class: mz1-a neet model date: 07-06-20 time: 3hrs wtn-33 ...€¦ · and the tube length is 6.5cm....

Corporate Office: 10th Floor, Melange Tower; No.80-84, Pathrika Nagar; Hitech-City, Madhapur, Hyderabad. Telangana - 500 081.

: 040-45009999(360/341) : [email protected] : http://www.narayanagroup.com

Class: MZ1-A NEET MODEL Date: 07-06-20

Time: 3hrs WTN-33 Max. Marks: 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

➢ Section I- Physics (1 to 45)

➢ Section II- Chemistry (46 to 90)

➢ Section III- Biology (Botany & Zoology) (91 to 180) Total Number of

Questions: 180.

➢ The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions.

Each question carries 4marks. For each correct response, the candidate

will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be

deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

➢ The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet

only.

-:Note:-

Physics : 01 to 45

Chemistry : 46 to 90

Botany : 91 to 135

Zoology : 136 to 180

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.narayanagroup.com/

MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-33_Exam.Dt.07-06-20

Narayana CO Schools

2

01. Loss of the eye to focus on both far and near objects with advancing

age is

1) Astigmatism 2) Presbyopia

3) Myopia 4) Hypermetropia

02. The image of an object formed on the retina of the eye is

1) Virtual and inverted 2) Virtual and erect

3) Real and erect 4) Real and inverted

03. A compound microscope has a magnifying power of 100 when the

image is formed at infinity. The objective has a focal length of 0.5cm

and the tube length is 6.5cm. Then the focal length of the eyepiece

is

1) 2cm 2) 2.5cm 3) 3.25cm 4) 4cm

04. The separation L between the objective ( )0 0.5f cm= and the eye

piece ( )5ef cm= of a compound microscope is 7cm. Where should a

small object be placed so that the eye is least strained

1) 0.5cm 2) 3

2cm 3)

2

3cm 4)

1

3cm

05. The focal length of objective and eye lens of a astronomical

telescope are respectively 20cm and 5cm. Final image is formed at

least distance of distinct vision. Then magnifying Power is

1) -4.8 2) – 4.0 3) 4.8 4) 4.0

06. The eyepice of a refracting telescope has f = 9cm, In the normal

setting, sepration between objective and eyepiece is 1.8m. then the

magnification is

1) 20 2) 19 3) 18 4) 21

07. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. when it is adjusted for

parallel rays, the distance between the objective and eyepiece is

20cm. The focal lengths of lenses are

1) 11cm, 9cm 2) 10cm, 10cm

3) 15cm, 5cm 4) 18cm, 2cm


Narayana CO Schools

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08. A person can see objects clearly only when they lie between 50cm

and 400cm from his eyes. in order to increase the maximum

distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the

correcting lens, the person has to use, will be

1) Concave, -0.2diopter 2) Convex, +0.15diopter

3) Convex, +2.25diopter 4) Concave, -0.25diopter

09. Choose the correct option

1) The far and near point for normal eye are usually taken to be

infinite and 25cm respectively.

2) In eye. Convex eye- lens forms real, inverted and diminished

image at the retina

3) The human eye is most sensitive to yellow- green light

wavelength 55500

A and least to violet red

4) All options are correct

10. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is

1) Virtual, erect and magnified 2) Real, erect and magnified

3) Real, inverted and magnified 4) Virtual, erect and reduced

11. Four convergent lenses have focal lengths 100cm, 10cm, 4cm and

0.3cm. for a telescope with maximum possible magnification, we

choose the lenses of focal lengths

1) 100cm, 0.3cm 2) 10cm, 0.3cm

3) 10cm, 4cm 4) 100cm, 4cm

12. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment, a straight black

line of length L is drawn on the objective lens. The eye – piece forms

a real image of this line. The length of this image is l Then the

magnification of the telescope is

1) L

l 2) 1

L

l+ 3) 1

L

l− 4)

L l

L l

+

−

13. Wavelengths of light used in an optical instrument are 0 0

1 24000 5000 ,A and A = = then ratio of their respective resolving

power is

1) 16:25 2) 9:1 3) 4:5 4) 5:4


Narayana CO Schools

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14. A man, wearing glasses of power +2 D can read clearly a book

placed at a distance 40cm from the eye. The power of the lens

required so that he can read at 25cm from the eye is

1) +4.5D 2) +4.0 D 3) +3.5 D 4) +3.0 D

15. The near and far points of a person are at 40cm and 250cm

respectively. then the power of the lens is he/she should use while

reading at 25cm

1) +1.5D 2) -1.5D 3) +0.5D 4) -0.5D

16. A person can see clearly up to 1m. The nature and power of the lens

which will enable him to see things at a distance of 3m is

1) Concave, -0.66D 2) Convex, - 0.66D

3) Concave, - 0.33D 4) Convex, -0.33D

17. A short sighted person can see objects most distinctly at a distance

of 16cm. if he wears spectacles at a distance of 1cm from the eye,

then their focal length to see distinctly at a distance of 26cm

1) 25cm, convex 2) 25cm, concave

3) 37.5cm, convex 4) 37.5cm, concave

18. A compound microscope has a magnification of 30. The focal length

of the eyepiece is 5cm. if the final image is formed at the least

distance of distinct vision (25cm), the magnification produced by

the objective lens is

1) 5 2) 705 3) 10 4) 15

19. An equilateral prism is placed on a horizontal surface. A ray PQ is

incident onto it. For minimum deviation

1) PQ is horizontal 2) QR is horizontal

3) RS is horizontal 4) Any one will be horizontal


Narayana CO Schools

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20. The angular dispersion will be maximum in the following pairs of

colours is

1) Yellow and green 2) Red and blue

3) Green and red 4) Blue and orange

21. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the faces of a prism of

apex angles 030 and refractive index 2 .The angle of deviation of

the ray is

1) 030 2)

015 3)020 4)

010

22. A ray of light passing through a prism having = 2 suffers

minimum deviation. It is found that the angle of incidence is double

the angle of refraction within the prism. What is the angle of prism

1) 050 2)

065 3)090 4)

010

23. For an equilateral prism, it is observed that when a ray strikes

grazing at one face it emerges grazing at the other. Then its

refractive index

1) 5 2) 2 3)9 4) 7

24. White light is passed through a prism of angle 05 .If the refractive

indices for red and blue colours are 1.641 and 1.659 respectively.

Calculate the angle of dispersion between them. (in degrees)

1) 0.09 2) 0.07 3)0.03 4) 0.02

25. The refractive indices of flint glass prism for C, D and F lines are

1.790, 1.795 and 1.805 respectively. Then the dispersive power of

the flint glass prism is

1) 0.0188 2) 0.1887 3)0.1789 4) 0.1689

26. A prism has a refracting angle of 060 .When placed in the position

of minimum deviation, it produces a deviation of 030 .The angle of

incidence is

1)

030 2) 045 3)

015 4) 060


Narayana CO Schools

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27. A thin prism P1 of angle 04 and refractive index 1.54 is combined

with another thin prism P2 of refractive index 1.72 to produce

dispersion without deviation. The angle of P2 is

1)

04 2) 05.33 3)

02.6 4) 03

28. A crown glass prism of angle 05 is to be combined with a flint glass

prism in such a way that the dispersion is zero. The refractive

indices for violet and red lights are 1.523 and 1.514 respectively for

crown glass and for flint glass are 1.632 and 1.614, then the angle

of the flint glass prism is

1)

010 2) 02.5 3)

02 4) 05.45

29. In an achromatic combination of two prisms, the ratio of the mean

deviations produced by the two prisms is 2:3 the ratio of their

dispersive power is

1) 2 : 3 2) 3 : 2 3)1 : 1 4) 4 : 9

30. Dispersive power depends upon

1) The angle of prism 2) Material of prism

3) Deviation produced by prism 4) Height of the prism

31. A prism, having refractive index 2 and refracting angle 030 , has

one of the refracting surface polished. A beam of light incident on

the other refracting surface will trace its path, if the angle of

incidence is

1)

00 2) 030 3)

045 4) 060

32. When a ray of light is incident normally on one refracting surface

of an equilateral prism, then (Refractive index of the material of the

prism=1.5)

1) emerging ray is deviated by 030

2) emerging ray is deviated by

045

3) emerging ray just grazes the second refracting surface

4) the ray undergoes total internal reflection at the second

refracting surface


Narayana CO Schools

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33. A ray of light is incident at angle of 060 on one face of a prism which

has an angle of 030 . The ray emerging out of the prism makes an

angle of 030 with the incident ray . Then the refractive index of the

material of the prism is

1) 3 2) 5 3) 7 4) 2

34. A ray falls on a prism ( )ABC AB BC= and travels as shown in the

figure. The minimum refractive index of the prism material should

be

1) 4

3 2) 2 3)

3

2 4) 3

35. Calculate the dispersive power of flint glass. The refractive indices

of flint glass for red, yellow and violet light are 1.613, 1.620 and

1.632 respectively

1) 0.031 2) 0.041 3)0.021 4) 0.061

36. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that the

angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergency and the latter is

equal to 3

4th of the angle of the prism. The angle of deviation is

1) 045 2) 039 3) 020 4) 030


Narayana CO Schools

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37. The maximum value of index of refraction of a material of prism

which allows the passage of light through it when the refracting

angle of prism is A

1) 21 sin2

A+ 2) 21 cos

2

A+

3) 21 tan2

A+ 4) 21 cot

2

A+

38. A prism of refractive index and angle A is placed in the minimum

deviation position. if the angle of minimum deviation is A, Then the

value of A in terms of is

1) 1sin

2

−

2) 1 1sin

2

− −

3) 12cos

2

−

4) 1cos

2

−

39. Angle of prism is A and its one surface is silvered. Light rays falling

at an angle of incidence 2A on first surface return back through the

same path after suffering reflection at second silvered surface.

Refractive index of the material of prism is

1) 2sinA 2) 2cosA 3) 1

cos2

A 4) tan A

40. A parallel bean of light is incident from air an angle on the side

PQ of a right angled triangular prism of refractive index 2n = .

Light undergoes total internal reflection in the prism at the face PR

when has a minimum value of 045 . The angle of the prism is

1) 015 2) 022.5 3) 030 4) 045


Narayana CO Schools

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41. The force length of a normal eye lens is about_____________

1) 1 mm 2) 2 cm 3) 25 cm 4) None

42. To increase the angular magnification of a simple microscope, one

should increase______________

1) The focal length of the lens

2) The power of the lens

3) The aperture of the lens

4) The object size

43. When we see an object, the image formed on the retina is __________

1) real, inverted 2) virtual, inverted

3) erect 4) all of these

44. In which of the following the final image is erect_________

1) compound microscope

2) simple microscope

3) astronomical telescope

4) all of these

45. A man wearing glasses of focal length + 1 m cannot clearly see

beyond 1 m ____________

1) If he is far sighted

2) If he is near sighted

3) If his vision is normal

4) In each of these cases or 1, 2 and 3 options


Narayana CO Schools

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46. Chlorobenzene can be prepared by reacting benzene diazonium

chloride with

1) HCl 2) 2 2Cu Cl /HCl 3) 2 3Cl / AlCl 4) 2HNO

47. Chlorobenzene on nitration gives major product of

1) l-chloro-4-nitro benzene 2) l-chloro-3 nitro benzene

3) 1, 4-dinitro benzene 4) 2, 4, 6-trinitro benzene

48. Trichloroacetaldehyde ( 3CCl CHO ) reacts with chlorobenzene in

presence of sulphuric acid and produces

1)

2)

3)

4)

49. Which of the following compounds undergoes nucleophilic

substitution reaction most easily

1) 2) 3) 4)

50. Silver benzoate reacts with bromine in acetone to form

1) 2) 3) 4)


Narayana CO Schools

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51. What products are formed when the following compounds are

treated with 2Br in the presence of 3FeBr ?

1)

2)

3)

4)

52. An aromatic compound of molecular formula 6 4 2C H Br was nitrated

then three isomers of formula 6 3 2 2C H Br NO were obtained. The

original compound is

1) o – dibromobenzene 2) m – dibromobenzene

3) p – dibromobenzene 4) Both (1) and (3)


Narayana CO Schools

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53. Direct iodination of benzene is not possible because

1) iodine is oxidising agent

2) the product 6 5C H I is reduced to 6 6C H by HI

3) HI is unstable

4) ring is deactivated

54. Which of the following is used in fire extinguishers

1) 3CHCl 2) 2 2CH Cl 3) 4CCl 4) All of these

55. IUPAC name of is

1) 1,2-dichloro benzene 2) m-dichloro benzene

3) 1,6-dichloro benzene 4) o-dichloro benzene

56. Which of the following compounds will show faster 2NArS reaction?

1) 2)

3) 4)

57. The reaction involving the treatment of benzene diazonium chloride

with copper powder and HCl is termed as:

1) Sandmeyer’s reaction 2) Gattermann’s reaction

3) Ullmann’s reaction 4) Kolbe’s reaction

58. Among the following, the one which reacts most readily with

ethanol is

1) p – nitrobenzyl bromide 2) p – chlorobenzyl bromide

3) p – methoxybenzyl bromide 4) p – methylbenzyl bromide

59. Which of the following is not an example of Sandmeyer’s reaction?

1) 6 5 2 6 5CuCl

C H N Cl C H Cl+ − ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 2) 6 5 2 6 5CuBr

C H N Cl C H Br+ − ⎯⎯⎯⎯→

3) 6 5 2 6 5CuCN

C H N Cl C H CN+ − ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 4) 6 5 2 6 5KCN /KI

C H N Cl C H I+ − ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→


Narayana CO Schools

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60. The reaction is

1) 1NArS

2) 2NArS

3) Nucleophilic substitution via benzyne formation

4) Both (1) and (2)

61. An ethereal solution of 4-nitrochlorobenzene is treated with

metallic sodium. The product formed is:

1) Aminobenzene 2) 4, 4’ – Dinitrodiphenyl

3) p-Chloroaniline 4) Benzene diazonium chloride

62. Fluorobenzene ( )6 5C H F can be synthesized in the laboratory

1) By heating phenol with HF and KF

2) From aniline by diazotization followed by heating the diazonium

salt with 4HBF

3) By direct fluorination of benzene with F2 gas

4) By reacting bromobenzene with NaF solution

63. The product can be:

1) Benzal 2) Sodium benzoate

3) Benzol 4) Sodium phenate

64. Identify the compound Y in the following reaction

1) 2) 3) 4)


Narayana CO Schools

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65. Toluene reacts with a halogen in the presence of iron (III) chloride

giving ortho and para halo compounds. The reaction is

1) Electrophilic elimination reaction

2) Electrophilic substitution reaction

3) Free radical addition reaction

4) Nucleophilic substitution reaction

66. Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their

densities

1) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) 2) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b)

3) (d) < (c) < (b) < (a) 4) (b) < (d) < (c) < (a)

67. Chlorobenzene is formed by reaction of chlorine with benzene in the

presence of 3AlCl . Which of the following species attacks the

benzene ring in this reaction?

1) Cl− 2) Cl + 3) 3AlCl 4) 4AlCl−

68. What is ‘A’ in the following reaction?

1) 2)

3) 4)


Narayana CO Schools

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69. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of iron and in

the absence of light yields

1) 2)

3) 4) Mixture of (2) and (3)

70. Chlorine atom in chlorobenzene is ortho para director because

1) resonance effect predominates over inductive effect

2) Inductive effect predominates over resonance effect

3) both inductive effect and resonance effect are evenly matched

4) only resonance effect operates

71. The following is used in paint removing

1) 3CHCl 2) 2 2CH Cl 3) 4CCl 4) 3CH Cl

72. First chlorinated insecticide

1) DDT 2) Gammaxene 3) Iodoform 4) Freon

73. The following is used as anaesthetic

1) 2 4C H 2) 3CHCl 3) 2 2CH Cl 4) DDT

74. The following is used for metal cleaning and finishing

1) 3CHCl 2) 3CHI 3) 2 2CH Cl 4) 6 6C H

75. The name of DDT

1) p, p’-dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane

2) p, p’- dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethene

3) p, p’-dichloro diphenyl trichloro benzene

4) p, p’- tetra chloro ethane

76. The compound used in the production of Freon refrigerant, R-22 is

1) methylene chloride 2) chloroform

3) iodoform 4) carbon tetra chloride

77. The chemical formula of phosgene is

1) 2COCl 2) 3COCl 3) COCl 4) All of these


Narayana CO Schools

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78. The following is used as a propellant in aerosols

1) Dichloro-methane 2) Monohloro-methane

3) Trichloro-methane 4) Tetrachloro-methane

79. Chronic chloroform exposure may cause damage to the

1) Kidney 2) Liver 3) Eyes 4) Both (1) & (2)

80. Which of the following is used as an antiseptic

1) 3CHCl 2) 3CHI 3) 3CHBr 4) All of these

81. Molecular formula of DDT has

1) 5 Cl atoms 2) 4 Cl atoms 3) 3 Cl atoms 4) 2 Cl atoms

82. Which of the following is used as feedstock in the synthesis of

chlorofluorocarbons

1) 3CHCl 2) 2 2CH Cl 3) 4CCl 4) All of these

83. Which of the following harms the human central nervous system

1) 3CHCl 2) 3CHI 3) 2 2CH Cl 4) 6 6C H

84. The chemical that stops the spreading of malaria by effectiveness

against the mosquito

1) DDT 2) 3CHCl 3) 2 2CH Cl 4) All of these

85. Which of the following is used as a spot remover

1) 2 2CH Cl 2) 4CCl 3) 3CHCl 4) All of these

86. The structure of DDT has

1) No benzene rings 2) Three benzene rings

3) Two benzene rings 4) One benzene rings

87. Which of the following causes liver cancer in humans

1) Chloroform 2) Iodoform

3) Carbon tetrachloride 4) ll of these

88. Which of the following can burn the cornea, when direct contact

with the eyes

1) 2 2CH Cl 2) 3CHI 3) 3CHCl 4) 6 6C H

89. The antiseptic properties of Iodoform is due to the liberation of

1) Free chlorine 2) Free iodine 3) Free bromine 4) All of these

90. Which of the following shows high toxicity towards fish

1) DDT 2) 3CHCl 3) 2 2CH Cl 4) All of these


Narayana CO Schools

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91. ‘A’ and ‘B’ chains of human insulin, collected from genetically

engineered E.coli cells are combined to form active human insulin

by creating between them

1) The diphosphate bonds 2) p-ester bonds

3) weak H-bonds 4) Disulphide bonds

92. In which of the following company prepared two DNA sequences

corresponding to ‘A’ and ‘B’ chains of human insulin and

introduced them in plasmids of E.coli to produce insulin chains

1) Austrian company, Eli Lilly 2) African company, Eli Lilly

3) American company, Eli Lilly 4) Asian company, Eli Lilly

93. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a ‘4’ years old

girl with enzyme deficiency of

1) Tyrosine oxidase 2) adenosine deaminase

3) Monamine oxidase 4) Glutamate dehydrogenase

94. Which of the following is based upon the principle of antigen –

antibody interaction?

1) ELISA 2) PCR 3) r-DNA 4) r-RNA

95. Human insulin is being commercially produced from a transgenic

species of

1) Saccharomyces 2) Escherichia

3) Bacillius 4) Rhizobium

96. ______ is a collection of methods that allows correction of a gene

defect that has been diagnosed in a child/embryo

1) genetic dript 2) genepriacy

3) gene therapy 4) gene cloning


Narayana CO Schools

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97. At present, how many recombinant therapeutics have been

approved for human – use the world over

1) sixty 2) twenty 3) fifty 4) thirty

98. c-peptide of human insulin is

1) a part of mature insulin molecule

2) responsible for the formation of disulphide bridge

3) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to insulin

4) responsible for its biological activity

99. 1 − antitrypsin is

1) an enzyme 2) used to treat emphysema

3) an antacid 4) used to treat arthritis

100. Today, transgenic models exist for many human diseases which

includes

I) Cancer II) Cystic fibrosis

III) Rheumatoid arthritis IV) Alzheimer’s

1) I, II and III only 2) I, II and III only

3) I, II, III and IV 4) II, III and IV only

101. Which of the following statement is correct?

1) Medicines are not required to treat certain human diseases can

contain biological products

2) Transgeneic mice are being developed for use in testing the

safety of vaccines before they are used on humans

3) Transgenic animals are not sensitive to toxic substances than

non-trans genic animals

4) Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the influnza

vaccine

102. In.ELISA, infection by pathogen can be detected by the presence of

antigens or by detecting the antibodies synthesised

1) against the pathogen 2) against the pigments

3) against the proteins 4) against the pathogens


Narayana CO Schools

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103. Match the following

List – I List – II

A) PCR I) Recombinant DNA technology

B) ELISA II) Polymerase chain reaction

C) r-DNA tech III) Adenosine deminase

D) ADH IV) Enzyme linked immune-sorbent assay

1) ; ; ;A I B II C III D IV− − − − 2) ; ; ;A II B IV C I D III− − − −

3) ; ; ;A III B I C IV D II− − − − 4) ; ; ;A IV B III C II D I− − − −

104. In some children, ADA deficiency can be cured by

1) Enzyme replacement therapy

2) Blood transplantation therapy

3) Bone marrow transplantation therapy

4) Hormone replacements therapy

105. A singles stranded DNA or RNA, tagged with a radioactive molecule

(probe) is allowed to hybridise to its complementary DNA in a clone

of cells followed by

1) detection using autocarbanography

2) detection using autosulphanography

3) detection using autoradiography

4) detection using autochlorography

106. Which off the following is a powerful technique to identify many

genetic diorders?

1) RNA 2) PKU 3) PCR 4) GMO

107. The first transgenic cow, Rosie produce

1) human protein – enriched milk

2) human lipid – enriched milk

3) human carbohydrate – enriched milk

4) human phaspharous – enriched milk

108. Transgenic cow raise milk contained the human ____ and was

nutritionally a more balanced product for human bodies.

1) beta – lactic acid 2) alpha – lactalbumin

3) alpha – lactic acid 4) alpha – lecithin


Narayana CO Schools

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109. r-DNA technology, PCR and ELISA are some of the techniques that

serve the purpose of

1) product development 2) early disease formation

3) early protein development 4) early diagnosis

110. 1 antitrypsin− − , human protein used to treat

1) emphysema 2) arthritis

3) alzheimrs 4) rheumatoid

111. Enzyme linked immune – sorbent assay is the based on the

principle of

1) antigen – anti body interaction respectively

2) antigen – antibiotic combinations respectively

3) antibody – antidrug combinations respectively

4) antitoxix – anti body interaction respectively

112. Read the following statements and identify incorrect one.

1) Transgenic animals are designed to increase our understanding

of how genes contribute to the development of disease

2) Medicines are not required to treat certain human diseases can

contain biological products

3) Transgenic animals that produce useful biological products can

be created by the introduction of the protein of DNA

4) Transgenic animals are made that curry genes which make

them more sensitive to toxic substance than non-transgenic

animals

113. First step towards gene therapy, ______ from the blood of the patient

are grown in a culture outside the body

1) lymphocytes 2) esnophylles

3) erthyrocytes 4) neutrophylles

114. Stirred tank bioreactors have been designed for

1) Purification of the product

2) Ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel

3) Availability of oxygen through out the process

4) Addition of preservatives to the product


Narayana CO Schools

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115. Bt cotton is

1) Transgenic plant 2) Mutated plant

3) Cloned Plant 4) Hybrid Plant

116. The down streaming process of a biosynthesis product produced in

a bioreactor includes the following steps.

1) Denaturation, annealing 2) Denaturation, separation

3) Separation, purification 4) Separation, Elution

117. A nematode which infects the roots of tobacco plants is

1) Agrobacterium tumefacients 2) Erwinia amylovora

3) Xanthomonas solanacearum 4) Meloidogyne incognita

118. Which of the following is an option for increasing food production.

I) Agrochemical based agriculture

II) Inorganic agriculture

III) Organic agriculture

IV) Genetically engineered crop based agriculture

1) I, III and IV 2) I, II and III

3) II, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV

119. Which of the following cry gene codes for the protein which can

control the corn borer effectivity.

1) cryIAC 2) cryIIAb

3) cryIAb 4) cryIIAc

120. Cry gene is obtained from

1) Bacillus thuringinesis 2) Bacillus subtilis

3) Clostridium 4) E.coil

121. The process of separation and purification of expressed protein

before marketing is called

1) Upstream processing 2) Downstream processing

3) Micro propagation 4) Pre production

122. The large scale Bioreactors have volume of

1) 1–10 litres 2) 50–100 litres

3) 100–1000 litres 4) 20–80 litres


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123. Which of the following Succeeded in tripling the food supply but yet

was not enough to feed the growing human population?

1) Gene therapy 2) Bioinformatics

3) Genetically modified organism 4) Green revolution

124. cryIAC and cryII Ab gene help in controlling of

1) Corn – borer 2) Cotton-bollworms

3) Tobacco – budworm 4) Army – worm

125. GM plants have been useful in

I) made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses

II) reduced reliance on chemical pesticides

III) helped to reduce post harvest of food

IV) enhanced nutritional value of food

1) I, II and III only 2) II, III and IV only

3) I, III and IV only 4) I, II, III and IV

126. Most common type of bioreactor is

1) Stering type 2) Stirring type

3) Sperical type 4) Sterile type

127. Which one of the following growth conditions are not to be provided

in a bioreactor for achieving the desired product?

1) Vitamins 2) Substrate

3) oxygen 4) Hormones

128. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have been developed by the

introduction of DNA that produces (in the host cells)

1) Both sence and antisence-RNA

2) A-toxic protein

3) An antifeedant

4) A particular hormone

129. Which of the following is used in introducing nematode specific

genes in to the host plant?

1) Escherichia 2) Salmonella

3) Agrobacterium 4) Streptococcus


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130. Under what conditions that inactive protoxins of the bacterium

turn in to an active form of toxin

1) Concentration of hormones in the guts

2) Acidic pH of the gut

3) Alkaline pH of the gut

4) Neutral pH of the gut

131. A Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions for achieving the

desired product by providing optimum growth conditions.

I) Temperature II) pH

III) Substrated & salts IV) Vitamins

V) Oxygen

1) I,II,III and V only 2) II,III,IV and V only

3) I,III,IV and V only 4) I,II,III, IV and V

132. Which ingredient was present in high concentration in genetically

modified (GM) rice as compared to the usual rice?

1) Proteins 2) Carbohydrates

3) Lipids 4) Vitamin-A

133. Which of the following is not a true statement regrading to

Bt.cotton?

1) It is a example of pestresistance

2) It decrease the amount of pestiside used

3) Bt toxin genes were isolated from protesta organisms

4) It contains insecticidal protein crystals

134. Match the following.

Column-I Column-II

A) Coleopterans I) Flies. Mosquitoes

B) Dipterians II) Bacillus thuringiensis

C) Lepidopterans III) Beetles

D) Bt IV) Tobacco bud worm

1) , , ,A III B I C IV D II− − − − 2) , , ,A IV B III C I D II− − − −

3) , , ,A III B IV C I D II− − − − 4) , , ,A I B IV C III D II− − − −

135. Any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host is

called

1) recombinant – DNA 2) recombinant protein 3) recombinant – RNA 4) Cimeric – DNA


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136. Point mutation involves

1) Deletion of more base pairs 2) Insertion of more base pairs

3) Change in single base pair 4) Duplication

137. In pedigree Analysis, symbol given for sex unspecified is

1)

2)

3)

4)

138. Frame shift mutations are caused due to

1) Deletions of base pairs of DNA 2) Insertion of base pairs of DNA

3) Both (1) and (2) 4) No change in base pair of DNA

139. A classical example of point mutation is

1) Sickle cell Anaemia 2) Anaemia

3) Gonorrhoea 4) Syphilis

140. Which one of the following is an incorrect statement regarding

mutations?

1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause frame shift mutations

2) Cancer cells commonly shows chromosomal aberrations

3) UV rays are mutagens

4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation

141. In pedigree Analysis, Symbol given for male is

1)

2)

3)

4)

142. In pedigree Analysis, Symbol given for female is

1)

2)

3)

4)

143. Mutations can be induced with

1) Infrared radiations 2) IAA

3) Ethylene 4) UV Radiations

144. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in

1) Normal cells 2) Undividing cells

3) Cancer cells 4) Infected cells

145. Loss or gain of a segment of DNA results in

1) Shift mutation 2) Viability

3) Polyploidy 4) Chromosomal aberration


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146. Fill in the blank with appropriate option for the given NCERT

statement.

STATEMENT: The Idea that disorders are inherited has been

prevailing in the human society since long. This was based on the

_________ of certain characteristic features in families.

1) Adoption 2) Environment

3) Biotic 4) Heritability

147. In human genetics, pedigree study provides a strong tool, which is

utilised to trace the inheritance of a

1) Specific trait 2) abnormality

3) Disease 4) All the above

148. Identify the incorrect statement from the following

1) DNA is not the carrier of genetic information

2) DNA is transmitted from one generation to the other without

any change or alteration

3) However changes or alteration in genetic material do takes

place occasionally.

4) Such an alteration or change in the genetic material is referred

to as mutation.

149. A number of disorders in human beings have been found to be

associated with the inheritance of ________

1) Changed gene 2) Altered Chromosomes

3) Both (1) & (2) 4) Non altered Chromosomes

150. In pedigree Analysis symbols given for affected individuals is

1)

2)

3)

4)

151. In pedigree Analysis, Symbol given/used for indicating mating

1)

2)

3)

4)

152. In pedigree Analysis, Symbol given/used for indicating

consanguineous mating.

1)

2)

3)

4)


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153. In pedigree Analysis, which of the following symbol indicates

parents with male child affected with disease.

1)

2)

3)

4)

154. In sickle- cell anaemia, shape of RBCs under low oxygen tension

becomes

1) Biconcave disc like 2) Elongated sickle like

3) Circular 4) Spherical

155. The incorrect statement with regard to Haemophilia is

1) It is a sex-linked disease

2) It is a recessive disease

3) It is a dominant disease

4) A single protein involved in the clotting of blood is affected

156. Sickle cell anaemia is

1) Caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the beta

globin chain of haemoglobin

2) Caused by a change in a single base pair of DNA

3) Characterised by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

4) An autosomal linked dominant trait

157. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria shows that she was a

1) Haemophilic 2) Colour blind

3) Carrier for haemophilia 4) Carrier for colour blindness

158. Consider the following human disorders

i) Haemophilia ii) Down’s syndrome

iii) Cystic fibrosis iv) Colour blindness

v) Night blindness

Which of these disorders exhibit “Mendelian” pattern of

inheritance?

1) (ii), (iii)& (iv) 2) (i), (ii), (iii)

3) (i), (iii) & (v) 4) (i), (iii)& (iv)


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159. In Sickle cell anaemia glutamic acid is replaced by valine which one

of the following triplets code for valine?

1) GGG 2) AAG 3) GAA 4) GUG

160. Simple cut will result in non-stop bleeding in case of

1) Sickle cell anaemia 2) Thalassemia

3) Haemophilia 4) Colour blindness

161. An inborn error of metabolism in which the affected individual lacks

an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine

is

1) Phenylketonuria 2) Thalassemia

3) Haemophilia 4) Sickle- cell anaemia

162. Which one is a sex-linked disease?

1) Tylosis 2) Beri- Beri

3) colour blindness 4) Rickets

163. What is true for colour blindness and haemophilia?

1) Nutritional deficiency disorders

2) Sex linked recessive disorders

3) Autosomal recessive disorders

4) Autosomal dominant disorders

164. What is true for thalassemia?

1) Nutritional disorder leading to anaemia

2) Autosomal recessive disorder leading to clotting abnormalities

3) Autosomal recessive disorder leading to reduced haemoglobin

synthesis

4) Autosomal dominant disorder leading to reduced haemoglobin

synthesis

165. What is true for an individual suffering from Down‘s syndrome?

1) Short statured, small round head

2) Furrowed tongue, palm crease

3) Physical, Psychomotor and mental development is retarded

4) All of the above


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166. Read the following statements:

I) 44+XXY results in klinefelter’s syndrome

II) Individuals with klinefelter’s syndrome has overall masculine

development, are sterile and also show gynaecomastia.

III) 44+XO results in Turner’s syndrome

IV) Individuals with Turner’s syndrome possess most of the

secondary sexual charterers

V) Individuals with Turner’s syndrome are sterile with

rudimentary ovaries

Which of the above statements are correct?

1) (I) (II), (III) and (V) 2) (I) (III) and (IV)

3) (IV) and (V) 4) all of the above

167. Absence of one sex-chromosome causes:

1) Turner’s syndrome 2) Klinefelter’s syndrome

3) Down’s syndrome 4) Tay-sash’s syndrome

168. Alpha Thalassemia is controlled by

1) HBB 2) HBA1

3) HBA2 4) Both (2) and (3)

169. Beta Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene ______ on

chromosome 11.

1) HBA1 2) HBB

3) HBA2 4) Both (2) and (3)

170. Which of the following disorder is related with the trisomy of

chromosome number 21?

1) Turners syndrome 2) Down‘s syndrome

3) Myotonic dystrophy 4) Cystic fibrosis

171. Cystic fibrosis, Myotonic dystrophy and Thalassemia are

1) Chromosomal Normality

2) Autosomal recessive disorders

3) Mendelian disorders

4) Autosomal dominant disorders


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172. Identify the symptoms not associated with the disease shown in

given diagram

A) Broad flat face

B) Chromosome complement 45 with XO condition

C) Furrowed tongue and partially open mouth

D) Short stature and under developed feminine characters

E) Overall masculine development

F) Congenital heart disease

1) A, C & F 2) A,C & D 3) B, D & E 4) B & E

173. Colour blindness occurs in about........... Percent of males and

about........ Percent in females respectively

1) 0.4 and 8 2) 15 and 5 3) 8 and 0.4 4) 5 and 15

174. Which of the following abnormalities is due to autosomal dominant

mutation?

1) Colour blindness 2) Thalassemia

3) Myotonic dystrophy 4) Haemophilia

175. Mark the odd one with regard to syndrome which occur due to

failure of segregation of homologous pair of chromosomes during

cell division cycle.

1) Klinefelter's syndrome 2) Down's syndrome

3) Turner's syndrome 4) Thalassemia

176. In which of the following disorders affected individuals possess 47

chromosomes?

1) Turner's syndrome 2) Klinefelter's syndrome

3) Down's syndrome 4) Both (2) & (3)


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177. Which of the following disorder is seen in human female only?

1) Turner's syndrome 2) Down's syndrome

3) Haemophilia 4) Klinefelter's syndrome

178. A Colour blind daughter is born when

1) Father is colour blind, mother is normal

2) Mother is colour blind, father is normal

3) Mother is carrier, father is normal

4) Mother is carrier, father is colour blind

179. In sickle cell anaemia, there is change in amino acid in beta globin

chain at ______ position

1) VI 2) VII 3) IX 4) X

180. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.

(ii) Down’s syndrome is due to aneuploidy.

(iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant gene disorder.

(iv) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive gene disorder.

(v) Sickle-cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive gene disorder.

1) (i), (iii) and (v) 2) (i) and (iii)

3) (ii) and (v) 4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

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