cl ttics worksheet max marks: 15 number to … ttics worksheet max marks: 15 ... lohri c. raksha...

25

w o r k s h e e tClass III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15

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NuMber To 9,999–2Tick ( ) the correct answer

Compare the following. Choose >, < or = for each .

1. 3,956 3,986

a. < b. >

c. =

2. 2,005 2,005

a. < b. >

c. =

3. 5,289 3,068

a. < b. >

c. =

4. 5,289 5,489

a. < b. >

c. =

5. 8,478 6,987

a. < b. >

c. =

6. 5,409 5,476

a. < b. >

c. =

Order the numbers from the greatest to the least. Choose the correct answer.

7. 9,456 3,956 7,856

a. 7,856 3,956 9,456

b. 9,456 3,956 7,856

c. 9,456 7,856 3,956

8. 5,735 5,789 5,713

a. 5,735 5,789 5,713

b. 5,789 5,735 5,713

c. 5,735 5,789 5,713

9. 7,056 6,053 7,178

a. 7,178 7,056 6,053

b. 7,178 6,053 7,056

c. 6,053 7,056 7,178

10. 5,894 4,522 5,879

a. 5,879 5,894 4,522

b. 4,522 5,879 5,894

c. 5,894 5,879 4,522

Compare and write >, < or = for each .

11. 2,725 2,580

12. 3,477 3,471

13. 5,489 5,689

14. Write the greatest number from the following:

2,963 2,965 2,936

15. Write the numbers in order from the least to the greatest.

4,290 6,094 1,872

26

w o r k s h e e t Class III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15

The Progressive Teacher © DS Digital Private Limited I Photocopying permitted

additionTick ( ) the correct answer

1.

52215170+

a. 433 b. 337 c. 437

2.

14230665+

a. 513 b. 503 c. 403

3.

4 8032 642,,+

a. 6,441 b. 6,445 c. 7,445

4.

5 8072 643,,+

a. 7,444 b. 8,450 c. 8,440

5.

2 8094 174,,+

a. 6,993 b. 6,973 c. 6,983

6.

3 8061 745,,+

a. 5,551 b. 5,541 c. 4,541

Round the number to the greatest place and then add. Choose the correct answer.

7. 488 + 434 a. 800 b. 922 c. 900

8. 737 + 244 a. 700 b. 800 c. 900

9. 187 + 572 a. 800 b. 700

c. 900

10. 470 + 174 a. 600 b. 500 c. 700

Add

11.

460118236+

12

162315240+

13.

5 8072 641,,+

14.

3 1931 014,,+

15.

3 7322 144,,+

27

w o r k s h e e tClass III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15


subtractionTick ( ) the correct answer

1.

672589-

a. 117 b. 83 c. 93

2.

726647-

a. 79 b. 63 c. 89

3.

456178-

a. 288 b. 322 c. 278

4.

643259-

a. 394 b. 384 c. 216

5.

562375-

a. 213 b. 197 c. 187

6.

345287-

a. 58 b. 78 c. 68

Round each number to the greatest place and then estimate to subtract. Choose the correct answer.

7.

721567-

a 800 – 600 = 200 b. 700 – 600 = 100 c. 700 – 500 = 200

8.

826345-

a. 800 – 400 = 400 b. 800 – 300 = 500 c. 900 – 300 = 600

9.

667298-

a. 700 – 300 = 400 b. 700 – 200 = 500 c. 600 – 200 = 400

10.

947362-

a. 800 – 400 = 400 b. 900 – 300 = 600 c. 900 – 400 = 500

Subtract

11.

4 6003 935,,-

12

6 1005 225,,-

13.

1 3051186,,-

14.

1 7001 480,,-

15.

7 6541 238,,-

28

w o r k s h e e t Class III: mathematICsMax Marks: 15


diMensional shapes–3Tick ( ) the correct answer

Choose the correct answer for the questions given below the shape.

1. How many vertices? a. 5 b. 3 c. 4

2. How many vertices? a. 2 b. 0 c. 1

3.

How many faces? a. 6 b. 5 c. 4

4. How many edges? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2

5.

How many edges? a. 14 b. 12 c. 10

6.

How many edges? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2

7.

How many faces? a. 2 b. 1 c. 0

Choose the shape that follows the given description.

8. Shape with curved parts a. b. c.

9. Shape with curved parts a. b.

c.

10. Shape with 12 edges a. b.

c.

Look at the shape and its name. Fill in the blanks with the number of vertices/faces/edges.

11. Cube

12 edges, ______ vertices

12. Cylinder

0 edge, _______ faces

13. Pyramid

5 faces, _______ vertices

14. Rectangular prism

8 vertices, _______ edges

15. Cone

1 face, _______ edges

29

w o r k s h e e tClass IV: eVsMax Marks: 20


TraNsPOrTTick ( ) the correct answer

1. Which of these vehicles does not run on petrol? a. Scooter c. Bicycle b. Car d. Motor cycle

2. A means of transport that has many wheels is a. An aeroplane c. A car b. An auto rickshaw d. A train

3. The fastest means of transport is a a. Bullock cart c. Aeroplane b. Train d. Car

4. Ships used to carry large amounts of goods over long distances are called

a. Yachts c. Motor boats b. Cargo ships d. Steamers

5. The cheapest way to travel long distances is by a. Trains c. Helicopter b. Plane d. Ship

6. A three wheeled vehicle pulled by a person is known as a a. Scooter c. Rickshaw b. Motor cycle d. Tonga

7. Transportation of goods and passengers through water is called

a. Land transport c. Rail transport b. Water transport d. Air transport

8. A means of transport that travels underwater is a a. Boat c. Submarine b. Ferry d. Ship

9. Which of the following is the newest means of transport? a. Plane c. Cart b. Train d. Boat

10. A vehicle used by farmers in their work is a a. Car c. Helicopter b. Tractor d. Ship

11. Which of the following will be a faster means of transport? a. Bicycle c. Bullock cart b. Bus d. Rickshaw

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct terms.air, engines, land, land, roads, rails, highways, transport, water

12. The most common mode of transport is ________ transport.

13. Path or way on which a train travels ________.

14. Movement of goods and individuals from one place to another is called ________.

15. Land transport includes ________ and railways.

16. Fast means of transport are driven by ________.

17. Modes of transport can be divided into ________, ________, ________ transport.

18. ________ connect important cities and states in India.

Pick the odd one out from the following terms:

19. car, bus, boat, bicycle

20. cruise, truck, ferry, ship

Answer Key - ClAss IV: eVsAnswer Key - ClAss III: MATheMATICs1. c2. d 3. c 4. b 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. c9. a 10. b11. b12. Land13. Rails14. Transport15. Roads16. Engines17. Land, Water, Air18. Highways19. Boat20. Truck

1. a2. c 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. b9. a 10. c11. >12. >13. <14. 2,96515. 1872, 4290, 6094

1. c2. d 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. b9. c10. c11. c12. c13. 26 Jan 195014. Tamil Nadu15. August 1516. Dusshera17. 3018. Red Fort19. Diwali20. 10

1. c2. a 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. c9. a 10. c11. 81412. 71713. 8,44814. 4,20715. 5,876

1. c2. d 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. b 7. c 8. Valley9. Mt. Everest10. Camel11. Plateau12. Northern Plains13. Island14. g15. a16. b17. f18. c19. e20. d

1. a2. c 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. a 7. b 8. a9. b 10. c11. 812. 213. 514. 1215. 0

1. b2. d 3. a 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. d 8. a9. a 10. d11. h12. e13. a14. b15. f16. c17. d18. g19. Private, Public, Private, Public

1. b2. a 3. c 4. b 5. c 6. a 7. b 8. b9. a 10. c11. 66512. 87513. 11914. 22015. 6,416

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30

w o r k s h e e t Class IV: eVsMax Marks: 20


Our NeighbOurhOOdTick ( ) the correct answer1. Which festival celebrates the birth of Jesus Christ? a. Santa Claus c. Christmas b. Easter d. Good Friday

2. A special dish called ‘Sewain’ is prepared on which festival?

a. Muharram c. Diwali b. Holi d. Eid–ul-Fitr

3. Boat races are held in Kerala on a. Pongal c. Lohri b. Onam d. Bihu

4. ‘Say no to crackers’ is a caption related to a. Gurpurab c. Diwali b. Durga Puja d. Christmas

5. The Prime Minister hoists the national flag on a. Republic Day c. Teachers’ Day b. Independence Day d. Gandhi Jayanti

6. The birthday of Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru is celebrated as a. Teachers’ Day c. Children’s Day b. Mahavir Jayanti d. Budh Purnima

7. On which festival are effigies of Ravana, Kumbhkarna and Meghnatha burnt?

a. Dusshera c. Durga Puja b. Lohri d. Baisakhi

8. The holy book of the Sikhs is known as the a. Ramayana c. Bhagwad Gita b. Guru Granth Sahib d. Bible

9. Who is known as ‘The Father of the Nation’? a. Rabindranath Tagore c. Mahatma Gandhi b. Lal Bhadur Shastri d. Subhash Chandra Bose

10. Which of the following is a festival of brothers and sisters? a. Lohri c. Raksha Bandhan b. Baisakhi d. Bihu

11. The place where Sikhs go to pray is called a a. Temple c. Gurudwara b. Mosque d. None of these

12. Every year, Christmas is celebrated on a. August 15 c. December 25 b. December 26 d. January 26

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct terms.Tamil Nadu, 26 January 1950, Dusshera, 10, August 15, Red Fort, Diwali, 30

13. India became a Republic on ___________ .

14. Pongal is celebrated in ___________ .

15. We celebrate Independence Day on ___________ every year.

16. ___________ celebrates the victory of ’Good over evil’.

17. Eid is celebrated after ___________ days of fasting in the holy month of Ramzan.

18. On Independence Day the Prime Minister of India hoists the National Flag at the ___________ in Delhi.

19. Goddess Lakshmi is worshipped on the festival of ___________ .

20. The birthdays of the ___________ Sikh Gurus are celebrated by the Sikhs as Gurpurabs.

Answer Key - ClAss X: ChemisTryAnswer Key - ClAss iX: physiCs1. c 2. a 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. c 8. d9. b 10. c11. [I]→ b [II] →c [III] →d [IV] →a12. True13. True14. False15. [I] O2(g)+2CO(g)→2CO2(g) or any other example[ii] O [at room temperature, oxygen is found in the form of O2, so O2 will be the correct answer.]16. 2AI(s) +6HCL(aq) = 2AICI3 (aq) + 3H2(g)

1. d2. a 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. c9. b 10. b11. v2=u2+2as12. Scalar, Vector13. Accelerated14. Zero15. False16. False17. True18. True19.False

1. a2. c 3. d 4. b 5. d 6. a 7. d 8. b9. c10. c11. Hydrogen ion12. Hydrochloric Acid13. Sodium Hydroxide14. Olfactory indicators15. Basic16. False17. True18. True19. Ammonium hydroxide (NH4OH) or any suitable example20. Efflorescence

1. c2. c 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. d9. b10. c11. Motion or Velocity12. Time13. Direction, Speed14. 10 kg-m/s15. False16. True17. True18. False19. False

1. b 2. b 3. c 4. b 5. b 6. a 7. c 8. d9. c 10. a11. True12. False13. True14. Glycerol15. (a) C6H12O6

(b) C6H12O616. Invertase and zymase17. CO218. Vinegar19. CH3CHO20. CH3CH2ONa [BALANCED 2CH3CH2OH+2NA→2CH3CH2ONa+H2]

1. b2. a 3. b 4. c 5. d 6. c 7. c 8. b9. a10. b11. 746 W12. 240 W13. 3:114. Potential, String15. False16. False17. True18. False19. False

1. b 2. c 3. b 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. b 8. d9. c 10. b11. [i]→c [ii]→d [iii]→a [iv]→b12. False13. True14. True15. A - Carbon graphite B - Carbon Graphite16. A, Cathode17. Oxygen gas is formed which burns and oxidises away B, the carbon electrodes from carbon monixide or carbon dioxide. So the carbon-graphite electrode is regularly replaced.

1. b 2. c 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. c 7. b 8. a9. c 10. c11. 13600 kg/m3

12. 600g

13. 2

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14. Equal to its own weight15. High pressure16. True17. False18. False19. False20. False

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31

w o r k s h e e tClass IV: eVsMax Marks: 20


CoMMunity serviCesTick ( ) the correct answer

1. Things that belong to us, and no one else, are called

a. Public property b. Personal property c. Community property d. Individual property

2. Writing on the walls of a monument is a. A good habit b. A way of showing concern c. The duty of every tourist d. Damaging public property

3. Which of the following is NOT an example of public property in a park?

a. Mobile phone b. Flowers c. Benches d. Fountains

4. Historical monuments depict our a. Heritage b. Growth c. Tourist places d. Recreational centres

5. When we travel by bus and train we should a. Steal bulbs and fans b. Damage the seats c. Spit on the wall d. Buy a ticket

6. We should take care of public property because a. It is free b. It is our duty c. It is used by all d. It is our right

7. To be a good citizen we must a. Pay taxes regularly b. Plant trees c. Save water and electricity d. All of the above

8. To keep our house and surroundings clean we should

a. Sweep and mop our house b. Store water in empty tyres c. Throw garbage on the road d. Keep the drains uncovered

9. Money for maintaining public property comes from

a. Taxes b. Donations c. Charity shows d. None of these

10. The maintenance of a public place is the responsibility of

a. The Government b. All citizens c. The private sector d. All of the above

Match each term in Column B with its meaning in Column A

Column A Column B

11. We borrow books from there.

A. Train

12. We visit these on holidays. B. Post box

13. We travel by this to go to far off places.

C. Public property

14. We post our letters here. D. Bank

15. We play there. E. Historical monuments

16. Property that can be used by everyone.

F. Garden

17. Our money remains safethere.

G. School

18. We go here to study. H. Library

19. Identify the below listed properties as ‘Public’ or ‘Private’. a. Car - ___________________. b. Roads- ___________________. c. Jewellery- ___________________. d. Train- ___________________.

32

w o r k s h e e t Class IV: eVsMax Marks: 20


IndIa: Our COuntryTick ( ) the correct answer

1. The northern plains lie to the a. North of the Himalayas b. East of the Himalayas c. South of the Himalayas d. West of the Himalayas

2. Which of the following rivers do not begin from the Himalayas?

a. Ganges b. Yamuna c. Brahmaputra d. Krishna

3. The word Deccan is derived from the word ‘Dakshin’ which means

a. South b. North c. East d. West

4. Which of the following is not a national symbol? a. Tricolor b. Ashoka Pillar c. Lotus d. Rose

5. Land surrounded by water on three sides is known as a. Peninsula b. Island c. Bay d. Gulf

6. State Government is elected by a. Union Government b. People living in the state c. Chief Minister of the state d. Governor of the state

7. The number of states in India are a. 26 b. 7 c. 29 d. 22

Fill in the blanks by choosing the correct terms.camel, Mt. Everest, valley, Plateau, northern plains, Island,

8. A_______is the land between two connected mountains.

9. _______ is the highest peak in the world.

10. ______is found in a desert and is also known as the ‘Ship of the desert’.

11. Flat land lower than a mountain but higher than a plain is known as a _______.

12. ____ lie in between the Himalayan Mountains and the Deccan Plateau.

13. An _________ is a land surrounded by water on all sides.

Match each term in Column B with its related term in Column A.

Column A Column B14. State Government. (a) Tiger

15. National animal. (b) Thar desert

16. Great Indian desert. (c) Vande Matram

17. Central Government. (d) Indo-Gangetic plains

18. National song. (e) Peacock

19. National bird. (f) President

20. Northern Plains. (g) Governor

33

w o r k s h e e tClass IX: physICsMax Marks: 20


MotionTick ( ) the correct answer1. Velocity of a body is non-uniform only if (a) speed of the body is constant but its direction changes. (b) speed of the body changes but its direction does not

change. (c) neither speed nor direction of the body changes. (d) either speed or direction or both of the body changes.

2. A car covers first 120 km with the average speed of 60 km/h and next 120 km with the average speed of 40 km/h. The average speed of the total journey of the car is

(a) 48 km/h (c) 50 km/h (b) 52 km/h (d) 46 km/h

3. Uniform circular motion does not have (a) constant speed. (c) constant period of revolution. (b) constant velocity. (d) constant angular velocity.

4. A car speeds up from 36 km/h to 90 km/h in 30 s. The acceleration of the car is

(a) 1.8 m/s2 (c) 0.5 m/s2 (b) 0.4 m/s2 (d) 5 m/s2

5. In the Velocity-Time graph, velocity is taken along Y-axis and time is taken along X-axis. For uniform velocity of a body, the Velocity-Time graph is

(a) parallel to Y-axis. (b) at some angle from X-axis directed upwards. (c) at some angle from X-axis directed downwards. (d) parallel to X-axis.

6. In the following graph, PQ represents

(a) uniform acceleration of 10 m/s2 (b) uniform velocity of 10 m/s (c) uniform retardation of 10 m/s2 (d) non-uniform acceleration

7. The following graph represents the motion of a scooter. The distance travelled in the last 8 s is

(a) 65 m (c) 260 m (b) 130 m (d) 100 m

8. A bus moving with 20 m/s along a straight line undergoes an acceleration of 4 m/s2. After 2 seconds, its speed will be

(a) 8 m/s (c) 28 m/s (b) 16 m/s (d) 32 m/s

9. The given figure gives the velocity - time graph of a train. Which of the following statements is wrong?

(a) CD represents uniform retardation. (b) AB represents uniform velocity. (c) BC represents zero acceleration. (d) AB represents uniform acceleration.

10. A boy first covers 6 m towards North and then covers 8 m towards East. Then

(a) displacement of the boy is 14 m. (b) displacement of the boy is 10 m. (c) displacement of the boy is 2 m. (d) displacement of the boy is less than 8 m.

Fill in the blanks.11. The third equation of motion is ____________________.

12. Speed is a _____________ quantity while velocity is a _____________ quantity.

13. The uniform circular motion of satellite of earth is an example of __________ motion.

14. An athlete completes one round of a 200 m track in 28 seconds. His displacement at the end of 28 seconds is ______________.

State whether the following statements are true or false:

15. Distance and displacement can always be added as they have same units.

16. The Displacement-Time graph of a uniformly accelerated motion is a straight line.

17. The area under the Velocity-Time graph gives the displacement of the body.

18. Water drops falling from a tap is an example of uniformly accelerated motion.

19. The speed of bus given as 90 km/h is equal to 20 m/s.

34

w o r k s h e e t Class IX: physICsMax Marks: 20


force and laws of MotionTick ( ) the correct answer1. A force tends to change (a) the weight of a body. (b) the speed of a body. (c) the speed and direction of a body. (d) the direction of a body.

2. Balanced forces can (a) move a stationary body. (b) change the weight of a body. (c) change the shape of a body. (d) stop a moving body.

3. The inertia of a body (a) increases with increase in the speed of a body. (b) increases with the increase in the mass of a body. (c) is zero in the free space. (d) isinfiniteinspace.

4. When brakes are applied to a fast moving bus (a) passengers fall backward due to inertia of the rest of the

bus. (b) passengers fall forward due to inertia of the motion of the

passengers. (c) passengers fall forward due to inertia of the rest of the bus. (d) passengers fall backward due to inertia of the motion of the

bus.

5. A force F when acts on a body of mass m the acceleration produced is a. If the same force acts on the body of mass 4m, the acceleration of the body will be

(a) a (c) (b) (d) 4a

6. In free space, a rocket can (a) not accelerate because there is no air for the rocket to push

off. (b) not accelerate because there is no gravity. (c) accelerate if the fuel is burnt and gases are ejected out of

the rocket. (d) not accelerate because there is no oxygen in the

atmosphere.

7. For how long should a force of 200 N act on a stationary body of mass 20 kg so that it acquires the velocity of 100 m/s?

(a) 20 s (c) 40 s (b) 10 s (d) 80 s

8. A player pulls his hands backwards while catching a fast moving cricket ball to

(a) increase the force to stop the ball. (b) increase the momentum of the ball. (c) decrease the momentum of his hands. (d) increase the time to stop the ball.9. A ball of 150 g, travelling at 30 m/s is stopped by a man in

0.1 s. The force exerted by the ball on the palm of the man is

(a) 30 N (b) 45 N (c) 60 N (d) 75 N

10. The quantity which is equal to the impulse of force is (a) force acting on the body. (b) acceleration of the body. (c) change of momentum of the body. (d) force of reaction acting on the body.

Fill in the blanks:11. Balanced forces cannot produce change in

________________ of a body.

12. The stretchable seat belts worn by passengers increase the _____________ taken by passengers to fall forward in case of an accident.

13. An unbalanced force acting on a body changes _________ and __________ of the body.

14. The velocity of a body of mass 10 kg increases from 4 m/s to 8 m/s when a force acts on it for 4 seconds. The gain in momentum per second is ______________.

State whether the following statements are true or false:

15. Action and reaction act on the same body.

16. Inertia is the property of every body due to which the body opposes any change in its state of motion.

17. When a boy jumps, he has to push the ground with a force more than his weight.

18. When brakes are applied to a fast moving bike, the law of conservation of momentum is not obeyed.

19. Two equal and opposite forces acting on a rigid body cannot rotate the body.

a

a

35

w o r k s h e e tClass IX: physICsMax Marks: 20


GravitationTick ( ) the correct answer1. The SI unit of gravitational constant G is (a) Nkg2/m2 (c) Nkg2m2

(b) Nm2/kg2 (d) N/kg2/m2

2. The value of acceleration due to the gravity on the surface of moon is

(a) 10 m/s2 (c) 1.63 m/s2

(b) 6 m/s2 (d) 9.8 m/s2

3. The gravitational force between two bodies of masses m and M, separated by a distance R is

(a) directly proportional to m×M. (b) directly proportional to R2. (c) directly proportional to M+m. (d) inversely proportional to G.

4. The acceleration due to gravity g is (a) same at all places on the surface of earth. (b) maximum on the equator and minimum on poles. (c) maximum at the centre of earth. (d) maximum on the poles and minimum on equator.

5. The SI unit of weight of a body is (a) Newton (b) Kilogram (c) Kilogram weight (d) Kilogram force

6. When a hollow iron container is gently placed in a tank completely filled with water, 150 kg of water overflows and container starts floating. The mass of the container is

(a) more than 150 kg. (b) less than 150 kg. (c) equal to 150 kg. (d) equal to 150 N.

7. If the distance between two masses is doubled, the gravitational force between them is

(a) doubled. (b) reduced to a quarter. (c) increased to four times. (d) equal to 150 N.

8. What is the magnitude of force required to produce a pressure of 55000 Pa on an area of 100 cm2?

(a) 550 N (c) 505 N (b) 55 N (d) 500 N

9. According to the Keplar’s laws of planetary motion (a) Sun is at the centre of the elliptical orbit of earth. (b) Orbital speed of a planet is always constant. (c) The ratio of square of the period of revolution of a planet of

Sun to the cube of the mean orbital radius of the planet is same for all the other planets of Sun.

(d) The ratio of square of the mean orbital radius of a planet of Sun to the cube of period of revolution of the planet is same for all the other planets of Sun.

10. A ball is thrown vertically upwards, stops for a moment at a height of 19.6 m. The initial velocity of the ball was

(a) 98 m/s (b) 44.2 m/s (c) 19.6 m/s (d) 9.8 m/s

Fill in the blanks:11. The relative density of Hg is 13.6. Its density with SI

units is ________________.

12. A physical balance measures the mass of a body as 600 g on the surface of earth. The same physical balance will weigh the same body as _________ on the surface of moon.

13. The expression for the acceleration due to gravity in terms of mass of earth M and radius of earth is ______________.

14. An iron ship floats in an ocean because only a part of ship submerges but the ship replaces water_____________.

15. A sharp knife cuts the fruits easily because by applying a small force ___________ is developed on the sharp edge of the knife.

State whether the following statements are true or false:16. Freely falling objects experience weightlessness.

17. To increase the pressure on a surface, the area of contact also needs to be increased.

18. Keplar’s law of planetary motion regarding radius of orbit and period of revolution does not obey Newton’s law of gravitation.

19. The weight of a body is maximum at the equator.

20. A spring balance measures the mass of a body.

36

w o r k s h e e t Class IX: physICsMax Marks: 20


Work and EnErgyTick ( ) the correct answer

1. A constant force F moves a body along the ground by a displacement S. The angle between F and S is Ø. The work done is

(a) F × S SinØ (c) F × S (b) F × S CosØ (d) F × S TanØ

2. A satellite (mass m) is having the orbital radius R around earth (mass M). The work done in half of the revolution is

(a) Zero (b)

2

Mg GR

=

(c)

2

Mg GR

= (d)

2

Mg GR

=

3. A moving body can possess (a) kinetic energy only. (b) kinetic as well as potential energy. (c) potential energy only. (d) neither potential nor kinetic energy.

4. A ball with initial velocity u stops after covering a distance s on a horizontal ground. How much distance will it cover, if the velocity of the ball is 3u?

(a) 3s (c) 9s (b) 6s (d) s

5. The correct sequence of transformation of energy in a thermal power plant is

(a) Heat energy Kinetic energy Electrical energy (b) Chemical energy Kinetic energy Electrical energy (c) Chemical energy Heat energy Electrical energy (d) Chemical energy Heat energy Kinetic energy Electrical energy

6. Which of the following statement is wrong? (a) Energy and Work done have same units. (b) Kilowatt-hour is the unit of energy. (c) Work done is a vector quantity. (d) One kilowatt-hour is equal to 3600 kilo Joule.

7. How much electrical energy will be consumed by a bulb of 100 W in 4 hours?

(a) 40 kJ (b) 360 kJ (c) 1440 kJ (d) 720 kJ

8. A ball is thrown vertically upwards with the velocity of 20 m/s. At what height will the kinetic and potential energy be equal? (g = 9.8 m/s2)

(a) 15 m (b) 10 m (c) 5 m (d) 20 m9. A car travelling with constant velocity of 8 m/s is being

driven by a force of 2.5 × 108 N. The power of the car is (a) 2 × 104 kW (b) 104 kW (c) 2.5 × 104 kW (d) 5 × 104 kW

10. The figure gives the motion of the box. The work done is (a) 108 J (b) 100 J (c) 200 J (d) 216 J

Fill in the blanks:11. One Horse Power is equal to ____________ Watts.

12. A man weighing 500 N carries a load of 100 N up a flight of stairs 4 m high in 10 s. The power exerted by man is ____________ Watts.

13. Two bodies of masses m and 3m are moving with the velocities 3v and v respectively. The ratio of the two bodies is _____________.

14. When an arrow is released from the stretched string of a bow, ___________ energy stored in the ___________ changes into kinetic energy of the arrow.

State whether the following statements are true or false:15. The work done is a vector quantity as it is obtained by the

product of two vectors.

16. Same formula of potential energy = mgh can be given for all the bodies in all situations.

17. One Unit of electrical energy is equal to 3.6 Million Joules.

18. Two bodies can have equal kinetic energy only if their momentum is equal.

19. A flying aircraft possess only kinetic energy.

3

37

w o r k s h e e tClass X: Chemistry


Tick ( ) the correct answer1. Which set of reactions is an example of Chemical Change? [i] Melting of wax [ii] Burning of a candle [iii] Melting of ice [iv] Reaction of NaOH and HCl (a) [iv] (b) [iii] (c) [ii] and [iv] (d) None of them

2. Which element does not show variable valencies? (a) Na (b) Fe (c) Sn (d) Pb

3. What is the valency of Nitrogen in the compound Mg3N2 (a) +2 (b) +3 (c) -3 (d) None of these

4. Reaction ZnO +C → Zn +CO is the example of (a) oxidation reaction (b) reduction reaction (c) combination reaction (d) double displacement reaction

5. Which of the following is a decomposition reaction? (a) NH4CNO → H2NCONH2 (b) 2KClO3 → 2KCl+3O2 (c) 2H2+O2 → 2H2O (d) H2+Br2 → 2HBr

6. Which number sequence is used to balance the following chemical reaction?

□ Cu + □ O2 → □ CuO (a) 2,4,2 (b) 3,6,3 (c) 2,1,2 (d) Any one

7. Rusting of iron is an example of (a) oxidation reaction (b) reduction reaction (c) redox reaction (d) addition reaction

8. Which of the following is NOT an example of thermal decomposition reaction?

(a) 2NaHCO3 → Na2CO3 +H2O + CO2 (b) CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) +CO2(g) (c) NH4Cl → NH3+HCl (d) CuSO4.5 H2O → CuSO4+5 H2O

9. Which set of reaction /reactions will be the examples to differentiate displacement reaction and double displacement reaction?

[I] Fe(s) +CuSO4 (aq) → Fe SO4 (aq)+ Cu(s) [II] 2Mg (s) + O2(g) → 2MgO (s) [III] AgNO3 (aq) +NaCl (aq) → AgCl ↓ + NaNO3(aq) [Iv] BaCl2(aq) +Na2SO4 (aq) → Ba SO4 (s)+NaCl (aq) (a) [I], [III] (b) [I], [III] and [I], [IV] (c) [III], [IV] (d) [I], [II]

10. Which set and order of reactions require energy in the form of heat, light and electricity for their conversion into products?

[I] CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) +CO2(g) [II] Na+ H2O → NaOH + H2 (g) [III] 2 H2O(l) → 2 H2(g) + O2(g) [Iv] 2AgCl (s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) (a) [I], [II] (b) [I], [III], [IV] (c) [I], [IV], [III] (d) All of them

11. Identify the type of chemical reactions and match the following [A ,B, C and D represent the name of compounds participating in a reaction.

[I] A+B → AB (a) Double displacement reaction

[II] A+BC → AC+B (b) Combination reaction [III] A → B+C (c) Displacement reaction [IV] AB+CD → AD+CB (d) Decomposition reaction

State whether the following statements are True or False:12. Preparation of food by plants is an example of

photochemical reaction.

13. Double displacement reaction and precipitation reaction are same kind of reaction.

14. When iron is exposed to air, it remain unchanged.

15. Write in one word or at the most in one sentence about the following:

[i] Write one example of a reaction where one element and one compound undergo a combination reaction.

[ii] At room temperature what is wrong in the following reaction? 2Na(s) + O → Na2O(s)

16. Write and balance the following chemical reaction with complete information of reactants and products.

Aluminium metal + Hydrchloric acid → Aluminium chloride + hydrogen gas

ChemiCal ReaCtions and equations

max maRks: 16

38

w o r k s h e e t Class X: Chemistry


Tick ( ) the correct answer1. An element common to all acids is (a) hydrogen (b) sulphur (c) oxygen (d) nitrogen

2. Which of the following represents a base? (a) CH3OH (b) CH3COOH (c) KOH (d) Both a and b

3. A common substance that contains acetic acid is (a) ammonia water (b) baking powder (c) soap (d) vinegar

4. An acid found in the stomach, it breaks down the food we eat. A mucus lining protects the stomach itself. Too much of the acid can get past the lining and give us an ulcer. The acid is

(a) acetic acid (b) hydrochloric acid (c) citric acid (d) oxalic acid

5. The pH of a solution is equal to (a) the hydrogen ion concentration, [H +] (b) ln [H +] (c) –ln [H +] (d) –log [H +]

6. Which of the following hydroxides is not an alkali? (a) Copper hydroxide (b) Sodium hydroxide (c) Potassium hydroxide (d) Ammonium hydroxide

7. A solution that turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 11

8. AfarmertestedthesoilinhisfieldandfoundthatitsPHis5.0, which of the following compounds did he use to treat hisfield?

(a) Bleaching powder (b) Slaked lime (c) Urea (d) None of these

9. An acidic solution is treated with following indicators as per the given sequence

[1] Litmus blue [2] Methyl orange [3] Phenolphthalein The resultant colour of the solution will be (a) Blue/red/pink (b) Red /red /pink (c) Red/red/no colour (d) Red /blue /no colour

10. Findthecorrectsequencethatisused,andfillintheblanksto make the following statement meaningful

“A solution A turns blue litmus red, so it must contain (i) ..............ions; another solution B turns red litmus blue and therefore, must contain (ii) ...............ions. When solutions A & B are mixed together, the products will be a (iii)............ and (iv).............. . If a piece of magnesium were put into solution A, (v)................... gas would be evolved.”

(a) hydroxyl ion / hydronium ion /salt /water/ hydrogen (b) hydronium ion / hydroxyl ion /salt /water/ oxygen (c) hydronium ions / hydroxyl ions /salt /water/ hydrogen (d) hydronium ion / hydroxyl ion /only /water/ hydrogen

Fill in the blanks and balance the reaction if necessary:11. A scale for measuring .................. concentration in aqueous

solutions is known as pH scale.

12. An example of strong acid is dilute ...............[acetic acid/ hydrochloric acid]

13. A solution whose pH is greater than 7 is ...................[sodium hydroxide/ vinegar]

14. The substances which indicate the acid and basic behaviour of a solution by changing its odour are called ............... [Litmus solutions /olfactory indicators]

15. Toothpastes which are used to clean the mouth are generally ..................................[acidic/basic/neutral]

State whether the following statements are True or False:16. RainwaterwithaPHvaluegreaterthan5.6iscalledrain

water.

17. Metallic oxides react with acids to form water and salt.

18. Basic solutions have H+ (aq) ions.

Answer the following questions in one or two words:19. Write the name of a basic solution which does not contain

any metallic element.

20. What is the property, which is associated with hydrated salts, or the salts that contain the water of crystallization called?

acids, bases and salts

Max Marks: 20

39

w o r k s h e e tClass X: Chemistry


Tick ( ) the correct answer1. Which metal is found in a free state? (a) Calcium (b) Gold (c) Sodium (d) Magnesium

2. Which metal does not produce hydrogen gas when treated with diluted sulphuric acid?

(a) Zn (b) Mg (c) Au (d) Na

3. When Fe metal is added into CuSO4 solution, the Cu metal is displaced from the solution. The conclusion in this reaction is

(a) Fe is less reactive than Cu. (b) Fe is more reactive than Cu. (c) Cu metal can also displace Fe from FeSO4. (d) Fe and Cu are both found above hydrogen in the reactivity

series.

4. The Thermite process is used for (a) refiningofmetals (b) welding of broken iron (c) extraction of aluminium (d) none of these

5. Which element protects itself from corrosion by the process of corrosion?

(a) Al (b) Cu (c) Fe (d) Ag

6. Pure metals are extracted from their ores in several steps, which step/steps are involved in the extraction of metals of medium reactivity?

[i]Concentrationofore→Electrolysisofmoltenore→Metal [ii]Concentrationofore→Carbonateore→Calcination→

oxideofmetal→reductiontometal→Metal [iii]Concentrationofore→Sulphideore→Roasting→Metal [iv]Concentrationofore→Sulphideore→Roasting→oxide

ofmetal→reductiontometal→Metal (a) [i] (b) [ii] (c) [iii] (d) [ii], [iv]

7. Brass is an alloy of (a) Cu, Sn (b) Cu, Zn (c) Sn, Pb (d) Cu, Al, Mg and Mn

8. Choose the metals that are constituents of the blood pigment and the plant pigment.

(a) Fe (b) Mg (c) Mg, Fe (d) Fe, Mg

9. In the market iron sheets and pipes are available with the label, G.I.Sheet. Choose the relevant facts used for “G.I”

A Government of India B Galvanised iron C General industry D Iron coated with Zinc (a) A (b) B (c) B, D (d) None of these

10. �Some�properties�of�elements�are�given�below;�find�the�set�of properties which are relevant to non-metals

A 5, 6, 7 valence electrons B Brittle C Ductile D Forms acidic oxides E Formsbasicoxides F ReactionwithdilutedH2SO4 gives hydrogen gas (a) C,E,F (b) A,B,D (c) A,B,C,D (d) B,CE,F

11. Match the following: [i] Sodium (a) is a liquid at room temperature [ii] Silver (b) is a poor conductor of heat [iii] Mercury (c) can be cut with a knife [iv] Lead (d) is the best conductor of heat

State whether the following statements are True or False:12. Metals are malleable but not ductile.

13. Metals form basic oxides.

14. Metals are generally hard and have very high melting points and boiling points.

The following is a sketch of an electrolytic cell used in the extraction of aluminium. Answer the following questions associated with this cell

15. What is the material from, which A and B are made?

16. At which electrode (A and B) is aluminium formed? What is the technical name of the electrode where aluminium is formed?

17. What is formed at electrode B, and why is it necessary for B to be continuously replaced?

metals and non-metals

max marks: 18

40

w o r k s h e e t Class X: Chemistry


Tick ( ) the correct answer

1. Organic compounds containing the functional group, –OH are called

(a) acids. (b) alcohols. (c) aldehydes. (d) ketones.

2. Which of the following is not the allotropic form of carbon? (a) Charcoal (b) Wood (c) Diamond (d) Graphite

3. Preparation of vegetable ghee from vegetable oil is an example of

(a) oxidation reaction. (b) substitution reaction. (c) addition reaction. (d) combustion reaction.

4. Which class of the following compounds give effervescence with sodium carbonate solution?

(a) Ethane (b) Ethanoic acid (c) Ethanol (d) All of them

5. Rectified spirit contains (a) 100% ethanol (b) 93 – 95% ethanol (c) 75% ethanol (d) 75% petrol +25% ethanol

6. Which one is not correct for Denaurated alcohol? (a) A mixture of 75% petrol +25% ethanol (b) A mixture ethanol + methanol (c) A mixture ethanol + copper sulphate (d) A mixture ethanol + pyridine

7. Which material is not used for the preparation of ordinary soap?

(a) Animal fat (b) Sodium chloride (c) Sulphuric acid (d) Sodium hydroxide

8. Which functional group is present in carboxylic acid? (a) –CHO (b) –CO (c) –OH (d) –COOH

9. When a mixture of compressed methane and oxygen is passed through a copper tube at 575K and 100 atmospheres, methane is oxidised to

(a) CO2 (b) HCHO (c) CH3OH (d) all of them

10. On combustion , which produces a non-luminous flame? (a) Methane (b) Ethene (c) Acetylene (d) Benzene

State whether the following statements are True or False:

11. The cleansing action of a detergent is exactly similar to that of soap.

12. Butter and cooking oil cannot be distinguished by the Baeyer’s test.

13. Alkaline potassium permanganate oxidises ethanol to acetic acid.

Answer the following questions in one or two words:

14. Write the name of the by-product of the soap industry

15. Write the formulae of the following compounds (a) Glucose (b) Fructose

16. Name the enzymes present in yeast

17. Which gas is obtained during the process of fermentation?

18. What is a dilute solution of ethanoic acid in water called?

Fill in the blanks and balance the reaction if necessary:

19. C2H5OH +[O] CrO3 CH3COOH

---------------+ H2O

20. CH3CH2OH + Na → ----------------+ H2

carbon and its compounds

max marks: 20

cl ttics worksheet max marks: 15 number to … ttics worksheet max marks: 15 ... lohri c. raksha...

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