chapter: matter in our surroundings question bank … · chapter: matter in our surroundings...

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CHAPTER: MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS

QUESTION BANK

Multiple Choice Questions

1. During evaporation, particles of a liquid change to vapours only: (a) from the surface (b) from the bulk (c) from both surface and bulk (d) neither from surface nor from bulk

2. Which of the following statements is incorrect? (a) Matter is made up of particles (b) Matter is continuous in nature (c) Particles of matter are always in state of motion (d) Particles of matter attract each other.

3. Which of the following is not a matter? (a) Air (b) Feeling of cold (c) Dust (d) Humidity

4. Which of the following will not undergo sublimation? (a) Camphor (b) Ammonium Chloride (c) Iodine (d) Sodium Chloride

5. On increasing the temperature of a gas (a) its K.E increases (b) its K.E decreases (c) its gets converted into liquid (d) its particles come closer to each other

6. The latent heat of vaporisation of water is (a) 2.26 x 105 J kg-1

(b) 22.6 x 105 J kg-1

(c) 22.6 x 106 J kg-1

(d) 6.22 x 105 J kg-1

7. The inter-particle forces are the strongest in: (a) Ammonia (b) Ethyl alcohol (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Sodium bromide

8. Which one of the following sets of phenomena would increase on raising the temperature? (a) Diffusion, evaporation, compression of gases (b) Evaporation, compression of gases, solubility (c) Evaporation, diffusion, expansion of gases (d) Evaporation, solubility, diffusion, compression of gases

9. Select the substance which does not undergo sublimation (a) Common salt (b) Naphthalene (c) Ammonium chloride (d) Camphor

10. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of forces of attraction between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct arrangement? (a) Water, air, wind, (b) oxygen, water, sugar (c) air, sugar, oil (d) salt, juice, air

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Very Short Answer Questions

1. What is matter? What are the physical states of matter?

2. With the help of an activity, show particulate nature of matter.

3. What are characteristics of particles of matter?

4. What is diffusion? Give an example.

5. Write any five comparative characteristics of solids, liquids and gases.

6. Why can we smell hot food from a distance?

7. Why does a solid change into liquid on heating?

8. What do you mean by latent heat of fusion?

9. Give reason – A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.

10. Why a wooden table should be called solid?

Short Answer Questions

11. How can physical state of matter be changed?

12. Why more serious burns are caused by steam at 1000c than water at same temperature?

13. Why can a sponge be compressed though it is a solid?

14. Carry out following conversion (a) 500c to Kelvin (b) 200 k to Celsius.

15. Name the conditions to liquefy a gas and also to vaporise a liquid.

16. Why are clothes spread out for drying?

17. What kind of clothes is most suitable for summers? Why

18. What is sublimation? Explain with help of an activity and a diagram.

19. Washed clothes dry up more quickly on a hot summer day than on a rainy day. Why?

Long Answer Questions

20. What is the difference between evaporation and boiling?

21. Define latent heat of vaporization. Why steam can cause more severe burns than water at the

same temperature?

22. Wearing synthetic and dark coloured clothes in summers are usually avoided. Why?

23. How does water get cooled in an earthen pot?

24. What is dry ice? Name the factors affecting evaporation.

25. How does evaporation cause cooling? Explain with example.

26. Why does the temperature of a substance remain constant during its melting point or boiling

point?

27. You want to wear your favourite shirt to a party, but the problem is that it is still wet after a

wash. What steps would you take to dry it faster?

28. Alka was making tea in a kettle. Suddenly she felt intense heat from the puff of steam

gushing out of the spout of the kettle. She wondered whether the temperature of the steam

was higher than that of the water boiling in the kettle. Comment.

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CHAPTER: FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE

QUESTION BANK


1. Who discovered the nucleus of the cell? (a) Robert Hooke (b) Robert brown (c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Purkinje

2. Which of the following are the main constituents of cell wall? (a) Cellulose (b) Pectin (c) starch (d) Protein

3. Who coined the term protoplasm? (a) Virchow (b) Leeuwenhoek (c) Purkinje (d) Robert Hooke

4. Which of the following is called power house of cell? (a) Lysosome (b) Nucleus (c) Mitochondrion (d) Golgi body

5. Which of the following is called kitchen of the cell? (a) Golgi body (b) Mitochondrion (c) Lysosome (d) Nucleus

6. Which of the cell organelles consists of chloroplast? (a) Plastids (b) Mitochondria (c) Vacuoles (d) Cell wall

7. Which of the following cell organelle is called suicidal bag of cell? (a) Mitochondria

(b) Lysosome (c) Golgi body (d) Cytoplasm

8. Root hair absorbs water from soil through (a) Osmosis (b) Active transport (c) Diffusion (d) Endocytosis

9. Which of the following is called store house of cell? (a) Golgi body (b) Mitochondria (b) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Cell wall

10. Double membrane is absent in- (a) Mitochondrion (b) Chloroplast (c) Nucleus (d) Lysosome

11. Which of the following statements is correct? (a) Prokaryotic cells are surrounded by a cell membrane (b) Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus (c) Eukaryotic cells have genetic information (d) Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles

12. The membrane that surrounds the vacuole is (a) Tonoplast (b) Plasma membrane (c) Cell wall (d) Nuclear membrane

13. The organelle involved in cell secretion is (a) Plastids (b) ER (c) Golgi bodies (d) Nucleolus

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1. Name the following:

a) Two major functional regions of a cell.

b) Two-cell organelles, which have DNA apart from nucleus.

c) Cell organelles that are found only in plant cell.

d) Living parts of a cell.

e) cell organelle in which cristae are present

f) Cell organelle that is found only in animal cell.

g) Non - living parts of a cell.

2. Differentiate between diffusion and osmosis.

3. Explain the terms.

a) Endocytosis

b) Plasmolysis

4. Why the plasma membrane is called a selectively permeable membrane?

5. Which organelle of a cell is known as power house of the cell? Why?

6. Who presented the cell theory for the first time? What was it?

7. Draw five different types of cells found in Human body.

8. Who presented the cell theory for the first time? What was it?


9. Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell. Give one example of each.

10. Why are lysosomes known as ‘suicide-bags’ of a cell?

11. Why does the skin of your finger shrink when you wash clothes for a long time?

12. Why is endocytosis found in animals only?

13. A person takes concentrated solution of salt, after sometime, he starts vomiting. What is

the phenomenon responsible for such situation? Explain.

14. We eat food composed of all the nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins,

minerals and water. After digestion, these are absorbed in the form of glucose,

aminoacids, fatty acids, glycerol etc. What mechanisms are involved in absorption of

digested food and water?


15. If you are provided with some vegetables to cook. You generally add salt into the

vegetables during cooking process. After adding salt, vegetables release water. What

mechanism is responsible for this?

16. Name the organelles which show the analogy written as under

a) Transporting channels of the cell——

b) Power house of the cell——

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c) Packaging and dispatching unit of the cell——

d) Digestive bag of the cell——

e) Storage sacs of the cell——

f) Kitchen of the cell——

g) Control room of the cell——

17. How do substances like carbon dioxide (CO2 ) and water (H2O) move in and out of the

cell?

18. Name the two organelles in a plant cell that contain their own genetic material

and ribosomes.

19. How are chromatin, chromatid and chromosomes related to each other?

20. What are the consequences of the following conditions?

a) A cell containing higher water concentration than the surrounding medium

b) A cell having low water concentration than the surrounding medium.

c) A cell having equal water concentration to its surrounding medium.

21. Draw a plant cell and label the parts which

a) determines the function and development of the cell

b) packages materials coming from the endoplasmic reticulum

c) provides resistance to microbes to withstand hypotonic external media without

bursting

d) Is site for many biochemical reactions necessary to sustain life?

e) is a fluid contained inside the nucleus

f) Draw a neat labelled diagram of an animal cell

g) In brief state what happens when

h) dry apricots are left for sometime in pure water and later transferred to sugar

solution?

i) a Red Blood Cell is kept in concentrated saline solution?

j) the Plasma-membrane of a cell breaks down?

k) rheo leaves are boiled in water first and then a drop of sugar syrup is put on it?

l) golgi apparatus is removed from the cell?

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CHAPTER: TISSUE

QUESTION BANK

Multiple Choice Questions 1. A group of cells having a common origin and performing similar functions is called (a) Cell (b) Tissue (c) Organ (d) System

2. Presence of tissues in a multicellular organisms ensures (a) Faster development (b) Division of labour (c) Higher reproductive potential (d) Body strength

3.Which of the following statements given below is not correct about meristematic tissue ? (a) Is nude of cells that are incapable of cell division (b) Is made of cells are very active (c) Is composed of immature cells (d) Is composed of dense cytoplasm

4. Parenchyma which contains chlorophyll is called: (a) Collenchyma (b) Selerenchyma (c) Chlorenchyma (d) None of these

5. Parenchyma is a type of (a) Complex tissue (b) Simple tissue (c) Xylem (d) Phloem

6. Permanent tissues differe from meristematic tissue in (a) Inability to divide (b) attainment of definite shape and size (c) performing a distinct function (d) all the above

7. Which is not a function of complex tissue (a) protection- prevent desiccation (b) transportation of water (c) transportation of organic materials (d) transportation of minerals

8. Which one is made of dead cells ? (a) sclerenchyma (b) tracheids (c) vessel (d) all the above

9. Which of the following tissues are composed of mainly dead cells? (a) phloem (b) epidermis (c) xylem (d) endodermis

10. Which type of tissue forms the inner lining of a blood vessel? (a) epithelial (b) connective (c) nervous (d) muscle


1. Where is apical meristem found?

2. Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?

3. Name the meristematic tissue, which increases the thickness of plants.

4. What is the composition of blood? Write their functions.

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5. What are the functions of bone, cartilage and ligament?

6. Which structure protects the plant body against the invasion of parasites?

7. Epidermis in desert plants has a thin waxy coating of a chemical substance. Name the

chemical.

8. Why do meristematic tissues lack vacuoles?

9. Name the following.

a) Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth.

b) Tissue that connects muscle to bone in human.

c) Tissue that transports food in plants.

d) Tissue that stores fat in our body.


10. Distinguish between xylem tissue and phloem tissue.

11. How do cork cells act as a protective tissue?

12. Draw a well labelled diagram of a neuron.

13. How many types of elements together makeup the xylem tissue? Name them.

14. Which tissue makes up the husk of coconut?

15. How many types of tissues are found in animals? Write their basic functions.

16. How many types of tissues are found in animals?

17. Name the following.

a) Tissue that forms the inner lining of our mouth.

b) Tissue that connects muscle to bone in human.

c) Tissue that transports food in plants.

d) Tissue that stores fat in our body.


18. What are the differences between striated, unstriated and cardiac muscles?

19. Animals of colder regions and fishes of cold water have thicker layer of subcutaneous fat.

Describe why?

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20. If a potted plant is covered with a glass jar, water vapours appear on the wall of glass jar.

Explain why?

21. Water hyacinths float on water surface. Explain.

22. Why is epidermis important for the plants?

23. Name the connective tissue which helps in repair of tissues. State where this tissue is found.

24. Differentiate between sclerenchyma and parenchyma tissues. Draw well labelled diagram.

25. In a temporary mount of a leaf epidermis we observe small pores. (a) What are the pores

present in leaf epidermis called? (b) How are these pores beneficial to the plant?

26. Describe the structure and function of different types of epithelial tissues. Draw diagram of

each type of epithelial tissue.

27. Draw well labelled diagrams of various types of muscles found in human body.

28. Give reasons for

(a) Meristematic cells have a prominent nucleus and dense cytoplasm but they lack

vacuole.

(b) Intercellular spaces are absent in sclerenchymatous tissues.

(c) We get a crunchy and granular feeling, when we chew pear fruit.

(d) Branches of a tree move and bend freely in high wind velocity.

(e) It is difficult to pull out the husk of a coconut tree.

29. Why are xylem and phloem called complex tissues? How are they different from one other?

(a) Differentiate between meristematic and permanent tissues in plants

(b) Define the process of differentiation

(c) Name any two simple and two complex permanent tissues in plants.

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CHAPTER: MOTION

QUESTION BANK


1. The rate of change of displacement is called: (a) Velocity (b) distance (c) acceleration (d) Speed

2. A body whose speed is constant (a) must be accelerated (b)may be accelerated (c) has a constant velocity (d) cannot be accelerated

3. A man walks from point A to B through semicircular track ACB as shown in figure. What is his distance and displacement?

Radius of Semi Circular track ACB

OB = OA = r

(a) Distance = 2πr, displacement = 2πr (b) Distance = πr, displacement = 2πr (c) Distance = 2πr, displacement = 2r (d) Distance = πr, displacement = 2r

4. In accelerated motion, the path of the moving particle is

(a) straight line (b) circular (c) parabola (d) all the above

5. If a particle is at rest, then its displacement-time graph will be

(a) a curve (b) an inclined line (c) a line parallel to time axis (d) a line parallel time axis to displacement axis

6. A person travels from A to B through point C as shown in figure. Find the distance and displacement?

(a) Distance = 140m , displacement = 100m (b) Distance = 140m , displacement = 120m (c) Distance = 80m, displacement = 60m (d) Distance = 100m , displacement = 100m

7. Which of the following does not represent accelerated motion?

(a) A Car changing its speed per second by 2km/hr (b) A man walking slowly with speed of 2km/hr in a straight line (c) A car is moving on a circular track with uniform speed of 20km/hr (d) Both (b) and (c)

8. Identify a physical quantity which is not a vector

(a) Displacement (b) distance

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(c) acceleration (d) force

9. Which of the following is not true for displacement?

(a) It cannot be zero (b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance (c) Its unit is cm (d) Its magnitude can be equal to the distance

10. A man starts his journey and gains a velocity of 10m/s in 2s. Find its acceleration? (a) 5ms-2

(b) 2ms-2

(c) 1ms-2

(d) 10ms-2

11. A particle takes 6.28 seconds to complete one revolution. Its angular speed is

(a) 1 rad/s (b) 2 rad/s (c) 0.5 rad/s (d) 3.14 rad/s

12.Which of the following graphs represent uniform Motion ?

(a) Only (i) (b) (i), (iii) (c) (i), (ii) (d) (ii),(iii)


1. What is meant by the statement ‘Rest and motion are relative terms’? Give example

to show it.

2. Explain whether the walls of a classroom are at rest or in motion.

3. Define scalar and vector quantities.

4. Identify the following as scalar or vector quantities: mass, velocity, speed, length,

distance, displacement, temperature, force, weight, power, work and energy.

5. The school of a boy from his home is 1 km to the east. When he reaches back home,

he says that he had travelled 2 km distance but his displacement is zero. Justify your answer.

6. Under what condition, the average speed is equal to the magnitude of the average velocity.

Can the average speed of a moving body be zero?

7. Can the average velocity of a moving body be zero? State examples.

8. A car covers a distance of 5 km in 20 min. Find the velocity of the car in (a) km/min (b) m/s

(c) m/min (d) km/hr.

A train is moving with a velocity of 45km/hr. calculate the distance travelled by it in 1 hr, 1 min, 1

second.

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9. An object P is moving with a constant velocity for 5 min. Another object Q is moving

with changing velocity for 5 min. Out of these two objects, which one has acceleration?

Explain.

10.The displacement of a moving object in a given interval of time is zero. Would the distance

travelled by the object also be zero? Justify you answer.

11.A motorcyclist drives from A to B with a uniform speed of 30 km h–1 and returns back with a

speed of 20 km h–1. Find its average speed.

12.A car starts from rest and moves along the x-axis with constant acceleration 5 m s–2 for 8

seconds. If it then continues with constant velocity, what distance will the car cover in 12

seconds since it started from the rest?

13.Can an object be accelerated if it is moving with constant speed? If yes, explain

giving examples.

14.(i) When do you say that an object has positive acceleration?

(ii) When do you say that an object has negative acceleration?

15.State which of the following situations are possible and give an example of each of these:

(a) A body moving with constant acceleration but with zero velocity.

(b) A body moving horizontally with acceleration in vertical direction.

(c) A body moving with a constant speed in an accelerated motion.

16.What is a reference point? Name the 2 physical quantities which can be obtained from

velocity-time graph.

17.An electric train is moving with a velocity of 120km/hr. how much distance will it cover in 30

sec?

18.An object starting from rest travels 20 m in first 2 s and 160 m in next 4 s. What will be the

velocity after 7 s from the start?


19.An electron moving with a velocity of 5 × 104m s-1 enters into a uniform electric field and

acquires a uniform acceleration of 104 ms–2 in the direction of its initial motion. (i) Calculate

the time in which the electron would acquire a velocity double of its initial velocity.(ii) How

much distance the electron would cover in this time?

20.Give differences between linear motion and circular motion. Can the average speed of

a moving object be zero? Explain.

21. Can an object be accelerated if it is moving with constant speed? Justify.

22. Name two physical quantities that can be obtained from velocity – time graph.

23.Name the physical quantities measured by

(i) area under v-t graph

(ii) slope of s-t graph

(iii) slope of v-t graph

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CHAPTER: IS MATTER AROUND US PURE

QUESTION BANK

Multiple Choice Questions 1. The components of water can be separated by (a) Physical methods (b) Chemical methods (c) Both (d) They cannot be separated

2. In sugar solution, (a) Sugar is solute, water is solvent (b) Sugar is solvent, water is solute (c) both are solutes (d) both are solvents

3. After heating common salt and ammonium chloride for a few minutes, we can observe the following on the upper part of the inverted funnel: (a) reddish brown deposit. (b) water droplets (c) a white solid deposit (d) a yellow gas

4. Which of the following is a metalloid? (a) Germanium (b) Gallium (c) Carbon (d) Sodium

5. Who was the first person to use the term element? (a) Robert Boyle (b) Lavoisier (c) Dalton (d) Charle’s

6. The mixture will appear translucent in case of: (a) CuSO4 + water (b) alum + water (c) sugar + water (d) starch + water

7. Which of the following is not a noble gas? (a) Helium (b) Neon (c) Argon (d) Hydrogen

8. When a beam of light is passed through a colloidal solution, it gets: (a) reflected (b) absorbed (c) scattered (d) refracted

9. Size of colloidal particles in a solution is (a) more than 100 nm (b) less than 1 nm (c) between 1 to 100 nm (d) between 100 to 1000 nm

10. Which of the following is not a compound? (a) marble (b) washing soda (c) quick lime (d) brass

11. On heating a mixture of iron fillings and sulphur, it is observed that: (a) the mixture sublimes (b) a grey mass is formed (c) brown fumes are evolved (d) no change occurs

12. An atom is (a) the smallest particle of matter known (b) the smallest particle of a gas (c) the smallest indivisible particle of an element that can take part in a chemical change (d) radioactive emission

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1. Two liquids ‘A’ and ‘B’ are miscible with each other at room temperature. Which

separation technique will you apply to separate the mixture of ’A’ and ‘B’ if the

difference in their boiling point is 27 deg C?

2. Rain water stored in a tank contains sand grains, unfiltrable clay particles, calcium

carbonate, salt, pieces of paper and some air bubbles. Select from amongst these one

example each of a solvent, a solute, a colloid and a suspension.

3. Suggest separation technique(s) one would need to employ to separate the following

mixtures:

(a) Mercury and Water

(b) Potassium Chloride and ammonium chloride

(c) Common salt, water and sand

(d) Kerosene oil, water and salt

4. Give some examples of Tyndall effect observed in your surroundings.

5. A pupil decides to separate powdered calcium carbonate from powdered sodium chloride by shaking the mixture with water and filtering. Would this procedure succeed? Explain.

6. Differentiate between:

(a) true solution & a colloid

(b) metals & non-metals

(c) compound & mixtures

(d) Physical & chemical changes.

7. 0.5 g of salt is dissolved in 25g of water. Calculate the percentage amount of the salt in the

solution.

8. Why crystallisation technique does is better than simple evaporation technique?

9. During an experiment the students were asked to prepare a 10% (Mass/Mass) solution of

sugar in water. Ramesh dissolved 10g of sugar in 100g of water while Sarika prepared it

by dissolving 10g of sugar in water to make 100g of the solution.

(a) Are the two solutions of the same concentration?

(b) Compare the mass% of the two solutions.

10. Explain why filter paper cannot be used to separate colloids?


11. The ‘sea-water’ can be classified as a homogeneous as well as heterogeneous mixture.

Comment.

12. What would you observe when (a) a saturated solution of potassium chloride prepared at

60°C is allowed to cool to room temperature.

(b) an aqueous sugar solution is heated to dryness.

(c) a mixture of iron filings and sulphur powder is heated strongly.

13. A compound is regarded as a pure substance while the mixture is not. Assign reason.

14. How can a saturated solution be made unsaturated?

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15. How would you separate a mixture of NH4Cl and I2?

16. Salt can be recovered from its solution by evaporation. Suggest some other technique

for the same?

17. Colloidal solutions show Tyndall effect but true solutions do not. Discuss.

18. Write two points of difference between simple distillation and fractional distillation. Write example where fractional distillation is used.

19. Smoke and fog both are aerosols. In what way are they different?


20. Explain why particles of a colloidal solution do not settle down when left undisturbed,

while in the case of a suspension they do.

21. Calculate the mass of sodium sulphate required to prepare its 20% (mass percent) solution in 100g of water?

22. What are the favourable qualities given to gold when it is alloyed with copper or silver

for the purpose of making ornaments?

23. Name the process associated with the following

(a) Dry ice is kept at room temperature and at one atmospheric pressure.

(b) A drop of ink placed on the surface of water contained in a glass spread throughout

the water.

(c) A potassium permanganate crystal is in a beaker and water is poured into the beaker

with stirring.

(d) A acetone bottle is left open and the bottle becomes empty.

(e) Milk is churned to separate cream from it.

(f) Settling of sand when a mixture of sand and water is left undisturbed for some time.

(g) Fine beam of light entering through a small hole in a dark room, illuminates

the particles in its paths.

24. Describe activity to separate the crystal of alum from its impure sample?

25. (a) Under which category of mixtures will you classify alloys and why?

(b) A solution is always a liquid. Comment.

(c) Can a solution be heterogeneous?

15

CHAPTER: FORCE AND LAWS OF MOTION

QUESTION BANK


1. What do we get by the product of mass

and velocity?

(a) force

(b) Inertia

(c) acceleration

(d) momentum

2. Action and reaction forces

(a) act on the same bodies

(b) act on different bodies

(c) act in same direction

(d) both (a) and (c)

3. An object of mass 6 kg is sliding on

horizontal surface, with a uniform velocity

of 8 m/ s . Assuming force of friction offered

by the surface to be zero, The force

required to maintain the motion of object

with the same uniform velocity is

(a) 0 Newton

(b) 2 Newtons

(c) 8 Newtons

(d) 32 Newtons

4. There will be a change in the speed or in

the direction of motion of a body when it is

acted upon by

(a) Zero Force

(b) Balanced Force

(c) An Unbalanced force

(d) Uniform force

5. Force required in accelerating a 3 kg mass at 5 m/s2 and a 4 kg mass at 4 m/s2, will be

(a) Zero in both the cases

(b) Same in both the cases

(c) greater for 3 kg mass at 5 m/s2

(d) greater for 4 kg mass at 4 m/s2

4. Which of the Expression to find the Force

is correct?

(a) F= m/a

(b) F= ma

(c) F= a/m

(d) F= ma/m

7. Inertia of a body is quantitative measure

of its.

(a) velocity

(b) acceleration

(c) Mass

(d) Force

8. Rocket works on the principle of

conservation of

(a) velocity

(b) Mass

(c) Linear Momentum

(d) Energy

9. In the following example, try to identify

the number of times the velocity of ball

changes:

“A football player kicks a football to another

player of his team who kicks the football

towards the goal. The goalkeeper of the

opposite team collects the football and

kicks it towards a player of his own team.”

(a) Three times

(b) Four times

(c) Five times

(d) Six times

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10. A bullet of mass 40gm is fired from a

gun of mass 8kg with a velocity of 800 m/s,

calculate the recoil velocity of gun

(a) 1m/s

(b) -1m/s

(c) 2m/s

(d) -4m/s

11. A passenger in a moving train tosses a

coin. The coin will fall back

(a) Behind him

(b) In front of him

(c) On his hands

(d) On the side of the train

12. A hammer of mass 300 g, moving at

40m/s, strikes a nail. The nail stops the

hammer in a very short time of 0.02 s. The

force of the nail on the hammer is

(a) 600N

(b) 1200N

(c) 2000N

(d) 2500N


1. Give an example in each case where:

(a) Force causes a motion in stationary object.

(b) Force stops a moving body.

(c) Force changes the direction of a moving body.

(d) Force changes the speed of a moving body.

(e) Force changes the shape of a moving body.

2. Distinguish between balanced and unbalanced forces.

3. Give two examples to show that greater the mass, greater is inertia of a body.

4. Give reasons:

(a) A passenger in a bus tends to fall backward when it starts suddenly.

(b) A bullet fired against a glass window pane makes a hole in it without cracking it.

(c) An athlete runs a certain distance before taking a long jump.

5. What is the relationship between: (a) acceleration and mass of a body (b) force

and acceleration?

6. Why does an athlete take a longer jump if he comes running from a distance than when

he jumps suddenly from the take-off line?

7. Give reasons:

(a) A karate player can break a pile of tiles in a single blow.

(b) A car driver prefers to hit something soft (say hay stock) than a wall if his car goes out

of control while driving.

(c) Shockers are provided in vehicles.

8. Two bodies A & B of the same mass are moving with velocities v and 3v respectively.

Compare their (a) inertia (b) Momentum (c) the force needed to stop them in the same

time.

9. Explain with reasons:

a. When a shot is fired from a gun the gun recoils.

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b. A jet aeroplane releases a lot of hot gases before taking off.

c. We press the ground while walking forward.

d. A rubber ball rebounds when struck against a hard floor.

10. Why do we get hurt by falling on a concrete structure than on a sand track?


11. You are hurt when you kick a stone. Why?

12. Explain why a bicycle stops if we stop pedalling.

13. If we take out a piece of paper from under a book with a jerk, the book will not move.

Explain.

14. A force acts on a body of mass m1 and produce an acceleration a1. The same

force when acting on a mass m2 produces acceleration a2. Define the relation between

m1, m2, a1, a2.

15. Could a body of mass ma have a weight equal to zero?

16. If Newton’s 3rd law of motion is written in the form F21 = F12; what is the mistake?

17. A bullet fired from a gun is more dangerous than an air molecule hitting a person,

though both bullet and air molecule are moving with same velocity. Explain.

18. Why are road accidents at high speeds very much worse than accidents at low speeds?

19. What was the misbelieve about the theory of motion before Newtonian motion theory?

Why was it overruled?

20. When force acting on a body has an equal and opposite reaction, then why should the

body move at all?


21. Why is it difficult for a fireman to hose, which ejects large amount of water at a high

velocity?

22. A bullet of mass 15g leaves the barrel of a gun with a velocity of 120m/s. The gun recoils

with a velocity of 1m/s. Find the mass of the gun.

23. What can you say about the speed of a moving object if no force is acting on to it?

24. Is a marble rolling down an inclined plane moving with constant velocity? Explain.

25. Two forces of 5N &22N are acting in a body in the same direction what will be the

resultant force & in which direction will it act?

26. A block of mass 3kg has a velocity of um/s. When a force of 18N acts on the block, it

reduces the velocity from U to U/2 after the block has covered a distance of 9 m. Find U?

27. Give reasons:

(a) Carpet is beaten with a stick to clean it,

(b) Seat belts are provided in the cars to prevent accidents.

(c) Only the carom coin at the bottom of a pile is removed when a fast moving carom

coin (or striker) hits it.

18

CHAPTER: GRAVITATION QUESTION BANK

Multiple Choice Questions 1. A body of mass 1 kg is attracted by the earth with a force which is equal to (a) 9.8 N (b) 6.67 x 1011

(c) 1 N (d) 9.8 m/s

2. Newton’s law of gravitation applies to (a) small bodies only (b) plants only (c) all bodies irrespective of their size (d) for solar system

3. What is the centripetal force that makes moon revolve around earth? (a) Gravitational Force (b) Electrostatic Force (c) Magnetic Force (d) None

4. The mass of an object is the measure of its (a) pressure. (b) weight. (c) inertia. (d) thrust.

5. Which of the following case do not take place due to gravitational force? (a) Earth revolution around Sun (b) Magnet attracting Iron nails (c) Apple following from tree (d) All are due to gravity

6. What is the value of Universal Gravitational Constant on Moon if its value is G on earth? (a) G (b) G/6 (c) G/3 (d) G/2

7. Which can be zero at the centre of the earth?

(a) Mass only (b) Weight only (c) Both mass and weight (d) None of the above

8. Find the gravitational force between two spheres of mass m and m/2 having radius x are in contact with each other.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

9. What is the unit of universal gravitational Constant?

(a) Newton (meter)2(kilogram)-2

(b) Newton (meter)-2(kilogram)-1

(c) Newton (meter)2(kilogram)2

(d) Newton (meter)2(kilogram)-1

10. Which of the following can be said about the motion of a ball just after it is thrown upward?8. Which of the following can be said about the motion of a ball just after it is thrown upward? (a) Accelerated (b) Retarded (c) Constant speed (d) Constant velocity

19

11. Which of the following graph represents the motion of a ball when thrown upward?

(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv)

12. The acceleration due to gravity varies on earth with (a) Distance from equator

(b) Altitude (c) Mass of an object (d) (a) and (b)

13. A ball is thrown upwards, the value of g will be (a) Zero (b) positive (c) negative (d) negligible

14. The gravitational forces cause (a) Tides (b) Motion of moon (c) none of the above (d) Both (a) and (b)

15. The mass of a body on moon is 40 kg, what is the weight on the earth. (a) 240 kg (b) 392 N (c) 240 N (d) 400 kg


1. Define: gravitation, gravity and gravitational force.

2. State the universal law of gravitation and its mathematical form.

3. In what source is ‘G’ universal?

4. What happens to the force of attraction between two objects when

(i) Their mass is halved?

(ii) Distance between them is increased to 4 times its previous value.

(iii) Distance between them as well as each of the mass is increase to 4 times.

5. If the distance between two bodies is increased 4 times by what factor should the mass of

the bodies be altered so that the gravitational force between them remains the

same?

6. What is the force between two spheres weighing 20 kg each and placed 50 cm apart?

7. A sphere of mass 40 kg is attracted by another sphere of mass 15 kg when their centres

are 0.2m apart with force of 9.8 x 10-7 N. Calculate value of ‘G’.

8. Find the distance between two stones each of mass 2 kg so that the gravitational force

between them is 1N.

9. Gravitational force between two objects on earth is 2N. What will be the gravitational

force between these two objects on the surface of the earth?

20


10. Why don’t we see objects in the universe colliding or moving towards each other due to

gravitational force?

11. Why do all objects fall towards the earth?

12. Give a few examples / applications of the universal law of gravitation.

13. On what factor [s} does the gravity of a planet depend?

14. Define ‘G’ and give its value. Differentiate between ‘g’ and ‘G’.

15. Define ‘g’ and give its value on the surface of the earth. Name the factors on which ‘g’

depends.

16. Calculate the gravitational force between a body of mass 100 kg and the earth.

Also calculate the acceleration produced in the body and that in earth.

17. A body weighs 1 kg on the surface of the moon. If mass of the moon is 7.4 x 10 22 kg and

radius of moon is 1740 km. Calculate:

(a) The force acting between the body & the moon.

(b) Acceleration produced in the body

(c) Acceleration produced in moon.

18. Give reasons: (a) A camel can run in a desert easily as compared to horse.

(b) An army tank weighing more than a thousand tonne rests upon a continuous chain.

(c) A truck or a motorbus has much wider tyres.

(d) Cutting tools have sharper edges.

(e) Buildings have broad foundations

(f) Dams have broader walls at the bottom.

(g) A cork floats while a nail sinks in water

(h) A body loses its weight when dipped in water

19. Name the factor on which the density of the fluid depends.

20. When we stand on loose sand, our feet go deep into the sand. But when we lie down on

the sand our body does not go that deep in the sand. Why?


21. Why is it easy to walk on sand with flat shoes, then with high heel shoes?

22. The gravitational force between sun and Jupiter is approximately 4x10 23N. If the mass of

the sun = 1.99x1030 kg, the mean distance of the Jupiter from the sun is 7.8x1011 m find the mass of Jupiter.

23. (a) A cube of side 5 cm is immersed in water and then in saturated salt solution.

In which case will it experience a greater buoyant force? If each side of the cube is reduced

to 4 cm and then immersed in water, what will be the effect on the buoyant force

experienced by the cube as compared to the first case for water? Give reason for each

case.

(b) A ball weighing 4 kg of density 4000 kg m–3 is completely immersed in water of density 103 kg m–3. Find the force of buoyancy on it. (Given g = 10 m s–2.)

21

24. The earth is acted upon by gravitation of Sun, even though it does not fall into the Sun.

Why? What happens when: (a) Buoyant Force exerted by the fluid is less than the

weight of the body? (b) Buoyant Force exerted by the fluid is equal to the weight of the

body?

25. (a) A floating boat displaces water weighing 6000 N.

(i) What is the buoyant force on the boat? (ii) What is the weight of boat?

(b) What happens to the buoyant force as more and more volume of a solid object

is immersed in a liquid?

26. Identical packets are dropped from two aeroplanes, one above the equator and the

other above the North Pole, both at height h. Assuming all conditions are identical, will

those packets take same time to reach the surface of earth. Justify your answer.

22

CHAPTER: IMPROVEMENT IN FOOD RESOURCES

QUESTION BANK


1.Using fertilizers in farming is an example of (a) no cost production (b) low cost production (c) High cost production (d) none of these

2. Cyperinus and Parthenium are types of (a) diseases (b) pesticides (c) weeds (d) Pathogens

3. Leghorn is related to (a) Apiculture (b) Dairy farming (c) Pisciculture (d) Poultry

4. Which one of the following is not cause of air pollution? (a)Carbon dioxide (b)Carbon monoxide (c)Oxides of sulphur (d)None of these

5. What is Ozone? (a)Allotrope of nitrogen (b)Part of nitrogen (c)Part of ozone (d)Allotrope of oxygen

6. Soil erosion is- (a)Rainwater harvesting (b)Groundwater extraction (c)Removal of fertile layer of soil (d)Avoiding water wastage

7. Which of the following is not the causes of soil erosion: (a)Plantation (b)Removal of top soil by wind and water (c)Due to lack of trees the upper layer of

soil is eroded by air and water (d)None of these

8. Biogeochemical Cycles operates: (a)Programme (b)Abiotic factor (c)Both (a) and (b) (d)Soil, water air and biotic factor

9. Carbon present in the atmosphere in the form of- (a) Carbon monoxide (b)Carbon dioxide (c)Carbon Carbon (d)Carbon methane

10. Fossil fuel and metallic minerals are: (a) Renewable resource (b) Inexhaustible resources (c) Non-renewable resources (d) None of these

11. ……………… plays an important role in nitrogen fixation. (a)Heating (b)Evaporation (c)Lighting (d)All of the above

12. Which statement is true for ammonification? (a)Process of decomposition of organic matter to ammonia (b)Process of decomposition of organic matter to nitriles (c)Process of decomposition of inorganic matter to ammonia (d)All of the above

13. What is the process of growing two or more crops in a definite pattern? (a) Crop rotation (b) Inter-cropping (c) Mixed cropping (d) Organic farming

23

14. Which of the following statements about the de-nitrification is not correct- (a)Nitrates to atmospheric nitrogen

(b)Ammonia to organic matter (c)Nitrates to nitrites (d)None of the above


1. What is crop rotation? How is it significant to a farmer?

2. Differentiate betwee kharif and rabi crops?

3. Differentiate between manure and fertilizers.

4. What are micro-nutrients for plants?

5. What is plant breeding? What are its advantages and disadvantages?

6. Describe composite fish culture system. Write its significance.

7. What are draught animals? Write their salient features.

8. Name some plants which are used as fodder for animals.

9. What are essential elements for plants? Which important elements are obtained from

air and water?


10. State any two advantages of mixed cropping?

11. What do you understand by green manuring? Give examples of crops used as

green manure.

12. What qualities should be taken into consideration while selecting varieties of birds for

poultry farming?

13. Which criteria should be kept in mind for selecting the crops for inter-cropping?

14. What is a GM crop? What are the challenges before growing such crops in India?

15. Why is excess use of fertilizers detrimental for environment?

16. How manure is good to use in crop fields instead of using fertilizers?

17. Give one word for the following

(a) Farming without the use of chemicals as fertilizers, herbicides and pesticides.

(b) Growing of wheat and groundnut on the same field.

(c) Planting soyabean and maize in alternate rows in the same field.

(d) Growing different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession.

(e) Xanthium and Parthenium are commonly.

(f) Causal organism of any disease.

18. If there is low rainfall in a village throughout the year, what measures will you suggest to

the farmers for better cropping?

19. Group the following and tabulate them as energy yielding, protein yielding, oil yielding

and fodder crop. Wheat, rice, berseem, maize, gram, oat, pigeon gram, sudan grass,

24

lentil, soyabean, groundnut, castor and mustard.


20. Differentiate between compost and vermicompost?

21. An Italian bee variety A. mellifera has been introduced in India for honey production.

Write about its merits over other varieties.

22. Discuss various methods for weed control.

23. Discuss why pesticides are used in very accurate concentration and in very appropriate

manner?

24. Explain the essential components of poultry farm management. Suggest some

preventive measures for the diseases of poultry birds.

25

CHAPTER: STRUCTURE OF AN ATOM

QUESTION BANK


1. The four atomic species can be represented as follows. Out of these, the two species which can be termed isobars are: (i) 201X60 (ii)

200X61 (iii) 200X58 (iv) 203X60

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iv) 2. An element has electronic configuration 2, 6; the element is (a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen (c) Oxygen (d) Fluorine

3. The radioactive isotope used in the treatment of cancer is: (a) plutonium-239 (b) arsenic-74 (c) cobalt-60 (d) iodine-131

4. The atomic number of an element X is 8 and that of element Y is 4. Both these elements can exhibit a valency of: (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

5. The number of valence electrons in Mg are (a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4

6. Elements having valency ‘one’ are: (a) always metals (b) always non-metals (c) always metalloids (d) either metals or non-metals

7. Which of the following has one valence electron (a) Li (b) Ca (c) Mg (d) Be

8. Mass number of calcium is ………, if it has 20 electrons and 20 neutrons. (a) 40 b) 20 (c) 18 (d) 30

9. In Rutherford’s Gold foil experiment most of rays passed through atom showing that (a) most of the atom is hollow (b) atoms is +vely charged at the centre (c) atom is spherical (d) atom is neutral

10. Which of the following elements does not exhibit electrovalency ? (a) calcium (b) chromium (c) carbon (d) cadmium


1. Name three sub atomic particles of an atom.

2. Define atomic number and mass number. What are Canal rays?

26

3. Describe the particle scattering experiment conducted by Rutherford with a diagram.

4. Describe the model of atom given by J.J. Thomson. What are the limitations of J.J.

Thomson’s model of an atom?

5. Describe the Bohr’s model of an atom.

6. Why do Helium, Neon and Argon have a zero valency?

7. How Rutherford concluded that the centre part of any atom not empty?

8. What are the drawbacks of Rutherford’s model of atom?

9. Atomic number of chlorine atom is 17. What is the atomic number of Cl- ?

10. If number of electrons and protons in an atom is 9 each, what is the atomic number of

the element?


11. Write the distribution of electrons in following atoms- carbon, sodium, oxygen, sulphur,

lithium, silicon, phosphorous, nitrogen.

12. What is valency? If Z = 4, what is the valency and number of protons and neutrons of the

element?

13. What are valence electrons? Give example to explain, how it helps in finding the valency

of an atom.

14. Compare an electron, proton and neutron in terms of charge and mass.

15. Write difference between isobars and isotopes

16. Helium atom has atomic mass of 4u and has two protons in the nucleus. How

many neutrons does it have?

17. If the K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the number of electrons in

the atom?

18. Why did Rutherford select a gold foil in his α–ray scattering experiment?

19. If the number of electrons in an atom is 8 and the number of protons is also 8, then; (i)

What would be the atomic number of the atom? (ii) What is the charge on the atom?


20. Na+ ion has completely filled k and L shells. Explain.

21. One electron is present in the outer most shell of the atom of an element X. What

would be the nature and value of charge on the ion formed if this electron is removed

from the outer most shell?

22. Will 35Cl and 37Cl have different valencies? Justify your answer.

23. The average atomic mass of a sample of element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of

isotopes, 16 8X and 18

8 X in the sample?

24. In the atom of an element X, 6 electrons are present in the outermost shell. If it acquires

noble gas configuration by accepting requisite number of electrons, then what would be

the charge on the ion so formed?

27

25. (a) Explain Bohr and Bury rules for distribution of electrons into different shells. (b)

Draw the electronic structure of element X with atomic number 17 and element Y with

atomic number 16?

26. Enlist the conclusions drawn by Rutherford from his α-ray scattering experiment.

27. Write the electronic configuration of magnesium atom and magnesium ion. How do

these configurations differ? Support your answer in the form of atomic structures.

28

CHAPTER: WORK AND ENERGY

QUESTION BANK


1. A dog weighing 25 kg, while chasing a cat,

jumps over a fence of height 1.6 m. What is

the potential energy of dog at the top of

fence ?

(Take gravity due to earth 'g'=10 m s-2 ) (a) 160 Joules

(b) 320 Joules

(c) 380 Joules

(d) 480 Joules

2. In winters, rubbing of hands together for

some time, causes a sensation of warmth

mainly because of

(a) heat caused by the force of friction

(b) heat caused by the momentum

(c) heat caused by the motion

(d) heat flows from the blood to skin

3. A soldier makes a swing jump between

two points, by holding one end of a rope,

other end of which is tied to some higher

point. Work done by rope in jumping of

soldier from one point to another is an

example of :

(a) Negative work

(b) Positive work

(c) Zero work done

(d) None of the above

4. Which of the following does not have

unit as Joule?

(a) Work done

(b) Kinetic energy

(c) Potential energy

(d) Force

5 . The commercial unit of energy

consumption in households, industries and

commercial establishments is

(a) Joule

(b) Watt

(c) kW

(d) KW h (kilowatt hour)

6. A runner, while moving, is facing a wind

from the opposite direction. The work done

by the wind on runner will be

(a) Zero

(b) negative

(c) Positive

(d) infinity

7. The value of 1 Kilo Watt Hour is

(a) 1.8 X 105J

(b) 3.6 X 106J (c) 5.4 X 108J

(d) 7.2 X 1010J

8. An external force is being applied on an

object at some angle and it causes the

object either to be pulled or pushed on a

rough surface. Which of the following holds

true ?

(a) It is easier to push the object

(b) It is easier to pull the object

(c) It requires same efforts to push or pull

the object

(d) None of the above

9. A car with mass ‘M’ is moving on

horizontal road with velocity ‘v’. Driver

applies accelerator and increases it speed 3

times to ‘3v’. The final K.E. acquired by the

car will be :

(a) 1.5 Mv2

(b) 2.5 Mv2

(c) 3.5 Mv2

(d) 4.5 Mv2

10. As per the statement given in Q.9

above, What change it will take place for

the potential energy of the car

(a) It will remain the same

(b) It will increase

(c) It will decrease

29

(d) It will becomes 3 times the Intial P.E.


1. Under what conditions work is said to be done?

2. Is it possible that force is acting on a body but still work done is zero? Explain

3. What will be the work done by the string, when a stone is tied to a string and whirled in a

circle?

4. When is the work done by a force on a body said to be positive? Give 2 examples.

5. When is the work done by a force on a body said to be negative? Give 2 examples.

6. State with reason whether the work done in following is positive or negative:

a. Work done by a man in lifting out of the well a bucket tied by means of a rope.

b. Work done by gravitational force in the above case ‘a’.

c. Work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane.

d. Work done by applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with

uniform velocity.

e. Work done by resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum to bring it to rest.

7. Define one-joule energy.

8. Explain (a) A moving cricket ball can do work. (c) A compressed spring can do work. (b) A

striking hammer can do work.

9. Explain with help of an activity: (a) A moving object possesses energy and can do work. (b)

An object moving faster can do more work than an identical object moving relatively slow.


10. Derive the formula for kinetic energy: KE = 1/2mv2

11. How is the kinetic energy of a moving body affected if its velocity is tripled?

12. What would have a greater effect on kinetic energy of an object – doubling the mass or

doubling the velocity?

13. A compressed spring can do work. Explain with the help of an activity.

14. A stretched spring can do work. Explain with help of an activity.

15. What happens to the potential energy of a body if (a) It’s mass is tripled? (b) It is

lowered halved to its original height? (c) Its mass is reduced to one-fourth? (d) The body

is taken from the poles to the equator? (e) It is raised four times the original.

16. Give reasons: (a) Winding the spring of our watch, the hands of the watch move. (b) A

bullet is released on firing the pistol. (c) An arrow moves forward when released from the

stretched bow.

17. Explain the transformation in the following cases: (a) Production of hydroelectricity (b)

Production of fossil fuel (c) Production of food by green plants (d) Water cycle in nature

(e) Running of a windmill.

30

18. What will happen to the amount of work done if:

a. The magnitude of the force applied is increased?

b. The displacement of the body is reduced?

19. From the following activities listed below, state whether or not the work is done. Give

reasons also.

a. An apple is falling off a tree.

b. A man is holding a bucket of water.

c. A girl is pushing a book on a table.

d. A coolie is lifting a load on his head.

e. A horse is pulling a cart.

f. A cat is flying due to moving air.


20. State and prove the law of conservation of energy.

21. A rocket of mass3x106 kg takes off from a launching pad and acquires a vertical velocity

of 1km/s at an altitude of 25 km. Calculate (a) the potential energy and (b) the kinetic

energy. (g = 9.8m/s2)

22. If a man lifts a load up with the help of a rope such that it raises the load of mass 50kg to

a height of 20m in 100 sec. Find the power of man.

23. A ball is dropped from a height of 5m. Find the velocity of the ball just before it reaches

the ground. Do you require the value of mass to find the velocity?

24. Two persons A and B do same amount of work. The person A does that work in t1 sec and

the person b in t2 sec. Find the ratio of power delivered by them.

25. Why do our hands become warm when rubbed against each other? Explain.

26. Two bodies have same momentum. Which will have greater kinetic energy- heavier

body or lighter body?

27. An electric bulb of 60w is used for 6h per day .Calculate the units of energy consumed in

one day by the bulb.

28. A boy of mass 50kg runs up to a stair case of 45 steps in 9s. If the height of a step is

15cm, find his power. (g= 10m/s2)

29. Two particles of masses 1g and 2g have equal momentum. Find the ratio between their

kinetic energies?

31

CHAPTER: DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS QUESTION BANK

Multiple Choice Questions 1. Classification helps us in exploring ………. of life forms (a) cell (b) diversity (c) organ (d) system

2. Father of taxonomy (a) A N Leeuwenhoek (b) Carolus Lannaeus (c) Medal (d) Carolus Mendal

3. H. Whittaker proposed : (a) Two kingdom classification (b) Monera (c) Virus (d) Five kingdom classification

4. Which of the following tissues are composed of mainly dead cells? (a) phloem (b) epidermis (c) xylem (d) endodermis

5. In which the reproductive organs are hidden (a) Cryptogamae (b) Phanerogamae (c) Gymnosperms (d) angiosperms

6. Which phylum of animals is also called flatworms? (a) Porifera (b) Coelenterata (c) Platyhelminthes (d) Nematoda

7.What is the exclusive marine phylum? (a) Echinodermata (b) Porifera (c) Cnidarians (d) Protozoa

8. Amphibians of the plant kingdom (a) Thallophyta (b) Bryophyte (c) Angiosperms (d) None of above

9. What is not possessed by bacteria? (a) Membrane bound organelles (b) Nucleu (c) Nucleolus (d) All of these

10.What does Arthropod means? (a) Bonous legs (b) Cartilaginous legs (c) Largest legs (d) Jointed legs


1. Define classification of organisms. Why do we need to classify them? Mention any two

major characteristics used for classifying organisms?

2. How thallophyta is different from bryophyte?

3. What are the difference between amphibians and reptiles?

4. State any two characteristics of mammalian. Name two egg laying mammals?

5. What are the main characteristics of Chordates?

32

6. Give the appropriate term for each of the following

a) Complex sugar that make the fungal cell wall

b) Basic unit of classification

c) Plants which bear naked seeds

d) Group of unicellular eukaryotic organism

e) Blue-green algae

7. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms?

8. Bat can fly still it is placed in mammals? Why?

9. State differences between cryptogamae and phanerogamae?


10. What was the modification introduced by Woese in kingdom Monera?

11. X, Y, and Z are living organisms.

a) Identify the group to which they belong on the basis of following features:

X – Microscopic, unicellular, prokaryotic.

Y - Microscopic, unicellular, eukaryotic and shows locomotion with the help of

pseudopodia/flagella.

Z - Microscopic, eukaryotic, filamentous, autotropic and aquatic.

b) Which amongst the above is most advanced?

c) Name one organism each belonging to the groups of X, Y and Z.

12. What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in

the Mammalia groups?

13. Identify the animal group having:

a) Bones light and hollow.

b) Soft body animals supported by calcareous shells.

c) Body spiny skinned and triploblastic.

d) Body is cylindrical rather than flattened.

e) Jointed legs.

f) Body differentiation in segmental fashion.

14. How do gymnosperms different from the phanerogams?

15. (a) What are the two adaptive features of birds?

(b) What is the scientific name of ostrich?

16. Differentiate between open and closed circulatory system.

17. State any three characteristics of mammalian. Name two egg laying mammals.

18. Explain the following terms:

a) Bilateral symmetry

b) Triploblastic animals and

c) Open circulatory system

33


19. Who proposed the five kingdom classification? State the basis for grouping organisms

into five kingdoms?

20. Leech, Nereis, prawn and scorpion – all have segmented body organization. Can they be

placed in the same group? State yes/ no giving reasons?

21. Give the outline of the classification of plants on the basis of various features?

22. Why plants like Pinus and Deodar are called gymnosperms?

23. What is binomial nomenclature system? Who proposed this? List four convections that

are followed while writing the scientific names?

24. Homo sapiens is the scientific name of human beings? What do these two terms imply?

25. (i) Identify the class of animals having the following characteristic features. (a) The warm blooded animals that lay eggs and have four chambered heart and a covering of feathers. (b) The cold blooded animals having scales and they breathe through lungs. (ii) Give one example of an animal belonging to each of these classes

26. Why are angiosperms so called? In which structure do the seed develops? Why

are cotyledons considered an important part of seed?

27. Discuss the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera or

Protista.

34

CHAPTER: WHY DO WE FALL ILL

QUESTION BANK

Multiple Choice Questions 1. is caused by Anopheles mosquito. a) Malaria b) Dengue c) Cholera d) Typhoid

2. Which of the following is not transferred by houseflies? a) Typhoid b) Cholera c) Dysentery d) AIDS

3. Mosquito is a vector for disease a) Malaria b) Typhoid c) Dengue d) All of d above

4. Which of the following is a protozoan infection? a)Ringworm b)Measles c)Kala azar d)Tetanus

5. Which of the following is a chronic disease? a) Cold b) Diabetes c) Influenza d) Typhoid

6. Which of these is an air-borne disease? a) Diphtheria b) Jaundice c) Syphilis d) Cancer

7. Viruses, which cause bird flu is transmitted by a) Air b) Water c) Birds d) Sexual contact

8. Droplet method of transmission of disease is found in a) Common cold b) Syphilis c) Diabetes d) Typhoid

9. Microbes that enter the body through nose most likely affects a) Liver b) Heart c) lungs d) Stomach

10. Which of the following statement is not correct for a chronic case? a) It is a long-lasting disease b) it lasts for a short period c) It does not damage any organ d) All the above


1. Name the causative agent for

(i) Typhoid

(ii)Malaria

2. Give the ways by which microbial agents can commonly move from an infected person

to someone else for the following disease:

a) Cholera

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b) Pneumonia

c) Common cold

d) Malaria

e) Fungal infection

3. Name the system which is responsible for fighting on incoming pathogen?

4. A patient has been recommended to eat the husk of isabgol with water or curd. What is

he suffering from?

5. What are the different means by which infectious diseases are spread?

6. What is other chemical name of vitamin -C?

7. Which type of disease is most dangerous for the health?

8. How does public cleanliness affect our health?

9. What is the difference between acute and chronic diseases?

10. Write the name of the organism that causes kala-azar.


11. Why do some children fall ill more frequently than others living in the same locality?

12. Write one example of both infectious and non-infectious disease?

13. An athlete has just won the marathon and he is very tired and on the verge of

dehydration. What first aid will you administer?

14. Which organism is responsible for causing malaria?

15. Why is immune system essential for our health?

16. What do you mean by antibiotics? Name any two groups of microorganisms from which

antibiotics can be extracted?

17. How can we prevent water borne diseases?

18. Why is AIDS considered to be a ‘Syndrome’ and not a disease?

19. Mention any three basic conditions required for good health?


20. With the diagram only, depict the common methods of transmission of diseases?

21. What is immunisation? Who discovered it? Name the disease against which it was

discovered. Define the basic of principle of immunisation.

22. How does AIDS virus spread? Why a person suffering from AIDS cannot fight even small

infections?

23. (a) Which of the following diseases are protozoan in origin?

Dengue, Malaria, Kala-azar and HIV-AIDS

(b) Suggest any two ways to prevent being infected by protozoa.

24. What is human immune system? What is a vaccine? How immunisation can be

achieved?

25. Why the making of antiviral medicines is harder than antibacterial?

26. . (i) State in brief the principle of immunisation.

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(ii) Name any two diseases that can be prevented by immunisation.

27. Becoming exposed to or infected with an infectious microbe does not necessarily mean

developing noticeable disease. Explain.

28. A certain family buys salt of inferior quality. They also do not have access to sea food,

vegetables and fruits. As a result the children suffer from retarded mental and physical

growth. What deficiency are they facing? Suggest 2 remedies.

29. ‘‘Prevention of disease is more desirable than its treatment’’. Justify the statement by

discussing three major strategies to be adopted for the prevention of infectious

diseases.

37

CHAPTER: ATOMS AND MOLECULES QUESTION BANK

Multiple Choice Questions 1. The formula of a chloride of a metal M is MCl3, the formula of the phosphate of metal M will be (a) MPO4

(b) M2PO4

(c) M3PO4

(d) M2(PO4)3

2. The ratio of H:O by mass in hydrogen

6. Valence of noble gases is (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) none of these

7. The number of atoms of hydrogen present In 1 mole of ethyne (C2H2) is

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peroxide (H2O2) is (a) 16 : 1 (b) 1 : 8 (c) 1 : 32 (d) 1 : 16 3. Which has the largest number of molecules? (a) 54 g of N2O5

(b) 28 g of CO2

(c) 36 g of H2O (d) 46 g of C2H5OH 4. The molecular formula of zinc phosphate is (a) Zn(PO4)3

(b) Zn2PO4

(c) Zn3(PO4)2

(d) ZnPO4

5. The accepted unit of atomic mass and molecular mass is (a) amu (b) g (c) kg (d) g mol-1

(a) 4 x 6.023 x 10 (b) 2 x 6.023 x 1023

(c) 6.023 x 1023

(d) 8 x 6.023 x 1023

8. The law of definite proportions was proposed by (a) John Dalton (b) Richter (c) Joseph Proust (d) A. Lavoisier

9. The reference standard used for defining atomic mass unit is (a) H (b) C-12 (c) C-13 (d) C-14

10. The element whose gram-atomic mass and gram-molecular mass are the same is (a) argon. (b) nitrogen. (c) oxygen. (d) hydrogen.


1. Name the scientist who gave two important laws of chemical combination.

2. What is law of conservation of mass? Describe with an activity.

3. State the law of constant proportion. Give example.

4. Write the postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory.

5. What is the difference between 2N and N2?

6. What is the difference between an atom and molecule?

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7. If 100g of water is decomposed, how many grams of oxygen and hydrogen are

obtained?

8. Write symbols of: (a) Copper (b) Mercury (c) Iron (d) Silver (e) Gold (f) Argon (g) Zinc (h)

Cobalt (i) Lead (j) Potassium (k) Silicon

9. What is meant by valency of an element?

10. Give two examples each of: (a) Mono-atomic molecule (b) Tri-atomic molecule (c) Di-

atomic molecule (d) Polyatomic molecule


11. Write the chemical formula of: (a) Sodium Oxide (b) Calcium Chloride (c)

Aluminium oxide (d) Magnesium Hydroxide (e) Sodium Carbonate

12. Find the mass of: (a) 0.2 moles of oxygen gas (b) 1.5 moles of water (c) 3 moles of neon

(a) 0.5 moles of sodium (e) 2 moles of nitrogen element

13. Find the molecular mass of: (a) H2S (b) HCl (c) NH3 (d) Cl2 (e) CH3COOH (f) CH3CHO

14. How many moles are there in 200 g of Na?

15. Calculate the mass of 1 atom of nitrogen?

16. How many molecules are present in 10 g of H2O?

17. Find the formula unit mass of: (a) NaCl (b) FeO (c) NaHCO3 (d) CuSO4.

18. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.

19. A sample of ethane (C2H6) gas has the same mass as 1.5 ×1020 molecules of

methane

(CH4). How many C2H6 molecules does the sample of gas contain?


20. Compute the difference in masses of one mole each of aluminium atoms and one mole

of its ions. (Mass of an electron is 9.1×10–28 g). Which one is heavier?

21. A gold sample contains 90% of gold and the rest copper. How many atoms of gold are

present in one gram of this sample of gold?

22. Write the formulae for the following and calculate the molecular mass for each one of

them.

(a) Caustic potash

(b) Baking powder

(c) Lime stone

(d) Caustic soda

(e) Ethanol

(f) Common salt

23. Write the chemical formulae of the following compounds-

(a) Magnesium chloride (b) Calcium oxide

(c) Copper nitrate (d) Aluminium chloride

24. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances-

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(a) Hydrogen molecule,H2 (b) Sulphur molecule,S8

(c) Phosphorus molecule,P4 (d) Nitric acid,HNO3

(e) Hydrochloric acid,HCl

25. What is the mass of

(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atom (b) 4 moles of Aluminium atom

(c) 10 moles of sulphuric acid

26. Convert into moles

(a) 12g of oxygen gas (b) 20g of water (c) 22g of Carbon dioxide

27. Raunak took 5 moles of carbon atoms in a container and Krish also took 5 moles

of sodium atoms in another container of same weight. (a) Whose container is heavier? (b)

Whose container has more number of atoms?

40

CHAPTER: SOUND QUESTION BANK


1.The acronym SONAR stands for a) Sound Navigation And Ranging b) Sound Navigation And Ringing c) Sound Navigation And Ranging d )Sound Narration And Ranging

2. Which part of human ear collects sound from the surroundings? a )Hammer b) Stirrup c) Pinna d) Cochlea

3.The transmitter produces and transmits a)Infrasonic waves b)Ultrasonic waves c)Longitudinal d)Both a and c

4. Dolphins, bats and porpoise use ……… for navigation and location of food in the dark. a) Ultras b )Infrasound c) Both a and b d )None of them

5. Which part of human ear converts sound vibrations into electrical signals? a) Hammer b) Cochlea c) Tympanic membrane d) Stirrup

6. The sensation of sound persists in our brain for about a) 0.1 s b) 344m/s c) 0.2 s d) 2 s

7. Speed of sound depends upon a) Temperature of source producing sound b) Pressure of the medium c) Temperature of the medium d) Temperature and pressure of medium

8.Sound is produced due to a)Propagation of compound b)Density of the medium c)Vibration of different objects d)None of these

9.The wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 mils in a given medium is. a) 10 m b) 2 m c) 0.2 m d) None of these

10. What is the roll of middle ear? a) Collects sound waves b) amplifies the sound waves c) Converts amplified sound energy into el electrical energy d) Conveys to brain as nerve impulse for interpretation


1. Give reasons for the following:

(a) A person pressed his ears against the railway track to find whether the train

is approaching or not.

(b) Speed of sound in solid is more than speed of sound in gas.

(c) Speed of sound is more during a summer day than a cold winter night.

(d) The speed of sound is affected by the direction of moving wind.

(e) Sound travels faster than in a rainy day than a dry day.

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(f) How flying supersonic aircraft shatters glasses of the window panes of house.

(g) People living near the airports having problems

(h) Lighting is seen much earlier than the thunder is heard

(i) A sound board is placed behind a speaker in an auditorium

2. Give reason for the following:

(a) We cannot hear sound on vibrating our hands forward and backward.

(b) Some animals get disturbed by earthquake

(c) We cannot hear the sound produced by our heart beat.

(d) Owners of dogs use gallant on are whistle.

3. Why is the velocity of sound more than that in water or air?

4. How can we know from a distance the car is approaching us?

5. Why do we not get echo at all places?

6. What do you mean by SONAR? Explain its working. Write the applications of SONAR.

7. How ultrasound waves are used to find minute flaws or cracks in metal sheets?

8. What is the relationship between amplitude and loudness of sound?

9. What do you mean intensity of sound? Does it have any relationship with loudness of

sound?


10. What is reflection of sound? Explain the laws of reflection with respect to sound?

11. Give the graphical representation for a sound wave.

12. What do you mean by rarefaction and compression?

13. A girl clapped his hands near a cliff and heard the echo after 5 s. What is the distance of

the cliff from the person if the speed of the sound, velocity of sound in air is taken as

346 m/s?

14. If any explosion takes place at the bottom of a lake, what type of shock waves in water

will take place?

15. Explain how is the principle of echo used by (a) a bat during its flight at night. (b)

dolphin to locate small fish as its prey.

16. Explain the structure and working of human ear.

17. Sound produced by a thunderstorm is heard 10 s after the lightning is seen. Calculate

the approximate distance of the thunder cloud. (Given speed of sound = 340 m s–1.)

18. Why do we hear the sound produced by the humming bees while the sound of

vibrations of pendulum is not heard?

19. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625 m.

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20. A strong transverse pulse is created in one end of a string. It completes 10 journeys

along its length; before fading out. The initial reading of the stop clock used in the

experiment was 25s and the final reading was 75s. If the length of the string for

one journey is L meter, the speed of the pulse through the string?

21. A man standing in a valley between two parallel mountains fires a gun and hears echo at

an interval of 2 s and 3.5 s. What is (a) The distance between two mountains (b) the

location of the man with respect to the mountain?

22. Represent graphically by two separate diagrams in each case

i. Two sound waves having the same amplitude but different frequencies?

ii. Two sound waves having the same frequency but different amplitude.

iii. Two sound waves having different amplitudes and also different wavelengths.

23. Establish the relationship between speed of sound, its wavelength and frequency. If

velocity of sound in air is 340 m s–1, calculate (i) wavelength when frequency is 256 Hz. (ii)

frequencies when wavelength is 0.85 m.

24. Meera is standing between two hills. She shouted loudly and hears first echo after 0.5 sec

and second echo after 1 sec. What is distance between two hills?

25. If 2000 ripples produced in 5 sec in a pond find time period and frequency of ripples

formation.

43

CHAPTER: NATURAL RESOURCES

QUESTION BANK


1. Materials or substances occurring in nature which can be exploited for economic gain is a)Human resources b)Natural resources c)Non-Natural resources d)All of the above

2. Uneven heating of air over land and water-bodies causes a) Rain b) Monsoon c) Winds d) Life

3. Nitrogen fixation can be done by a)Metalloenzymes b)Rhizobium c)Nitrogenases d)Both a and c

4. Atmosphere maintain the temperature of earth because a) It contains water vapour b )It hold air, which is bad conductor of heat c) It absorbs the heat rays d )Both (b) and (c)

5. Molecules of proteins contain a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) All of these

6. Which is not example of natural resources? A) Oxygen b) Water c) Nitrogen d) Organism life

7. The outermost crust of the earth is called known as a) Hydrosphere b) Atmosphere c) Biosphere d) Lithosphere

8. Reason of depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere is due to a) Chlorine compound b) Fluorine compound c) Halogen compound d) none of these

9. The life supporting zone of the earth is a) Lithosphere b) Hydrosphere c) Atmosphere d) Biosphere

10. What is the movement of air in day time? a) Direction of wind is from sea to land b ) Direction of wind is from sea to river c) Direction of wind is from land to land d) Direction of wind is from land to sea


1. What is conversion of ammonia into nitrates called?

2. State the role of the atmosphere in climate control?

3. Acid rain and smog are said to be the consequences of air pollution. How are

they caused? What are the ill effects of breathing polluted air on human health?

4. What is Smog? How is it forms?

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5. What is green house effect? List two green house gases. State the ultimate effect

of increase in green house gases in the environment.

6. What makes the biosphere dynamic but stable system?

7. The atmosphere acts as a blanket. How?

8. What is soil? How is it formed? State the major factor that decides the structure of

a soil. What role does it play?

9. Write a short note on ‘Nitrogen Fixation’.

10. Write the importance of ozone in the atmosphere.


11. How are living organisms dependent on the soil? Are organisms that live in water totally

independent of soil as a resource?

12. Why is the conservation of resources necessary?

13. (a) List two activities of man which lead to environmental pollution. (b) List any two uses

of carbon in living organisms.

14. Name two nutrients in which alluvial soil is deficient. Briefly write how fertility of soil

affected distribution of population?

15. List two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere. Name the process(s) by which (i)

oxygen from the atmosphere is used up. (ii) oxygen is returned to the atmosphere

16. State various steps and processes involved in the nitrogen cycle in nature. Also

show cycling of various nutrients in this cycle.

17. Explain how human activities have caused land degradation?

18. Which is the most important soil of India? Write three main characteristics of this soil?

19. We know that many human activities lead to increasing levels of pollution of air, water

bodies and soil. Do you think that isolating these activities to specific and limited areas

would help in reducing pollution?


20. What is ‘Water Cycle’? Diagrammatically explain the process of water cycle.

21. Write a note on how forests influence the quality of air, soil and water resources.

22. How is atmosphere on our Earth different from the atmosphere on Venus and Mars?

State two factors by which percentage of carbon dioxide is fixed on the earth.

23. “Urbanization and industrialisation is mainly responsible for the increase in environment

pollution” Justify this statement and suggest ways and means to check it.

24. How following factors contribute in formation of soil? (a) Wind (b) water (c) Sun.

chapter: matter in our surroundings question bank … · chapter: matter in our surroundings...

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