ccna questions

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CCNA Test CCNA questions 1. The show vtp status command is executed at a switch that is generating the exhibited output. Which statement is true for this switch? R. The switch forwards VTP updates that are sent by other switches in the ICND domain 2. What is the purpose of the command vtp password Fl0r1da R. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches. 3. Refer to the exhibit. Explain how the routes in the table are being affected by the status change on interface Ethernet 0. The router is poisoning the routes and multicasting the new path cost via interface Ethernet 1. 4. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks?

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Page 1: CCNA Questions

CCNA Test

CCNA questions

1. The show vtp status command is executed at a switch that is generating the exhibited output. Which statement is true for this switch?

R. The switch forwards VTP updates that are sent by other switches in the ICND domain

2. What is the purpose of the command vtp password Fl0r1da

R. It is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches.

3. Refer to the exhibit. Explain how the routes in the table are being affected by the status change on interface Ethernet 0.

The router is poisoning the routes and multicasting the new path cost via interface Ethernet 1.

4. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks?

a. It provides dynamic neighbor discoveryb. It maintains neighbor relationships.

5. On point-to-point networks. OSPF hello packets are addressed to which address?R. 224.0.0.5

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5. The access list has been configured on the S0/0 interface of router RTB in the outbound direction. Which two packets, if routed to the interface, will be denied?access-list 101 deny tcp 192.168.15.32 0.0.0.15 any eq telnetaccess-list 101 permit ip any any

a. Source ip address 192.168.15.36 destination port 23b. Source ip address 192.168.15.46 destination port 23

21. An access list was written with the four statements shown in the graphic. Which single access list statement will combine all four of these statements into a single statement that will have same effect?

R. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.3.255

25. A host with the address 192.168.125.34/27 needs to be denied access to all hosts outside its own subnet. To accomplish this, complete the command process.R. access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.125.34 0.0.0.0 any

47. The Missouri branch off router is connected trough its s0 interface to Alabama Headquarters router s1 interface. The Alabama router has two LANs. Missouri users obtain Internet access through the Headquarters router. The network interfaces in the topology are addressed as follows: Missouri: e0 - 192.168.35.17/28; s0 - 192.168.35.33/28; Alabama: e0 – 192.168.35.49/28; e1 – 192.168.35.65/28; s1 - 192.168.35.34/28. The accounting server has the address of 192.168.35.66/28. Match the access list conditions:R. deny ip 192.168.35.16 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.168.35.66

deny ip 192.168.35.55 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.35.66permit ip 192.168.35.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.168.35.66

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6. Host 1 sends an ICMP echo request to remote server1. Which destination address does Host 1 place in the Layer2 header of the frame containing the ping packet?

R. The MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface of router R1.

8. During startup, the router displays the following error message: Boot: cannot open “flash:” . What will the router do next?R. It will attempt to locate the IOS from a TFTP server, if this fails, it will load a limited IOS from ROM.

9. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

R. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

50. Which tables of EIGRP route information are held in RAM and maintained through the use of hello and update packets?a. neighbor tableb. topology table

10. What can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?a. compressionb. authenticationc. multilink support

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11. Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP?a. can be used over analog circuits.b. encapsulates several routed protocolsc. provides error correction

11. What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco Catalyst?R. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

12. S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface % R2 and R3 in this hub-and-spoke Frame Relay. Technician notes that pings are successful from hosts on the 172.16.1.0/24 network to hosts on bot the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 networks. However, pings between hosts on the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 networks are not successful. What could explain this connectivity problem?

R. Split horizon is preventing R2 from learning about the R3 networks and R3 from learning about the R2 networks.

17. How should a router that is being used in a F. R. network be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates?R. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface.

52. A cisco router was providing Frame Relay connectivity at a remote site was replaced with a different vendors frame relay router. Connectivity is now down between the central and remote site. What is the most likely cause of the problem?R. Mismatched encapsulation types.

13. At which layers of the OSI model do WANs operate?a. Datalink Layer b. Physical layer

14. After HostA pings HostB, which entry will be in the ARP cache of HostA to support this transmission?

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15. What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?R. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.

18. Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled?R. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.

26. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard defined by WPA?a. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establish a connection.b. It includes authentication by PSK.

32. What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP?R> The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.

48. Which spread spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation?R. DSSS

7. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem?

a. cordless phonesb. metal file cabinetsc. antenna types or direction

19. A cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?R. It checks the configuration register.

20. The network admin requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between two routers?

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a. A static route on internet Router to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to Central Router

b. A static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.

22. Which of the following are true regarding the command output shown?

a. There are at least two routers participating in the RIP process.b. A ping to 10.0.15.2 will be successful.

23. Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic?

a. There are two broadcast domains in the network.b. There are seven collision domains in the network.

24. Refer to the topology and router configuration shown. A host on the LAN is accesing an FTP server across the Internet. Which of the following addresses could appear as a source address for the packets forwarded by the router to the destination server?

R. 199.99.9.57

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28. Why would the network administrator configure RA in this manner?

R. To prevent students from accessing the command prompt of RA.

29. Which statements is correct about the internetwork shown?

R. If Fa0/0 is down on Router 1, Host A cannot access Server 1.

30. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct?

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a. The switchport belongs only to VLAN2.b. A network host can be connected to this interface.

34. Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches?a. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcast.b. Switches have a higher number of ports than most bridges.c. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

36. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?R. To prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN.

42. Switch 1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 000b0.d056.efa4. What will Swtich 1 do with this data?

Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.

46. Functioning cable connect SW1 and SW2. From the output, what can be conclude?

a. The status of fa0/2 should be checked on SW2b. The interface is functional at OSI Layer 1

31. A network associate has configured the internetwork, but failed to configure routing properly. Which configuration will allow the hosts on the Branch LAN to access resources on the HQ LAN with the least impact on router processing and WAN BW?

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R. HQ(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.5 Branch(config)#ip route 172.16.25.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.6

33. The Branch router displays knowledge of a route to network 172.16.0.0/16. The actual network number at headquarters is 172.16.1.0/24. Why does the network number appear as it does in the routing table?

R. The routing protocol on the HQ router is using automatic route summarization.

35. What is the purpose of the configuration shown?

R> To translate addresses of hosts on the fa0/0 and fa0/1 networks to a single public IP address for Internet access

37. The show interfaces serial 0/0 command resulted in the output shown. What are possible causes for this interface status?

a. No keep alive messages are received.b. The clock rate is not set.c. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type.

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38. What functions do routers perform in a network?a. Packet switching. b. Path selection.

39. How many collision domains are shown?R. two

40. Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI model?a. Telnetb. FTP

41. RIPv2 is in use on the network, with no standard policy for summarization. A packet arrives at CentralRouter with a destination IP of 208.149.23.91. How will CentralRouter process the packet?

R. It will forward the packet 190.171.23.12

43. Which of the following are true regarding the command display?

a. There are at least two routers participating in the RIP processb. A ping to 10.0.15.2 will be successful.

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44. Subnet 10.1.3.0/24 is unknown to router RTB. Which router command will prevent router RTB from dropping a packet destined for the 10.1.3.0/24 network if a default route is configured?

R. ip classless

45. Explain how the routes in the table are being affected by the status change of interface E0.

R. the router is poisoning the routes and multicasting the new path costs via interface Ethernet 1.

49. The network show is running RIPv2 routing protocol. The network has converged, and the routers in this network are functioning properly. The Fa0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers respond to this change?

a. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network,

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b. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network,

51.

If the router R1 has a packet with a destination address 192.168.1.255, what describes the operation of the network?R. R1 will forward the packet out all interfaces.

Users on the 192.168.1.0/24 network must access files located on the Server 1. What route could be configured on router R1 for file request to reach the server?R. ip route 209.165.200.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.250

When a packet is sent from host 1 to Server 1, in how many different frames will the packet be encapsulated as it is sent across the internetwork?R. 3

What must be configured on the network for users on the internet to view web pages located on web server 2?R. on router R2, configure a default static route to the 192.168.1.0 network.

The router address 192.168.1.250 is the default gateway for both the web server 2 and host 1. What is the correct subnet mask for this network?255.255.255.252

53. The access list has been configured on the S0/0 interface of router RTB in the outbound direction Which two packets, if routed to the interface, will be denied?

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a. Source ip address 192.168.15.36 destination port 23b. Source ip address 192.168.15.46 destination port 23

54. Network has configured two switches: London and Madrid to use VTP. However, the switches are not sharing VTP messages. Given the command, why are not sharing VTP messages?

R. The VTP domain name is not correctly configured.

55. There are no boot system commands in a router configuration in NVRAM. What is the fallback sequence that the router will use to find an IOS during reload?R. Flash, TFTP server, ROM

56. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram?

a. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).b. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

57. Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router?a. it is locally significantb. it is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database

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58. A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?R. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

59. which of the following statement describe the network shown?

a. there are two broadcast domains in the network.

b. There are seven collision domains in the network.

60. Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN configuration information between switches?R. VTP

61. For what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location shown?

a. Router 1 has specific boot system commands that instructs it to load IOS from a TFTP server.b. Router1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory.

62. What will a switch never learn a broadcast address?R. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.

63. Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches?a. Both bridges and switches forwards Layer 2 broadcasts.b. Switches have a higher number of port than most bridgesc. Both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses.

64. Host 1 has just started up and request a web page from web server 2. Which two statement describe steps in the process Host 1 uses to send the request to web server 2?

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a. Host 1 addresses the frames to the MAC address of web server 2.b. Host 1 sends a broadcst ARP request to obtain the MAC address of webserver2.

65. VLAN configuration of SwitchC is not synchronized with the rest of the switched network Why is SwitchC not receiving VTP updates?

R. Switch C has a revision number higher than that being advertised.

66. The output shown is generated at a switch. Which three statements are true?

a. all ports will be in a state of discarding, learning, or forwarding.b. the bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.c. all designated port are in a forwarding state.

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67. Which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access?a. changing the defauld SSID value.b. configuring a new administrator password.

68. Which statement describes DLCI 17? R. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.

69. Which of the following are associated with the application layer of the OSI model?a. telnet b. FTP

70. Network admin is configuring the routers. The OSPF process has been started and the network have been configured for Area 0 as shown. There are several options for configuring routerB to ensure that it will be preferred as designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0/24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference?

a. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet network.

b. Configure a loopback interface on router B with an ip address higher than any IP address on the other routers.

c. Change the priority value of the Fa0/0 interfaces of router A and Router C to zero.

71. What is the functions of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a Cisco catalyst sw?R. it designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.

72. Which three statement are correct about RIP version 2?a. it has the same maximum hop count as version 1.b. it is a classless routing protocol.c. it supports authentication.

73. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?R. nonbroadcast multi-access.

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74. in which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?R. in an improperly implemented redundant topology

75. topology contains 3 routers and 1 switch. Complete topology.

76. which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access?a. changing the default SSID valueb. configuring a new administrator password

77. what can a network administrator utilize by using PPP Layer 2 encapsulation?a. compressionb. authenticationc. multilink support

78. which of the following are key characteristics of PPP?

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a. can be used over analog circuits.\b. encapsulates several routed protocolsc. provides error correction

79. network associate has configured OSPF with command:City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0

After completing the configuration, not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interface shown will participate in OSPF?

a. Fastethertnet0/1b. Serial0/0c. Serial0/1.102

80. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

R. 172.1.4.0/22

81. After a RIP route is marked invalid on Router_1, how much time will elapse before that route is removed from the routing table?

R. 60 seconds

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82. Ethernet networks connected to router R1 in the graphic have been summarized for router R2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will R2 forward to R1?

a. 192.1.159.2b. 192.1.151.254

83. Host 1 has just started up and request a web page from web server 2. Which two statement describe step in the process Host 1 uses to send the request to web server 2>

a. Host 1 addresses the frames to the MAC address of web server 2.b. Host 1 sends a broadcast ARP request to obtain the MAC address of webserver 2.

84. the serial network between the two devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. what are the 3 statements are true of these devices?

a. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1b. The London router is Cisco 2610c. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.

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85. Explain how the routes in the table are being affected by the status change on interface E0.

R. the router is poisoning the router and multicasting the new path costs via interface E1.

86. Given the output of Floor3 SW, what statement describes the operation of the SW?

R. The switch learns VLAN information but does not save it to NVRAM.

87.

enable allows access to high-level testing commands, such as debugconfigure terminal allows access to configuration commands that affect the system as a wholehostname sets the system nameinterface vlan 1 activates the interface configuration mode for VLAN 1no shutdown enables the switch management interfaceip address sets the switch management IP addressip default-gateway allows the switch to be managed from remote networks

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88. The OSPF process has been started and the networks have been configured for Area 0 as shown. Configuring RouterB to ensure that it will be preferred as the designated router (DR) for the 172.16.1.0/24 LAN segment. What configuration tasks could be used to establish this preference?

a. Configure the priority value of the Fa0/0 interface of RouterB to a higher value than any other interface on the Ethernet network,

b. Configure a loopback interface on RouterB with an IP address higher than any IP address on the other routers.

c. Change the priority values of the Fa0/0 interfaces of Router! And RouterC to zero.

89. Network admin is adding two new hosts to SwA. Which 3 values could be used for the configuration of these hosts?

a. Host 1 IP address: 192.168.1.79b. Host 1 default gateway: 192.168.1.78c. Host 2 ip address: 192.168.1.190

90. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4?a. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 networks.b. it uses the default administratrive distance.

91. Admin wants to ensure that only the server can connect to port Fa0/1 on Cat SW. Server is plugged into the SW Fa0/1 port and the network admin is about to bring server online. What can the admin do to ensure that only MAC address is allowed by switch Fa0/1?a. Configure the MAC address of the server as a static entry associated with port Fa0/1b. Configure port security on Fa0/1 to reject traffic with a source MAC address other than of the server.

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92. RIPv2 is in use on the network with no standard policy in place for summarization. A packet arrives at CentralRouter with a dest IP 208.149.23.91. how will CentralRouter process that packet?

R. it will forward packet to 190.171.23.12

93. What functions do routers perform in a network?a. packet switching.b. path selection

94. An access list was written with the four statements. Which single access list statement will combine all these statements into a single with the same effect?

R. access-list 10 permit 172.29.16.0 0.0.3.255

95. Which of the following statements are true regarding bridges and switches?a. Both bridges and switches forward Layer 2 broadcast.b. Swtiches have a higher number of ports than most bridgesc. both bridges and switches make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addresses

96. Why would the network admin configure RA in this manner?

R. To prevent students from accesing the command prompt of RA.

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97. Which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF on a router?a. it is localy significant.b. it is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database.

98. R1 forwards a packet from Host 1 to remote Server 1. Which statement describes the use of a MAC as the frame carrying this packet leaves the s0/0/0 interface of R1?

R. The frame does not have MAC address.

100. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA?a. it specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.b. it includes authentication by PSK.

101. The user of host 1 wants to ping DSL modem at 192.168.1.254. Based on the Host1 ARP, what will Host 1 do?

R. Send unicast ICMP packets to the DSL modem.

102. Imagine that you visit a website and download a graphic image logo.gif. logo is 4000 bytes. Assuming an MSS of 1480 bytes, how many segments will the server send back to your browser to send you the logo?( ) 2 segments ( ) 5 segments( ) 3 segments ( ) 10 segments( ) 4 segments

103. During path selection, which three of these metrics may be used by routing protocols? (3)( ) delay ( ) direction ( ) bandwidth( ) weight ( ) hop count ( ) MED

104. Which term defines how many bits per second the service provider commits to pass over a single PVC?( ) access rate ( ) FECN( ) BECN ( ) header rate

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( ) CIR

105. Which best describes unicast traffic?a. data traffic that is sent to one device.b. data traffic that is sent to all devices in the same VLANc. data traffic that is redistributed from an externa ASd. data traffic sent to routers that are configured to receive the same data stream

106. When upgrading the IOS image, the network admin receives the exhibited error message. What could be the cause of this error?

R. the TFTP server in unreachable from the router

107. Why has the network shown in the exhibit failed to converge?

R. The no auto-summary command needs to be applied to the routers.

108. the network security policy requires that only one host be permitted to attach dynamically to each switch interface. If that policy is violated, the interface should shut down. Which two commands must the network administrator configure on the 2950 cat sw to meet this policy?a. switc1(config-if)#switchport port-security maximum 1b. switch1(config-if)#switchport port-security violation shutdown

109. At which OSI layer is a logical path created between two host systems?R. network.

110. Admin needs to force a high-performance swith that is located in the MDF the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that this switch assumes the role as root bridge?R. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.111. Which of the following are key characteristics of PPP? (3)a. can be used over analog circuitsb. encapsulates several routed protocolsc. provides error correction

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112. Which spread spectrum technology does the 802.11b standard define for operation?R. DSSS

113. What can be determined about routes that are learned from router at IP address 190.171.23.12?

R. If HQ_router does not receive an update from 190.171.23.12 in 30 seconds, all routes from that source will be removed from the routing table.

114. What two fact can be determined from the WLAN diagram?

a. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS)b. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

115. Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on router C is down. Which is true?

A. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reached.B . Router C will send a Destination Unreachable message type.

116. IP addresses and routing for the network are configured. Network issues the show ip eigrp neighbors command from Router 1 and receives the output shown. Which is true?

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R. Routing is not completely configured on Router 3.

117. Which three statements are correct about RIP v2?a. It has the same maximum hop count as version 1.b. it is a classless routing protocols.c. It supports authentication

118. R1 forwards a packet from Host 1 to remote Server 1. Which statement describes the use of a MAC as the frame carrying this packet leaves the s0/0/0 interface of R1?

R. The frame does not have MAC addresses.

119. Which additional configuration step is necessary in order to connect to an access point that has SSID broadcasting disabled?R. Set the SSID value on the client to the SSID configured on the AP.

120. Which two statements are true about the command iproute 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4?a. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network,b. It uses the default administrative distance

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121. How the routes in table are being affected by the status change on interface E0?

R. The router is poisoning the routes and multicasting the new path costs via interface E1.

122. Host 1 receives a file from remote server 1. Which MAC address appears as the source address in the header of the frames received by Host 1?

R. The MAC address of the Fa0/0 interface or router R1.

123. An access list has been designed to prevent HTTP traffic from the Accounting Department from reaching the HR server attached to the Holyoke router. Which of the following access lists will accomplisth this task when grouped with the e0 interface on the Chicopee router?

R. deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.0.255 172.17.17.252 0.0.0.0 eq 80 Permit ip any any

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124. Network has verified that a functioning cable connect SW1 and SW2. From the output shown, what two pieces of information can the admin conclude?

a. The status of fa0/2 should be checked on SW2.b. The interface is functional at OSI Layer 1.

125. The network is running the RIPv2. The network has converged, and the routers are functioning. The Fa0/0 interface on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers in this network respond to this change?

a. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network,

b. When router R2 learns from R1 that the link to the 192.168.1.0 network has been lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.

126. Which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access?a. changing the default SSID valueb. configuring new administrator password.

127. Acknowledgements, sequencing, and flow control are characteristics of which OSI layer?R. Layer 4.

128. Why are two OSPF designated routers identified on Core_Router?

R. Core_Router is connected to more than one multicast network,

129. Whe a network trunk link is configured on an IOS based switch, which VLANs are allowed over the link?R. By default, all define VLANs are allowed on the trunk.

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130. What can be determined from the router output shown?

R. EIGRP is in use in this network.

131. Ethernet networks connected to router R1 in the graphic have been summarized for router R2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will R2 forward to R1?

a. 192.1.159.2b. 192.1.151.254

132. What is the purpose of the configuration shown?

R. to translate addresses of hosts on the fa0/0 and fa0/1 networks to a single public IP address for internet access.

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133. Hosts in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. based on the output from Router A, what are two possible reasons for the failure?

a. Interface s0/0 on RouterA is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSUb. The encapsulation that is configured on S0/0 on Router B does not match the encapsulation that

is configured on S0/0 of RouterA.

134. A default Frame Relay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?R. nonbroadcast multi-access

135. Router 1 was just successfully rebooted. Identify the current OSPF router ID for router 1.

R. 208.149.23.194

136. Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology shown?

a. The Fa0/0 interface on Router 1 must be configured with subinterfaces.b. The Fa0/0 interface on Router 1 and SW2 trunk ports must be configured using the same

encapsulation type.

137. on which types of network will OSPF elect a backup designated router?R. nonbroadcast and broadcast multi-access

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138. For security reasons, the network needs to prevent ping into the network from hosts outside. Which protocol should be block with access control list?R. ICMP

139. How will the router A choose a path to the 10.1.2.0/24 network when different routing protocols are configured?

a. If RIPv2 is the routing protocol, only the path AD will be installed in the routing table by default.b. If EIGRP is the routing protocol, the equal cost paths ABD and ACD will be installed in the routing

table by defaultc. If EIGRP and OSPF are both running on the network, the EIGRP paths will be installed in the

routing table.

140. Network has created new VLAN on SW1 and added host C and host D. properly configured SW fa0/13 through fa0/24 to be members of the new VLAN. Host a could communicate with host B, but host A could not communicate with Host C or HD. Commands required to resolve problem?

R. router(config)#interface fastethernet 0/1.3 Router(config-if)#encapsulation dot1q3 Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0

141. what are two reasons that a network administrator would use access ists?a. to control vty access into a routerb. to filter traffic as it passes through a router

142. all router interfaces are operational and correctly configured. How will the default route configured onR1 affect the operation of R2?

R. any packet destined for a network that is not referentced in the routing table of router R2 will be directed to R1. R1 will then send that packet to R2 and a routing loop will occur.

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143. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?

R. the maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.

144. OSPF command: router(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0After completing the configuration, discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown will participate in OSPF according to this configuration?

a. Fa0/1b. S0/0c. Serial0/1.102

145. for what two reasons has the router loaded its IOS image from the location shown?

a. Router 1 has specific boot system commands that instructs it to load IOS from a TFTP serverb. Router 1 cannot locate a valid IOS image in flash memory

146. what are two reasons that a network would use access lists?a. to control vty access into a routerb. to filtere traffic as it passes through a router.

151. What is the effect of the following access list condition?Access-list 101 permit ip 10.25.30.0 0.0.0255 any

R. permit all packets matching the first three octets of the source address to all destinations

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147. IP addresses and routing for the network are configured. Issues the show ip eigrp neighbors commands from Router 1 and receives the output shown. Which statement is true?

R. Routing is not completely configured on router 3.

148. Which two statements about the configuration of the switch interface are correct?

a. The switchport belongs only to VLAN2b. A network host can be connected to this interface.

149. All of the routers are configured with the ip subnet-zero command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A?

a. Network A – 172.16.3.128/26b. Link A – 172.16.3.0/30

150. A routing protocol is required that support:a. routing updated authenticationb. an addressing scheme that conserves IP addressesc. multiple vendors.d. a network with over 50 routersWhich routing protocols fulfills these requirements?R. OSPF

152. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN?a. a CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.b. A modem terminates an analog local loop.c. a router is commonly considered a DTE device.

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153. Which statement is true about full-duplex Ethernet in comparison to half-duplex Ethernet?R. Full-duplex Ethernet can provide higher throughput than can half-duplex Ethernet of the same BW.

154. What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?R. it will encrypt all current and future passwords.

155. Which type of attack is characterized by a flood of packets that are requesting a TCP connection to a server?R. denial of service.

156. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?

R. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

157. What are some of the advantages of using a router to segment the network?a. Filtering can occur bassed on Layer 3 informationb. Broadcast are not forwarded across the router.

158. The network connected to router R2 have summarized as 192.168.176.0/21 route and sent to R1. Which two packets destination address will R1 forward to R2?

a. 192.168.183.41b. 192.168.179.4

159. If an administrator tries to ping host 10.1.8.5 from host 10.1.6.100, how will the ICMP packets be processed by Router a?

R. Packets will be routed out the S0/1 interface.

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160. What can be determined about roles that are learned from the router at IP address 190.171.23.17?

R. if HQ_Router does not receive an update from 190.171.23.12 in 30 seconds, all routes from that source will be removed from the routing table.

161. admin attempts to ping Host2 from Host1 and receives the result are shown. What is possible problem?

R. the link between Router 1 and Router 2 is down.

162. A wireless communication directly between two laptops has established. What type of wireless topology has been created?R. IBSS

163. How many broadcast domains exist in the topology?

R. three

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164. In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a switched LAN?R. in an improperly implemented redundant topology.

165. There are no boot system commands in a router configuration in NVRAM. What is the fallback sequence that the router will use to find and IOS during reload?R. Flash, TFTP server, ROM.

166. The two devices are the only cisco on the network. The serial network between devices has a mask of 255.255.255.252. given the output, what three statement are true?

a. The Manchester serial address is 10.1.1.1b. The London router is aCisco 2610c. The CDP information was received on port Serial0/0 of the Manchester router.

167. The network shown is running RIPv2. Network has converged, and the routers function properly . the Fa0/0 on R1 goes down. In which two ways will the routers respond to this change?

a. Because of the split-horizon rule, router R2 will be prevented from sending erroneous information to R1 about connectivity to the 192.168.1.0 network,

b. When router R2 learns from R1 that link to 192.168.1.0 network has lost, R2 will respond by sending a route back to R1 with an infinite metric to the 192.168.1.0 network.

168. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats?a. use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devicesb. use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configuration.

169. Why would a network configure port security on a switch?R. To prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN.

170. When upgrading the IOS image, admin receives the error message. What could be the cause?

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R. The TFTP server is unreachable from the router.

171. Which two statement best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA?a. it specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.b. it includes authentication by PSK.

172. Router 1 was just rebooted. Identify the current OSPF router ID for Router 1.

R. 208.149.23.194

173. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram?

a. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS)b. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.

174. Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0. the network connect to router Coffee via console port, issued the shop ip route command, and was able to ping the server. Based on the output, what is the cause of failure?

R. a static route is configured incorrectly.

175. What is the meaning of the term dynamic as displayed in the output of the show frame-relay map command shown?

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R. the mapping between DLCI 100 and the end station IP address 172.16.3.1 was learned through inverse ARP.176. what IP address should be assigned to Workstation A?

R. 192.168.1.145/28

177. network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. What is known about the network interface port?R. this is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.

178. Which statement describes DLCI 17?

R. DLCI 17 is the Layer 2 address used by R2 to describe a PVC to R3.

179. Which protocol provides a method of sharing VLAN conf information between switches?R. VTP

180. What is the function of Cisco IOS command ip nat inside source static 10.1.5 172.35.16.5?R. it creates a one-to-one mapping between an inside local address and an inside global address.

181. Which of the following are types of flow control?a. bufferingb. windowingc. congestion avoidance

182. How should a router used in Frame Relay be configured to avoid split horizon issues from preventing routing updates?R. Configure a separate sub-interface for each PVC with a unique DLCI and subnet assigned to the sub-interface.

183. When a new trunk is configured on a 2950 SW, which VLANs by default are allowed over the trunk link?R. all VLANs

184. The Ethernet networks connected to Router R1 in the graphic have been summarized for R2 as 192.1.144.0/20. Which of the following packet destination addresses will R2 forward to R1?

a. 192.1.159.2

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b. 192.1.151.254

185. Router receives info about network 192.168.10.0/24 from multiple sources. What will the router consider the most reliable info abouth the path to that network?R. a directly connected interface with an address of 192.168.10.254/24

186. Host 1 sends a request for a file to remote server1. Which destination address does Host 1 place if the packet containing the request?

R. The IP address of server 1.

187. Which two practices help secure the configuration utilities on wireless access points from unauthorized access?a. changing the default SSID valuleb. configuring a new administrator password.

188. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?R. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.

189. What is one reason that WPA encryption is preferred over WEP?R.The values of WPA keys can change dynamically while the system is used.

190. S0/0 on R1 is configured as a multipoint interface to communicate with R2 and R3 in this hub-and-spoke Frame Relay topology. While testing, pings are successful from hosts on the 172.16.1.0/24 network to hosts on both the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 networks. However, pings between hosts on the 172.16.2.0/25 and 172.16.2.128/25 are not successful. What could be the reason?

R. Split horizon is preventing R2 from learning about the R3 networks and R3 from learning about the R2 networks.

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191. Which two devices can interfiere with the operation of a wireless network because they operate on similar frequencies?a. microwave ovenb. cordless phone

192. What will an Ethernet switch do if it receives a unicast frame with a destination MAC that is listed in the switc table?R. the switch will forwad the frame to a specific port.

193. Two routers named Atlanta and Brevard are connected by their serial interfaces as shown. But there is no data connectivity between them. The Atlanta router is known good configuration. What is the problem on Brevard router?

R. the IP address is incorrect.

194. Host A has established a connection with HTTP server attached to interface E0 of the xyz router. Which of the following statement describe the info contained in protocol data units sent from Host a to this server?

a. The destination port number in a segment header will have a vluae of 80.b. The destination address of a frame will be the MAC address of the E0 interface of the abc router.c. The destination IP address of a packet will be the IP address of the network interface of HTTP

server.195. a technician observes steady links lights on both the workstation NIC and the switch port to which the workstations is connected. However, when the ping command is issued from the workstation, the output message “request time out” is displayed. At which layer OSI model does the problem exist?R. the network layer.

196. A network needs to force a high-performance sw located in the MDF to become the root bridge for a redundant path switched network. What can be done to ensure that sw assumes role as root bridge?R. Configure the switch so that it has a lower priority than other switches in the network.

197. Sw1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. what will Sw1 do with this data?

R. Sw1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.

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198. What is the purpose of the command shown?Vtp password Fl941daR. it is used to validate the sources of VTP advertisements sent between switches.

199. The Missouri branch office router is connected through its s0 interface to the Alabama H router s1 interface. Alabama router has two LANs. Missouri users obtain internet access through Alabama. The interfaces:Missouri: e0 – 192.168.35.17/28; s0 – 192.168.35.33/28Alabama: e0 – 192.168.35.49/28; e1 – 192.168.35.68/28; s1 – 192.168.35.34/28. Accounting server has IP: 192.168.35.66/28.Match access lists conditions.

R.

Block only users attached to e0 int of Missouri from access the accounting server deny ip 192.168.35.16 0.0.0.15 host 192.168.35.66Block user from Alabama e0 from access the accounting server deny ip 192.168.35.55 0.0.0.0 host 192.168.35.66

Prevent all users from outside the enterprise network from accesing the accountig server permit ip 192.168.35.0 0.0.0.255 host 192.168.35.66

200. Which encryption type does WPA2 use?R. AES-CCMP

201. What is the most efficient summarization that R1 can use to advertise its networks to R2?

R. 172.1.4.0/22

202. The OSPF hello protocol performs which of the following tasks>a. it provides dynamic neighbor discoveryb. it maintains neighbor relationships.

203. A default FrameRelay WAN is classified as what type of physical network?R. nonbroadcast multi-access

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204. Which wireless LAN design ensures that a mobile wireless client will not lose connectivity when moving from one access point to another?a. overlapping the wireless cell coverage by at least 10%

205. a cisco router was providing Frame Relay connectivity at a remote site was replaced with a different vendors frame relay router. Connectivity is now down between routers. What is the most likely cause?R. Mismatched encapsulation types.

206. After a RIP route is marked invalid on Router 1, how much time will elapse before that route is removed from routing table?

R. 60 seconds

207. What is the effect of the configuration shown?

R. it configures cisco device to use SSH protocol on incoming communications via virtual terminal port

208. the command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?R. the broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.

209. which two statements are true of show frame-relay lmi command on router?

a. LMI messages are being sent on DLCI 0.b. The frame relay switch is not responding to LMI request from the router.

210. A host on the LAN is accesing an FTP server across the internet. Which of the following addresses could appear as a source address for the packets forwarded by the router to destination server?

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R. 199.99.9.57211. which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN trunk?a. autob. onc. desirable

212. What three pieces of information can be used in an extended access list to filter traffic?a. protocolb. TCP or UDP port numbersc. source IP address and destination IP address

213. a router learns about a remote network from EIGRP, OSPF, and static rout. Assuming all protocols are using their default admin distance, which route will the router use to forward data to remote network?R. will use static route.

214. What is the correct addressing for a frame and packet received by host B from Host A?

R. destination MAC: 0011.43da.2c98 Source MAC: 0070.0e8f.088a Destination IP: 192.168.60.5 Source IP: 192.168.24.5

215. What are two security appliances that can be installed in a network?a. IOSb. IPS

216. Which three statement are correct about RIP version 2?a. it has the same maximum hop count as version 1b. it is a classless routing protocolsc. it supports authentication

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217. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

R. switch 3

218. administrator gave 192.168.164.0 for subnetting. Use ip subnet-zero and RIPv2.

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219. what functions do routers perform in a network?a. packet switching.b. path selection

220. Requires easy configuration and minmal routing protocol traffic. What two options adequate routing table?

a. A static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouterb. A static default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter

221. what type of router interface is this?R. FastEthernet

222. Host 1 just started up and request a web page from web server 2. Which two statement describe the process host 1 uses to send the request to web server 2?

a. Host 1 addresses the frames to the MAC address of web server 2b. Host 1 sends a broadcast ARP request to obtain MAC address of webserver 2.

223. Which tree of the statements are true?

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a. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning or forwarding.b. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning treec. All designated ports are in a forwarding state

224. Which statement accurately describes a benefit provided by VTP?R. VTP allows switches to share VLAN configuration information.

225. Host 1 is trying to communicate with Host 2. The e0 interface on Router C is down. Reasons?

a. Router C will use ICMP to inform Host 1 that Host 2 cannot be reachedb. Router C will send a destination unreachable message type

226. During startup, the router displays the following error:Boot: cannot open “flash:”. What will the router do next?R. it will attempt to locate the IOS from a TFTP server, if this fails, it will load a limited IOS from ROM

227. Frame Relay network is not functioning properly. What is the cause of the problem?

R. The frame-relay map statement in the Attala router for the PVC to Steele is not correct

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228. Given the output of floor3 sw, what statement describe operation?

R. the switch learns VLAN information but does not save it to NVRAM.

229. The show interface s0/0. What are possible causes for this interface status?

a. No keepalive messages are receivedb. The clockrate is not setc. There is a mismatch in the encapsulation type

230. which of the following describe private IP addresses?a. addresses that cannot be routed through the public internetb. a scheme to conserve publilc addresses

231. when a router is connected to a Frame Relay WAN link using a serial DTE interface, how is the interface clock rate determined?r. It is supplied by the CSU?DSU

232. when PC1 sends and ARP request for the MAC address of PC2, network performance slows, switches detect high number of broadcst frame. What is the cause?

R. Spanning Tree protocol is not running on the switches.

233. what are two reasons anetwork would use CDP?a. to verify layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails.b. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet the device.

234. which of the follow is true regarding switches and hubs?

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R. switches increase the number of collision domains in the network.

235. the Branch router display knowledge of a rute to network 172.16.0.0/16. The actual network number is 172.16.1.0/24. Why does the network number appear as it does in the routing table?

R. the routing protocol on the HQ router is using automatic route summarization.

236. Why does the data communication industry use the layered OSI reference model?a. it divides the network communication process into smaller and simpler components, thus adding component development, design, and troubleshooting.b. it encourages industry standardization by defining what functions occur at each layer of the model.

237. Two building on San Jose must be connected to use Ethernet wit a BW of at least 100Mbps. Which media type should be used for connection/

R. fiber optic cable

238. which of the following are associated with the Application layer of the OSI model?a. telnetb. FTP

239. needs to configure the switches and router in the graphic so that hosts in VLAN3 and VLAN4 can communicate with the enterprise server in VLAN2. Which two Ethernet segments would need to be configured as trunk links?

R. CR. F

240. What does the “Inside Global” address represent in the configuration of NAT?R. a registered address that represents and inside host to an outside network.

241. what are two security appliances that can be installed in a network?a. IDS

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b. IPS

242. Network admin of the Oregon adds following command to router config: ip route 192.168.12.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.12.1. what are the results of adding the command?

a. The command establishes a static routeb. Traffic for network 192.168.12.0 is forwarded to 172.16.12.1

243. issues the command ping 127.0.0.1 from command on PC. What does this confirm?R. the PC has the TCP/IP protocol stack correctly installed.

244. which statement is correcto about the internetwork shown?

R. if Fa0/0 is down on Router 1, host A cannot access Server 1

245. what are two characteristics of telnet?a. it sends data in clear text format.b. it requires that the destination device be configured to support telnet connections.

246. Host in network 192.168.2.0 are unable to reach hosts in network 192.168.3.0. based on the output from Router A, what are two possible reason for failure?

a. Interface s0/0 on router A is not receiving a clock signal from the CSU/DSUb. The encapsulation that is configured on s0/0 of router B does not match the encapsulation that

is configured on s0/0 of router A

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247. troubleshooting the OSPF cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. What is the cause of the problem?

R. the hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

249. which routing protocol by default uses BW and delay as metrics?R. EIGRP

250. which of the following describe the process identifier that is used to run OSPF router?a. it is locally significantb. it is needed to identify a unique instance of an OSPF database

251. Why does router show multiple unequal cost paths to network 192.168.81.0/24

R. the EIGRP topology table displays all routes to a destination.

252. what should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?R. physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.

253. what is the purpose of the configuration shown?

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R. to translate addresses of hosts on the fa0/0 and fa0/1 networks to a single public IP address for internet access.

254. What TCP/IP stack configuration features can DHCP provide, in addition to assigning IP address?a. default gatewayb. dNS serversc. subnet mask

255. DNS servers privde wat service?R. they convert domain name into IP addresses.

256. The OSPF hello protocol perform which of the following?a. it provides dynamic neighbor discoveryb. it maintains neighbor relationships

257. a problem with network has observed. It is suspected that cable to switch port Fa0/9 is disconnected. What would be an effect on the cable bein disconnected?

R. for less than a minute, host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.

258. Which statement are true about EIGRP successor routes?a. a successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destinationb. a successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.