Chem 1411 Final

Student: ___________________________________________________________________________

1. A dose of medication was prescribed to be 35 microliters. Which of the following expresses that volume in centiliters? A. 3.5 × 105 cL B. 3.5 × 104 cL C. 3.5 cL D. 3.5 × 10-4 cL E. 3.5 × 10-3 cL

2. The S.I. base unit of mass is A. mg B. g C. kg D. metric ton E. lb

3. The area of a 15-inch pizza is 176.7 in2. Express this area in square centimeters. A. 1140. cm2 B. 448.8 cm2 C. 96.8 cm2 D. 69.57 cm2 E. 27.39 cm2

4. Select the best statement. A. Chemical changes provide the only valid basis for identification of a substance. B. Chemical changes are easily reversed by altering the temperature of the system. C. Chemical changes always produce substances different from the starting materials. D. Chemical changes are associated primarily with extensive properties. E. Chemical changes are accompanied by changes in the total mass of the substances involved.

5. At a pressure of one billionth (10-9) of atmospheric pressure, there are about 2.7 × 1010 molecules in one cubic centimeter of a gas. How many molecules is this per cubic meter? A. 2.7 × 1016 B. 2.7 × 1014 C. 2.7 × 1012 D. 2.7 × 108 E. 2.7 × 104

6. Bud N. Chemist must determine the density of a mineral sample. His four trials yield densities of 4.77 g/cm3, 4.67 g/cm3, 4.69 g/cm3, and 4.81 g/cm3. Independent studies found the correct density to be 4.75 g/cm3. Which of the following statements represents the best analysis of the data? A. Bud's results have much greater accuracy than precision B. Bud's results have much greater precision than accuracy C. Bud's results have high accuracy and high precision D. Bud's results have low accuracy and low precision E. Bud's equipment is faulty

7. Acetone, which is used as a solvent and as a reactant in the manufacture of Plexiglas®, boils at 56.1°C. What is the boiling point in degrees Fahrenheit? A. 159°F B. 133°F C. 101°F D. 69.0°F E. 43.4°F

8. What is the name of the acid formed when HBr gas is dissolved in water? A. bromic acid B. bromous acid C. hydrobromic acid D. hydrobromous acid E. hydrobromidic acid

9. Silicon, which makes up about 25% of Earth's crust by mass, is used widely in the modern electronics industry. It has three naturally occurring isotopes, 28Si, 29Si, and 30Si. Calculate the atomic mass of silicon.

Isotope Isotopic Mass (amu) Abundance % 28Si 27.976927 92.23 29Si 28.976495 4.67 30Si 29.973770 3.10 A. 29.2252 amu B. 28.9757 amu C. 28.7260 amu D. 28.0855 amu E. 27.9801 amu

10. Kaolinite, a clay mineral with the formula Al4Si4O10(OH)8, is used as a filler in slick-paper for magazines and as a raw material for ceramics. Analysis shows that 14.35 g of kaolinite contains 8.009 g of oxygen. Calculate the mass percent of oxygen in kaolinite. A. 1.792 mass % B. 24.80 mass % C. 30.81 mass % D. 34.12 mass % E. 55.81 mass %

11. What is the name of the acid formed when HCN gas is dissolved in water? A. cyanic acid B. hydrocyanic acid C. cyanous acid D. hydrocyanous acid E. hydrogen cyanide

12. Rutherford bombarded gold foil with alpha (α) particles and found that a small percentage of the particles were deflected. Which of the following was not accounted for by the model he proposed for the structure of atoms? A. the small size of the nucleus B. the charge on the nucleus C. the total mass of the atom D. the existence of protons E. the presence of electrons outside the nucleus

13. Which of the following is a non-metal? A. lithium, Li, Z = 3 B. bromine, Br, Z = 35 C. mercury, Hg, Z = 80 D. bismuth, Bi, Z = 83 E. sodium, Na, Z = 11

14. What is the name of PCl3? A. phosphorus chloride B. phosphoric chloride C. phosphorus trichlorate D. trichlorophosphide E. phosphorus trichloride

15. A compound of bromine and fluorine is used to make UF6, which is an important chemical in processing and reprocessing of nuclear fuel. The compound contains 58.37 mass percent bromine. Determine its empirical formula. A. BrF B. BrF2 C. Br2F3 D. Br3F E. BrF3

16. In a blast furnace, elemental iron is produced from a mixture of coke (C), iron ore (Fe3O4) and other reactants. An important reaction sequence is 2C(s) + O2(g) → 2CO(g) Fe3O4(s) + 4CO(g) → 3Fe(l) + 4CO2(g) How many moles of iron can be formed in this sequence when 1.00 mol of carbon, as coke, is consumed? A. 6.00 mol Fe B. 3.00 mol Fe C. 1.33 mol Fe D. 1.25 mol Fe E. 0.750 mol Fe

17. Sodium hydroxide, also known as caustic soda, is used to neutralize acids and to treat cellulose in making of cellophane. Calculate the number of moles of solute in 1.875 L of 1.356 M NaOH solution. A. 2.543 mol B. 1.383 mol C. 0.7232 mol D. 0.3932 mol E. 0.001383 mol

18. Copper(II) sulfate pentahydrate, CuSO4·5H2O, is used as a fungicide and algicide. Calculate the mass of oxygen in 1.000 mol of CuSO4·5H2O. A. 249.7 g B. 144.0 g C. 96.00 g D. 80.00 g E. 64.00 g

19. Aluminum metal reacts with chlorine gas to form solid aluminum trichloride, AlCl3. What mass of chlorine gas is needed to react completely with 163 g of aluminum? A. 214 g B. 245 g C. 321 g D. 489 g E. 643 g

20. Calculate the molar mass of rubidium carbonate, Rb2CO3. A. 340.43 g/mol B. 255.00 g/mol C. 230.94 g/mol D. 145.47 g/mol E. 113.48 g/mol

21. Aluminum oxide, Al2O3, is used as a filler for paints and varnishes as well as in the manufacture of electrical insulators. Calculate the number of moles in 47.51 g of Al2O3. A. 2.377 mol B. 2.146 mol C. 1.105 mol D. 0.4660 mol E. 0.4207 mol

22. Identify the oxidizing agent in the following redox reaction. Hg2+(aq) + Cu(s) → Cu2+(aq) + Hg(l) A. Hg2+(aq) B. Cu(s) C. Cu2+(aq) D. Hg(l) E. Hg2+(aq) and Cu2+(aq)

23. Select the classification for the following reaction. Fe2+(aq) + 2OH-(aq) → Fe(OH)2(s) A. precipitation B. acid-base C. redox D. decomposition E. none of these choices is correct

24. Select the classification for the following reaction. BaCl2(aq) + K2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2KCl(aq) A. precipitation B. acid-base C. redox D. decomposition E. none of these choices is correct

25. Balance the following redox equation using the smallest integers possible and select the correct coefficient for the bromide anion, Br-. Br2(aq) + OH-(aq) → Br-(aq) + BrO3

-(aq) + H2O(l) A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6 E. 10

26. Which one of the following is not a redox reaction? A. 2H2O2(aq) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g) B. N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) C. BaCl2(aq) + K2CrO4(aq) → BaCrO4(aq) + 2KCl(aq) D. 2Al(s) + Fe2O3(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2Fe(s) E. 2H2O(g) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)

27. Which of the following is a strong acid? A. H3PO4 B. HNO3 C. HF D. CH3COOH E. H2O

28. Predict the product(s) for the following reaction. MgCO3(s) A. MgO2(s) + CO(g) B. MgO(s) + CO2 C. Mg(s) + CO2(g) + O2(g) D. Mg2+(s) + CO2(g) + O2(g) E. No reaction occurs.

29. What is the density of carbon dioxide gas at -25.2°C and 98.0 kPa? A. 0.232 g/L B. 0.279 g/L C. 0.994 g/L D. 1.74 g/L E. 2.09 g/L

30. Dr. I. M. A. Brightguy adds 0.1727 g of an unknown gas to a 125-mL flask. If Dr. B finds the pressure to be 736 torr at 20.0°C, is the gas likely to be methane, CH4, nitrogen, N2, oxygen, O2, neon, Ne, or argon, Ar? A. CH4 B. N2 C. Ne D. Ar E. O2

31. A sample of ammonia gas at 65.5°C and 524 torr has a volume of 15.31 L. What is its volume when the temperature is -15.8°C and its pressure is 524 torr? A. 3.69 L B. 11.6 L C. 20.2 L D. 63.5 L E. not possible, since the volume would have to be negative

32. A sample of nitrogen gas at 298 K and 745 torr has a volume of 37.42 L. What volume will it occupy if the pressure is increased to 894 torr at constant temperature? A. 22.3 L B. 31.2 L C. 44.9 L D. 112 L E. 380 L

33. A flask containing helium gas is connected to an open-ended mercury manometer. The open end is exposed to the atmosphere, where the prevailing pressure is 752 torr. The mercury level in the open arm is 26 mm above that in the arm connected to the flask of helium. What is the helium pressure, in torr? A. -26 torr B. 26 torr C. 726 torr D. 778 torr E. none of these choices is correct

34. Select the gas with the highest average kinetic energy per mole at 298 K. A. O2 B. CO2 C. H2O D. H2 E. All have the same average kinetic energy.

35. Freon-12, CF2Cl2, which has been widely used in air conditioning systems, is considered a threat to the ozone layer in the stratosphere. Calculate the root-mean-square velocity of Freon-12 molecules in the lower stratosphere where the temperature is -65°C. A. 20 m/s B. 120 m/s C. 210 m/s D. 260 m/s E. 4.4 × 104 m/s

36. Ethanol, C2H5OH, is being promoted as a clean fuel and is used as an additive in many gasoline mixtures. Calculate the ΔH°rxn for the combustion of ethanol. ΔH°f [C2H5OH(l)] = -277.7 kJ/mol; ΔH°f [CO2(g)] = -393.5 kJ/mol; ΔH°f [H2O(g)] = -241.8 kJ/mol A. -1234.7 kJ B. -751.1 kJ C. -357.6 kJ D. 357.6 kJ E. 1234.7 kJ

37. A system that does no work but which transfers heat to the surroundings has A. q < 0, ΔE > 0 B. q < 0, ΔE < 0 C. q > 0, ΔE > 0 D. q > 0, ΔE < 0 E. q < 0, ΔE = 0

38. Calculate the enthalpy change for the reactions

NO(g) + O(g) → NO2(g) from the following data: NO(g) + O3(g) → NO2(g) + O2(g) ΔH = -198.9 kJ O3(g) → 1.5O2(g) ΔH = -142.3 kJ O2(g) → 2O(g) ΔH = 495.0 kJ A. -551.6 kJ B. -304.1 kJ C. 190.9 kJ D. 153.8 kJ E. 438.4 kJ

39. An ideal gas (the system) is contained in a flexible balloon at a pressure of 1 atm and is initially at a temperature of 20.°C. The surrounding air is at the same pressure, but its temperature is 25°C. When the system has equilibrated with its surroundings, both systems and surroundings are at 25°C and 1 atm. In changing from the initial to the final state, which one of the following relationships regarding the system is correct? A. ΔE < 0 B. ΔE = 0 C. ΔH = 0 D. w > 0 E. q > 0

40. Which one of the following is a correct formation reaction? A. C(diamond) → C(graphite) B. H2(g) + O(g) → H2O(l) C. C(graphite) + 4H(g) → CH4(g) D. 6C(graphite) + 6H2O(s) → C6H12O6(s) E. 2C(graphite) + 3H2(g) + ½O2(g) → C2H5OH(l)

41. Your favorite candy bar, Gummy Beakers, contains 1.2 × 106 J of energy while your favorite soft drink, Bolt, contains 6.7 × 105 J. If you eat two packs of Gummy Beakers a day and drink 3 cans of Bolt, what percent of your 2000 Calorie daily food intake is left for broccoli, beans, beef, etc.? A. 53% B. 47% C. 27% D. 11% E. 0%

42. A Snickers® candy bar contains 280 Calories, of which the fat content accounts for 120 Calories. What is the energy of the fat content, in kJ? A. 5.0 × 10-1 kJ B. 29 kJ C. 5.0 × 102 kJ D. 1.2 × 103 kJ E. 5.0 × 105 kJ

43. A radio wave has a frequency of 8.6 × 108 Hz. What is the energy of one photon of this radiation? A. 7.7 × 10-43 J B. 2.3 × 10-34 J C. 5.7 × 10-25 J D. 1.7 × 10-16 J E. > 10-15 J

44. A photon has an energy of 5.53 × 10-17 J. What is its frequency in s-1? A. 3.66 × 10-50 s-1 B. 1.20 × 10-17 s-1 C. 3.59 × 10-9 s-1 D. 2.78 × 108 s-1 E. 8.35 × 1016 s-1

45. Select the arrangement of electromagnetic radiation which starts with the lowest energy and increases to greatest energy. A. radio, infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays B. radio, ultraviolet, infrared, gamma rays C. gamma rays, infrared, radio, ultraviolet D. gamma rays, ultraviolet, infrared, radio E. infrared, ultraviolet, radio, gamma rays

46. Consider the following adjectives used to describe types of spectrum:

continuous line atomic emission absorption How many of them are appropriate to describe the spectrum of radiation given off by a black body? A. none B. one C. two D. three E. four

47. According to the Rydberg equation, the line with the shortest wavelength in the emission spectrum of atomic hydrogen is predicted to lie at a wavelength (in nm) of A. 91.2 nm B. 1.10 × 10-2 nm C. 1.10 × 102 nm D. 1.10 × 1016 nm E. none of these choices is correct

48. The FM station KDUL broadcasts music at 99.1 MHz. Find the wavelength of these waves. A. 1.88 × 10-2 m B. 0.330 m C. 3.03 m D. 5.33 × 102 m E. > 103 m

49. The shape of an atomic orbital is associated with A. the principal quantum number (n). B. the angular momentum quantum number (l). C. the magnetic quantum number (ml). D. the spin quantum number (ms). E. the magnetic and spin quantum numbers, together.

50. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic size? A. S B. Ca C. Ba D. Po E. Rn

51. The most basic oxides are formed from elements found in the __________________ region of the periodic table. A. upper right B. upper left C. center D. lower right E. lower left

52. "Each electron in an atom must have its own unique set of quantum numbers" is a statement of A. the aufbau principle. B. the Pauli exclusion principle. C. Hund's rule. D. the periodic law. E. Heisenberg's principle.

53. Which of the following elements has the largest first ionization energy? A. Na B. Cl C. Ca D. Te E. Br

54. Select the correct set of quantum numbers (n, l, ml, ms) for the highest energy electron in the ground state of potassium, K. A. 4, 1, -1, ½ B. 4, 1, 0, ½ C. 4, 0, 1, ½ D. 4, 0, 0, ½ E. 4, 1, 1, ½

55. What is the correct order of decreasing size of the following ions? A. P3- > Cl- > K+ > Ca2+ B. Ca2+ > K+ > Cl- > P3- C. K+ > Cl- > Ca2+ > P3- D. K+ > Cl- > P3- > Ca2+ E. None of these is correct.

56. Select the element with the greatest metallic character. A. Li B. Ca C. Al D. Pb E. Cs

57. Arrange oxygen, sulfur, calcium, rubidium and potassium in order of decreasing electronegativity. A. O > S > Ca > K > Rb B. O > S > Ca > Rb > K C. O > S > Rb > K > Ca D. O > S > Rb > Ca > K E. None of these orders is correct.

58. Which of the following elements is the least electronegative? A. Si B. Se C. S D. Sc E. Sr

59. The lattice energy of CaF2 is the energy change for which one, if any, of the following processes? A. Ca2+(s) + 2F-(g) → CaF2(g) B. CaF2(g) → CaF2(s) C. Ca(g) + 2F(g) → CaF2(s) D. CaF2(aq) → CaF2(s) E. none of these choices is correct

60. Combustion of a fat will release more energy than combustion of an equal mass of carbohydrate because A. fats contain more bonds to oxygen than carbohydrates. B. fats contain fewer bonds to oxygen than carbohydrates. C. the total energy of the carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds in fats is greater than the energy content of the carbon-oxygen and oxygen-hydrogen bonds in the reaction products (carbon dioxide and water). D. the total energy of the carbon-carbon and carbon-hydrogen bonds in fats is greater than the energy content of the bonds in carbohydrates. E. fats have higher molar masses than carbohydrates.

61. Calculate the lattice energy of magnesium sulfide.

Mg(s) → Mg(g) ΔH° = 148 kJ/mol Mg(g) → Mg2+(g) + 2e- ΔH° = 2186 kJ/mol S8(s) → 8S(g) ΔH° = 2232 kJ/mol S(g) + 2e- → S2-(g) ΔH° = 450 kJ/mol 8Mg(s) + S8(s) → 8MgS(s) ΔH°f = -2744 kJ/mol Mg2+(g) + S2-(g) → MgS(s) ΔH°MgS = ? A. -3406 kJ/mol B. -2720. kJ/mol C. 2720. kJ/mol D. 3406 kJ/mol E. none of these choices is correct

62. Hydrogenation of double and triple bonds is an important industrial process. Calculate (in kJ) the standard enthalpy change ΔH° for the hydrogenation of ethyne (acetylene) to ethane.

H-C≡C-H(g) + 2H2(g) → H3C-CH3(g) Bond: C-C C≡C C-H H-HBond energy (kJ/mol): 347 839 413 432 A. -296 kJ B. -51 kJ C. 51 kJ D. 296 kJ E. 381 kJ

63. Electronegativity is a measure of A. the energy needed to remove an electron from an atom. B. the energy released when an electron is added to an atom. C. the magnitude of the negative charge on an electron. D. the attraction by an atom for electrons in a chemical bond. E. the magnitude of the negative charge on a molecule.

64. What is the molecular shape of NOCl as predicted by the VSEPR theory?

A. linear B. trigonal planar C. bent D. tetrahedral E. trigonal pyramidal

65. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX2 will have a ___ molecular shape. A. linear B. bent C. trigonal planar D. tetrahedral E. triangular

66. Predict the ideal bond angles in IF2- using the molecular shape given by the VSEPR theory.

A. 60° B. 90° C. 109° D. 120° E. 180°

67. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX2E2 will have a _____ molecular shape. A. linear B. bent C. trigonal planar D. tetrahedral E. see-saw

68. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule with the general formula AX6 will have a ______ molecular shape. A. tetrahedral B. trigonal planar C. trigonal bipyramidal D. hexagonal E. octahedral

69. Which one of the following Lewis structures is definitely incorrect?

A. a B. b C. c D. d E. e

70. What is the molecular shape of NO2- as predicted by the VSEPR theory?

A. linear B. trigonal planar C. bent D. tetrahedral E. resonant

71. The nitrosonium ion, NO+, forms a number of interesting complexes with nickel, cobalt, and iron. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following statements about NO+ is correct? A. NO+ has a bond order of 2 and is paramagnetic. B. NO+ has a bond order of 2 and is diamagnetic. C. NO+ has a bond order of 3 and is paramagnetic. D. NO+ has a bond order of 3 and is diamagnetic. E. None of these statements is correct.

72. A molecule with the formula AX4E uses _________ to form its bonds. A. sp2 hybrid orbitals B. sp3 hybrid orbitals C. sp3d hybrid orbitals D. sp3d2 hybrid orbitals E. none of these choices is correct

73. According to valence bond theory, the triple bond in ethyne (acetylene, C2H2) consists of A. three σ bonds and no π bonds. B. two σ bonds and one π bond. C. one σ bond and two π bonds. D. no σ bonds and three π bonds. E. none of these choices is correct

74. Which one of the following statements about orbital hybridization is incorrect? A. The carbon atom in CH4 is sp3 hybridized. B. The carbon atom in CO2 is sp hybridized. C. The nitrogen atom in NH3 is sp2 hybridized. D. sp2 hybrid orbitals are coplanar, and at 120° to each other. E. sp hybrid orbitals lie at 180° to each other.

75. Determine the shape (geometry) of PCl3 and then decide on the appropriate hybridization of phosphorus in this molecule. (Phosphorus is the central atom.) A. sp3 B. sp2 C. sp D. sp3d E. sp3d 2

76. Valence bond theory predicts that carbon will use _____ hybrid orbitals in the carbonate anion, CO32-.

A. sp B. sp2 C. sp3 D. sp3d E. sp3d2

77. Valence bond theory predicts that xenon will use _____ hybrid orbitals in XeOF4. A. sp B. sp2 C. sp3 D. sp3d E. sp3d2

Chem 1411 Final -Make up Key

1. (p. 17) E 2. (p. 16) C 3. (p. 17) A 4. (p. 3) C 5. (p. 17) A 6. (p. 29) A 7. (p. 24) B 8. (p. 67) C 9. (p. 53) D 10. (p. 42) E 11. (p. 67) B 12. (p. 48) C 13. (p. 56) B 14. (p. 68) E 15. (p. 95) E 16. (p. 109) E 17. (p. 117) A 18. (p. 93) B 19. (p. 106) E 20. (p. 89) C 21. (p. 90) D 22. (p. 153) A 23. (p. 158) A 24. (p. 158) A 25. (p. 154) C 26. (p. 153) C 27. (p. 144) B 28. (p. 165) B 29. (p. 193) E

30. (p. 193) E 31. (p. 188) B 32. (p. 189) B 33. (p. 181) D 34. (p. 201) E 35. (p. 204) C 36. (p. 244) A 37. (p. 227) B 38. (p. 240) B 39. (p. 232) E 40. (p. 243) E 41. (p. 230) B 42. (p. 230) C 43. (p. 263) C 44. (p. 263) E 45. (p. Sec. 7.1) A 46. (p. Sec. 7.1) C 47. (p. 265) A 48. (p. 259) C 49. (p. 277) B 50. (p. 306) C 51. (p. 315) E 52. (p. 293) B 53. (p. 309) B 54. (p. Sec. 8.3) D 55. (p. 320) A 56. (p. 313) E 57. (p. 352) A 58. (p. 352) E 59. (p. 334) E 60. (p. 350) B 61. (p. 335) A 62. (p. 349) A 63. (p. 351) D

64. (p. Sec. 10.2) C 65. (p. Sec. 10.2) A 66. (p. Sec. 10.2) E 67. (p. Sec. 10.2) B 68. (p. Sec. 10.2) E 69. (p. Sec. 10.1) C 70. (p. Sec. 10.2) C 71. (p. Sec. 11.3) D 72. (p. Sec. 11.1) C 73. (p. 408) C 74. (p. Sec. 11.1) C 75. (p. Sec. 11.1) A 76. (p. Sec. 11.1) B 77. (p. Sec. 11.1) E

Chem 1411 Final -Make up Summary

Category # of Questions Difficulty: E 28 Difficulty: H 4 Difficulty: M 45 Silberberg - 001 Keys... 7 Silberberg - 002 The... 7 Silberberg - 003 Stoichiometry... 7 Silberberg - 004 The... 7 Silberberg - 005 Gases... 7 Silberberg - 006 Thermochemistry... 7 Silberberg - 007 Quantum... 7 Silberberg - 008 Electron... 7 Silberberg - 009 Models... 7 Silberberg - 010 The... 7 Silberberg - 011 Theories... 7