft being operated, is basicGPWS used? (Section 10.2.7.C)

13. Are the contracted operators aircraft equipped with a Traffic Collision AvoidanceSystem (TCAS)? (Section 10.2.8) (Note: TCAD is not acceptable)


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25. Has the contracted operator established a written list (MEL) of HUMS/ VHM systemcomponents, and identified components that are allowed to be inoperative, and theassociated time period expressed in airframe hours? (Section 10.3.1)

26. Where helicopters are operated in Performance Class 2, with exposure time duringtake-off and landing, or in Performance Class 3, does the contracted operatoraugment VHM by a propulsion system Usage Monitoring System (UMS), where thisis not already included in HUMS? (Section 10.3.1)

27. Do the contracted operators maintenance logs provide details on inoperativevibration system components? (Section 10.3.1)

28. Does the contracted operator complete Daily assessments of HUMS/ VHM and UMSdownloads for warnings and trend analysis of the recorded data? (Section 10.3.1)

29. Are the contracted operators inspection programmes written to require verificationthat, vibration parameters are within tolerance at the beginning of a flying period, orappropriate maintenance actions are taken for exceedances before flight? (Section10.3.1)

30. Do the contracted operators offshore helicopters have externally mounted life raftswhereby the following are met? (Section 10.3.2.B)

a) Primary deployment is by single action from the normal crew positions.

b) Secondary deployment is from the passenger compartment with the cabin inan upright attitude.

c) Deployment is possible from outside the helicopter when in either an uprightor inverted attitude.

31. Are all the contracted operators life rafts equipped with an emergency radio/beacon? (Section 10.3.2.B)

32. Are all the contracted operators life rafts equipped with an approved offshoresurvival kit that is attached to the raft with a lanyard? (Section 10.3.2.B)

33. Do the contracted operators helicopters having a seat capacity for 10 or more

passengers have two life rafts; each certified for 50% overload to enable any one liferaft to be used by all occupants? (Section 10.3.2.B)

34. Do the contracted operators helicopters helicopters having a seat capacity for 9 orless passengers have a minimum of one life raft certified to carry all occupants?(Section 10.3.2.B)

35. Are all contracted operators offshore helicopters fitted with flotation gear usingAutomatic Flotation Deployment System (AFDS)? (Section 10.3.3.B)

36. Are helicopters that are operated over water capable of alighting on the surface ofthe water? (Section 10.3.3.B)


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37. Does each seat row have unobstructed access to an emergency exit? (Section10.3.4.B)

38. Are all apertures in passenger compartments suitable for the purpose of underwaterescape? (Section 10.3.4.B)

39. Are Emergency Exit Marking Systems (ie EXIS or HEEL path lighting) available onnight flights and automatically activated following the flooding of the cabin? (Section10.3.4.B)


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Section 11 Airbases

11.2 Airbase design reference

1. Have ICAO Annex 14, Volumes I & II been used as the basic reference documents inall new airbase design considerations, construction or major rework of existingairbases where no local guidance is available? (Section 11.2)

11.3 Airbase design reviews

2. Has a qualified BP Aviation Advisor participated in all preliminary and critical designreviews for Company airbase construction or modification? (Section 11.3)

3. Has the airbase in the design phase, been planned to provide a clear area for a safeapproach/departure path into prevailing winds? (Section 11.3)

4. Have all airbases and supporting facilities (fuel systems, hangars, fire suppression,passenger handling areas, etc, had periodic (minimum of annual) safety, operationaland quality assurance reviews as follows by? (Section 11.3)

a) Appropriate regulatory authority or a qualified Aviation Advisor.b) The Operator.

5. Are records of such reviews and any remedial actions taken maintained? (Section11.3)

11.4 Variances

6. Are all variations subject to the deviation process? (Section 11.4)

11.5 Weather monitoring systems

7. Are all airbases equipped with a wind indicating system that is clearly visible to thepilot and provides an indication of wind speed and direction? (Section 11.5.1)

8. Is the wind indicating system illuminated at airbases where night operations may beconducted? (Section 11.5.1)

9. Are helidecks equipped with at least one windsock positioned so as to be visible fortake-off and landings and is it located outside the obstacle free zone? (Section11.5.1)

10. Are airports, airstrips and helidecks equipped with a weather station that has thefollowing? (Section 11.5.2)

a) A temperature gauge.

b) A barometric gauge.


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c) A means of providing cloud ceiling height and visibility (either with a trainedweather observer or Automated Weather Observation System (AWOS).

d) A means of relaying this information to the helicopter pilot.

11. Do the helideck weather stations also have the following in addition to the itemsnoted above? (Section 11.5.2)

a) Ability to report sea state which estimated visually or by using wavemeasurement equipment.

b) Offshore floating facilities have a means of measuring helideck pitch, roll andheave.

12. For AWOS only stations, is there backup capability of a trained observer? (Section11.5.2)

13. For areas where IFR or night operations are conducted, does the weather stationprovide all the items above, and in addition, provide the following? (Section 11.5.3)

a) A weather observer certified via training at an approved weather observationcourse.

b) Consideration given to providing AWOS with certified weather capabilities.c) Dew point.

14. Is the weather equipment calibrated annually, or as per manufacturers

recommendations? (Section 11.5.4)

15. Is the weather equipment maintained in accordance with manufacturers instructions?(Section 11.5.4)

11.6 Airbase rescue equipment

16. Does the crash box, if required by local authority, protect all components from theelements? (Section 11.6)

17. Has an inspection schedule of the airbase rescue equipment been formulated and

periodic inspections documented? (Section 11.6)

11.7 Airbase fire protection and equipment

18. Do all airbases have a means of extinguishing a fire that is commensurate with thepotential risk? (Section 11.7)

19. Has an inspection schedule of the fire extinguishing equipment been formulated inaccordance with the manufacturers recommendations and/ or local regulations?(Section 11.7)

20. Have the periodic inspections been documented? (Section 11.7)

21. Do airbases comply with local regulatory requirements? (Section 11.7)


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22. In absence of regulatory requirements, do airbases comply with the following criteria?(Section 11.7)

a) Are Flammable liquid storage tanks located at least 16 meters from the take-off and landing area?

b) Are Landing areas sloped to drain flammables and liquids away frompassenger access and egress points?

c) Is smoking prohibited, other than in designated locations?d) Is at least one portable fire extinguisher as specified in the following table

provided for each landing area, parking area, and fuel storage area, and theequipment be tagged with the last inspection date?

Minimum Ratings of Portable Fire Extinguishers for Heliports:

Category Helicopter overall length,including both rotors

Minimum rating

H-1 Up to but not including15.2 meters (50 feet)

4-A:80-B

H-2 From 15.2 meters up to,but not including 24.4meters (50 - 80 feet)

10-A:120-B

23. Does the Water/Foam system provide fire protection to the landing/parking area?

(Section 11.7)

24. Are the water/foam systems tested in accordance with NFPA 11 or British Standard5306 or local national equivalent? (Section 11.7)

25. Are tests completed on an annual basis with samples taken from the foam concen-trate, produced (after nozzle finished) foam, and water? (Section 11.7)

26. Are copies of testing results maintained for review? (Section 11.7)

11.8 Non directional beacons

27. Do NDBs have a periodic maintenance programme, which includes annualcalibration for proper output based on the specific Manufacturers publishedprocedures? (Section 11.8)

28. Do all NDBs, whether onshore or offshore, have aeronautical navigation frequenciesthat have been provided by the specific country of operations CAA, or authorizedcommunications agency? (Section 11.8)

11.9 Heliports and helidecks

29. If no local regulatory guidance exists, has ICAO Annex 14, Volume II, Heliportsbeen used in all design considerations, construction or major rework of existingheliports or offshore helidecks? (Section 11.9.1)


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30. Is the heliport or helideck of sufficient size to accommodate the largest helicopterusing the helideck? (Section 11.9.2)

31. Has the D value, where D is the largest overall dimension of the helicopter with therotors turning, defined the maximum size of helicopter able to use the helideck?(Section 11.9.2)

32. Do all new helidecks conform to the standards of ICAO Annex 14, Vol. II, if no localregulatory guidance exists? (Section 11.9.3)

33. Are the helidecks designed to accommodate the largest helicopter anticipated for use

during the life of the structure? (Section 11.9.3)

34. In heliport/ helideck design, has CAP 437 and the ICAO Heliport Manual been used?(Section 11.9.3)

35. Do shipboard helidecks such as tankers and seismic vessels conform to theInternational Chamber of Shippings (ICS) Guide to Helicopter/Ship Operations?(Section 11.9.3)

36. Has advice from the ATA and EAA been sought before completing design onFloating Production, Storage and Offloading (FPSO) helidecks? (Section 11.9.3)

37. Are second helicopter operations to obstructed helidecks daylight only and are suchoperations allowed by the Operators Operations Manual? (Section 11.9.3)

38. Is the minimum obstruction clearance during landing or take-off less t

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