complete syllabus test - 28€¦ · complete syllabus test - 28 28. in an a.c circuit, the current...

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INSTRUCTIONS :(i) Use ball point pen only to darken the appropriate circle.(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing

material on Answer sheet.(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.(vii) Answers to be marked on OMR sheet only

PHYSICS

1. A thermodynamic system is taken through thecyclic process PQRSP. The net work done by thesystem is

200 K Pa

100 K Pa

100 CC 300 CC

P S

Q R

(1) 20 J (2) –20 J

(3) 400 J (4) –374 J

2. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipeis equal to the frequency of the second harmonics

of an open organ pipe. The ratio of length 0

cll is

(1) 1:2 (2) 1:4

(3) 1:8 (4) 1:16

3. A sample of gas is at 0°C. To what temperature itmust be heated in order to double the r.m.s speedof the molecule

(1) 270°C (2) 819°C

(3) 1090°C (4) 100°C

4. A carnot engine takes 3106 cal of heat from areservoir at 627°C, and gives it to a sink at 27°C.The work done by the engine is

(1) 4.2 106 J (2) 8.4 106 J

(3) 16.8 106 J (4) Zero

5. A carbon resistor of (57 ± 5.7) K is to be markedwith rings of different colours for its identification.The colour code sequence will be

(1) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold

(2) Green – Violet – Orange – Silver

(3) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver

(4) Yellow – Orange – Violet – Gold

6. The current I through the 4 resistor in the networkshown in figure is

10V 2

4

10V 2A B

I(1) 2 A (2) 4 A

(3) 2.5 A (4) 1.25 A

Maximum Marks : 720 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST-28Code-A

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 28

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

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Complete Syllabus Test - 28

7. The variation of terminal potential difference V of acell with current I is shown in figure given below.The internal resistance of the cell is:

V (Volt)

1.5

O I (A)5

(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2

(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4

8. The angle above the horizon should the sun besituated. So that its light reflected from thesurface of still water in a pond is completelypolarised.

Take = 1.327 and tan53° = 1.327

(1) 37° (2) 53°

(3) 30° (4) 45°

9. In a young’s experiment, one of the slit is coveredwith a transparent sheet of thickness 3.610–3 cmdue to which position of central fringe shifts to aposition originally occupied by 30th bright fringe.The refractive index of the sheet, if =6000A° is:

(1) 1.5 (2) 1.2

(3) 1.3 (4) 1.7

10. For a telescope, larger the diameter of the objectivelens:

(1) Greater is the resolving power

(2) Smaller is the resolving power

(3) Greater is the magnifying power

(4) Smaller is the magnifying power

11. When an electron jumps from the orbit n = 2 ton = 4, then the wavelength of the radiationabsorbed will be

(R is Rydberg’s constant)

(1)163R (2)

165R

(3)5R16 (4)

3R16

12. An particle and a deuteron are moving withvelocities v and 2v respectively. What will be theratio of their de-Broglie wavelengths?

(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1

(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1

13. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 20minutes. The approximate time interval (t2–t1)

between the time t2 when 23 of it has decayed and

time t1 when 13 of it had decayed is:

(1) 7 min

(2) 14 min

(3) 20 min

(4) 28 min

14. The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is3250 10–10m. The velocity of the electron ejectedfrom a si lver surface by ultrav iolet l ight ofwavelength 2536 10–10m is closest to

(Given h = 4.14 × 10–15 eVs and c = 3 × 108 ms–1)

(1) 0.6 106 ms–1

(2) 61 103 ms–1

(3) 0.3 106 ms–1

(4) 6 107 ms–1

15. In the following common emitter circuit, currentgain() = 100, potential difference across collectoremitter (VCE) = 7V, potential difference acrossbase emitter is negligible and RC = 2 k, then thevalue of base current (IB) is equal to

IC

RCRB

IB

15V

(1) 0.01 mA

(2) 0.04 mA

(3) 0.02 mA

(4) 0.03 mA

16. In p–n junction, the barrier potential of fersresistance to:

(1) free electrons in n region and holes in p region

(2) free electrons in p region and holes in n region

(3) only free electrons in n region

(4) only holes in p region

(3)


17. Which one of the entries given in the truth table istrue for the following logic circuit?

A

BY

Entry No Input A Input B Output Y1. 0 0 12. 0 1 03. 1 0 14. 1 1 0

(1) 3 (2) 4(3) 1 (4) 2

18. Consider an electromagnetic wave that propagatesin the +z direction with an electric field strength of1V/m pointing in the +y direction. Then the directionand magnitude of magnetic field pulse that travelsalong with the electric field is:(1) 33310–9T in –y direction(2) 33310–9T in –x direction(3) 33310–9T in +x direction(4) 9.9910–7T in –x direction

19. A parallel beam of light is incident from air at anangle on the side PQ of a right angled triangularprism of refractive index n =2. Light undergoestotal internal reflection in the prism at the face PRwhen has minimum value of 45°. The angle ofthe prism.

P

Q R

n= 2

(1) 15° (2) 22.5°(3) 30° (4) 45°

20. The focal length of a concave mirror is f and thedistance from the object to the principal focus is x.The ratio of the size of the image to the size of theobject is:

(1)f x

f

(2)fx

(3)fx

(4)2

2

fx

21. The energy stored in an inductor of self inductanceL Henry carrying a current of I ampere is:

(1) 21L2

(2) 21L2

(3) LI2 (4) L2I

22. A charged oil drop is suspended at rest in uniformelectric field of 3104V/m, in absence of air.The charge on the drop will be (take, the mass ofdrop = 9.910–15Kg and g=10m/s2)(1) 3.310–18C (2) 3.210–18C(3) 1.610–18C (4) 4.810–18C

23. When a ferromagnetic material is heated to atemperature above its curie temperature, thematerial(1) Is permanently magnetized(2) Remains ferromagnetic(3) Behaves like a diamagnetic material(4) Behaves like paramagnetic material

24. An open pipe resonates with a tunning fork off requency 500 Hz. It is observed that twosuccessive nodes are formed at distances 16 cmand 46 cm from the open end. The speed of soundin air in the pipe is(1) 230 m/s (2) 300 m/s(3) 320 m/s (4) 360 m/s

25. The maximum velocity and the maximumacceleration of a body moving in a simpleharmonic oscillation are 2 m/s and 4 m/s2. Thenangular frequency of harmonic oscillator will be(1) 3 rad/s (2) 0.5 rad/s(3) 1 rad/s (4) 2 rad/s

26. A bar magnet M is allowed to fall towards a fixedconducting ring C. If g is the acceleration due togravity, v is the velocity of the magnet at t = 2 sand S is the distance travelled by it in the sametime then:

c

M

(1) v > 2g (2) v > 4g(3) S > 2g (4) S < 2g

27. The area of each plate of a parallel plate capacitoris ‘A’ and separation between plates ‘d’. The spacebetween the plates of capacitor is filled with a non-conducting material whose dielectric constantvaries linearly along the separation between platesfrom a value K to 10K. Capacitance of thecapacitor is nearly.

(1) 0K A8d

(2) 0K A4d

(3) 0K A2d

(4) 0K A5.6d

(4)


28. In an A.C circuit, the current flowing in inductance

is I = 5sin(100t–2

) ampere and the potential

difference is V = 200sin(100t) volt. The powerconsumption in circuit is(1) 1000 W (2) 40 W(3) 20 W (4) Zero

29. The galvanometer A and B require current 3 mAand 5 mA respectively to produce the samedeflection of 10 divisions then:(1) A is more sensitive than B(2) B is more sensitive than A(3) A and B are equally sensitive(4) Sensitiveness of B is 5/3 times that of A

30. A pendulum is released from horizontal position Aas shown. If m and l represent the mass of thebob and length of the pendulum, the gain in kineticenergy from A to B is

30 °

A

B

(1) mgl2

(2)mgl

3

(3) 3 mgl2

(4)2 mgl3

31. A ball rolls purely on a horizontal surface. Theradius of gyration of the ball about an axis passingthrough its centre of mass is K. If the radius of theball is R, then the f raction of total energyassociated with the rotational energy:

(1)2

2

KR

(2)2

2 2

KK R

(3)2

2 2

RK R

(4)2 2

2

K RR

32. Two bodies having same mass 40Kg are moving inopposite directions, one with a velocity of 10 m/sand the other with 7 m/s. If they collide and moveas one body, the velocity of the combination is(1) 10 m/s (2) 7 m/s(3) 3 m/s (4) 1.5 m/s

33. A given object takes n times as much time to slidedown a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes toslide down a perfectly smooth 45° identical incline.The coefficient of kinetic friction between the objectand the incline is given by

(1) 2

11n

(2) 2

11 n

(3) 211n

(4) 21

1 n34. The figure shows a charged parallel plate capacitor

with plate seperation 4cm. Electric field strengthbetween the plates is 106N/C. An electron isprojected at an angle 30° from the positive platewith an initial speed ‘u’. Maximum initial speed ofelectron such that it moves without hitting thenegative plate is nearly

30°4 cmu

–

+(1) 6.2 107 m/s (2) 4.8 108 m/s(3) 2.4 108 m/s (4) 1.6 107 m/s

35. A string of negligible mass going over a clampedpulley of mass m supports a block of mass M asshown in the figure. The force on the pulley by theclamp is given by

M

m

(1) 2 Mg (2) 2 mg

(3) 2 2(M m) m g (4) 2 2(M m) M g

36. Let F

be a force acting on a particle having

position vector r

. Let

be the torque of this forceabout the origin then

(1) r. 0

and F. 0

(2) r. 0

and F. 0

(3) r. 0

and F. 0

(4) r. 0

and F. 0

37. In a Vernier calliper, one main scale division isx cm and n divisions of the vernier scale coincideswith (n – 1) divisions of the main scale. The leastcount in (cm) of the callipers is

(1)n 1 x

n

(2)nx

n 1

(3)xn (4)

xn 1

(5)


38. Consider an arrangement, consisting of two smallidentical balls, each of mass M connected by alight rigid rod. If an impulse J = Mv is imparted tothe body at one of its end. What would be itsangular velocity?

M M

L

J = M v

(1)vL (2)

2vL

(3)v

3L (4)v4L

39. The earth E moves in an elliptical orbit with the sunS at its one of the foci as shown in figure. Itsspeed of motion will be maximum at the point

SA

E C

D

B

(1) C(2) A(3) B(4) D

40. The height of geostationary satellite around theearth is [G - Gravitational constant, M - Mass ofEarth and T is period of a day]

(1)1

2 3

24 GM

T

(2)13

24 GM R

R

(3)1

2 3

2GMT R

4

(4)

12 3

2GMT R

4

41. The total kinetic energy of a sphere of mass mand moment of inertia I, rolling down an inclinedplane is

(1) 212 (2) 21 mv

2

(3) I+mv (4) 2 21 1 mv2 2

42. What is the velocity v of a metallic ball of radius rfalling in a tank of liquid at the instant when itsacceleration becomes zero? (The densities ofmetal and of liquid are and respectively, andthe viscosity of the liquid is )

(1)2r g ( 2 )

9

(2)2r g (2 )

9

(3)2r g ( )

9

(4)22r g ( )

9

43. If wavelengths of maximum intensity of radiationsemitted by the sun and the star are 0.5 × 10–6mand 10–4m respectively, the ratio of their

temperature sun

star

TT is

(1) 1100 (2) 1

200(3) 100 (4) 200

44. A wire of diameter 1mm breaks under a tension of1000N. Another wire, of same material as that offirst one, but of diameter 2 mm breaks under atension of(1) 500 N (2) 1000 N(3) 10,000 N (4) 4000 N

45. 1g of ice at 0°C is mixed with 1 g of steam at100°C. In thermal equilibrium, the temperature ofthe mixture is(1) 100°C (2) 55°C(3) 0°C (4) 50°C

CHEMISTRY

46. The correct order of N–compounds in i tsdecreasing oxidation state is

(1) Ba3N2, NaN3, N2O, N2O5

(2) N2O5, N2O, NaN3, Be3N2

(3) NaN3, N2O, N2O5, N2O5

(4) N2O5, N2O, Be3N2, NaN3

47. Which of the following compound do not undergohydrolysis under normal condition?

(1) SiCl4 (2) CCl4(3) SiBr4 (4) PCl5

48. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of thefollowing metals can used to reduce FeO?(A) Ag(B) Zn(C) AI(D) Mg(1) Only Mg(2) Al and Mg(3) Zn, Al and Mg(4) Ag, Zn and Al

(6)


49. The correct order of Ionic size in group 13 is(1) B < Ga < AI < Tl < In

(2) B < AI < Ga < In < Tl(3) B < AI < In < Ga < Tl

(4) B < Ga < AI < In < Tl50. Which of the following statements is not true?

(1) HClO4 is more acidic than HOCI(2) CI2 has more oxidising power compare to F2

(3) Electron affinity of Cl is more than F(4) CIO2 is an odd electron species

51. In structure of 3XeF , the number of lone pairs ofelectron on central atom ‘Xe’ is

(1) Four (2) Two(3) One (4) three

52. The major products A, B and C in the followingsequence of reactions respectively are

NO2

Sn/HClA

NaNO2 BHCl/0°C-5°C

H O(Boil)2 C

(1)

NHOH NO2

, ,

(2)

OHNO2

, ,

(3)

OHN Cl2+ –

, ,

NH2

(4)

NHOHNO2

, ,

NH2

53. Which of the following amino acid in opticallyinactive?(1) Alanine (2) Glycine

(3) Valine (4) Leucine54. Select the thermoplastic polymer

(1) PVC(2) Phenol formaldehyde resin

(3) Buna-N(4) Buna-S

55. Electrophilic aromatic substitution in Phenol is veryeffective in

(1) Acidic medium

(2) Basic medium

(3) Neutral medium

(4) Any medium among acidic, basic or neutral

56. Select the correct statement

(A) Amylose is a linear polymer of -D-glucose

(B) Amylopectin is insoluble in water

(C) Amylopectin have 1 4 -linkage and 1 6-linkage

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B and C are correct

(3) A, B and C are correct

(4) Only C is correct

57. A mixture of 0.05 mol formic acid and 0.05 moloxalic acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. Theevolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOHpellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product atS.T.P will be

(1) 2.8

(2) 3.0

(3) 1.4

(4) 4

58. Which of the following oxides is acidic in nature?

(1) BaO (2) Na2O

(3) Cl2O7 (4) Li2O

59. BOD value less than 5 ppm indicates a watersample to be

(1) Clean water

(2) Poor in dissolved oxygen

(3) Highly polluted

(4) Not suitable for aquatic life

60. Identify ‘z’ in the following reaction sequence

CH –CH –O–CH –CH3 2 2 3

H (ex.)IX

KOH(aq.)Y

) NaOH) CH –Br3

Z

(1) CH3–CH2–O–CH3 (2) CH3–CH2–OH

(3) CH3–O–CH3 (4)

O

CH –C–O–CH3 3

(7)


61. The compound C7H8 undergoes the followingreactions

4NBS,CCl7 8 lightC H A Mg

dry ether I3 2CH CHB C

The product C is(1) 1–Ethyl–3–methyl benzene(2) Isopropyl benzene(3) Propyl benzene(4) Ethyl benzene

62. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correctabout Wurtz reaction?(A) Dry ether is solvent(B) It is suitable for the preparation of alkanes

containing even number of carbon atoms(C) Methane can not be prepared by Wurtz

reaction(1) Only B (2) Only A and C(3) Only A and B (4) A, B and C

63. Which of the following molecule represents theorder of hydridisation sp2, sp, sp2, sp3 from right toleft atoms?(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 (2) H2C=CH–CH=CH2

(3) H2C=C=CH–CH3 (4) CH3–CH=C=CH2

64. Which of the following carbocation is expected tobe most stable?

(1) CH3( )3C+

(2)CH2

CH2

CH–CH2

+

(3)CH2 CH2

CH2 CH +

(4) CH2–CH–CH=CH2

+

65. Which of the following is correct with respect to–I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl)

(1) I2 3NO NR OH

(2) I3 2NR NO OH

(3) I2 3OH NO NR

(4) I3 2NR NO OH

66. Select the incorrect statement(1) In Reimer – Tiemann reaction molecular weight

of phenol increases by 28(2) Phenol can be identified by ferric chloride(3) Dichlorocarbene is an electrophile in Reimer –

Tiemann reaction(4) Phenol is a weaker acid than alcohol

67. Average molar mass of CH3COOH is increased innon-polar solvent. It is due to(1) Ionisation of CH3COO–

(2) Dimerisation by vander Waals force ofattraction

(3) Dimerisation by intramolecular H-bonding(4) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding

68. Which of the following compounds will give apositive iodoform test?(1) Propanal (2) 2-Pentanone(3) 3-Pentanone (4) Cyclohexanone

69. Match the metal ions given in column I with thespin magnetic moments of the ions given incolumn II and assign the correct code :

Column I Column II

(a) Co2+ (i) 35 BM

(b) Cr+ (ii) 15 BM

(c) Fe2+ (iii) 24 BM

(d) Ti3+ (iv) 8 BM

(v) 3 BM

a b c d(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)(2) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v)(4) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)

70. Which of the following compound show colourbecause of d–d transition and paramagnetic aswell?(1) KMnO4 (2) CuSO4

(3) K2CrO4 (4) AgI71. Hexacarbonyl chromium(s) is

(1) Trinuclear (2) Mononuclear(3) Tetranuclear (4) Dinuclear

72. Number of isomers of 2 2CoCl en

is

(1) 4 (2) 6(3) 3 (4) 5

73. Geometry of 2

4PtCI

and 2

3 4Cu NH

are

respectively(1) Tetrahedral and square planar(2) Tetrahedral and tetrahedral(3) Square planar and square planar(4) Square planar and tetrahedral

(8)


74. Calculate the pH of resulting solution after mixing

of 600 mlM10 HCl and 400 ml

M8 NaOH aqueous

solution(1) 1 (2) 2(3) 1.5 (4) 3

75. Al2O3.xH2O sol is effiectively coagulated by(1) K4[Fe(CN)6] (2) Na3PO4

(3) K2SO4 (4) NaCl76. Correct order of liquefaction of the following gases

is(1) O2 > N2 > He > H2

(2) N2 > O2 > H2 > He(3) O2 > N2 > H2 > He(4) He > H2 > N2 > O2

77. Calculate the pH of solution of AI(OH)3 atequilibrium if solubility product of AI(OH)3 is2.7 × 10–11

(1) 10 (2) 7(3) 11.47 (4) 12

78. In which of the following cases the number ofmolecules of water is maximum?(1) 1800 amu H2O(2) 1.8g H2O(3) 0.18 ml H2O(g) at S.T.P(4) 18 ml H2O(l) at room temperature

79. Match the statements given in column I andcolumn II

Column I Column II(A) Molecularity (i) Proper orientation is not

there(B) Second half life (ii) Total probability is one

of first order

(C) Ea/RTe (iii) Is same as the first

(D) Energetically (iv) Refers to the fraction offavourable molecules with energyreactions are equal to or greater thansometime slow activation energy

(v) Cannot be fractional orzero

(1) A v; B iii; C iv; D i(2) A v; B iv; C ii; D i(3) A i; B iii; C iv; D v(4) A iii; B ii; C i; D iv

80. Which of the following is correct thermal stabilityorder?(1) RbH > KH > NaH > LiH(2) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH

(3) NaH > KH > RbH > LiH(4) KH > RbH > NaH > LiH

81. The species undergoing disproportionation in givenreduction process is

RP RP RPE 1.32V E 1.28V E 1.10

Highestoxidation state

A B C

RPE 1.12

Lowestoxiduter state

D E

(1) B (2) C

(3) D (4) A or E82. For redox reaction

xMnO4– + pBr– + qH+ zMn2+ + yBr2 + rH2O

What may be value of x and y respectively inbalanced equation?

(1) 1 and 5 (2)12 and 5

(3) 2 and 5 (4) 5 and 283. Which one of the following condition will favour

forward process in the given reaction?

N2(g)+3H2(g) 2NH3(g) rH < 0?

(1) High temperature and high pressure(2) Low temperature and high pressure

(3) High temperature and low pressure(4) Low temperature and low pressure

84. When initial concentration of reactant is doubled,the half life period of a first order reaction(1) Is tripled(2) Is doubled

(3) Is halved(4) Remains unchanged

85. A swimmer coming out from a pool is covered witha film of water weighing about 18g. Calculate theinternal energy of vapourisation at 100°C?

(vap H–

for Water at 373K = 40.66 kJ/mol)

(1) 37.56 kJ/mol (2) 40.66 kJ/mol

(3) 23.43 kJ/mol (4) 2.343 kJ/mol86. Select the molecule having highest ‘a’ value

(1) O2 (2) CO2

(3) SO2 (4) N2

(9)


87. Which of the following species have the highestbond order?(1) C2 (2) C2

2–

(3) O2– (4) B2

88. X : 1s2 2s2 2p3

Y : 1s2 2s2 2p4

the compound may be(1) X4Y3

(2) X6Y5

(3) X2Y4

(4) XY3

89. X-ray diffraction studies show that an elementcrystallises in an fcc unit cell with cell edge of3.608 × 10–8 cm. In a separate experiment, that

element is determined to have a density of8.92 g/cm3. Calculate the atomic mass of anelement.(1) 32.5 u(2) 63.1 u(3) 46 u(4) 152 u

90. Which one is a wrong statement?(1) The electronic configuration of N atom is

1s

2s

2p

(2) The value of m for pz is zero(3) Maximum three quantum number may be equal

for two electrons in an atom(4) d5 is more stable than d6

BOTANY

91. “Kranz” anatomy is not seen in(1) Mango (2) Sugarcane(3) Maize (4) Sorghum

92. A haxaploid male plant pollinates an octaploidfemale plant of the same species of anangiosperm. As a result of double fertilisation, whatwill be the ploidy of embryo and endosperm?(1) 10n, 7n (2) 6n, 8n(3) 7n, 10n (4) 8n, 6n

93. Setting of seed is ensured in(1) Rosa (2) Salvia(3) Commelina (4) Vallisneria

94. To form eight nucleated condition of embryo sac,one megaspore undergo how many mitoticdivisions?(1) 2 mitotic divisions (2) 8 mitotic divisions(3) 1 mitotic division (4) 3 mitotic divisions

95. Which of the following element is essential forformation of chlorophyll?(1) Nitrogen (2) Iron(3) Sulphur (4) Calcium

96. What is the role of F1 headpiece during oxidativephosphorylation?(1) Integral membrane protein complex that forms

channel through which the protons cross theinner membrane

(2) Peripheral membrane protein complex and sitefor synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganicphosphate

(3) Acts as final acceptor(4) Acts as transmembrane protein

97. In which of the following forms nitrogen is notabsorbed by plants?(1) NO3

– (2) N2

(3) NO2– (4) NH4

+

98. Select the correct match(1) T.H. Morgan – Punnett square(2) G.J. Mendel – Contrasting traits in pea(3) XO sex determination – Drosophila

(4) Thalassemia – Sex linked dominant disease99. Semi-dwarf rice variety that developed at

International Rice Research Institute (IRRI),Philippines was(1) Taichung Native - 1 (2) Sonalika(3) IR - 8 (4) Kalyan Sona

100. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched?(1) Alternation of – Mutation

DNA sequence(2) Sex determination – Based on number of

in honey bee sets of chromocomes(3) Flower colour in – Incomplete dominance

dog flower(4) Constricted pod – Dominant character

shape101. Select the correct statement :

(1) Lac operon – Negative regulation(2) AUG – Termination codon(3) Histones – Negatively charged acidic proteins(4) DNA replication – conservative manner

(10)


102. Which of the following bacterium was taken forexperiment by Frederiek Grif f i th duringtransformation experiment for the search of geneticmaterial?(1) E.coli(2) Streptococcus pneumoniae(3) Salmonella typhi(4) Agrobacterium tumifaciens

103. Which of the following is a dioecious plant?(1) Date palm (2) Cucurbits(3) China rose (4) Coconut

104. Conidia in Penicillium are produced by(1) Parthenogenesis(2) Meiotic division(3) Fragmentation(4) Asexual repreduction

105. Select the correct match :(1) Euchromatin – Transcriptionally inactive(2) Griffith’s experiment – Pneumococcus bacteria(3) Meselson and stahl experiment – Transcription(4) Watson and crick – Translation

106. Which of the following acts as nutritive layer fordeveloping pollen grains?(1) Epidermis (2) Middle layer(3) Tapetum (4) Endothecium

107. Immigration refers to(1) Number of individuals entering a habitat(2) Number of individuals leaving the habitat(3) Number of deaths during given period(4) Number of births during given period

108. In India, the Air Prevention and Control of PollutionAct came into force in(1) 1981 (2) 1920(3) 1940 (4) 1987

109. Which of the following is a green house gas?(1) SO2 (2) CFC’s(3) N2 (4) CO

110. Standing crop is(1) The physical space where an organism lives(2) The mass of living material at each trophic level

at a particular time(3) Whole total energy present at each trophic

level(4) Functional role played by the organism where

it lives

111. The food chain starts with dead organic matter iscalled

(1) Detrivores(2) Grazing food chain(3) Detritus food chain

(4) Food web112. Ozone layer is found in which layer of atmosphere?

(1) Troposphere (2) Thermosphere(3) Mesosphere (4) Stratosphere

113. Which among the following is not an eukaryote?(1) Saccharomyces (2) Euglena

(3) Paramoecium (4) Anabaena

114. “Grana” of chloroplast participates in

(1) Light reaction of photosynthesis(2) Dark reaction of photosynthesis(3) Glycosylation of protein

(4) Store oils and fats115. Which of the following is not the step of Calvin

cycle?

(1) Carboxylation (2) Reduction(3) Regeneration (4) Glycosylation

116. Which of the following is true for mesosome?(1) Helps in cell wall formation in prokaryotic cell

(2) Helps in photosynthesis(3) Helps in locomotion

(4) Helps in attachment117. Transpiration is not affacted by

(1) Wind speed(2) Water status of plant

(3) Light(4) Root pressure

118. The stage during which recombination noduleformation occurs(1) Pachytene(2) Zygotene

(3) Diplotene(4) Diakinesis

119. Casparian strips of endodermis are(1) Apoplastic

(2) Suberised(3) Soft

(4) Mycorrhizal

(11)


120. Annual rings are produced by(1) Wood form during spring season only(2) Wood form during winter only(3) By both spring wood and autunm wood(4) Phellogen, phellem and phelloderm

121. Stilt root occurs in(1) Banyan tree(2) Rhizophora

(3) Sweet potato(4) Sugarcane

122. Porins occurs in(1) Outer membrane of plastids and Mitochondria(2) Inner membrane of endoplasmic reticulum(3) Plasmodesmata(4) Lysosomal membrane

123. Bulliform cells occur in(1) Woody plants(2) Grasses(3) Dicot root(4) Casparian strips

124. Carrot is a modified(1) Tap root(2) Fibrous root(3) Root cap(4) Adventitious root

125. Which of the following statements is correct?(1) Predominant stage in life cycle of moss is

sporophyte(2) Roots of some pteridophytes show mycorrhiza(3) Strobil i bearing microsporophylls and

microsporangia are called male strobili(4) Horsetails are gymnosperms

126. Select the wrong statement(1) Basidiospores are endogenously produced on

basidium(2) Coprophilous fungi grows on dung(3) Plasmodium causes malaria(4) Euglenoids have pellicle instead of cell wall

127. Aseptate and coenocytic mycelium seen in(1) Albugo

(2) Saccharomyces

(3) Agaricus

(4) Puccinia

128. Match the given in column I with those in column IIand select the correct option given below :

Column I Column II(a) Systematics (i) Collection of l iv ing

plants for reference

(b) Botanical Gardens (ii) Taxonomy withevolutionaryrelationship

(c) Key (iii) Analytical in nature

(d) Flora (iv) An account of habitatand distribution ofplants of a given area

a b c d(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

129. Prothallus formation seen in

(1) Bryophytes (2) Pteridophytes

(3) Angiosperms (4) Algae

130. Which one is wrongly matched?

(1) Fucus _____ Brown algae

(2) Agar _____ Red algae

(3) Carrageen _____ Brown algae

(4) Protonema _____ Mosses

131. Which of the following organisms show “soap box”type cell wall structure?

(1) Diatoms (2) Euglenoids

(3) Dinoflagellates (4) Cyanobacteria

132. Which of the following population interaction isrelated to the growth of orchid as an epiphyte ona mango branch?

(1) Parasitism

(2) Commensalism

(3) Amensalism

(4) Mutualism

133. All of the following are the places where “Sacredgroves” found except(1) Zoological Parks

(2) Khasi and Jaintia Hills in meghalaya

(3) Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan

(4) Western Ghat regions of Karnataka andMaharashtra and Sarguja

(12)


ZOOLOGY

134. Match the items given in column I with those incolumn II and select the correct option given below :

Column I Column II(a) Algal bloom (i) Everything that goes

out in trash(b) Solid wastes (ii) Haryana kisan

welfare club(c) Ramesh chandra (iii) excessive planktonic

Dagar growth(d) Amrita Devi Bishnoi (iv) Extraordinary

wildlife protection courage andaward dedication in

protecting wildlife

a b c d

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)135. Which of the following is/are not translated but

required for efficient translation?(1) 5 capping(2) Splicing(3) Tailing(4) UTR’s

136. Select the correct w.r.t. cells and their function(1) Mast cells – Produce heparin, histamine

and prothrombin

(2) Histiocytes – Secrete matrix in cartilage

(3) Macrocytes – Phagocytosis

(4) Microglia – Form blood brain barrier

137. Complete the analogy

Stratum germinativum : Columnar cell :: Stratumcorneum : _______.

(1) Nonkeratinized squamous epithelium

(2) Keratinized squamous epithelium

(3) Cuboidal cell epithelium

(4) Ciliated epithelium

138. Choose the correct sequence of segments inthoracic legs in Periplaneta

(1) Coxa Trochanter Femur Tibia Tarsus

(2) Trochanter Coxa Femur Tibia Tarsus

(3) Coxa Trochanter Tibia Femur Tarsus

(4) Trochanter Femur Coxa Tarsus Tibia

139. Match the following and select the correct pairing

Column I Column II(A) Peptic cells (i) Emulsification

(B) Bile juice (ii) Castle’s intrinsic factor

(C) Parietal cells (iii) Zymogen

(D) Enterokinase (iv) Trypsinogen

A B C D

(1) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

140. Select the correct statement w.r.t. teeth

(1) Number of monophyodont teeth in humans is12

(2) Enamel is secreted by ameloblast cells whichare mesodermal origin

(3) Humans have diphyodont, bunodont andhomodont type of teeth

(4) Dental formula of adult human is 11231112

141. Select the incorrect match

(1) Filiform papillae – Taste buds absent

(2) Pharynx – Only passage of food

(3) Heart burn – Failure of constriction ofcardiac sphincter

(4) Myenteric plexus – Peristaltic movement

142. Living state is

(1) Non-equilibrium, non-steady state

(2) Equilibrium, steady state

(3) Non-equilibrium, steady state

(4) Equilibrium, non-steady, state

143. Pashmina wool is obtained from

(1) Sheep (2) Kashmiri goats

(3) Rabbit (4) Chiru

(13)


144. Which of the following is not true regardingenzyme inhibition?

(1) Competitive inhibitors can bind to enzymereversibly by non-covalent interactions

(2) In non-competitive inhibition, Vmax remainsconstant and Km increases

(3) DFP, a nerve gas binds to enzyme irreversibly

(4) Allosteric enzymes do not show typical Km

145. CO2 dissociates from carbaminohemoglobin when

(1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low

(2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low

(3) pCO2 and pO2 are equal

(4) pH is high and 2, 3 DPG is low

146. Select true (T) or false (F)

(A) Under normal physiological conditions 50 ml ofO2 is transported by 100 ml of arterial blood

(B) Binding of CO and O2 to Hb occurs at samesite

(C) In Bohr’s effect, pCO2 affects the affinity of Hbfor O2

(D) Reverse chloride shift occurs at tissue level

Choose the correct option

A B C D

(1) T T F F

(2) F F T T

(3) T F F T

(4) F T T F

147. Right lung differs from left lung in having

(a) Oblique fissure (b) Middle lobe

(c) Heavy in weight (d) Horizontal fissure

(e) Cardiac notch

(1) a, b and d (2) b, c and d

(3) a and b only (4) d and c only

148. Which of the following wave of ECG representsventricular repolarisation?

(1) P–wave (2) Q–wave

(3) R–wave (4) T–wave

149. Which of the following animal has unsegmentedbody and pseudocoelom?

(1) Ascaris (2) Dugesia

(3) Pheretima (4) Peripatus

150. Hemozoin is a

(1) Precursor formed during formation ofhaemoglobin

(2) Toxin released from Streptococcus cells

(3) Toxin released by Plasmodium infected cells

(4) Toxin released from Haemophilus infected cells

151. Which of the following is correct with chordates?

(1) CNS is single, dorsal and solid

(2) Gut is ventral to nerve cord

(3) Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord

(4) Heart is dorsal

152. Few important features are mentioned in the boxbelow :

Swim bladder, internal fertilisation, Cold blooded,placoid scales, operculum, streamlined body

How many of the above features are common forboth Chondrichthyes and Osteichthyes?

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Two (4) Five

153. Choose the option with only opiate narcotics drugs

(1) Morphine, heroin, Brown sugar

(2) Barbiturates, Opium, Pethidine

(3) LSD, Cannabinoids, Heroin

(4) Caffeine, Cocaine, Amphetamines

154. Which of the following is an effect of alcohol?

(1) Dehydration due to more release of vasopressin

(2) Efficiency of cerebellum decreases

(3) Size of RBC decreases but number of bloodcells increases

(4) Reduced chances of gastric ulcers andatherosclerosis

155. Amoebiasis is caused by A and have twoforms B and C .

A B C

(1) Entamoeba histolytica

Minuta or Pathogenic form

Magna or Non-pathogenic form

(2) Microsporum Minuta or Pathogenic form

Magna or Non-pathogenic form

(3) Entamoeba histolytica

Magna or pathogenic form

Minuta or Non-Pathogenic form

(4) Entamoeba coli

Magna or pathogenic form

Minuta or Pathogenic form

(14)


156. Which of the following is not a character of activeimmunity upon first exposure to antigen?

(1) Specificity

(2) Self and non self recognition

(3) Prior immunologic memory

(4) Low magnitude and lasts for short duration

157. Read the two statement and select the correctanswer

(A) The HIV retrovirus enters T helper cells andeventually reduces their number

(B) HIV virus contains two identical ssRNA asgenetic material

(1) Only A is correct

(2) Only B is correct

(3) Both A and B are not correct

(4) Both A and B are correct

158. Which of the following is not an essential featurefor a vector?

(1) Ori Site

(2) Selectable Marker

(3) Very Large size

(4) Multiple cloning site

159. Match the following column - I with II and choosethe correct option

Column I Column II(i) ADA deficiency (a) Gene transfer without

vector

(ii) Probe (b) Single stranded radiolabelled nucleic acid

(iii) Polyethylene glycol (c) Peroxidase

(iv) ELISA (d) Gene therapy

(1) (i) – d, (ii) – b, (iii) – c, (iv) – a

(2) (i) – d, (ii) – b, (iii) – a, (iv) – c

(3) (i) – b, (ii) – d, (iii) – a, (iv) – c

(4) (i) – b, (ii) – d, (iii) – c, (iv) – a

160. A r-DNA is inserted into gene encoding-galactosidase enzyme. Which of the following willbe the correct result of that action?

(a) Inactivation of the enzyme

(b) Chromogenic substrate will produce blue colour

(c) Chromogenic substrate will remain unchanged

(1) a only (2) b only

(3) a and c (4) c only

161. Select the option with only incorrect statements

A. Bt toxin is crystalline which is insecticidalprotein in nature

B. Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used intransfer of r-DNA into host

C. Recombinant protein like streptokinase is usedfor treatment of anaemia

D. In ‘flavr savr’ tomato the enzyme which isblocked is lipase

(1) A and B

(2) B and C

(3) C and D

(4) B and D

162. Fill the blanks

Cotton boll worm : cry IAc gene ; Corn borer :______

(1) cry II Ab

(2) cry I Ab

(3) cry II Ac

(4) Both 1 and 2

163. The number of selectable markers in pBR322 are

(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

164. How many of fol lowing ART have in vitrofertilisation?

ZIFT, IUT, GIFT, ICSI, AI

(1) 5 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 4

165. Which of the following can be taken as most importantfactor for increase in population growth of a country?

(1) Low mortality rate

(2) High mortality rate

(3) Increased immigration

(4) High population of young children

166. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. cleavageprocess in humans is

(1) 1st cleavage requires proximal centriole

(2) Cleavage is holoblastic

(3) Size of successive blastomeres decreases

(4) Division is always synchronous and fast

(15)


167. Choose the correct sequence duringspermatogenesis

(1) Spermatid Spematocyte Spermatogonia Spermatozoa

(2) Spermatogonia Spematocyte Spermatozoa Spermatid

(3) Spermatogonia Spermatozoa Spematocyte Spermatid

(4) Spermatogonia Spematocyte Spermatid Spermatozoa

168. Which of the following is correct cause for absenceof menstruation during pregnancy?

(a) –ve feedback of LH

(b) –ve feedback of progesterone and estrogen

(c) –ve feedback of FSH

(d) +ve feedback of estrogen

(1) (b) only (2) Both (a) and (c)

(3) Both (c) and (d) (4) Both (a) and (b)

169. Select the option which is correctly matched.Source Biomolecule Function

(1) Sertoli cell ABP Concentratesandrogen inseminiferoustubules

(2) Corpus luteum Estrogen Maintainsendometrium

(3) Leydig cells ABP Helps inspermatogenesis

(4) Corpus luteum Progesterone Thickening ofmyometrium

170. Darwin’s theory of natural selection to explain organicevolution is based on

(1) Modifications of organ through use and disuse

(2) Large, sudden and discontinuous variations

(3) Reproductive fitness, struggle for existence andsurvival of fittest

(4) Genetic recombination, chromosomalaberration, reproductive isolation and geneticdrift

171. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is altered by presenceof

a. Gene migration

b. Genetic recombination

c. Random mating

d. Genetic drift

e. Natural selection

(1) a, b, d and e

(2) a, b and c

(3) a, b, c, d and e

(4) c and e only

172. Which of the following is not an example ofhomologous organs?

(1) Wings of butterfly and birds

(2) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita

(3) Forelimbs of cheetah and whale

(4) Heart of fish and reptiles

173. Heart beat is accelerated by secretions of

(1) Vagus and adrenaline

(2) Sympathetic nervous system and non-epinephrine

(3) Sympathetic nervous system and Acetylcholine

(4) Xth cranial nerve and Acetylcholine

174. Astigmatism occurs due to A and can becorrected by B .

A B

(1) Loss of elasticity of lens – Concave lens

(2) Reduced power of – Cylindrical lens

accomodation

(3) Rough curvature of cornea – Cylindrical lens

(4) Lens becomes opaque – Convex lens

175. Choose the correct set of bones that belong toappendicular skeleton.

(1) Frontal, Mandible, Zygomatic, Temporal

(2) Atlas, Axis, Sacrum, Lumbar

(3) Scapula, Femur, Occipital, Ethmoid

(4) Humerus, Radius, Femur, Tibia

176. Select the incorrect statement

(1) Gout is the inflammation of joints due todeposition of uric acid

(2) Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease

(3) In osteoporosis, demineralisation of bonesoccurs

(4) Tetany is wild contraction in muscle due tohypercalcemia in body fluid

(16)


177. Select the incorrect statement

(1) Tubular secretion mainly occurs by activeprocess

(2) Counter-current exchange is made up of onlytwo limbs of Henle’s loop

(3) Counter -current multiplier helps in generationof medullary osmolarity gradient

(4) Development of GHP is mainly due todifference in diameter of afferent and efferentarterioles

178 Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. ANF?

(1) Inhibits renin

(2) Antagonistic to aldosterone

(3) Synergistic to ADH

(4) Causes vasodilation

179 Choose the correct pair of hormones which workthrough secondary messengers?

(1) FSH and estrogen

(2) LH and progesterone

(3) Adrenaline and FSH

(4) Cortisol and testosterone

180. Select the correct pair w.r.t. disease and theircause.

(1) Grave’s disease – Hyposecretion ofthyroxine

(2) Gull’s disease – Hypersecretion ofthyroxine

(3) Conn’s syndrome – Hyposecretion ofaldosterone

(4) Cushing’s syndrome – Excess cortisol


(17)

1. (2)2. (2)3. (2)4. (2)5. (2)6. (1)7. (3)8. (1)9. (1)10. (1)11. (1)12. (1)13. (3)14. (1)15. (2)16. (1)17. (4)18. (2)19. (1)20. (2)21. (1)22. (1)23. (4)24. (2)25. (4)26. (4)27. (2)28. (4)29. (1)30. (3)31. (2)32. (4)33. (1)34. (3)35. (4)36. (1)

37. (3)38. (1)39. (2)40. (3)41. (4)42. (4)43. (4)44. (4)45. (1)46. (2)47. (2)48. (3)49. (4)50. (2)51. (2)52. (3)53. (2)54. (1)55. (2)56. (3)57. (1)58. (3)59. (1)60. (1)61. (3)62. (4)63. (4)64. (2)65. (2)66. (4)67. (4)68. (2)69. (2)70. (2)71. (2)72. (3)

73. (3)74. (2)75. (1)76. (3)77. (3)78. (4)79. (1)80. (2)81. (3)82. (3)83. (2)84. (4)85. (1)86. (3)87. (2)88. (3)89. (2)90. (1)91. (1)92. (3)93. (3)94. (4)95. (2)96. (2)97. (2)98. (2)99. (3)100. (4)101. (1)102. (2)103. (1)104. (4)105. (2)106. (3)107. (1)108. (1)

109. (2)110. (2)111. (3)112. (4)113. (4)114. (1)115. (4)116. (1)117. (4)118. (1)119. (2)120. (3)121. (4)122. (1)123. (2)124. (1)125. (3)126. (1)127. (1)128. (3)129. (2)130. (3)131. (1)132. (2)133. (1)134. (4)135. (4)136. (3)137. (2)138. (1)139. (2)140. (1)141. (2)142. (3)143. (2)144. (2)

145. (2)146. (4)147. (2)148. (4)149. (1)150. (3)151. (2)152. (3)153. (1)154. (2)155. (3)156. (3)157. (4)158. (3)159. (2)160. (3)161. (3)162. (2)163. (2)164. (2)165. (1)166. (4)167. (4)168. (1)169. (1)170. (3)171. (1)172. (1)173. (2)174. (3)175. (4)176. (4)177. (2)178. (3)179. (3)180. (4)

ANSWERS

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Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472

COMPLETE SYLLABUS TEST - 28

(1)

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 Ph.: 011-47623456

HINTS

OF

Home Assignment-28 (CST-28)

PHYSICS

1. w = –200 × 10–6 × 100 × 103 = – 20J

2. cp opf 2 f

cp 0p

v v24 2

cp

op

14

3. rmsv T

2 2

1 1

v Tv T

, 2

1

T 4;T

as v2 : v1 = 2

2 1T 4T = 4(273 K)

T2 = 1092 K = 819ºC

4.2

1

T wn 1T

2

1

Tw Q 1T

6 3003 10 1 cal ;900

as TT1 = 900 K, T2 = 300 K

= 8.4 × 106 J

5. As per colour codding

For number, Green – 5, Violet – 7

For Multiplier, Orange – 103

For Error

Silver – 10%

6. Parallel combinatiion of cells.

A B

4

Eeq req

I

1 2 2 1eq

1 2

r r 10 2 10 2E 10V(r r ) 2 2

1 2eq

1 2

r r 2 2r 1r r 2 2

eq

eq

E 10I 2A(r 4) 1 4

7. V = – ir, V i 1( / r)

= 1.5 .......... (i), v( volt)

1.5

5 I(A)

5r

...... (ii)

from (i) and (ii)

r = 0.3

8. = tan ip1.327 = tan ip

ip = 53º p90º i = 90º – 53º

= 37º

(2)

10. Larger the aperture of the objective lens, smallerthe limit of resolution or greater the resolving powerof the telescope.

11. 2 2 2 21 2

1 1 1 1 1R Rn n (2) (4)

4 1R16

163R

12.h h

m .v 4m.v

................... (i)

d d

h h .........(ii)m .v 2m.2v

d

1:1

13. tN N.e 2t00

N N e3

............ (i)

1t00

2N N e .........(ii)3

From equation (i) and (ii) 2 1t t2 e

22 1

nt t

= 1/2 2 1t , t t 20 min

14. 0 3250Å , 2536Å

2

0

1 1 1mv c2

, 0

2hc 1 1vm

v = 0.6 × 106 ms–1

15. V = VCE + ICRC

15 = 7 + IC × 2 × 103

IC = 4mA

Now, C

B

II

CB

I 4mAI 0.04 mA100

16. Theoritical.

17. A

B

Y¢

Y¢ ¢

Y

Boolean expression for AND gate is Y = A.B

Then the truth table for the above logic circuit isgiven below :

A B Y¢ Y¢¢ Y0 0 0 0 01 0 1 0 00 1 0 1 01 1 1 1 1

18.0

0

E CB

00 8

E 1BC 3 10

= –93.33 10 in –x direction

19. At PQ,sin45º 2

sinr

r = 30º, At PR

sin(r ) 1sin30ºsin90º 2

rr

1sin(30º )2

, = 15º

20.I f ;0 f u

where u = f + x

I f0 x

21. Factual formula

22. qE = mg

qE

mg

23. Theoretical24. Distance between two consecutives nodes

46 162

302

60 cm 0.6 m

Now, V = f = 0.6 × 500 = 300 m/s25. Vmax = a ....... (i)

amax = a2 ........ (ii)

max

max

a 4 2 rad / sv 2

(3)

26. 2max

1S gt2

= 21 g(2)2 = 2g

So, S < 2g

28. P = Vrms . Irms cos

Here = 90º

P = zero

29. SI

A B

B A

S I 5S I 3

A BS S

30. h =cos30º

30ºhLoss in G.P.E.

= Gain in K.E = mgh

= mg (cos30º)

= mg× 32

= 3 mg2

31.Rotational K.E

Total K.E.

2

2 2

1 I2

1 1I mv2 2

where I = mk2, v = R

2

2 2k

k R

32. By conservation of momentum

40 × 10 + 40 × (–7) = 80V

V = 1.5 m/s

33. 21tan 1n

where = 45º

211n

34. Along y direction

2 2y y y yv u 2a s

2

2u eE0 2 4 102 m

u = 2.4 × 108 m/s

35. F.B.D for pulley F.B.D for block

Tmg

TF T

Mg

M

2 2F T (T mg) T Mg

= 2 2(Mg) (Mg mg)

F = 2 2M (M m) .g

36. r F

Hence r r . 0

F F. 0

37. 1 M.S.D = x cm

As, n V.S.D = (n – 1) M.S.D

1 V.S.D = n 1 M.S.D.

n

L.C. = 1 M.S.D – 1 V.S.D

= 1 M.S.D – n 1 M.S.D

n

= M.S.D x

n n

38. Given system of two particles will rotate about itscentre of mass.

Initial angular momentum (Li) = MvL2

.......... (i)

Final angular momentum (Lf) = I = 2M2L

2

....(ii)

from conservation of momentum.

Li = Lf, 2L LMV. 2M.

2 4 ,

VL

39. Speed of earth will be maximum when its distancefrom the sun is minimum because mvr = constant.

(4)

40.3rT 2

GM ,

32 2 rT 4 . ; r R h

GM

32 2 (R h)T 4 .

GM

12 3

2GMTR h

4

12 3

2GMTh R

4

41. K.E. = 2 2cm cm

1 1mV I2 2

2 21 1K.E. mv I2 2

42. F 6 rv (viscous force) T F

W

34T r g3

(upward thrust)

34W r g3

(weight force)

Now, F + T = W

3 34 46 rv r g r g3 3

2 g2v r9

43. moon moon sun sun.T .T

4sun moon

6moon sun

T 10 200T 0.5 10

44.1 2

1 2

F FA A

2

2 2

1000 F(1) (2)4 4

F2 = 4000 N

45. Amount of heat required to melt 1g of ice

= 1 × 80 cal = 80 cal

Amount of heat required to heat up the water at0ºC upto 100ºC = 1 × 1 × 100 = 100 cal

Available heat energy at steam = 1 × 540

= 540 cal

As, (80 + 100)cal < 540 cal

Hence Thermal equilibrium temperature = 100ºC.

CHEMISTRY

46. In azide N, is in fractional oxidation state (N3–)

47. As ‘C’ has no vacant d-orbital to expand it’s octet.However, in steam and in presence of FeCatalyst, CCl4 hydrolyses to form phosgene.

48. They all lie below Fe FeO line

49. Though answer given in the answer sheet is (4),but the correct answer is (2). Atomic size order isdifferent. (Atomic size : T> In > Al > Ga > B)[Considering tripositive ion]

50. F2 is the strongest oxidising agent as it has lowbond energy and high hydration enthalpy.

52.

A = NH2

B = N Cl2

–+

C = OH

55. In basic medium, phenol becomes phenoxide,which is even more reactive than phenol.

57.HCOOH

COOHCOOH

Conc. H SO2 4 CO(g) + H O(g)2

Conc. H SO2 4 CO(g) + CO (g) + H O(g)2 2

From 0.05 mol each of HCOOH and oxalic acid,0.05 mol of CO2 and 0.1 mol of CO will beproduced. CO2 will be absorbed in KOH. So CO(0.1 mol) will remain as gaseous product.

59. BOD value more than 17 ppm indicates pollutedwater.

60. X = CH3CH2 – I

Y = CH3CH2OH

Z = CH3CH2–O–CH3 (CH3–CH2–O Na+

+ CH3Br)

(5)

61.A =

CH –Br2

B = CH –MgBr2

C = CH –CH –CH2 2 3

[Considering C7H8 as an aromatic hydrocarbon]

64. It’s cyclopropyl methyl carbocation, which is evenmore stable than (CH3)3C+. An important series :

+

>+

> CH2

+> Ph C3

+>

(CH ) C3 3

+

66. Phenol as well as enols give coloured productwith FeCl3. Phenol is stronger acid than alcohol isa very common statement.

67. It dimerises by intermolecular H-bonding. Evenacid dimers exist in vapour phase.

68. Aldehydes/ketones with – C – CH3

O

group and

alcohols with – CH – CH3

OH

group give iodoformtest.

69. spin only n(n 2) ‘n’ is the no. of unpaired e–.

Co2+(d7) = 3 unpaired e–

Cr+(d5) = 5 unpaired e–

Fe2+(d6) = 4 unpaired e–

Ti3+ (d1) = 1 unpaired e–

70. It’s Cu2+ (d9)72. It’s an important complex with respect to

stereochemistry.Remember M(AA)2b2 and M(AA)2bc both show 3stereoisomers each.

73. Pt2+(d8) when 4 co-ordinated always forms squareplanar complex.Cu2+(d9) when 4 co-oordinated usually formssquare planar complex.

74. Meq of HCl = 60Meq of NaOH = 50

So net [H+] = 60 50 0.01M1000

76. Higher the Tc, easier is the liquefaction. Howeverit can be roughly linked to Vander waal’s constant‘a’, which varies as :SO2 > Cl2 > C2H6 > NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > O2 > N2> H2 > He

77. 4 1127S 2.7 10 ,11

42.7 10S

27

[OH–] = 3S = 3 × 10–3 M

POH = –log(3 × 10–3) = (0.47 – 3) = 2.53

pH = 14 – 2.53 = 11.47

78. 18 mL H2O at room temperature is 18g water.

(Considering, = 1 g/cc)

79. Here is an important statement that energeticallyfavourable reactions are sometimes slow as theyreactants are not properly oriented.

80. LiH is the only alkali metal hydride that can bemelted without decomposition.

81. Here is a nice trick. If the species are arranged inthe decreasing order of oxidation states andreduction potential values are given, the specieswith higher R.P. in the front and lower R.P. in theback will disproportionate.

In the question,

RP RPE 1.1 E 1.12C D E

1.12 is higher than 1.1, so it will disproportionateto C and E.

85. 18g water corresponds to one mole.

H U ngRT( ng 1mole)

40.66 KJ/mole = 1 8.314 373U

1000

U 37.56 KJ / mole

86. See answer to question 76.

89. 3A

z Mda N

3 8 3 23

4 Mg8.92 cm (3.608 10 ) 6 10

90. This violates Pauli’s principle.

(6)

BOTANY

91. Kranz anatomy can be seen in C4 plants and“Mango” is C3 plant

92. Female plant – octaploid (8n)

female gamete : 4n

Male plant – Hexaploid (6n)

Male gamete : 3n

Embryo develop from zygote, product of syngamyso – fusion of male gamete and female gamete.

3n + 4n = 7n

Endosperm develop from triple fusion

So – fusion of male gamete and two polar nuclei

3n + 4n + 4n = 11n

93. Commelina having cleistogamous flowers whichensures seed formation event in the absence ofany pollinating agent.

94. To form eight nucleated condition of embryosac,one megaspore undergo 3 mitotic division.

Functional Megasporenucleus

1 mitosisst

2 Nuclei2 mitosisnd

4 nuclei

8 nuclei3 mitosisrd

95. Iron is essential for the formation of chlorophylland other pigments

96. F1 headpiece of F0-F1 particle having catalyticproperty for oxidative phosphorylation.

97. N2 is inert form and plants absorb nitrogen in ionicform.

98. G.J. Mendel worked on seven constrasting pair oftraits of garden pea.

99. Semi-dwarf rice variety that developed at IRRI,philippines was IR-8.

100. Constricted pod shape is recessive character ofgarden pea and full/inflated is dominant character.

101. Lac-operon is regulated by inhibitory geneproduces repressor so having negative regulation.

102. Streptococcus pneumoniae was used byFrederick Griff i th during transformationexperiment for the search of genetic material.

103. Date palm is a dioecious plant as male andfemale flowers are borne on different plants.

104. Conidia in Penicillium are mitospores produced byasexual reproduction.

105. Griff ith used Pneumococcus bacteria in hisexperiment of transformation.

106. Tapetum provide nourishment to developingpollen grains.

107. Immigration refers to number of indiv idualsentering a habitat.

108. In India, the Air prevention and control of PollutionAct came into force in - 1981.

109. Chlorofluro carbon (CFC) is a green house gas.

110. Standing crop is amount of living material presentin different trophic levels at a given time.

111. Detritus food chain starts with detritus/deadorganic matter.

112. Ozone layer is found in stratosphere.

113. Anabaena is cyanobacteria, prokaryote.

114. “Grana” of chloroplast having thylakoids andthylakoid membrane bears photosystems,involved in light reaction of photosynthesis.

115. Glycosylation is post-translational modification ofpeptides do not take place during Calvin cycle.

116. Mesosome helps in cel l wall formation ofprokaryotic cell.

117. Root pressure is positive pressure generate insideroot do not affect transpiration.

118. Recombination nodule, site of recombination orcrossing over form during pachytene.

119. Endodermis comprises a single layer calledcasparian strip having barrel - shaped cells whichpossess special thickenings of waxy materialsuberin in their radial and tangential walls.

120. During spring and autumn cambium havingdifferent activities responsible to produce annualrings having spring wood and autumn wood.

121. Sugarcane having stilt roots arises from lowernodes of stem to support main axis.

122. Porins help in transportation of molecules presentin outer membrane of plastids and mitochondria

123. Bulliform cells present in monocots to preventfrom excessive water loss. Grasses are monocotplants.

(7)

124. Carrot is a modified tap root.

125. Strobil i /cones are compact structures ofsporophylls bearing sporangia. Male strobilihaving microsporophylls and microsporangia.

126. Basidiospores are exogenously produced onbasidium.

127. Aseptate hyphae are multinucleated termed ascoenocytic hyphae. Aseptate hyphae is present inphycomycetes e.g. Albugo.

128. Systematics : Taxonomy + Phylogeny(evolutionary relationship)

Botanical garden : ex-situ conservation of plantsfor reference and studies.

Key : Analytical in nature (taxonomic aid).

Flora : having information about habitat anddistribution of plants of a given area.

129. Prothallus is gametophyte of pteridophytes.

130. Carrageen is phycocolloid found in red algae.

131. Diatoms having soap-box like structure.

132. Commensalism is a relationship in which oneorganism get benefitted and other having no lossno benefit. Orchid as an epiphyte get shelter frommango branch but mango do not have loss orbenefit

133. Zoological parks are not sacred groves.

134. Algal bloom : Excessive planktonic growth.

Solid waste : Everything that goes out in trashRamesh Chandra Dagar : established Haryanakisan welfare club.

Amrita Devi Bishnoi : Extraordinary courage anddedication wildlife protection in protecting wildlifeaward.

135. UTR’s : is/are not translated but required forefficient translation.

140. Monophyodont : Having but one set of teeth ofwhich one are not replaced at later stage ofgrowth (or teeth set that appear once in a lifetime)

Monophyodont Formulla 0,0, 2,10,0, 2,1

144. In Non-competitive inhibition :

Vmax changes

Km Remain unchanged/constant

150. Hemozoin in a crystalline, reddish brown pigment,formed by breakdown of Haemoglobin (catobolismof Hb). This pigment causes actual attack ofmalaria when released after erythrocytic cycle.

152. Swimbladder, Placoid scales & Operculum arefeatures of Osteichthyes while internal fertilizationis feature of Chondrichthyes.

154. Alcohol decreases efficiency of cerebellum andcause motor incoordination causing ataxia (lossmotor coordination).

156. Active immunity occur by exposure of naturalinfection or by introduction of a killed or weakenedor its antigens through vaccination.

ZOOLOGY

158. Ideal characteristic of a vector should not be toolarge other wise it will be not easily manipulated.

160. LacZ-Gene Encodes -Galactosidase thatbreakdown lactose into Glucose and Galactose &produce blue precipitation. -Galactosidase willbreak down x-gal (contain Lactose analog &Indole Form blue ppt of Indigo) Help in “Bluewhite” selection.

161. Streptokiase used as clot buster used for thetreatment of coronary thrombosis. ‘Flavr Savr’tomato the Enzyme which in blocked ispolygalacturonase (PG); prevent decay and Earlyripening of Tamato.

163. 2-selectable marker of pBR322 are

tetR Tetracycline Resistant.

ampR Ampicillin Resistant.

164. AI Cause In vivo Fertilization

GIFT Cause In vivo Fertilization

166. In human, holoblastic cleavage taken place i.e.cleavage I & II are meridional and III is Equatorial.Planes of subsequent cleavages are not fixed.

174. Astigmatism is a congenital anomaly results inirregularity of cornea & lens results in irregularrefraction and blurred image : corrected bycylindrical lens.

(8)

176. Tetany Caused due to Hypocalcaemia inHypoparathyrodism.

178. ANF counteracts the RAAS, ADH & never havesynergistic effect. Since ADH concentrates urineand increases BP.

complete syllabus test - 28€¦ · complete syllabus test - 28 28. in an a.c circuit, the current...

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