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Training of more than 240 hrs. by highly experienced and best in class faculty.

Study material having concise chapterwise theory for clarity on key concepts & formulae.

Specialized Practice Booklets containing 3000 problems, forms the Course.

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10 full length tests on IIT‐Main pattern along with detail discussion.

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Boost your IIT-JEE / AIPMT Preparation

1. match column-I with column-II and select the correct option.

Column-I Column-III. Incomplete digestive system a. SpongesII. cellular level of organisation B. coelenteratesIII. radial symmetry c. annelidsIV. Pseudocoelomate D. PlatyhelminthesV. metamerism E. aschelminthes(a) I - c, II - D, III - a, IV - B, V - E(b) I - D, II - E, III - B, IV - c, V - a(c) I - D, II - a, III - B, IV - E, V - c(d) I - a, II - B, III - c, IV - D, V - E

2. Which of the following combinations is correct for wheat?

(a) Genus : Triticum, Family : anacardiaceae, Order : Poales, class : monocotyledonae

(b) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales, class: Dicotyledonae

(c) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Sapindales, class : monocotyledonae

(d) Genus : Triticum, Family : Poaceae, Order : Poales, class: monocotyledonae

3. What is common in all the three, Funaria, Dryopteris and Ginkgo?

(a) Presence of archegonia (b) Well developed vascular tissues(c) Independent gametophyte(d) Independent sporophyte

4. choose the wrong statement.(a) Teeth in chondrichthyes are modified ctenoid

scales.(b) air bladder in fishes regulates buoyancy.(c) In amphibians, the tympanum represents the ear.(d) Long bones in birds are pneumatic.

5. Which one of the following animals is correctly matched with its characteristic and taxon?

Animal Characteristic Taxon(a) millipede Ventral nerve cord arachnida(b) Sea anemone Triploblastic cnidaria(c) Silver fish Pectoral and pelvic chordata

fins(d) Duck-billed Oviparous mammalia

platypus

6.

In the diagram given above, some of the algae have been labelled as ‘a’, ‘B’, ‘c’, ‘D’ and ‘E’. These algae are respectively identified as:

(a) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Fucus and Laminaria

(b) Porphyra, Dictyota, Laminaria, Fucus and Polysiphonia

(c) Dictyota, Polysiphonia, Porphyra, Laminaria and Fucus

(d) Fucus, Porphyra, Dictyota, Polysiphonia and Laminaria

7. Which of the following pteridophytes is heterosporous in nature?

(a) Psilotum (b) Adiantum(c) Equisetum (d) Salvinia

8. Which among these is not a homoiotherm ?(a) Aptenodytes (b) Testudo(c) Delphinus (d) Struthio

Useful for National and State Level PMTsAll

9. Which of the following is not matched correctly?(a) Anabaena – cyanobacteria(b) Gonyaulax – Dinoflagellates(c) Thermoacidophils – archaebacteria(d) Albugo – chrysophytes

10. In which one of the following, the genus name, its two characters and its phylum are not correctly matched, whereas the remaining three are correct?

(a) Pila (i) Body segmentedmollusca

(ii) mouth with radula

(b) Asterias (i) Spiny skinnedEchinodermata

(ii) Water vascular system

(c) Sycon (i) Pore bearingPorifera

(ii) canal system

(d) Periplaneta (i) Jointed appendagesarthropoda

(ii) chitinous exoskeleton

11. a characteristic of Cycas that resembles ferns is(a) circinate ptyxis (b) sori in microsporophyll(c) uniflagellated male gamete (d) both (a) and (b).

12. match the following and select the correct combination from the options given below.

Column-I Column-II(Stem Modifications) (Found in)

a. Underground stem 1. EuphorbiaB. Stem tendril 2. Opuntiac. Stem thorns 3. PotatoD. Flattened stem 4. CitrusE. Fleshy cylindrical stem 5. cucumber(a) a – 1, B – 2, c – 3, D – 5, E – 4(b) a – 2, B – 3, c – 4, D – 5, E – 1 (c) a – 3, B – 4, c – 5, D – 1, E – 2 (d) a – 3, B – 5, c – 4, D – 2, E – 1

13. The old dicot root differs from old dicot stem in(a) absence of secondary xylem(b) possessing lenticel (c) possessing protoxylem(d) absence of secondary phloem.

14. Stereocilia occur in(a) pseudostratified columnar epithelium of trachea(b) columnar epithelium of stomach(c) stratified columnar epithelium of pharynx(d) pseudostratified columnar epithelium of epididymis.

15.

Plants having the above given floral diagram are (a) leguminous (b) dicots(c) medicinal and perennial (d) having pinnately compound leaves.

16. In the given diagram of the reproductive system of earthworm what do a, B, c, D and E represent?

(a) a. seminal vesicle, B. spermathecae, c. prostate gland, D. ovary E. accessory gland

(b) a. seminal vesicle, B. ovary, c. accessory gland, D. spermathecae E. prostate gland

(c) a. spermathecae, B. seminal vesicle, c. accessory gland, D. ovary E. prostate gland

(d) a. spermathecae, B. seminal vesicle, c. ovary, D. accessory gland E. prostate gland

17. If the length of a double helical DNa is 1.7 meters, the number of base pairs present in the DNa will be

(a) 5 × 109 (b) 1.7 × 109

(c) 3.4 × 109 (d) 1.7 × 105.

18. The ingrowth of exoskeleton in the head of cockroach is called

(a) notum (b) apodemes(c) pleura (d) tentorium.

19. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a certain type of connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled a, B, c and D, and select the right option about them.

A B C D(a) macrophage Fibroblast collagen mast cell

fibres(b) mast cell macrophage Fibroblast collagen

fibres(c) macrophage collagen Fibroblast mast cell

fibres(d) mast cell collagen Fibroblast macrophage

fibres

20. arrange the steps of catalytic action of an enzyme in order and choose the right option.

I. The enzyme releases the products of the reaction and the enzyme is free to bind to another substrate.

II. The active site of enzyme is in close proximity of the substrate and breaks the chemical bonds of the substrate.

III. The binding of substrate induces the enzyme to alter its shape fitting more tightly around the substrate.

IV. The substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme fitting into the active site.

(a) IV, III, II, I (b) III, II, I, IV(c) IV, II, I, III (d) II, I, IV, III

21. Select the incorrect statement.(a) amino acids are substituted methanes.(b) Glycerol is a trihydroxy propane.(c) Lysine is a neutral amino acid. (d) Lecithin is a phospholipid.

22. In cockroach the flow of haemolymph is(a) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral

sinus → pericardial sinus → ostia → heart (b) heart → pericardial sinus → head → perineural

sinus → perivisceral sinus → ostia → heart(c) heart → head → perineural sinus → perivisceral

sinus → ostia → pericardial sinus → heart(d) heart → ostia → perivisceral sinus → pericardial

sinus → head → perineural sinus → heart.

23. Which one of the following biomolecules is correctly characterised?

(a) Lecithin - a phosphorylated glyceride found in cell membrane.

(b) Palmitic acid - an unsaturated fatty acid with 18 carbon atoms.

(c) adenylic acid - adenosine with a glucose phosphate molecule.

(d) alanine amino acid - contains an amino group and an acidic group anywhere in the molecule.

24. Which of the following statements is incorrect about G0 phase?

(a) mitosis occurs after G0 phase. (b) Biocatalysts can be used to exit G0 phase. (c) cell volume keeps on increasing during this phase. (d) cell metabolism occurs continuously in G0 phase.

25. Which of the following statements is not correct?(a) Starch is a polymer of a-glucose.(b) Starch is made up of amylose and amylopectin.(c) amylose is linear structure consisting of several

glucose residues joined by 1,4-glycosidic linkages.(d) amylopectin is a straight chain with several glucose

residues joined only by 1,4-glycosidic linkages.

26. If a plant produces flowers when exposed only to alternating periods of 5 hours light and 3 hours dark, in a 24-hour cycle, then the plant should be a

(a) short-long day plant (b) short day plant(c) day neutral plant (d) long day plant.

27. a red blood corpuscle (rBc) was kept in a solution and treated so that it became inside-out. What will be the polarity of the phospholipid bilayer in this cell?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

28. an anther has 1200 pollen grains. how many Pmcs must have been there to produce them?

(a) 1200 (b) 300 (c) 150 (d) 2400

29. In onion root tip, during metaphase stage of mitosis, the number of kinetochores will be

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 32.

30. During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNa in a cell remains at 4c level if the initial amount is denoted as 2c?

(a) G0 and G1 (b) G1 and S(c) Only G2 (d) G2 and m

31. Out of 38 molecules of aTP produced upon aerobic respiration of glucose, the break up in aTP production in glycolysis (P), pyruvate to acetyl-coa formation (Q) and Krebs’ cycle (r) is as follows :

(a) P = 2, Q = 6, r = 30 (b) P = 8, Q = 6, r = 24(c) P = 8, Q = 10, r = 20 (d) P = 2, Q = 12, r = 24

32. match the mineral in column-I with the enzyme activated by it in column-II and choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-IIa. magnesium I. alcohol

dehydrogenaseB. molybdenum II. Phosphoenol pyruvate

carboxylasec. Zinc III. Nitrogenase(a) a - II, B - III, c - I (b) a - I, B - II, c - III(c) a - II, B - I, c - III (d) a - III, B - II, c - I

33. Which of the following statements regarding cyclic flow of elelctrons during light reactions is false?

(a) This process takes place in the stromal lamella.(b) aTP synthesis takes place.(c) NaDPh + h+ is synthesised.(d) It takes place only when light of wavelength beyond

680 nm is available for excitation.

34. Select the correct match of the digested products in humans given in column-I with their absorption site and mechanism in column-II.

Column-I Column-II(a) Glycerol, fatty acids Duodenum, move

as chylomicrons(b) cholesterol, maltose Large intestine,

active absorption(c) Glycine, glucose Small intestine,

active absorption(d) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine,

passive absorption

35. Select the correct order of reactions in glycolysis.a. conversion of 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde to 1,3-bis-

phosphoglycerateB. conversion of 3-phosphoglyceric acid to 2-phospho-

glyceratec. conversion of BPGa to 3-phosphoglyceric acidD. Splitting of fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate into dihydroxy

acetone phosphate and 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde(a) D, c, a, B (b) B, c, a, B(c) B, D, a, c (d) D, a, c, B

36. In the clotting mechanism pathway, thrombin activates factors

(a) XI, VIII, V (b) XI, IX, X(c) VIII, X, V (d) IX, VIII, X.

37. The pressure gradient, to facilitate inspiration and expiration in the human body, is generated using

(a) intercostal muscles and trachea(b) diaphragm and bronchi(c) intercostal muscles and the bronchioles(d) intercostal muscles and diaphragm.

38. Which of the following factor(s) increase blood pressure?(i) Increase of cardiac output(ii) constriction of blood vessel(iii) Increase of blood volume(iv) activation of parasympathetic nervous system(v) Inhibition of sympathetic nervous system(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv)(c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)

39. If osmolarity of nephric filtrate in relation to blood plasma is represented as follows:hypertonic Isotonic hypotonic and different parts of nephron as follows:PcT - a; Descending limb - B; DcT - c; collecting duct - D; ascending limb - E;Then, identify the correct option for the osmolarity of nephric filtrate in different parts of the nephron?

(a) a ; B ; c ; D ; E (b) a ; B ; c ; D ; E (c) a ; B ; c ; D ; E (d) a ; B ; c ; D ; E

40. In the resting muscle fibre, tropomyosin partially covers

(a) calcium binding sites on troponin (b) actin binding sites on myosin(c) myosin binding sites on actin (d) calcium binding sites on actin.

41. choose the right sequential phenomena among the following during the delivery of O2 from blood to tissue.

P : absorption of cO2 by the blood.Q : reaction of absorbed cO2 with h2O to form h2cO3

within rBc and its conversion into h+ and hcO–3

ions.r : reaction of absorbed cO2 with h2O in plasma to

form h2cO3 and its conversion into h+ and hcO3

–

ions.S : combination of h+ with heme portion of hbO2 to

release O2.T : combination of hcO3

– with heme portion of hbO2

to form reduced hemoglobin and release of O2.(a) P, Q, T (b) P, r, S(c) P, Q, S (d) P, r, T

42. If due to some injury, the chordae tendinae of the tricuspid valve of the human heart are partially non-functional, what will be the immediate effect?

(a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.

(b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working.(c) The blood will tend to flow back into the left

atrium.(d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be

reduced.

43. When a neuron is in resting state i.e. not conducting any impulse, the axonal membrane is

(a) comparatively more permeable to Na+ ions and nearly impermeable to K+ ions

(b) equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions(c) impermeable to both Na+ and K+ ions(d) comparatively more permeable to K+ ions and nearly

impermeable to Na+ ions.

44. an X-ray of the lower abdomen, shows a shadow in the region of the ureter suspected to be a ureteric calculus. a possible clinical symptom would be

(a) acute renal failure (arF)(b) anuria and haematuria(c) motor aphasia(d) chronic renal failure (crF).

45. Excessive stimulation of vagus nerve in humans may lead to

(a) epilepsy (b) peptic ulcers(c) increased digestion of proteins(d) irregular contractions of diaphragm.

46. The given graph shows an oxygen dissociation curve for haemoglobin.

Where in the body will haemoglobin be saturated at the percentages shown at points 1, 2 and 3 on the graph?

Left ventricle Pulmonary vein Vena cava(a) 1 2 3(b) 2 1 3(c) 2 3 1(d) 3 2 1

47. The internal ear of humans, in comparison to that of frog has

(a) smaller cochlea (b) longer and coiled cochlea(c) fused utriculus and sacculus(d) No sacculus.

48. a person passes much urine and drinks much water but his blood glucose level is normal. This condition may be the result of

(a) reduction of insulin secretion from pancreas(b) reduction in vassopressin secretion from posterior

pituitary(c) increase in glucose concentration in urine(d) increase in secretion of glucagon.

49. In a mammal, living in water______ as compared to a mammal of similar size living on land.

(a) heart is smaller in size(b) lungs are smaller in size(c) lungs are larger in size(d) heart is larger in size

50. Perisperm differs from endosperm in(a) being a diploid tissue (b) its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with

several sperms(c) being a haploid tissue(d) having no reserve food.

51. an immature male gametophyte differs from a mature male gametophyte in that it

(a) has not yet left the pollen sac(b) has not yet germinated and its generative cell has

not divided into two male gametes

(c) is a microspore that has not yet divided by mitosis(d) still consists of microsporocyte.

52. Which of the following is wrongly matched?(a) IUI - semen collected from husband or donor is

artificially introduced into the uterus (b) GIFT - transfer of embryos with more than 8

blastomeres into the Fallopian tube(c) IcSI - sperm directly injected into the ovum(d) ZIFT - transfer of embryos with upto 8 blastomeres

into the Fallopian tube

53. Nitsch was able to get strawberries of different shapes by

(a) splitting the ovary(b) removing the perianth(c) selectively removing some carpels(d) inserting an alcohol dipped needle into the ovary.

54. In angiosperms, female gametophyte is called as embryo sac. Given figures represent different stages of embryo sac development in angiosperms. arrange them in correct order and select the correct option.

(a) V → I → IV → II → III → VII → VI → VIII(b) VIII → V → II → IV → III → VII → VI → I(c) I → II → IV → V → VIII → III → VII → VI(d) VIII → I → V → II → IV → III → VI → VII

55. The given figure illustrates monthly changes in the human ovary during the reproductive cycle.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes each structure?

(a) Before puberty, the oocyte a does not start the process of meiosis.

(b) The hormone produced by structure B causes thinning of the uterine cervical mucus to allow passage of sperms.

(c) During ovulation, structure c stays at the interphase between meiosis I and meiosis II.

(d) The hormone produced by structure D stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete luteinizing hormone.

56. The main function of the fimbriae of the Fallopian tube in females is to

(a) release ovum from the Graafian follicle(b) make necessary changes in the endometrium for

implantation(c) help in the development of corpus luteum(d) help in the collection of the ovum after ovulation.

57. The graph below shows the relationships of per capita population growth rate (r), fecundity (f) and age at first reproduction (a) in an animal species.

What is the most important conclusion to be drawn from the graph?

(a) The later the age of first reproduction, the lower is the population growth rate achieved.

(b) The population growth rate decreases as first reproduction is postponed to a later stage, regardless of the fecundity.

(c) at any a, the higher the fecundity, the higher is the population growth rate achieved.

(d) as the age at first reproduction is postponed further, the benefits of increasing fecundity on the population growth rate become progressively negligible.

58. The foetal ejection reflex in humans triggers the release of

(a) oxytocin from foetal pituitary(b) human chorionic gonadotropin (hcG) from placenta(c) human placental lactogen (hPL) from placenta(d) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.

59. how many secondary spermatocytes will be required to form 400 spermatozoa?

(a) 40 (b) 100(c) 200 (d) 400

60. The ‘cells of rauber’ are(a) secretory cells of endometrium in uterus (b) inner cell mass of blastocoel(c) outer cells of trophoblast in contact with uterine

wall(d) cells of trophoblast, in contact with inner cell mass

of blastocyst.

61. Why cannot a woman get pregnant again during pregnancy?

(a) a woman ovulates during pregnancy, but the oviducts are plugged with protective mucus to prevent sperm from entering.

(b) high levels of hcG in woman’s body kill sperm.(c) a woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy.(d) high levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted

by the corpus luteum or placenta during pregnancy, inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent ovulation.

62. The correct floral formula of soyabean is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

63. match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below.

Column-I Column-II (Population (Examples)interaction)

a. mutualism 1. Ticks on dogsB. commensalism 2. Semibalanus and Chthamalusc. Parasitism 3. Sparrow and any seedD. competition 4. Epiphyte on a mango branchE. Predation 5. Fig and wasp(a) a – 1, B – 5, c – 4, D – 3, E – 2(b) a – 2, B – 1, c – 5, D – 4, E – 3 (c) a – 3, B – 2, c – 1, D – 5, E – 4 (d) a – 5, B – 4, c – 1, D – 2, E – 3

64. The Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings because(a) the pro Bt toxin activation requires temperature

above human body temperature

(b) the Bt toxin recognizes only insect-specific targets(c) the Bt toxin formation from pro Bt toxin requires ph

lower than that present in human stomach(d) conversion of pro Bt toxin to Bt toxin takes place

only in highly alkaline conditions.

65. If S = species richness, a = area, Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient), c= Y-intercept, then the relation between species richness and area is described on a logarithmic scale by the equation

(a) log S = log c – Z log a (b) log S = Z log a(c) log S = log c + Z log a (d) log c = log S + Z log a.

66. Given pie diagram represents the proportionate number of species of major taxa of plants. Select the incorrect statements regarding a and B.

(i) a represents the achlorophyllous, heterotrophic, eukaryotic organisms with chitinous cell walls.

(ii) B represents the members of Kingdom monera e.g., bacteria and cyanobacteria.

(iii) B represents those seed plants in which seeds are enclosed inside fruits.

(iv) a and B represent gymnosperms and angiosperms respectively.

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

67. The graph below represents changes in different ecological parameters due to effluent mixing in a stream. The three lines a, B and c represent:

(a) a: oxygen concentrationB: biological O2 demandc: pollution resistant species

(b) a: pollutantB: aerobic processc: anaerobic process

(c) a: oxygen concentrationB: cO2 concentrationc: temperature

(d) a: phosphate concentrationB: nitrate concentrationc: rate of photosynthesis

68. rNa interference which is employed in making tobacco plant resistant to Meloidogyne incognita is essentially involved in

(a) preventing the process of replication of DNa(b) preventing the process of translation of mrNa(c) preventing the process of splicing of hnrNa(d) preventing the process of transcription.

69. match the entries in column-I with those of column-II and choose the correct answer.

Column-I Column-IIa. restriction endonucleases (p) Kohler and milsteinB. Polymerase chain reaction (q) alec Jeffreysc. DNa fingerprinting (r) arberD. monoclonal antibodies (s) Kary mullis(a) a - (r), B - (s), c - (q), D - (p)(b) a - (r), B - (q), c - (s), D - (p)(c) a - (q), B - (r), c - (s), D - (p)(d) a - (q), B - (s), c - (r), D - (p)

70. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis of recombinant DNa molecule is depicted below. The mistake in the procedure is

Mammalian DNA

Cut withrestrictionendonuclease 2

Cut withrestrictionendonuclease 1

Recombinantmolecule

(a) enzyme polymerase is not included(b) the mammalian DNa is shown double stranded(c) two different restriction enzymes are used(d) only one fragment is inserted.

71. Identify the desirable characteristics for a plasmid used in rDNa technology from the following.

a. ability to multiply and express outside the host in a bioreactor

B. a highly active promoterc. a site at which replication can be initiatedD. One or more identifiable marker genesE. One or more unique restriction sites(a) a, c, D and E only (b) a, c and E only(c) B, c, D and E only (d) B, c and E only

72. an ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having

(a) low stability and high resilience(b) high stability and low resilience(c) low stability and low resilience(d) high stability and high resilience.

73. The correct sequence of seral stages in hydrosere is(a) plankton, submerged, floating, reed swamp, sedge

meadow, woodland(b) plankton, floating, submerged, reed swamp, sedge

meadow, woodland(c) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow, reed

swamp, woodland(d) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow,

woodland, reed swamp.

74. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is slower if

(a) detritus is rich in nitrogen (b) detritus is rich in humus(c) detritus is rich in sugars (d) detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.

75. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels?

TCSC

PCPP 1

500

5010

(a) Level Pc is “insects” and level Sc is “small insectivorous birds”.

(b) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “whale” on top level Tc.

(c) Level PP is “pipal trees” and the level Sc is “sheep”.

(d) Level Pc is “rats” and level Sc is “cats”.

76. Which one of the following refers to allen’s rule?(a) an organism can move from a stressful habitat to a

more hospitable area and return when the stressful period is over.

(b) If the stressful conditions are localized or remain only for a short duration, an organism either migrates or suspends itself.

(c) Low atmospheric pressure in higher altitudes results in altitude sickness.

(d) mammals from colder climates have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss.

77. match column-I (crop) with column-II (corresponding insect pests resistant variety) and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-IIa. Flat bean (i) Pusa GauravB. Okra (Bhindi) (ii) Pusa Sem-2c. Brassica (iii) Pusa Sawani(a) a-(ii), B-(i), c-(iii) (b) a-(ii), B-(iii), c-(i)(c) a-(iii), B-(ii), c-(i) (d) a-(i), B-(iii), c-(ii)

78. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show(a) host specificity (b) narrow spectrum applications(c) effects on non-target pathogens(d) utility in IPm programme.

79. match the following list of bioactive substances and their roles and select the correct option from the codes given.

Bioactive Substance Rolea. Statin (i) removal of oil stainsB. cyclosporin a (ii) removal of clots from blood

vesselsc. Streptokinase (iii) Lowering of blood

cholesterolD. Lipase (iv) Immuno-suppressive agent(a) a-(ii), B-(iii), c-(i), D-(iv)(b) a-(iv), B-(ii), c-(i), D-(iii)(c) a-(iv), B-(i), c-(ii), D-(iii)(d) a-(iii), B-(iv), c-(ii), D-(i)

80. Given below is the flowchart of sewage treatment. Identify a, B, c and D and select the correct option.

(a) a-mechanical agitation; B-Increased BOD; c-activated sludge; D-aerobic sludge digesters

(b) a-mechanical agitation; B-reduced BOD; c-activated sludge; D-anaerobic sludge digesters

(c) a-microbial digestion; B-activated sludge; c-reduced BOD; D-anaerobic sludge digesters

(d) a-microbial digestion; B-mechanical agitation; c-reduced BOD; D-aerobic sludge digesters

81. Study carefully the following stages of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium. arrange these stages in the correct sequence and select the correct option.

1. Sporozoites leave the blood stream and enter the liver cells of man.

2. Sporozoites present in the salivary glands of female Anopheles mosquito are injected into the blood stream of man.

3. The parasite reproduces asexually in rBcs, resulting in bursting of rBcs and causing the cycles of fever; released parasites infect new rBcs.

4. The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells, ultimately causing the rupturing of cells and enters the blood.

5. Two types of gametocytes i.e., microgametocytes and macrogametocytes develop in the rBcs.

6. Female Anopheles mosquito takes up the gametocytes with blood meal of an infected person.

7. mature infective stage of the parasite i.e., sporozoites escape from intestine and migrate to the mosquito’s salivary glands.

8. Fertilisation and developmental stages of the parasite take place in mosquito’s stomach.

(a) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7(b) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 7 → 8(c) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7(d) 6 → 8 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 2 → 3 → 1

82. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

Examples Type of immunity

(a) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and monocytes

cellular barriers

(b) anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections

active immunity

(c) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes

Physical barriers

(d) mucous coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital tract and the hcI in stomach

Physiological barriers

83. an inter-breeding population of finches became separated geographically, forming two isolated groups. Each group then became subject to different selective pressures. One group was then introduced into the habitat of the other.Which one of the following would determine whether they now formed two distinct species?

(a) They had been separated for more than three million years.

(b) They failed to produce fertile F1 hybrids.(c) They showed marked differences in the shape of

their beaks. (d) Their plumage had become markedly different.

84. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe and asia, with short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was

(a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal man(c) cro-magnon man (d) Ramapithecus.

85. In habitual alcohol drinkers, liver gets damaged because of

(a) accumulation of excess glycogen(b) accumulation of excess fat(c) excess detoxification (d) excess deamination.

86. The process of transformation is not affected by which of the following enzymes?

a. DNase B. rNase c. Peptidase D. Lipase(a) a, B (b) a, B, c, D(c) B, c, D (d) a, B, c

87. read the following statements and choose the correct option.

a. Increase in melanised moths after industrialization in Great Britain is a proof for natural selection.

B. When more individuals of a population acquire a mean character value, it is called disruption.

c. changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

D. Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generations.

(a) B alone is correct. (b) D alone is correct.(c) a and D alone are correct. (d) a and c alone are correct.

88. refer the given statements.(i) Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is an example of

pre-mendelian concept of blending inheritance.(ii) Test cross is a special type of back cross.(iii) chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed

in cancer cells.(iv) Thalassaemia is a mendelian disorder.Which of the above statements are correct?(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (iv) only

89. Study the given pedigree chart showing the inheritance of an X-linked trait controlled by gene ‘r’.

A B

C D

P

F1

F2

What will be the genotypes of individuals a, B, c and D respectively?

(a) XX, XrY, XrX, XY (b) XrXr, XY, XX, XY(c) XrX, XrYr, XrXr, XrY (d) XX, XrYr, XX, XY

90. read the following statements and choose the incorrect option.

(a) Phosphate group is linked to 5’-Oh of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.

(b) Two nucleosides are linked through 3’ – 5’ N-glycosidic linkage.

(c) Negatively charged DNa is wrapped around positively charged histone hectamer to form nucleosome.

(d) The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called heterochromatin.

91. The following table shows the base ratios for DNa collected from four different animals species a, B, c, D. Which species is likely to contain DNa with an adenine concentration of 21.1%?

Species Cytosine Guanine Thymine

(a) a 31.6 32.4 18.0

(b) B 29.6 29.2 20.1

(c) c 24.8 28.9 25.4

(d) D 32.1 31.9 17.6

92. What proportion of the offsprings obtained from cross aaBBcc × aaBbcc will be completely heterozygous for all the genes segregated independently?

(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4(c) 1/2 (d) 1/16

93. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in human beings?

(a) rudimentary ear muscles and third molars(b) coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles(c) Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of

the eye(d) Ear pinna, patella, olecranon process

94. Which of the following sequences will be produced as a result of transcription of the DNa sequence cGaTTacaG?

(a) GcUaaUGUc (b) cGUaaUcUG(c) GcTaaTGTc (d) GcUaaTcTG

95. common cold differs from pneumonia in that(a) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the

common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease(b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated

bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine

(c) pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae

(d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

96. a normal-visioned man whose father was colour blind, marries a woman whose father was also colour blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour blind?

(a) 100% (b) zero percent(c) 25% (d) 50%

97. read the following four statements (a-D).(a) The first transgenic buffalo, rosie produced milk

which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.(B) restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNa

from other macromolecules.(c) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNa

technology.(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer

of rDNa into the host.

Which of the above statements have mistakes?(a) B and c (b) c and D (c) a and c (d) a and B

98. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?

(a) adenovirus (b) cosmid(c) ri plasmid (d) Ti plasmid

99. maximum species diversity is seen in latitudinal range of

(a) 23.5° N to 66.5° N (b) 23.5° N to 23.5° S(c) 23.5° S to 66.5° N (d) 66.5° N to 90° N.

100. ‘Floc’ is(a) a mesh-like structure formed by the association of

bacteria and fungal filaments in sewage treatment(b) the primary sludge produced in sewage treatment(c) the effluent in primary treatment tank obtained

during sewage treatment(d) a type of biofortified food.

Answer Key1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b)56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (b) 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (b)86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d)96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a)

nn

59. how many secondary spermatocytes will be required to form 400 spermatozoa?

(a) 40 (b) 100(c) 200 (d) 400

60. The ‘cells of rauber’ are(a) secretory cells of endometrium in uterus (b) inner cell mass of blastocoel(c) outer cells of trophoblast in contact with uterine

wall(d) cells of trophoblast, in contact with inner cell mass

of blastocyst.

61. Why cannot a woman get pregnant again during pregnancy?

(a) a woman ovulates during pregnancy, but the oviducts are plugged with protective mucus to prevent sperm from entering.

(b) high levels of hcG in woman’s body kill sperm.(c) a woman cannot have intercourse during pregnancy.(d) high levels of estrogen and progesterone, secreted

by the corpus luteum or placenta during pregnancy, inhibit the secretion of gonadotropins and prevent ovulation.

62. The correct floral formula of soyabean is

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

63. match the following and choose the correct combination from the options given below.

Column-I Column-II (Population (Examples)interaction)

a. mutualism 1. Ticks on dogsB. commensalism 2. Semibalanus and Chthamalusc. Parasitism 3. Sparrow and any seedD. competition 4. Epiphyte on a mango branchE. Predation 5. Fig and wasp(a) a – 1, B – 5, c – 4, D – 3, E – 2(b) a – 2, B – 1, c – 5, D – 4, E – 3 (c) a – 3, B – 2, c – 1, D – 5, E – 4 (d) a – 5, B – 4, c – 1, D – 2, E – 3

64. The Bt toxin is not toxic to human beings because(a) the pro Bt toxin activation requires temperature

above human body temperature

(b) the Bt toxin recognizes only insect-specific targets(c) the Bt toxin formation from pro Bt toxin requires ph

lower than that present in human stomach(d) conversion of pro Bt toxin to Bt toxin takes place

only in highly alkaline conditions.

65. If S = species richness, a = area, Z = slope of the line (regression coefficient), c= Y-intercept, then the relation between species richness and area is described on a logarithmic scale by the equation

(a) log S = log c – Z log a (b) log S = Z log a(c) log S = log c + Z log a (d) log c = log S + Z log a.

66. Given pie diagram represents the proportionate number of species of major taxa of plants. Select the incorrect statements regarding a and B.

(i) a represents the achlorophyllous, heterotrophic, eukaryotic organisms with chitinous cell walls.

(ii) B represents the members of Kingdom monera e.g., bacteria and cyanobacteria.

(iii) B represents those seed plants in which seeds are enclosed inside fruits.

(iv) a and B represent gymnosperms and angiosperms respectively.

(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iv)(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

67. The graph below represents changes in different ecological parameters due to effluent mixing in a stream. The three lines a, B and c represent:

(a) a: oxygen concentrationB: biological O2 demandc: pollution resistant species

(b) a: pollutantB: aerobic processc: anaerobic process

(c) a: oxygen concentrationB: cO2 concentrationc: temperature

(d) a: phosphate concentrationB: nitrate concentrationc: rate of photosynthesis

68. rNa interference which is employed in making tobacco plant resistant to Meloidogyne incognita is essentially involved in

(a) preventing the process of replication of DNa(b) preventing the process of translation of mrNa(c) preventing the process of splicing of hnrNa(d) preventing the process of transcription.

69. match the entries in column-I with those of column-II and choose the correct answer.

Column-I Column-IIa. restriction endonucleases (p) Kohler and milsteinB. Polymerase chain reaction (q) alec Jeffreysc. DNa fingerprinting (r) arberD. monoclonal antibodies (s) Kary mullis(a) a - (r), B - (s), c - (q), D - (p)(b) a - (r), B - (q), c - (s), D - (p)(c) a - (q), B - (r), c - (s), D - (p)(d) a - (q), B - (s), c - (r), D - (p)

70. The basic procedure involved in the synthesis of recombinant DNa molecule is depicted below. The mistake in the procedure is

Mammalian DNA

Cut withrestrictionendonuclease 2

Cut withrestrictionendonuclease 1

Recombinantmolecule

(a) enzyme polymerase is not included(b) the mammalian DNa is shown double stranded(c) two different restriction enzymes are used(d) only one fragment is inserted.

71. Identify the desirable characteristics for a plasmid used in rDNa technology from the following.

a. ability to multiply and express outside the host in a bioreactor

B. a highly active promoterc. a site at which replication can be initiatedD. One or more identifiable marker genesE. One or more unique restriction sites(a) a, c, D and E only (b) a, c and E only(c) B, c, D and E only (d) B, c and E only

72. an ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect stops will be having

(a) low stability and high resilience(b) high stability and low resilience(c) low stability and low resilience(d) high stability and high resilience.

73. The correct sequence of seral stages in hydrosere is(a) plankton, submerged, floating, reed swamp, sedge

meadow, woodland(b) plankton, floating, submerged, reed swamp, sedge

meadow, woodland(c) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow, reed

swamp, woodland(d) plankton, submerged, floating, sedge meadow,

woodland, reed swamp.

74. In a particular climatic condition, decomposition rate is slower if

(a) detritus is rich in nitrogen (b) detritus is rich in humus(c) detritus is rich in sugars (d) detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.

75. Given below is an imaginary pyramid of numbers. What could be one of the possibilities about certain organisms at some of the different levels?

TCSC

PCPP 1

500

5010

(a) Level Pc is “insects” and level Sc is “small insectivorous birds”.

(b) Level PP is “phytoplanktons” in sea and “whale” on top level Tc.

(c) Level PP is “pipal trees” and the level Sc is “sheep”.

(d) Level Pc is “rats” and level Sc is “cats”.

76. Which one of the following refers to allen’s rule?(a) an organism can move from a stressful habitat to a

more hospitable area and return when the stressful period is over.

(b) If the stressful conditions are localized or remain only for a short duration, an organism either migrates or suspends itself.

(c) Low atmospheric pressure in higher altitudes results in altitude sickness.

(d) mammals from colder climates have shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss.

77. match column-I (crop) with column-II (corresponding insect pests resistant variety) and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-IIa. Flat bean (i) Pusa GauravB. Okra (Bhindi) (ii) Pusa Sem-2c. Brassica (iii) Pusa Sawani(a) a-(ii), B-(i), c-(iii) (b) a-(ii), B-(iii), c-(i)(c) a-(iii), B-(ii), c-(i) (d) a-(i), B-(iii), c-(ii)

78. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show(a) host specificity (b) narrow spectrum applications(c) effects on non-target pathogens(d) utility in IPm programme.

79. match the following list of bioactive substances and their roles and select the correct option from the codes given.

Bioactive Substance Rolea. Statin (i) removal of oil stainsB. cyclosporin a (ii) removal of clots from blood

vesselsc. Streptokinase (iii) Lowering of blood

cholesterolD. Lipase (iv) Immuno-suppressive agent(a) a-(ii), B-(iii), c-(i), D-(iv)(b) a-(iv), B-(ii), c-(i), D-(iii)(c) a-(iv), B-(i), c-(ii), D-(iii)(d) a-(iii), B-(iv), c-(ii), D-(i)

80. Given below is the flowchart of sewage treatment. Identify a, B, c and D and select the correct option.

(a) a-mechanical agitation; B-Increased BOD; c-activated sludge; D-aerobic sludge digesters

(b) a-mechanical agitation; B-reduced BOD; c-activated sludge; D-anaerobic sludge digesters

(c) a-microbial digestion; B-activated sludge; c-reduced BOD; D-anaerobic sludge digesters

(d) a-microbial digestion; B-mechanical agitation; c-reduced BOD; D-aerobic sludge digesters

81. Study carefully the following stages of life cycle of malarial parasite Plasmodium. arrange these stages in the correct sequence and select the correct option.

1. Sporozoites leave the blood stream and enter the liver cells of man.

2. Sporozoites present in the salivary glands of female Anopheles mosquito are injected into the blood stream of man.

3. The parasite reproduces asexually in rBcs, resulting in bursting of rBcs and causing the cycles of fever; released parasites infect new rBcs.

4. The parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells, ultimately causing the rupturing of cells and enters the blood.

5. Two types of gametocytes i.e., microgametocytes and macrogametocytes develop in the rBcs.

6. Female Anopheles mosquito takes up the gametocytes with blood meal of an infected person.

7. mature infective stage of the parasite i.e., sporozoites escape from intestine and migrate to the mosquito’s salivary glands.

8. Fertilisation and developmental stages of the parasite take place in mosquito’s stomach.

(a) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7(b) 2 → 4 → 1 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 7 → 8(c) 1 → 2 → 4 → 3 → 5 → 6 → 8 → 7(d) 6 → 8 → 7 → 4 → 5 → 2 → 3 → 1

82. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their particular type of immunity?

Examples Type of immunity

(a) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and monocytes

cellular barriers

(b) anti-tetanus and anti-snake bite injections

active immunity

(c) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes

Physical barriers

(d) mucous coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital tract and the hcI in stomach

Physiological barriers

83. an inter-breeding population of finches became separated geographically, forming two isolated groups. Each group then became subject to different selective pressures. One group was then introduced into the habitat of the other.Which one of the following would determine whether they now formed two distinct species?

(a) They had been separated for more than three million years.

(b) They failed to produce fertile F1 hybrids.(c) They showed marked differences in the shape of

their beaks. (d) Their plumage had become markedly different.

84. The extinct human who lived 1,00,000 to 40,000 years ago, in Europe and asia, with short stature, heavy eye brows, retreating fore heads, large jaws with heavy teeth, stocky bodies, a lumbering gait and stooped posture was

(a) Homo habilis (b) Neanderthal man(c) cro-magnon man (d) Ramapithecus.

85. In habitual alcohol drinkers, liver gets damaged because of

(a) accumulation of excess glycogen(b) accumulation of excess fat(c) excess detoxification (d) excess deamination.

86. The process of transformation is not affected by which of the following enzymes?

a. DNase B. rNase c. Peptidase D. Lipase(a) a, B (b) a, B, c, D(c) B, c, D (d) a, B, c

87. read the following statements and choose the correct option.

a. Increase in melanised moths after industrialization in Great Britain is a proof for natural selection.

B. When more individuals of a population acquire a mean character value, it is called disruption.

c. changes in allelic frequency in a population will lead to hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

D. Genetic drift changes the existing gene or allelic frequency in future generations.

(a) B alone is correct. (b) D alone is correct.(c) a and D alone are correct. (d) a and c alone are correct.

88. refer the given statements.(i) Incomplete or mosaic inheritance is an example of

pre-mendelian concept of blending inheritance.(ii) Test cross is a special type of back cross.(iii) chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed

in cancer cells.(iv) Thalassaemia is a mendelian disorder.Which of the above statements are correct?(a) (i) and (ii) only (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)(c) (ii) and (iv) only (d) (i) and (iv) only

89. Study the given pedigree chart showing the inheritance of an X-linked trait controlled by gene ‘r’.

A B

C D

P

F1

F2

What will be the genotypes of individuals a, B, c and D respectively?

(a) XX, XrY, XrX, XY (b) XrXr, XY, XX, XY(c) XrX, XrYr, XrXr, XrY (d) XX, XrYr, XX, XY

90. read the following statements and choose the incorrect option.

(a) Phosphate group is linked to 5’-Oh of a nucleoside through phosphoester linkage.

(b) Two nucleosides are linked through 3’ – 5’ N-glycosidic linkage.

(c) Negatively charged DNa is wrapped around positively charged histone hectamer to form nucleosome.

(d) The chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark is called heterochromatin.

91. The following table shows the base ratios for DNa collected from four different animals species a, B, c, D. Which species is likely to contain DNa with an adenine concentration of 21.1%?

Species Cytosine Guanine Thymine

(a) a 31.6 32.4 18.0

(b) B 29.6 29.2 20.1

(c) c 24.8 28.9 25.4

(d) D 32.1 31.9 17.6

92. What proportion of the offsprings obtained from cross aaBBcc × aaBbcc will be completely heterozygous for all the genes segregated independently?

(a) 1/8 (b) 1/4(c) 1/2 (d) 1/16

93. Which of the following is not a vestigial organ in human beings?

(a) rudimentary ear muscles and third molars(b) coccygeal tail vertebrae and scalp muscles(c) Vermiform appendix and nictitating membrane of

the eye(d) Ear pinna, patella, olecranon process

94. Which of the following sequences will be produced as a result of transcription of the DNa sequence cGaTTacaG?

(a) GcUaaUGUc (b) cGUaaUcUG(c) GcTaaTGTc (d) GcUaaTcTG

95. common cold differs from pneumonia in that(a) pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the

common cold is a nutritional deficiency disease(b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live attenuated

bacterial vaccine whereas the common cold has no effective vaccine

(c) pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae

(d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

96. a normal-visioned man whose father was colour blind, marries a woman whose father was also colour blind. They have their first child as a daughter. What are the chances that this child would be colour blind?

(a) 100% (b) zero percent(c) 25% (d) 50%

97. read the following four statements (a-D).(a) The first transgenic buffalo, rosie produced milk

which was human alpha-lactalbumin enriched.(B) restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNa

from other macromolecules.(c) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNa

technology.(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer

of rDNa into the host.

Which of the above statements have mistakes?(a) B and c (b) c and D (c) a and c (d) a and B

98. Which one of the following vectors is used to replace the defective gene in gene therapy?

(a) adenovirus (b) cosmid(c) ri plasmid (d) Ti plasmid

99. maximum species diversity is seen in latitudinal range of

(a) 23.5° N to 66.5° N (b) 23.5° N to 23.5° S(c) 23.5° S to 66.5° N (d) 66.5° N to 90° N.

100. ‘Floc’ is(a) a mesh-like structure formed by the association of

bacteria and fungal filaments in sewage treatment(b) the primary sludge produced in sewage treatment(c) the effluent in primary treatment tank obtained

during sewage treatment(d) a type of biofortified food.

Answer Key1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d)26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (c) 41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (b)56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (d)61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (b) 69. (a) 70. (c) 71. (c) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (b) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (b) 81. (a) 82. (a) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (b)86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (a) 90. (c)91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d)96. (b) 97. (d) 98. (a) 99. (b) 100. (a)

nn

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