csir model paper -iii
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BioTecNika’s Model Test Papers for
CSIR NET Life Sciences
June 2013 Examination
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Model Test Paper - 3
Model Test Paper - 3
PART-A
1. In June a baseball team played 60 games
and won 30% of them. After a phenomenal
winning streak this team raised its average to
50%. How many games must the team have
won in a row to attain this average?
a. 30
b. 24
c. 12
d. 20
e. 26
2. There are 200 questions in a 3 hr
examination. Among these questions are 50
mathematics problems. It is suggested that
twice as much time be spent on each maths
problem as for each other question. How
many minutes should be spent on
mathematics problems?
a. 36
b. 72
c. 60
d. 100
e. 64
3. In a group of 15 students, 7 students have
studied Latin, 8 students have studied Greek,
and 3 have not studied either. How many of
these studied both Latin and Greek
a. 3
b. 5
c. 4
d. 0
e. 2
4. Which letter represents the question mark?
a. L
b. M
c. O
d. R
5. A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr
in still water. If the speed of the stream is 4
km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go
68 km downstream.
a. 2 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 5 hours
6. Present ages of Sameer and Anand are in
the ratio of 5 : 4 respectively. Three years
hence, the ratio of their ages will become 11
: 9 respectively. What is Anand's present age
in years?
a. 24
b. 27
c. 40
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these
7. P can run 100m in 20 seconds and Q in 25
seconds. P beats Q by
a. 10 m
b. 20 m
c. 25 m
d. 12 m
8. A bag contains 11 fruits of which 3 are
spoiled. If 4 fruits are chosen at random, find
the probability that all the fruits are spoiled.
a. 0
b. 1
c. 14/55
d. 4/165
9. The ratio of the circumferences of two circles
is 1/2 : 1/3. Find the ratio of their respective
areas.
a. 3:2
b. 4:9
c. 2:3
d. 9:4
10. You are a builder, who has taken a project
of building a wall against the falling mud hill.
Its height is 100m on one side and 125 on the
other end and width is 80 mts. The square
bricks used have side of 0.5 m. How many
bricks are required to build the wall, if only
one layer of brick is used?
a. 20000
b. 25000
c. 40000
d. 33000
11. The cost of 2 pen and 2 is 50/- , then wats
the cost of 5 pen and 5 pencil ?
a. 100
b. 150
c. 125
d. 75
12. At what rate percent will Rs.400 amount to
Rs.460 in 3 years?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
13. In the afternoon, Berth read 100 pages at the
rate of 60 pages per hour; in the evening,
when she was tired, she read another 100
pages at the rate of 40 pagers per hour.
What was her average rate of reading for the
day?
a. 45
b. 48
c. 50
d. 52
14. Since 1950, when Dev was retired from the
team, he has gained 2 pounds every year. In
1980 he was 40% heavier than in 1950. What
percent of his 1995 weight was his 1980
weight?
a. 80
b. 85
c. 87.5
d. 90
15. What is the greater of two numbers whose
product is 900, if the sum of the two numbers
exceeds their difference by 30?
a. 15
b. 60
c. 75
d. 90
PART-B
1. Nutrient content and biological structures
are considered as
a. implicit factor for microbial growth
b. intrinsic factor for microbial growth
c. processing factor
d. none of the above.
2. Phophatidic acid derivative involved in the
activation of enzymes of blood clotting
mechanism is
a. Phosphatidylcholine
b. Phosphatidylserine
c. Phosphatidyl ethanolamine
d. Phosphoglyceride.
3. The membrane of lysosome is protected
from its enclosing hydrolytic enzymes by
a. High unusual glycosylation of
membrane protein.
b. Addition of unusual glycolipid.
c. The protein in the membrane in the
inner leaflet contain many
hydrophobic amino acids.
d. Inner side of the membrane contain
a layer of mucous which protect
them from degrading enzymes.
4. Aldosterone is synthesized in
a. Zona glomerulosa
b. Zona Fasiculata
c. Zona reticularis
d. Chromaffin cells
5. Diabetogenic effect is seen because of
a. hGH
b. prolactin
c. Serotonin
d. Melatonin
6. In myopia
a. Image is not formed
b. Image is formed in front of the retina
c. Image is formed behind retina
d. Image is formed on the retina
7. This region is characterized by large plant
eating mammals like lions and hyenas and
wildebeests and zebras a. Savanna Region
b. Temperate Grassland
c. Tropical Rain Forest
d. Taiga Region
8. Calculate the number of births per year if the
annual per capita birth rate is 0.034 and the
population size is 500
a. 20 per year
b. 17 per year
c. 16 per year
d. 10 per year
9. In 2009, the United States had a population
of about 307 million people. If there were 14
births and 8 deaths per 1,000 people, what
was the country’s net population growth that
year?
a. 1.74million
b. 1.94 million
c. 1.84million
d. 1.24 million
10. A mutation is introduced in the Lex A gene
such that autocatalytic cleavage of Lex A
protein is prevented. How will the SOS
response in this type of cell be affected?
a. The genome will be repaired with
high fidelity.
b. The cells become more sensitive to
DNA damage.
c. RecA concentration increases,
irrespective of the concentration of
LexA protein.
d. SOS genes will be induced to a high
degree.
11. The antibiotic which acts by interfering with
one or more steps in protein glycosylation is
a. Streptomycin
b. Vancomycin
c. Erythromycin
d. Tunicamycin
12. When histone H1 is incorporated into a
nucleosome
a. the nucleosome is about to be
moved by a remodeling enzyme.
b. it means that replication of the DNA
has just occured.
c. it increases the probability that
condensation of the chromatin will
occur.
d. it means that the underlying DNA is
probably a core promoter.
13. In both C4 and CAM plants, PEP carboxylase
is
a. Inhibited by malate and activated
by glucose-6-phosphate
b. Inhibited by pyruvate and activated
by CO2.
c. Inhibited by CO2 and activated by
pyruvate.
d. Inhibited by Glucose-6-phosphate
and activated by malate.
14. “Agent orange” the leaf defoliator used by
USA in Vietnam war was
a. Ethylene
b. 2,4-D and 2,4,5-T
c. 2,4-D and NAA
d. 2,4,5-T and NAA
15. If stomata are present at upper surface of
leaf, the condition is called or leaf is called
a. Hystomatic
b. Hypostomatic
c. Epistomatic
d. Amphistomatic
16. Human height is an example of
a. Qunalitative trait
b. Pleotropy
c. Continous trait
d. Discontinous trait
17. What is the resultof cross involving a
suppressor mutant form and a normal wild
type palnt.
a.
b. 2 parental and 2 recombinant
c. All are mutants
d. 3 mutant and 1 wild type
e. All wild type
18. In an ordered neurospora crossing, 52
gametes were found to be different from
parental one. What is the recombination
frequency , if total 152 gametes were
studied?
a. 0.34
b. 0.17
c. 0.56
d. 0.89
19. In which period , the Himalayan mountains
formed?
a. Pleistocene epoch
b. Eocene epoch
c. Oligocene epoch
d. Jurassic period
20. Which of the following anatomical region of
brain is involved in animal behavior like
aggression, attack, fight and submission
a. Pitutory gland
b. Hypothalamus
c. Frontal lobe
d. CNS
21. Biological clock in human is controlled by
a. Nucleus Suprachiasmaticus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Central nervous system
d. retina
22. Genotypically XX mice that carry a
transgene for SRY would:
a. develop testes
b. develop ovaries
c. develop both testes and ovaries
d. form testes with primordial follicles in
the tubules
23. If the frog embryos are injected with a
morpholino (molecule used to modify gene
expression) against fibronectin. Which of the
following developmental processes will be
affected:
a. neural tube closure
b. migration of cells during gastrulation
c. the first cell division will be blocked
d. the first nuclear division will be
blocked
24. The placenta is formed from the fetal portion
of?
a. The epiblast
b. The trophoblast and some mesoderm
c. The allantois and yolk sac
d. The endometrium
25. If you were shipping strawberries to a
supermarket thousands of miles away, which
of the following chemicals would you want
to eliminate from the plants environment?
a. cytokinins
b. ethylene
c. auxin
d. gibberellic acids
26. You are part of a desert plant research team
trying to discover crops that will be
productive in arid climates. You discover a
plant that produces a guard cell hormone
under water-deficit conditions. Most likely
the hormone is
a. ABA.
b. GA.
c. IAA.
d. 2, 4-D.
27. In most dicot seeds, which of the following
structures is responsible for the storage of
carbohydrates?
a. Seed coat
b. Cotyledon
c. Radicle
d. Embryo
28. If a restriction endonuclease recognizes the
sequence GATGCT and cuts the DNA after
the first G in the recognition sequence, what
overhang will be present on the ends of the
DNA produced at the cut site?
a. 3 nucleotide long 5' overhangs
b. 4 nucleotide long 5' overhangs
c. 3 nucleotide long 3' overhangs
d. 4 nucleotide long 3' overhangs
29. If a 3300 bp circular plasmid can be cut in
five locations by a restriction endonuclease,
and these locations are at map locations 0,
500, 800, 1900, and 2300, which of the
following fragments is not possible during a
partial digest with this same restriction
endonuclease?
a. 1000 bp
b. 1900 bp
c. 1100 bp
d. 400 bp
30. If the increase the annealing step
temperature in typical PCR reaction,
a. false priming is more likely
b. primer-dimer formation is more likely
c. inefficient amplification is likely
d. poor processivity is likely
31. If a protein has a pI of 5, what charge would
it have in buffer solution of pH 7.6?
a. No charge
b. Net positive charge
c. Cant predict
d. Net negative charge
32. A homo-polymeric protein has got a pI of
3.2. What type of amino acids you can
expect in this protein?
a. Only positively charged a.a
b. Only negatively charged a.a
c. Both in equal numbers
d. Uncharged a.a
33. Nonregular, nonrepetitive secondary
structures
a. Include α-helices and β-sheets
b. Are bends, loops, and turns that do
not have a repeating element
c. Are beta-strands
d. Are Beta-sheets
e. Include beta-sheets
34. Motifs are supersecondary structures. Any
motif can be defined by describing:
a. The first 50 to 100 amino acids in the
primary structure
b. Any secondary structure and the turn
at its C-terminus
c. Any secondary structure and the
loop at its N-terminus
d. Any two secondary structures in the
protein
e. A group of secondary structures and
their relationship to one another
35. In order for H-Ras to be functional, it needs to
associate with the cell membrane. This
process involves which post-translational
modification?
a. Glycosylation
b. Hydroxylation
c. Farnesylation
d. Dephosphorylation
PART-C
1. S-phase cyclins and CDKs begin to
accumulate early in G1 phase but the DNA
replication is seen only in S-phase. The
reason for this is
a. The S-cyclin and CDKs are inhibited
by Sic1, phosphorylation of which
marks the beginning of S-phase.
b. Activation of S-cyclins and CDKs
requires phosphorylation which
occurs during G1-S transition.
c. Dephosphorylation of S-cyclins is
required for G1-S transition.
d. None of the above
2. Nuclear lamina was isolated from blood
sample taken from a patient. The lamina
obtained from each formed element (WBC,
RBC and Platelets) of the blood was run on
gel-electrophoresis. Two bands were only
observed instead of three. Which of the
following conclusion is correct?
a. The absence of third band confirmed
that the patient is suffering from
laminopathy.
b. The absence of third band
concluded that one of the elements
lacked nuclear lamina.
c. Experiment needs to be conducted
again as one was sample did not
have any band.
d. Nothing can be concluded from this
experiment.
3. Match the following
Column A Column B
1. Myopia A. Farsightedness
2. Hypermetropia B. Nearsightedness
3. emmetropia C. Irregular curvature
4. astigmatism D. Normal vision
a. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
b. 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
c. 1-D, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B
d. 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
4. The correct sequence of activation of
clotting factors during intrinsic pathway of
blood clotting is
a. Factor XII, factor X, factor II, factor-XIII
b. Factor X, factor-XII, factor-XIII, factor-
II
c. Factor -II, Factor -X, Factor -XII, Factor
XIII
d. Factor -XIII, Factor II, Factor X, Factor-
XII
5. W. J. Fletcher, of the University of Sydney,
Australia, reasoned that if sea urchins are a
limiting biotic factor in a particular
ecosystem, then more seaweeds should
invade an area from which sea urchins have
been removed. To isolate the effect of sea
urchins from that of a seaweedeating
mollusc, the limpet, he removed only
urchins, only limpets, or both from study
areas adjacent to a control site. Fletcher
observed a large difference in seaweed
growth between areas with and without sea
urchins.What conclusion can be drawn from
the experiment?
a. Removing both limpets and urchins
resulted in the greatest increase in
seaweed cover, indicating that both
species have some influence on
seaweed distribution
b. Sea urchins have a much greater
effect than limpets in limiting
seaweed distribution
c. Both a) and b)
d. Removal of limpets have the same
effect on Seaweed distribution as is
the removal of sea urchins
6. The Glanville fritillary (Melitaea cinxia)
illustrates the movement of individuals
between populations. This butterfly is found
in about 500 meadows across the Åland
Islands of Finland, but its potential habitat in
the islands is much larger, approximately
4,000 suitable patches.Explain the
metapopulation concept using the above
example
a. New populations of the butterfly
regularly appear and existing
populations become extinct,
constantly shifting the locations of
the 500 colonized patches
b. The species persists in a balance of
extinctions and recolonizations.
c. All Granville butterfly are uniformly
distributed in all the habiats so that
they are prevented from getting
extincted
d. Both a) and b)
7. An archaebacterium (Sulfolobus
acidocaldarius) found in acidic hot springs
contains a topoisomerase that catalyzes the
ATP-driven introduction of positive supercoils
into DNA. Most organism genome are
negatively supercoiled. The advantage of
this enzyme to this particular organism can
be due to which of the following reasons?
a. Positive Supercoiling, at high
temperature, eases the unwinding of
DNA for replication.
b. Positive Supercoiling increases the
melting temperature of DNA.
c. Positively Supercoiled DNA is more
compact than negatively
supercoiled DNA of the same length.
d. The topoisomerase that introduces
Positive supercoiling is more stable at
high temperature than
topoisomerase that introduces
negative supercoiling.
8. A thalassemic patient had a mutation
leading to the production of an mRNA for the
β-chain of hemoglobin that was 900
nucleotides longer than the normal one. The
poly A tail of this mutant mRNA was located
a few nucleotide after the only AAUAAA
sequence in the additional sequence. The
most likely reason for this altered mRNA is?
a. A mutation in the first AAUAAA
sequence of mRNA.
b. A mutation in the DNA converting a
amino acid coding codon to a stop
codon.
c. A mutation in the splice acceptor site
of one of the introns in the mRNA.
d. A mutation missense mutation in DNA
sequence, altering an amino acid
encoding codon.
9. Ribosomes were isolated from bacteria
grown in heavy medium (13C and 15N) and
from bacteria grown in light medium (12C
and 14N). These 70 S ribosomes were added
to an in vitro system actively engaged in
protein synthesis. An aliquot removed
several hours later was analyzed by density
gradient centrifugation. How many bands of
70S ribosome would you expect to see in the
density gradient?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
10. Carotenoids are important accessory
pigments involved in exciton transfer to the
reaction center. But they also play an
important role in photoprotective
mechanisms. The photoprotection
mechanism can be thought of as a safety
valve, venting excess energy before it can
damage the organism. How are caroteniods
involved in photoprotection in plants?
a. Carotenoids are involved in
quenching of chlorophyll excited
state, which would otherwise form
singlet oxygen species.
b. Release of excess of energy in the
form of fluorescence
c. Chromoplasts, which are carotenoid
containing plastids, are responsible
for dissipation of excess of energy as
heat.
d. Carotenoids help in exciton transfer
to other accessory pigment
molecules, inhibiting photooxidation.
11. Leaves can regulate the amount of incident
light that can be absorbed by regulating the
orientation and location of chloroplast in the
leaves. Consider the following statements:
A. Under low light, chloroplasts gather at
cell surfaces and align themselves in the
plane of the leaf, perpendicular to the
incident light.
B. Under high light conditions, chloroplasts
gather at cell surfaces and arrange
themselves parallel to the incident light.
C. Chloroplast movement in leaves is a
typical blue-light response.
D. Chloroplasts move along actin
microfilaments in the cytoplasm.
The correct statements are
a. A and B only
b. A, B and C only
c. A, B and D only
d. All the above statements are correct
12. The data is from Mendel’s experiments: Of
the 565 plants raised from F2 round seeded
plants, 372 gave both round and wrinkled
seeds in 3:1 proportion, where as 193 yielded
only round seeds when self fertilized. It was
hypothesized that it does follow mendelism.
Test the hypothesis with (chi)2 test.
a. Hypothesis is accepted
b. Hypothesis is rejected
c. Can’t say
d. Hypothesis can be rejected but not
sure.
13. Mr.Dumdum was experimenting on nucleic
acids. He isolated a nucleotide X in the test
tube and wants to find out its identity. On
addition of NH2OH , he could find formation
of white ppt of Hydroxylamine cytosine ; on
addition of HNO2 , he found it to produce
uracil, which did not showed
Transesterification reaction. Wht he might
have concluded about the compund X?
a. Adenine
b. Uracil
c. Guanine
d. Cytosine
14. In a population frequency of recessive allele
is found to be 0.3 . The fitness of the recessive
homozygotes is 0.4 . What will be the number
of homozygous recessive individuals after
selection, in one generation?
a. 9%
b. 0.09%
c. 0.036%
d. 3.6%
15. It is a very common to find the dogs,
urinating frequently and smelling as they
move along. What may be the reason for
this?
a. In search of mate
b. In search of food
c. Marking its territory and directions
d. Dogs sense the pheramones in urine
and detect the food nearby.
16. In plants, sexual reproduction
I. involve gametes formation and
fertilization
II. occurs through formation of sexual
spores
III. occurs through formation of meiospores
IV. produce genetically identical offspring
a. I and II
b. II, III and IV
c. I, II and III
d. I, II and IV
17. In human during gastrulation, heart
development begins as:
a. a folding process in the mesoderm
below the notochord that is exactly
like neural tube formation.
b. an outgrowth of the endoderm
above the gut that forms a tube that
will become the heart.
c. a pair of tubes in the lateral plate
mesoderm that move together and
fuse to form a single tube that will
become the heart.
d. a mesenchymal condensation below
the notochord that forms the heart
tube.
18. Match the following.
Column A Column B
I. Somaclonal
variation
A. anther culture
II. Haploid culture B. Suspension culture
III. Protoplast
isolation
C. Callus culture
IV. Secondary
metabolite
D. cell wall
degrading enzymes
a. I C, II A, III D, IV B
b. I A, II B, III C, IV D
c. I B, II A, III D, IV C
d. I B, II D, III A, IV C
19. Match the following.
Column
A
Column B
I. RAPD A. detected fragment varies
between individuals
II. AFLP B. personal identification
III. RFLP C. used to analyse the genetic
diversity
IV. VNTR D. quantitative trait locus analysis
a. I C, II D, III A, IV D
b. I D, II C, III A, IV D
c. I B, II A, III D, IV C
d. I B, II D, III A, IV C
20. Which of the following are the characteristics
of type II restriction endonucleases?
I. Nature of enzyme : Bifunctional enzyme
with both endonuclease and methylase
activity
II. Protein structure : Two identical subunits
III. Restriction requirement : ATP, Mg2+
IV. Cleavage sites : At or near restriction site
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I and IV
d. III and IV
21. You are studying a virus called PK15, which
is known to cause skin tumors in mice. The
genome of PK15 is a 3.3 kb, double-
stranded, linear DNA molecule. You are
interested in learning more about PK15, so
you decide to map its DNA using restriction
enzymes. As a first step in your analysis, you
digest PK15 DNA with three enzymes: SspI,
XhoI, and SmaI. You run the digested DNA
on an agarose gel, along with an uncut
sample of the PK15DNA as a control. You
obtain the following pattern of bands. How
many times does SspI and Smai cut the pK15
DNA?
a. 5 and 4 times
b. 4 and 3 times
c. 4 and 5 times
d. 3 and 4 times
22. If aminopterin, a potent inhibitor of
dihydrofolate reductase, is added ao a
culture of growing cells, which major
biosynthetic process will be inhibited first?
a. Carbohydrate synthesis
b. Lipid synthesis
c. DNA synthesis
d. RNA synthesis
23. In the presence of a compound X, protein
synthesis can initiate, but only dipeptides are
formed that remain bound to the ribosome.
Therefore, compound X affects eukaryotic
protein synthesis by blocking
a. The activity of elongation factors
b. The activation of amino acids
c. The recognition of stop signals
d. The formation of peptide bonds
24. Active form of insulin contains
a. Two inter-chain disulphide bonds
b. Two intra-chain and one inter-chain
disulphide bonds
c. One intra-chain and two inter-chain
disulphide bonds
d. Two intra-chain disulphide bonds
25. Which amongst the following is not a
characteristic of gap juctions?
a. They allow small ions and molecules
to migrate from a cell an adjoining
cell
b. They are constituted of a class of
membrane associated proteins
named connexion
c. They are found only in plant cells
d. They are channel like structures
connecting the cytoplasm of
adjoining cells
-- End of Questions –
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Answers
PART-A
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. A
7. B
8. A
9. D
10. C
11. C
12. C
13. B
14. C
15. B
PART-B
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. A
5. A
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. B
11. D
12. C
13. A
14. B
15. C
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. b
20. B
21. A
22. A
23. B
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. B
29. D
30. C
31. d
32. b
33. b
34. e
35. c
Part-C
1. A
2. b
3. a
4. a
5. c
6. d
7. b
8. a
9. d
10. a
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. d
15. c
16. c
17. c
18. a
19. a
20. b
21. b
22. c
23. a
24. c
25. c
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