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Question Booklet Series :– ç'u iqfLrdk fljht %& A

Booklet Code No. :- iqfLrdk dksM la[;k %&

9 3 6 1 2 4 ↑

Candidate must fill the above number correctly, in the OMR Sheet

Time Allowed : 90 Minutes Total No. Questions: 120vuqer le; % 90 feuV~l Code-(SO-FINANCE)S1,P-I ç'uksa dh dqy la[;k : 120Roll No. : OMR Answer Sheet No. : vuqØekad % ________________________ vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk la[;k : _______________________ Name of the Candidate (in capital letters) : _____________________________________________________________ vH;FkÊ dk uke % Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature vH;FkÊ ds gLrk{kj _____________________ d{k fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj _____________________

IMPORTANT:– Read the following instructions carefully. Do not mark answers on the question booklet, otherwise you may be debarred from the selection process. 1. Before commencing to answer, check that the Question Booklet has 120 questions. Each Question Booklet will be

in different series (combination of booklet code no. and series). You must write correct Booklet Code No. and Question Booklet Series on your OMR Answer Sheet. Further check that there is no misprinting, overprinting and/or any other shortcoming in it. If there is any shortcoming in the question booklet, intimate the same to your room invigilator and take a fresh question booklet. No complaint in this regard shall be entertained at any later stage. IMPORTANT NOTE: The OMR Answer Sheet will be evaluated with a combination of question booklet series and booklet code no. hence you must write correct question booklet series and booklet code no. Any mistake in filling any of them will lead to invalidation of your OMR Answer Sheet. Also in case of non filling of question booklet series and booklet code no. the OMR Answer Sheet will not be evaluated and its sole responsibility lies on the candidate.

2. There shall be negative marking. 1/3 mark will be deducted for wrong answer. Each question carries equal mark. Also refer OMR Sheet for detailed instruction.

3. Ask invigilator to sign on your admit card. If the same is not got signed by you, your candidature shall be liable to be rejected.

4. This is an objective type test in which each objective question is followed by four responses serialled (1) to (4). Your task is to choose the correct/best response and mark your response in the OMR Answer Sheet only as per the instructions given and NOT in the Question Booklet.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen for all your work on the OMR Answer Sheet. The ovals on the OMR Answer Sheet are to be completely filled by Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only. ANSWERS ONCE GIVEN CAN NOT BE CHANGED.

6. DO NOT scribble or do rough work or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. DO NOT wrinkle or fold or staple it.

7. Use of Calculators, Slide rules, Mobiles, calculator watches or any such devices and any other study/reference material is NOT allowed inside the examination hall.

8. Rough Work is to be done in the blank space provided in the Question Booklet, not on the OMR Answer Sheet. No other paper will be allowed/provided for rough work.

9. Return the complete Question Booklet and OMR Answer Sheet to the invigilator on completion of the test. Do not take this Question Booklet or any part thereof or OMR Answer Sheet outside the examination room. Doing so is a punishable offence.

10. Take care that you mark only one answer for each question. If more than one answer is given by you for any question, the same will not be evaluated. Cutting/overwriting the answers are not allowed. Further question paper is bilingual (Hindi/English). In case of any variation in Hindi version, English version will be taken as final for evaluation purposes.

fgUnh esa vuqns”k vfUre i`’B ¼Back cover½ ij fn;k x;k gSA

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APTITUDE1. Creation of MUDRA bank was proposed in the recent

budget proposal of the Government of India. MUDRA stands for: (1) Monetary Union Development Repay agency (2) Medium Units Development & Reconstruction Agency (3) Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (4) Multipurpose Undertakings Development Refinance

Agency

1. Hkkjr ljdkj }kjk gky gh esa tkjh fd;s x;s ctV esa MUDRA cSad ds l`tu dk çLrko jD[kk x;kA MUDRA dk rkRi;Z gS%

(1) Monetary Union Development Repay agency (2) Medium Units Development & Reconstruction Agency (3) Micro Units Development Refinance Agency (4) Multipurpose Undertakings Development Refinance

Agency

2. The preamble to our Constitution proclaims that ‘We the people of India have established: (1) A Sovereign, Socialistic, Secular, Democratic, Republic (2) A Sovereign, Democratic, Republic (3) A Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Republic (4) None of the above incorrect

2. gekjh lafo/kku dh vkeq[k ;g o.kZu djrk gS fd ge Hkkjr ds

ukxfjd ,d%

(1) çHkqlÙkk lEié] lkekftd] /keZ fujis{k çtkra= ds x.kra= gSa

(2) ,d çHkqlÙkk lEié] çtkrkaf=d] x.kra= gS

(3) ,d çHkqlÙkk lEié] /keZ fujis{k] çtkrkaf=d] x.kra= gS

(4) mijksä esa dksbZ Hkh lgh ugha gS

3. “To separate the judiciary from the executive” is mentioned in which article of the constitution of India: (1) Article 43 (2) Article 40 (3) Article 50 (4) None of these

3. ßdk;Zikfydk ls U;k;ikfydk dks i`Fkd djukÞ Hkkjrh; lafo/kku ds

fdl vuqPNsn esa of.kZr fd;k x;k gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 43 (2) vuqPNsn 40 (3) vuqPNsn 50 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

4. Which of the following statement is wrong: (1) During a solstice there are unequal days and nights (2) A gulf is a large area of sea partly surrounded by land (3) A harbour is that portion of sea where ships can dock (4) Neap tide is caused by gravitational pull of the moon

and the sun together in the same direction

4. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku xyr gS%

(1) v;ukar ds nkSjku fnu vkSj jkr vleku gksrs gSa

(2) [kkM+h leqæ dk og cM+k {ks= gksrk gS tks vkaf'kd :i ls tehu

}kjk f?kjk gqvk gksrk gS

(3) gkcZj leqæ dk og LFkku gksrk gS tgk¡ leqæh tgkt [kM+s gksrs gSa

(4) y?kq Tokj&HkkVk pUæek vkSj lw;Z ds ,d lkFk ,d fn'kk esa

xq:Rokd"kZ.kh; f[kapko ds dkj.k mRié gksrk gS

5. RTGS in banking sector stands for: (1) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Real Transactions Going Settlement (3) Ready Transfer Gross Settlement (4) Remittance Transfer Gross settlement

5. cSafdax {ks= esa RTGS dk rkRi;Z gS%

(1) Real Time Gross Settlement (2) Real Transactions Going Settlement (3) Ready Transfer Gross Settlement (4) Remittance Transfer Gross settlement

6. The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college comprising of – (1) The members of both Houses of the Parliament (2) The members of both Houses of the Parliament and

the Legislative Assemblies of the States (3) The elected members of both Houses of the

Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States

(4) The elected members of both Houses of the Parliament, the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the elected members of the local bodies

6. Hkkjr ds jk’Vªifr dk fuokZpu ,sls fuokZpdx.k ds lnL; djrs gSa

ftlesa&

(1) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds lnL; gksrs gSa

(2) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds lnL; vkSj jkT;ksa dh fo/kku lHkkvksa ds

lnL; gksrs gSa

(3) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds fuokZfpr lnL; vkSj jkT;ksa dh fo/kku

lHkkvksa ds fuokZfpr lnL; gksrs gSa

(4) laln ds nksuksa lnuksa ds fuokZfpr lnL;] jkT;ksa dh fo/kku

lHkkvksa ds fuokZfpr lnL; vkSj LFkkuh; fudk;ksa ds fuokZfpr

lnL; gksrs gSa

7. Lalbagh garden built by Hyder Ali is situated in: (1) Bangalore (2) Mysore (3) Mangalore (4) Lucknow

7. ykyckx m|ku] ftls gSnjvyh us cuok;k] dgk¡ fLFkr gS%

(1) caxykSj (2) eSlwj (3) eaxykSj (4) y[kuÅ

8. In Haber’s process for manufacture of NH3: (1) Iron is used as catalyst (2) Molybdenum is used as catalyst (3) Nickel is used as a catalyst (4) No catalyst

8. gScj fof/k }kjk NH3 ds fuekZ.k esa mRçsjd dkSu ls ç;ksx djrs gSa%

(1) vkbju dh Nhyu

(2) ekSyhfoMue dh Nhyu

(3) fufdy dh Nhyu

(4) dksbZ mRçsjd ugha

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9. Which article of the constitution of India requires the constitution of a finance commission every five years or earlier: (1) Article 280 (2) Article 250 (3) Article 126 (4) None of these

9. Hkkjrh; lafo/kku dh dkSu&lh vuqPNsn esa çR;sd ik¡p o’kZ ;k mlls

igys foÙk vk;ksx xBu djus dk çko/kku fd;k x;k gS%

(1) vuqPNsn 280 (2) vuqPNsn 250 (3) vuqPNsn 126 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

10. Remote Sensing Satellite Yaogan-23 was launched by? (1) France (2) South Korea (3) Japan (4) China

10. ;kvksxku&23 fjeksV lsfUlax mixzg fdlds }kjk NksM+k x;k% (1) Ýk¡l (2) nf{k.kh dksfj;k (3) tkiku (4) phu

DIRECTIONS: Answer the following questions according to the instructions given.

A$B means A is not smaller than B A#B means A is not greater than B A@B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B A*B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B A%B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B

11. STATEMENT: M@J, J$T, T*N CONCLUSION: I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N

(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and III are true (4) All are true

funsZ”k% fn;s x, funsZ”kksa ds vuqlkj fuEu ç”u dk mÙkj nsaA

A$B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls NksVk ugha gS A#B dk rkRi;Z gS A] B ls cM+k ugha gS A@B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls NksVk vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS A*B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ls NksVk gS A%B dk rkRi;Z gS A] u rks B ls cM+k vkSj u gh B ds cjkcj gS

11. dFku%

M@J, J$T, T*N fu’d’kZ%

I. N#J II. T%M III. M@N (1) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa III lR; gS (4) lHkh lR; gSa

12. STATEMENT: All boys are girls No girl is a father CONCLUSION: I. All girls are boys II. No boy is a father (1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true (3) Only I and II are true (4) None of them is true

12. dFku%

lHkh yM+ds yM+fd;k¡ gSA

dksbZ Hkh yM+dh firk ugha gS

fu’d’kZ%

I. lHkh yM+fd;k¡ yM+ds gSa ii. dksbZ Hkh yM+dk firk ugha gS

(1) dsoy I lR; gS (2) dsoy II lR; gS (3) dsoy I ,oa II lR; gS (4) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh lR; ugha gS

13. Who won Hockey India League–3 ? (1) Delhi Waveriders (2) UP Wizards (3) Punjab Warriors (4) Ranchi Rays

13. Hkkjrh; gkWdh yhx&3 dkSu thrk\ (1) fnYyh osojkbZMlZ (2) ;w-ih- fot+kMZ (3) iatkc okfjjkslZ (4) jk¡ph jst

14. A fighter plane travelling at mach 3 has a speed in miles per hour closest to the figure: (1) 1000 (2) 750 (3) 2250 (4) 1500

14. yM+kdw foeku tks 3&eSd ij mM+ku Hkjrk gS mldh çfr ?kaVs xfr ehy esa yxHkx fdlds cjkcj gksxhA

(1) 1000 (2) 750 (3) 2250 (4) 1500

15. Delhi was made Union territory in: (1) 1950 (2) 1956 (3) 1948 (4) 1962

15. fnYyh dks la?k “kkflr {ks= dc cuk;k x;k%

(1) 1950 (2) 1956 (3) 1948 (4) 1962

16. Which is not a type of writ? (1) Mandamus (2) Habeas corpus (3) Magna Carta (4) Quo warranto

16. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d lekns”k ;kfpdk dk çdkj ugha gS%

(1) eUMel (2) gSfc;l dkiZl (3) eSXuk dkVkZ (4) Doks okjUVks

17. The International Kite festival is one of the most colorful events of which state of India? (1) Bihar (2) Uttar Pradesh (3) Gujarat (4) Rajasthan

17. varjkZ’Vªh; irax egksRlo Hkkjr ds dkSu&ls jkT; dk lokZf/kd jaxkjax

dk;ZØe gS\

(1) fcgkj (2) mRrj izns”k (3) xqtjkr (4) jktLFkku

18. How much would a 70 Kg man weigh on the moon? (1) 14 Kg (2) 114.1 newtons (3) 421.67 Kg (4) 98.4 Newtons

18. 70 fdxzk- Hkkj okys ,d O;fä dk Hkkj pk¡n ij D;k gksxk%

(1) 14 fdxzk- (2) 114.1 U;wVu (3) 421.67 fdxzk- (4) 98.4 U;wVu



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19. Harika Dronavalli relates to which game: (1) Chess (2) Cricket (3) Badminton (4) Table Tennis

19. gkfjdk æks.kkoYyh dk fdl [ksy ls lEcU/k gS%

(1) “krjat (2) fØdsV (3) cSMfeUVu (4) Vscy VSful

20. ‘The Argumentative Indian’ is a book written by (1) Amartya Sen (2) Chetan Bhagat (3) Vikram Seth (4) Arundhati Roy

20. ^n vkWX;wZesaVsfVo bafM;u* iqLrd fdlds }kjk fy[kh xbZ gS\

(1) veR;Z lsu (2) psru Hkxr (3) foØe lsB (4) v#a/kfr jkW;

21. Which of the following rivers divide Aravalli Ranges: (1) Narmada & Tapti (2) Narmada & Sone (3) Narmada & Luni (4) None of these

21. vjkoyh ioZr foLrkj dks dkSu lh unh i`Fkd djrh gS%

(1) ueZnk ,oa rkIrh (2) ueZnk ,oa lksu (3) ueZnk ,oa ywuh (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

22. India recently won gold in world Youth Under-16 Chess Olympiad against: (1) Ukraine (2) Russia (3) Turkey (4) Iran

22. Hkkjr us vHkh gky gh esa fo”o ;wFk vUMj&16 “krjat vksfYEi;kM esa

Lo.kZ fdl ns”k ds fo:) thrk%

(1) ;wØsu (2) :l (3) VdÊ (4) bZjku

DIRECTIONS: Select the most logical choice/choice which satisfies the relationship in the following questions. funsZ”k% ç”u esa fn;s x;s mu fodYiksa dks pqus tks lEcU/kksa dks lUrq’V djrs gSaA

23. Question figure ¼ç”u vkÑfr½ Answer figure ¼mÙkj vkÑfr½

? 23. (1) (2) (3) (4)

24. A water tank is hemispherical below and cylindrical at the top. If the radius is 12 m and capacity is 3312π m3, the height of the cylindrical portion in metres is: (1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) None of these

24. ,d ikuh dh Vadh uhps ls v/kZxksy rFkk “kh’kZ ij csyukdkj gSA ;fn

bldh f=T;k 12 ehVj gS rFkk {kerk 3312π m3 gS rks csyukdkj

Hkkx dh Å¡pkbZ fdrus ehVj gksxh%

(1) 12 (2) 13 (3) 15 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

25. The perimeter of a square whose area is equal to that of a circle with perimeter 2 π x is:

(1) x 4 π (2) π 4 x

(3) 2 π x (4) None of these

25. ,d oxZ dk ifjeki D;k gksxk ftldk {ks=Qy] ,d o`Ùk ftldh ifjf/k

2 π x gS] ds cjkcj gS]

(1) x 4 π (2) π x 4 (3) 2 π x (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

DIRECTIONS: The questions are based on the following information. Out of the total 390 students studying in a college of Arts and Science, boys and girls are in the ratio of 7:6 respectively and the number of students studying Arts and Science are in the ratio of 3:7 respectively. The boys and girls studying Arts are in the ratio of 4:5 respectively. 26. How many boys are studying Science?

(1) 155 (2) 156 (3) 158 (4) None of these

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”u fuEu lwpukvksa ij vk/kkfjr gSaA

dyk ,oa foKku ds ,d dkWyst esa dqy 390 i<+us okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa esa yM+dksa ,oa yM+fd;ksa dk vuqikr Øe”k% 7:6 gS ,oa dyk ,oa foKku i<+us okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh la[;k dk vuqikr Øe”k% 3:7 gSA yM+ds ,oa yM+fd;k¡ tks fd dyk dk v/;;u dj jgs gSa mudk vuqikr Øe”k% 4:5 gSA

26. fdrus yM+ds foKku dk v/;;u dj jgs gSa\

(1) 155 (2) 156 (3) 158 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

27. Total expenses of a boarding house are partly fixed and partly varying linearly with the number of boarders. The average expense per boarder is Rs. 700/- when there are 25 boarders and Rs. 600/- when there are 50 boarder. What is the average expense per boarder when there are 100 boarders? (1) Rs. 560/- (2) Rs. 540/- (3) Rs. 550/- (4) None of these

27. ,d Nk=kokl dk dqy [kpZ va’kr% LFkk;h gS ,oa va’kr% Nk=ksa dh la[;k

ds lkFk jSf[kd :i ls ifjorÊ gSA çfr Nk= vkSlr [kpZ #- 700/- gS tc Nk=ksa dh la[;k 25 gS ,oa #- 600/- gS tc Nk=ksa dh la[;k 50 gSA vkSlr [kpZ çfr Nk= fdruk gksxk tcfd 100 Nk= gSa\ (1) #- 560/- (2) #- 540/- (3) #- 550/- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha



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28. Oxygen was discovered by: (1) Priestly (2) Boyle (3) Cavendish (4) None of these

28. vkWDlhtu dh [kkst fdlus dh%

(1) çhLVys (2) ck;y

(3) dkfoUMl (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

29. In the year 2000 a businessman started his business with ` 25,00,000. He spends ` 50,000 at the end of year 2005 and 2010. His total amount doubles in every five years. His amount in the year 2020 will be: (1) ` 48,50,000 (2) ` 1,30,00,000 (3) ` 3,94,00,000 (4) None of these

29. ,d O;kikjh us lu~ 2000 esa ` 25,00,000 ls ,d O;kikj vkjEHk

fd;kA lu~ 2005 vkSj 2010 ds çR;sd ds vUr esa og ` 50,000 O;; djrk gSA mldh dqy jde çR;sd ik¡p lky ij nksxquh gksrh gSA

lu~ 2020 esa mldh dqy jde gksxh%

(1) ` 48,50,000 (2) ` 1,30,00,000 (3) ` 3,94,00,000 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

30. Rohan lends `10,000 in four parts. If he gets 8%

interest on `2000, %217 on `4000 and %

218 on `1400.

What percent of interest must he get for the remainder if his average annual interest is 8.13%? (1) 8% (2) 9% (3) 10% (4) None of these

30. jksgu `10,000/- dks pkj Hkkxksa esa m/kkj nsrk gSA ;fn mls `2000/-

ij 8%] `4000/- ij %217 ,oa `1400/- ij %

218 C;kt

feyrk gSA rks ckdh ij fdruk çfr”kr C;kt feyuk pkfg, rkfd

mldk okf’kZd vkSlr C;kt nj 8.13% gks\

(1) 8% (2) 9% (3) 10% (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

31. If 4:3b1:a = then, what is ?

a1:b =

(1) 4:3 (2) 3:4 (3) 41:3 (4)

31:4

31. ;fn 4:3b1:a = gS] rks ?

a1:b =

(1) 4:3 (2) 3:4 (3) 41:3 (4)

31:4

32. Among the following numbers

126 , 43 , 54 , 3 , the least one is:

(1) 126 (2) 43 (3) 54 (4) 3

32. fuEufyf[kr la[;kvksa esa ls U;wure la[;k dkSu&lh gS%

126 , 43 , 54 , 3

(1) 126 (2) 43 (3) 54 (4) 3

33. A tyre has two punctures. The first puncture alone would have made the tyre flat in 9 minutes & the second alone would have done it in 6 minutes. If air leaks out at a constant rate, how long does it take in minutes both the punctures together to make it flat.

(1) 533 (2)

213 (3)

211 (4) None of these

33. ,d Vk;j esa nks iaDpj gSaA igyk iaDpj vdsys Vk;j ls gok 9 feuV esa fudky nsrk gS rks nwljk vdsys bls 6 feuV esaaA ;fn gok dk fjlko lrr nj ij gks jgk gS rks nksuksa iDapjks ls ,d lkFk gok

fudyus ij fdrus feuV esa Vk;j lery gksxk%

(1) 533 (2)

213 (3)

211 (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

34. Which of the following in the largest number?

(1) (2) (3) (4) 3/13 5/15 2/12 7/17

34. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh lokZf/kd cM+h la[;k gS\

(1) (2) (3) (4) 3/13 5/15 2/12 7/17

35. In how many different ways the letters of the word 'DIGITAL' can be arranged so that the vowels always come together? (1) 720 (2) 480 (3) 144 (4) 360

35. fdrus fofHké rjhdksa ls 'kCn ^DIGITAL* ds v{kjksa dks O;ofLFkr

fd;k tk ldrk gS rkfd Loj lnSo ,d lkFk vk,\

(1) 720 (2) 480 (3) 144 (4) 360

36. Sunder travels 20 km. to the North, turns left and travels 8 km., and then again turns right, covers another 10 km. and then turns right and travels another 8 km. How far is he from the starting point. (1) 8 km. (2) 40 km. (3) 30 km. (4) 10 km.

36. lqUnj 20 fdeh- mÙkj dh rjQ ;k=k djrk gS ,oa ck¡, eqM+dj 8 fdeh- pyrk gS ,oa iqu% nkfgus eqM+dj 10 fdeh- dh nwjh r; djrk gS ,oa rRi”pkr nkfgus eqM+dj 8 fdeh- dh nwjh r; djrk gSA vkjEHk

fcUnq ls og fdruh nwjh ij gS%

(1) 8 fdeh- (2) 40 fdeh- (3) 30 fdeh- (4) 10 fdeh-

37. Jatin said to Kajal, “That boy playing with the football is the younger of the two brother of the daughter of my father’s wife.” How is the boy playing related to Jatin? (1) Brother-in-law (2) Son (3) Brother (4) None of these

37. tfru us dkty ls dgk fd ßoks yM+dk tks QqVckWy [ksy jgk gS] og

esjs firk dh ifRu dh iq=h ds nks HkkbZvksa esa NksVk gSAÞ [ksyus okys

yM+ds ls tfru dk D;k lEcU/k gS\

(1) lkyk (2) iq= (3) HkkbZ (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha



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38. In a certain code ‘PAISE’ is coded as ‘QBJTF’ and ‘CEASE’ is coded as ‘DFBTF’. How will ‘TRANGLE’ be coded in the same code? (1) USBOIMF (2) USBMHMF (3) USOBIMF (4) USBOHMF

38. fdlh fuf”pr dksM esa ^PAISE* dks ^QBJTF* dksM fd;k tkrk gS ,oa ^CEASE* dks ^DFBTF* dksM fd;k tkrk gSA rks mlh dksM esa ^TRANGLE* dks D;k dksM fd;k tk;sxk\

(1) USBOIMF (2) USBMHMF (3) USOBIMF (4) USBOHMF

39. There are two clocks, both set to show 10 pm on 21st January 2010. One clock gains 2 minutes in an hour and the other clock loses 5 minutes in an hour. then by how many minutes do the two clocks differ at 4pm on 22nd January 2010? (1) 126 minutes (2) 136 minutes (3) 96 minutes (4) 106 minutes

39. nks ?kfM+;k¡ 21 tuojh] 2010 dks 10 PM n”kkZus ds fy;s lsV dh

tkrh gSA ,d ?kM+h ,d ?kaVs esa nks feuV rst pyrh gS ,oa nwljh ?kM+h

,d ?kaVs esa ik¡p feuV /khes pyrh gS] rks 22 tuojh] 2010 dks 4 PM ij nksuksa ?kfM+;ksa esa fdruk vUrj gksxk%

(1) 126 feuV (2) 136 feuV (3) 96 feuV (4) 106 feuV

DIRECTIONS: Each of these questions consists of a pair of words bearing a certain relstionship. From amongst the alternatives, choose the alternative that best illustrates a similar relationship.

40. Triangle : Hexagon (1) Cone : Sphere (2) Rectangle : Octagon (3) Pentagon : Heptagon (4) Angle : Quardilateral

funsZ”k% fuEufyf[kr ç”uksa esa “kCnksa dk ,d tksM+k fn;k x;k gS ftlesa ,d

fuf”pr lEcU/k gSA fn;s fodYiksa esa ls ,sls gh laca/k n”kkZrs gq, tksM+s dks pqusaA

40. f=Hkqt % ‘kVHkqt

(1) “kadq % xksyk

(2) vk;r % v’VHkqt

(3) iapHkqt % lIrHkqt

(4) dks.k % prqHkZqt

41. If water is called food, food is called tree, tree is called sky, sky is called wall, on which of the following grows a fruit? (1) Water (2) Tree (3) Wall (4) Sky

41. ;fn ty dks [kkuk] [kkus dks isM+] isM+ dks vkdk”k ,oa vkdk”k dks

nhokj cqyk;k tkrk gS] rks fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ij Qy iSnk gksxk\

(1) ty (2) isM+ (3) nhokj (4) vkdk”k

42. Select the question mark (?) number from the given responses.

(1) 21 (2) 23 (3) 19 (4) 28

42. fn;s x, fodYiksa esa ls ç”uokpd fpUg ¼\½ la[;k dks pqusaA

(1) 21 (2) 23 (3) 19 (4) 28

43. In a Zoo there are rabbits and pigeons. If their heads are counted, there are 90 while their legs are 224. Find the number of pigeons in the zoo? (1) 50 (2) 68 (3) 60 (4) 65

43. ,d fpfM+;k?kj esa [kjxks”k vkSj dcwrj gSaA ;fn muds fljksa dks fxuk

tk, rks 90 gSa vkSj muds iSjksa dh la[;k 224 gSA fpfM+;k?kj esa dcwrjksa dh la[;k crk,a%

(1) 50 (2) 68 (3) 60 (4) 65

44. Area of a square with side x is equal to the area of a triangle with base x. The altitude of the triangle is:

(1) x/2 (2) x (3) 2x (4) 4x

44. ,d oxZ dk {ks=Qy ftldh Hkqtk x gS ml f=Hkqt dh Hkqtk ds {ks=Qy ds cjkcj gS ftldk vk/kkj x gSA f=Hkqt dh Å¡pkbZ gksxh%

(1) x/2 (2) x (3) 2x (4) 4x

45. The President of India has power to grant pardon under which Article? (1) 172 (2) 74 (3) 72 (4) 92

45. jk’Vªifr dks ltk ekQ djus dh “kfä dkSu&ls vuqPNsn ds v/khu

çkIr gS\

(1) 172 (2) 74 (3) 72 (4) 92



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TECHNICAL APTITUDE46. Which of the following would be included in a cash

budget: (1) Depreciation charges (2) Dividends (3) Goodwill (4) Patent amortization

46. jksdM+ ctV esa fuEukafdr esa ls fdldks lEefyr fd;k tk,xk%

(1) gzkl çHkkj (2) ykHkka”k (3) [;kfr ¼Goodwill½ (4) isVsUV ifj”kks/ku

47. An examination of the sources and uses of funds statement is part of: (1) A forecasting technique (2) A funds flow analysis (3) A ratio analysis (4) Calculations for preparing the balance sheet

47. fuf/k;ksa ds fooj.k ds lzksrksa ,oa ç;ksxksa dh ijh{kk buesa ls fdldk ,d

Hkkx gS%

(1) iwokZuqeku rduhd

(2) fuf/k çokg fo”ys’k.k

(3) vuqikr fo”ys’k.k

(4) vkfFkZd fpðk rS;kj djus ds fy, x.kuk

48. Receiving a required inventory item at the exact time needed: (1) ABC (2) JIT (3) FOB (4) PERT

48. Bhd le; ij jgfr;k ls okafNr oLrq ikus dks dgrs gSa%

(1) ABC (2) JIT(3) FOB (4) PERT

49. EOQ is the order quantity that ............ over our planning horizon: (1) Minimizes total ordering costs (2) Minimizes total carrying costs (3) Minimizes total inventory costs (4) Requires safety stock

49. EOQ og ek=k gS tks@ftlesa ,d ;kstuk ds vuqlkj%

(1) dqy vkMZj nsus dh ykxr dks de djrh gS

(2) dqy Hk.Mkj.k dh ykxr dks de djrh gS

(3) lqj{kk jgfr;k ykxr dks de djrh gS

(4) lqj{kk jgfr;k dh vko”;drk gksrh gS

50. Companies Act, 2013 is divided in to how many chapters: (1) 27 (2) 28 (3) 29 (4) 30

50. daiuh vf/kfu;e] 2013 fdrus v/;k;ksa esa caVk gqvk gS\

(1) 27 (2) 28 (3) 29 (4) 30

51. Maximum Number of member in case of Private Company are 200. However, this does not include: (1) Present Employee Member (2) Past Employee Member (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Either (1) or (2)

51. futh daiuh ds ekeys esa lnL;ksa dh vf/kdre la[;k 200 gS] rFkkfi blesa fuEu “kkfey ugha gS%

(1) ekStwnk deZpkjh lnL;

(2) iwoZ deZpkjh lnL;

(3) nksuksa (1) ,oa (2) (4) ;k rks (1) ;k (2)

52. OPC may have maximum how many directors without passing of special resolution: (1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 15

52. vksihlh dksbZ fo”ks’k çLrko ikfjr fd, fcuk vf/kd ls vf/kd fdrus

funs”kd j[k ldrh gS\

(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 15

53. Return of Allotment of share is filed in which form: (1) PAS-1 (2) PAS-2 (3) PAS-3 (4) PAS-4

53. va”kks ds vkcaVu dh fooj.kh fuEu QkeZ esa nk;j dh tkrh gS%

(1) PAS-1 (2) PAS-2 (3) PAS-3 (4) PAS-4

54. Every Company must hold minimum, except certain specified Companies, how many board meetings: (1) Once in every quarter (2) 4 meetings in a year (3) One meeting in each half year (4) None of the above

54. izR;sd daiuh dks] dfri; fofufnZ’V daifu;ksa dks NksM+dj de ls de

fdruh cksMZ cSBdsa djuh t:jh gS\

(1) izR;sd frekgh esa ,d

(2) ,d o’kZ esa pkj

(3) izR;sd Nekgh esa ,d cSBd

(4) mi;qZDr esa ls dksbZ ugha

55. Schedule V of the act deals with: (1) Code of conduct of Independent Director (2) Appointment and Remuneration of Managerial

Personnel (3) Infrastructure Projects (4) Depreciation

55. vf/kfu;e dh vuqlwph V fuEu ls lacaf/kr gS% (1) Lora= funs”kd dh vkpkj lafgrk

(2) izca/kdh; dkfeZdksa dh fu;qfDr vkSj ikfjJfed

(3) vk/kkfjd ifj;kstuk,a

(4) ewY;gzkl



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56. A term of independent director can not exceed: (1) 5 years (2) 7 years (3) 10 years (4) 12 years

56. Lora= funs”kd dk dk;Zdky fuEu ls c<+dj ugha gks ldrk%

(1) 5 o’kZ (2) 7 o’kZ (3) 10 o’kZ (4) 12 o’kZ

57. DIN No. is valid up to: (1) 1 years (2) 5 years (3) 10 year (4) Life time of the concerned person.

57. DIN la[;k fuEu rd oS/k jgrh gS% (1) 1 o’kZ (2) 5 o’kZ (3) 10 o’kZ (4) lacaf/kr O;fDr dk thoudky

58. What is the quorum in case of Board meeting: (1) 2 directors or 1/3rd of total Strength of Board of

directors whichever is higher. (2) 2 directors or 1/2 of total Strength of Board of directors

whichever is higher. (3) 2 directors or 1/4th of total Strength of Board of

directors whichever is higher. (4) 2 directors or 2/3rd of total Strength of Board of

directors whichever is higher.

58. cksMZ dh cSBd ds fy, x.kiwfrZ D;k gksrh gS\

(1) 2 funs”kd vFkok funs”kd eaMy dh dqy {kerk ds 1/3] buesa ls tks Hkh vf/kd gks




59. During the course of audit of a company, the auditor has found the flagrant violation of accounting principles, evidence not available for material transactions and material concealment about, financial affairs. The auditor’s report should contain: (1) Qualified opinion (2) Adverse opinion (3) Disclaimer of opinion (4) Unqualified opinion

59. vad{k.k ds nkSjku] dEiuh }kjk ys[kk i)fr fl)kUrksa dk ?kksj

vfrØe.k] egRoiw.kZ lkSnksa dk lk{; dk u gksuk] rFkk foÙkh; ekeyksa esa

egRoiw.kZ Nqiko gksus ij] vads{kd }kjk fdl çdkj dh jk; nh tk;sxh%

(1) e;kZfnr jk;

(2) çfrdwy jk;

(3) oafpr jk;

(4) ve;kZfnr jk;

60. VED analysis is used for the following: (1) Ratio Analysis (2) Budgetary Control (3) Inventory Analysis (4) Cash Budgeting

60. VED fo”ys’k.k fuEu esa ls fdlfy, djrs gSa%

(1) vuqikr fo”ys’k.k (2) ctV fu;a=.k

(3) jgfr;k fo”ys’k.k (4) jksdM+ ctVu

61. Standard hours equivalent of work produced expressed as percentage of actual hours spent in producing the work may be defined as: (1) Level of activity Ratio (2) Efficiency ratio (3) Standard capacity usage ratio (4) Actual capacity utilisation ratio

61. dk;Z mRiknu esa yxk;k x;k okLrfod le; dks mRikfnr dk;Z ds

led{k ekud ?kaVs ds çfr”kr ds :i esa çnf”kZr djus dks ifjHkkf’kr

fd;k tk ldrk gS%

(1) fØ;k”khyrk dh Lrj vuqikr

(2) n{krk vuqikr

(3) ekud {kerk miHkksx vuqikr

(4) okLrfod {kerk miHkksx vuqikr

62. A company maintains two cars ie., New and old. Fixed cost of maintaining the new and old cars are respectively Rs 38,000/- and Rs 26,000/- per annum. The running cost per annum for new and old cars are Rs 17,000/- and Rs 32,000/- respectively on 12,000 kms annually. Calculate the nos. of kilometers per annum at which cost of two cars will break even: (1) 25,600 kms (2) 2400 kms (3) 12,000 kms (4) 9600 Kms

62. ,d dEiuh nks dkjsa ubZ ,oa iqjkuh dk j[k&j[kko djrh gSA ubZ ,oa

iqjkuh dkj ds j[k&j[kko dk LFkkbZ [kpZ Øe”k% :- 38,000/- ,oa :- 26,000/- çfro’kZ vkrk gSA 12,000 fd-eh- çfro’kZ ij pyus dh ykxr çfro’kZ ubZ ,oa iqjkuh dkjksa dh Øe”k% :- 17,000/- ,oa :- 32000/- vkrh gSA ml fdyksehVj çfro’kZ dh x.kuk djsa ftl ij

nksuksa dkjsa lerk fcUnq ij gksxh%

(1) 25,600 kms (2) 2400 kms (3) 12,000 kms (4) 9600 Kms

63. Given- Standard fixed overhead rate per unit Rs 1.5, actual production units-22000, budgeted fixed overhead Rs 30,000/-, Actual fixed overhead- Rs 31,000/-, Budgeted production-20000 units. Find Fixed overhead variance : (1) Rs 1000 A (2) Rs 3000 F (3) Rs 2000 F (4) Rs 1500 F

63. fn;k gS& ekud LFkk;h ifjO;; nj çfr bZdkbZ :- 1.5] okLrfod mRikn bZdkbZ;k¡ 22,000] ctVsM LFkk;h ifjO;; :-30,000/-] okLrfod LFkk;h ifjO;; :- 31,000/-, ctVsM mRiknu 20,000 bZdkbZ;k¡]A LFkk;h ifjO;; çlj.k D;k gksxk%

(1) :- 1000 A (2) :- 3000 F (3) :- 2000 F (4) :- 1500 F



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DIRECTIONS: Question Nos. 64 to 68 is based on following information.

Sales (90% in credit) Rs 16,00,000, Opening Debtors Rs 80,000/-, Discount Rs 12,000/-, Bad Debt 27,000, cash & cheque received from debtors 13,24,600/-, cheque dishonoured Rs 7200/- (50% to be realised from that debtor), Closing creditors 1,65,000/-, Purchases Rs 4,80,000/-, (25% in cash), Paid to creditors 3,15,000/-, Goods purchases returned Rs 15,000/-, Cost of Goods Sold to Sales-75%, Closing stock of finished Goods- Rs 1,50,000/- & Opening Stock of finished Goods- Rs 2,50,000/- (Assume 360 Days in a year).

64. Find the amount of closing debtors: (1) Rs. 1,63,600/- (2) Rs. 1,56,400/- (3) Rs. 1,60,000/- (4) Rs. 3,20,000/-

funsZ”k% ç”u la[;k 64 ls 68 fuEu lwpukvksa ij vk/kkfjr gSa

fcØh ¼90% lk[k½ :- 16,00,000/-] çkjfEHkd nsunkj :- 80,000/- NwV :- 12,000/-] v”kks/; _.k :- 27,000/] nsunkjksa ls çkIr udn ,oa psd :- 13,24]600/-] vukn`r psd :- 7,200/- ¼nsunkj ls 50% olwy gqvk½]

vfUre ysunkj :- 1,65,000/-] Ø; :- 4,80,000/- ¼25% udn ij½]

ysunkjksa ds Hkqxrku :- 3,15,000/-, eky Ø; okilh :- 15,000/-, eky fcØh dh ykxr ls fcØh vuqikr 75%] fufeZr oLrqvksa dk vfUre jgfr;k

:- 1,50,000/- ,oa fufeZr oLrqvksa dk çkjfEHkd jgfr;k :- 2,50,000/- ¼360 fnu dk o’kZ ekurs gq,½A

64. vfUre nsunkjksa dks Kkr djsa%

(1) :- 1,63,600/- (2) :- 1,56,400/- (3) :- 1,60,000/- (4) :- 3,20,000/-

65. Find the opening balance of creditors: (1) Rs. 1,15,000/- (2) Rs. 1,50,000/- (3) Rs. 1,20,000/- (4) Rs. 1,35,000/-

65. çkjfEHkd ysunkj Kkr djsa%

(1) :- 1,15,000/- (2) :- 1,50,000/- (3) :- 1,20,000/- (4) :- 1,35,000/-

66. Find the amount of cost of goods sold: (1) Rs. 14,40,000/- (2) Rs. 16,00,000/- (3) Rs. 13,00,000/- (4) Rs. 13,75,000/-

66. fcØh dh xbZ eky dh ykxr Kkr djsa%

(1) :- 14,40,000/- (2) :- 16,00,000/- (3) :- 13,00,000/- (4) :- 13,75,000/-

67. Find the inventory Turnover: (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3

67. jgfr;k VuZvksoj Kkr djsa%

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3

68. Find the Average collection period: (1) 90 days (2) 45 days (3) 60 days (4) 30 days

68. vkSlr olwyh le; Kkr djsa

(1) 90 fnu (2) 45 fnu (3) 60 fnu (4) 30 fnu

69. The variance on account of difference between budgeted and actual quantity of goods sold at standard price is: (1) Sales price variance (2) Sales value variance (3) Sales volume variance (4) Sales overhead variance

69. ekud dher ij csps x, eky dh okLrfod ek=k rFkk ctVu ek=k esa

vUrj ds dkj.k gqbZ çlj.k dks D;k dgrs gSa%

(1) fcØh dher çlj.k (2) fcØh ewY; çlj.k (3) foØ; ifjek.k çlj.k (4) foØ; ifjO;; çlj.k

70. Inventory in a business entity is generally valued on the basis of? (1) Cost (2) Market price (3) Cost or market price whichever is lower (4) None of the above

70. fdlh O;kolkf;d çØe esa bUosUVjh dk ewY;kadu lkekU;r% fdl

vk/kkj ij fd;k tkrk gS\

(1) ykxr ij

(2) cktkj dher ij

(3) ykxr rFkk cktkj ewY; nksuksa esa ls tks de gks

(4) mi;qZä dksbZ ugha

71. A machine is purchased at a cost of Rs. 11,000. The assumed useful life is 9 years and the salvage value is Rs. 2,000. Based on the sum of year digits method, the depreciation for the fifth year would be? (1) Rs. 1,500 (2) Rs. 1,200 (3) Rs. 1,000 (4) Rs. 800

71. ,d e'khu 11,000 #- dh dher ij [kjhnh xbZ gSA dfYir mi;ksxh thou 9 o"kZ gS rFkk fuLrkj.k ewY; 2,000 #- gSA ^le vkWQ b;j

fMftV eSFkM* ds vk/kkj ij ikaposa o"kZ dk ewY; ºkzl fdruk gksxk\

(1) :- 1,500 (2) :- 1,200 (3) :- 1,000 (4) :- 800

72. A cash receipt of Rs 15,100/- from a customer is wrongly posted to his account Rs 5,100/-. What type of error is this: (1) Error of Omission (2) Error of Commission (3) Errors of Principle (4) Compensating error

72. 15,100/- #i, dh ,d udn jlhn dks xzkgd ds [kkrs esa xyrh ls 5,100/- #i, iksLV dj fn;k x;k gSA ;g fdl çdkj dh =qfV gS% (1) foyksiu dh =qfV (2) deh'ku dh =qfV (3) fl)kUr dh =qfV (4) {kfriwjd =qfV



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73. During the course of audit of X Ltd, The management imposes certain very significant restrictions on the scope of audit. What type of opinion in this case is appropriate? (1) Adverse (2) Disclaimer (3) Qualified (4) Unqualified

73. X fyfeVsM dh ys[kkijh{kk ds le; çcU/ku us ys[kk ijh{kk ds ifj{ks= esa dqN vR;Ur egRoiw.kZ çfrcU/k yxk fn, bl ekeys esa fdl çdkj

dh jk; mi;qä gS\

(1) çfrdwy (2) vLohdj.k

(3) e;kZfnr (4) ve;kZfnr

74. When ____ is greater than zero the project should be accepted. (1) Internal rate of return (2) Profitability index (3) Net present value (4) Modified internal rate of return

74. tc ----- “kwU; ls c<+dj gks] ifj;kstuk Lohdkj dj yh tkuh pkfg,%

(1) ykHk dh vkarfjd nj

(2) ykHkdkfjrk lwpdkad

(3) “kq) ekStwnk ewY;

(4) vkarfjd ykHk dh la”kksf/kr nj

75. Amounts due from customers when goods are sold on credit are called ________. (1) Trade balance (2) Trade debits (3) Trade discount (4) Trade off

75. tc eky m/kkj cspk tkrk gS rks xzkgdksa dh rjQ ns; jkf”k ---------

dgykrh gS%

(1) O;kikj “ks’k (2) O;kikj MsfcV (3) O;kikj fMLdkmaV (4) VªsM vkQ

76. If a machinery costs ` 1,25,000, its accumulated depreciation is ` 42,000; depreciation charged for the year is ` 25,000. What will be its Book value at the end of the period? (1) ` 1,00,000 (2) ` 83,000 (3) ` 58,000 (4) ` 1,08,000

76. ;fn fdlh e”khujh dh ykxr ` 1,25,000 gS bldk lafpr ewY;gzkl ` 42,000 gS] o’kZ ds fy, izHkkfjr ewY;gzkl ` 25,000 gSA vof/k ds

ckn bldk fyf[kr ewY; D;k gksxk\

(1) ` 1,00,000 (2) ` 83,000 (3) ` 58,000 (4) ` 1,08,000

77. Liabilities which arise only on the happening of some event, are known as________ (1) Current liabilities (2) Outstanding liabilities (3) Deferred Liabilities (4) Contingent liabilities

77. ,slh ns;rk,a tks dsoy fdlh ?kVuk ds gksus ij iSnk gksrh gS] ---------

dgykrh gS%

(1) pkyw ns;rk,a (2) cdk;k ns;rk,a (3) vkLFkfxr ns;rk,a (4) vkdfLed ns;rk,a

78. XYZ Ltd. has a Debt Equity Ratio of 1.5 as compared to 1.3 Industry average. It means that the firm has: (1) Higher Liquidity (2) Higher Financial Risk (3) Higher Profitability (4) Higher Capital Employed

78. XYZ fyfeVsM dk 1.3 m|ksx vkSlr ds eqdkcys 1.5 dk _.k bfDoVh

vuqikr gSA bldk vFkZ ;g gS fd daiuh dh%

(1) mPprj udnh gS

(2) mPprj foRrh; tksf[ke gS

(3) mPprj ykHkdkfjrk gS

(4) yxkbZ xbZ mPprj iwath

79. The merger of subsidiary company into its parent company is called: (1) De facto merger (2) Up stream merger (3) Down stream merger (4) Reverse merger

79. fdlh lgk;d daiuh dk mldh ewy daiuh esa foy;u dgykrk gS%

(1) oLrqr% foy;u

(2) /kkjk&izfrdwy foy;u

(3) vuqizokg foy;u

(4) izfrxkeh foy;u

80. Inter Segment Transfer are accounted at: (1) Competitive Market Price (2) Market price excluding Overheads (3) Prime Cost (4) Cost price including Overhead

80. vUr%[kaM ¼baVj lsXesaV½ vUrj.k fuEu ij ys[kkafdr fd, tkrs gSa%

(1) çfr;ksxh cktkj ewY;

(2) ifjO;; lfgr cktkj ewY;

(3) ewy ykxr

(4) ifjO;; lfgr Ø; ewY;

81. Which of the following is not considered a permanent difference? (1) Interest received on municipal bonds. (2) Fines resulting from violating the law. (3) Premiums paid for life insurance on a company’s CEO

when the company is the beneficiary. (4) Stock-based compensation expense

81. fuEu esa ls fdls ,d LFkk;h vUrj ugha ekuk tkrk \

(1) E;wfufliy cU/k i=ksa ij çkIr C;kt

(2) dkuwu dk mYya?ku djus ij tqekZus

(3) dEiuh ds CEO ds ches ij çnÙk çhfe;e tcfd dEiuh

ykHkxzkgh gks

(4) LVkWd vk/kkfjr çfriwfrZ O;;



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DIRECTIONS: (Question No. 82 to 85) are based on following information.

Working capital Rs. 1,20,000/-, Reserve & surplusRs. 80,000/-, Bank Overdraft Rs. 20,000/-, Fixed assets proprietory ratio 0.75, Current ratio 2.5, liquid ratio 1.5

82. Value of liquid assets: (1) Rs. 1,20,000/- (2) Rs. 80,000/- (3) Rs. 2,00,000/- (4) None of these

funsZ”k% ¼ç”u la[;k 85 ls 85½ fuEu lwpukvksa ij vk/kkfjr gSA

dk;Z”khy iw¡th :- 1,20,000/-, lafpfr ,oa vkf/kD; :- 80,000/-, cSad vksojMªk¶V :- 20,000/-, LFkkbZ lEifÙk çksikbZVjh vuqikr 0.75] pkyw vuqikr 2.5] rjyrk vuqikr 1.5 rc%

82. rjy lEifÙk;ksa dk ewY; gksxk%

(1) Rs. 1,20,000/- (2) Rs. 80,000/- (3) Rs. 2,00,000/- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

83. Value of fixed assets : (1) Rs. 3,60,000/- (2) Rs. 4,80,000/- (3) Rs. 4,00,000/- (4) None of these

83. LFkkbZ lEifÙk;ksa dk ewY; gksxk%

(1) Rs. 3,60,000/- (2) Rs. 4,80,000/- (3) Rs. 4,00,000/- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

84. Value of capital: (1) Rs. 3,60,000/- (2) Rs. 4,80,000/- (3) Rs. 4,00,000/- (4) None of these

84. iw¡th dk ewY; gksxk%

(1) Rs. 3,60,000/- (2) Rs. 4,80,000/- (3) Rs. 4,00,000/- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

85. Value of stock: (1) Rs. 80,000/- (2) Rs. 1,20,000/- (3) Rs. 2,00,000/- (4) None of these

85. jgfr;k dk ewY; gksxk%

(1) Rs. 80,000/- (2) Rs. 1,20,000/- (3) Rs. 2,00,000/- (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

86. Dividend Payout Ratio is: (1) PAT Capital (2) DPS ÷ EPS (3) Pref. Dividend ÷ PAT (4) Pref. Dividend ÷ Equity Dividend

86. ykHkka”k Hkqxrku vuqikr gS%

(1) PAT iwath (2) DPS ÷ EPS (3) vf/kekuh ykHkka”k ÷ djksijkar ykHk (4) vf/kekuh ykHkka”k ÷ lerk ykHkka”k

87. A Ltd. and B Ltd. go into liquidation and a new company X ltd is formed. It is a case of: (1) Absorption (2) External Reconstruction (3) Amalgamation (4) Internal Reconstruction

87. A fyfeVsM rFkk B fyfeVsM ifjlekiu esa tkrs gSa vkSj X fyfeVsM ,d ubZ dEiuh cukbZ tkrh gSA ;g fuEu dk ekeyk gS%

(1) foy;u (2) ckº; iquZjpuk (3) lekesyu (4) vkUrfjd iquZjpuk

88. Holding company share in revenue profit of subsidiary is adjusted in: (1) Cost of control (2) Profit and loss account (3) Shown on asset side of Balance Sheet (4) None of these

88. lgk;d dEiuh ds jktLo ykHk esa fu;a=d dEiuh dk fgLlk fuEu esa

lek;ksftr fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) fu;a=.k dh ykxr

(2) ykHk vkSj gkfu [kkrk

(3) mls vkfFkZd fpës ds ifjlEifÙk i{k ij n”kkZ;k tkrk gS

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

89. TIN stands for: (1) Tax Payment Identification Number (2) Tax Payer’s Identification Number (3) Tax Process Identification Number (4) Tax Payee’s Identification Number

89. TIN dk foLrkfjr :i gS%

(1) Tax Payment Identification Number (2) Tax Payer’s Identification Number (3) Tax Process Identification Number (4) Tax Payee’s Identification Number

90. Material usage Variance is the difference between standard quantity and actual quantity multiplied by: (1) Cost price (2) Marginal price (3) Standard Price (4) Discounted price

90. lkexzh iz;ksx izlj.k] ekud ek=k vkSj okLrfod ek=k ds chp ds

varj dks fuEu ls xq.kk djds izkIr gksrk gs%

(1) ykxr ewY; (2) lhekar ewY; (3) ekud ewY; (4) cV~Vkxr ewY;

91. As per Schedule VI to the Companies Act, 1956, "Calls Unpaid" on the share capital should appear: (1) On the debit side of the "Profit & Loss Account" (2) On the assets side of the Balance Sheet as "Current

Assets" (3) As a "Note to Accounts" (4) None of the above

91. dEiuh vf/kfu;e 1956 dh vuqlwph VI ds vuqlkj va'k iwath ij

ßHkqxrku u dh xbZ dkysaÞ n'kkZ;h tkuh pkfg,

(1) ßykHk vkSj gkfu [kkrsÞ ds ukes lkbM dh vksj (2) ßpkyw ifjlEifÙk;ksaÞ ds :i esa vkfFkZd fpðs esa ifjlEifÙk;ksa dh vksj

(3) ßuksV Vq ,dkmUVlÞ ds :i esa (4) mi;qZä esa ls dksbZ ugha



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92. The rule of indoor management was first laid down by: (1) Royal British bank vs Turquand (2) Al underworld vs Bank of Liverpool (3) B. Anand Behari Lal vs Dinshaw & Co. (bankers) Ltd. (4) Solomon vs Solomon & Co Limited

92. vkUrfjd çcU/ku dk fu;e igyh ckj fdlds }kjk j[kk x;k%

(1) jkW;y fczfV'k cSad cuke rqjdkSUM

(2) vy vUMjoYMZ cuke cSad vkWQ yhojiwy

(3) ch- vkuUn fcgkjh yky cuke fnu'kk ,.M dEiuh ¼cSadlZ½ fyfeVsM

(4) lksykseku cuke lksykseku ,.M dEiuh fyfeVsM

93. Charging of capital expenditure to profit and loss account results in: (1) Capital Reserve (2) Revenue Reserve (3) Secret Reserve (4) None of these

93. iwathxr O;; dks ykHk o gkfu ys[ks esa çHkkfjr ¼pktZ½ djus ds ifj.kke

Lo:i gksrk gS%

(1) iawth lap; (2) vk;xr lap;

(3) xqIr lap; (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

94. Accounting standard 9 is related with (1) Amalgamation (2) Revenue Recognition (3) Fixed assets (4) Depreciation

94. ys[kkadu ekud 9 fuEu ls lacaf/kr gS% (1) lekeysu (2) vk;xr ekU;rk

(3) fLFkj ifjlaifRr;ka (4) ewY;gzkl

95. If sales are Rs. 2,00,000, fixed cost Rs. 30,000 and P/V ratio 40%, the amount of profit will be: (1) Rs. 50,000 (2) Rs. 60,000 (3) Rs. 72,000 (4) Rs. 75,000

95. ;fn fcØh #i, 2,00,000] LFkk;h ykxr #i, 30,000 ,oa ih-@oh- vuqikr 40% gS] rks ykHk dh jkf'k gksxh%

(1) #- 50,000 (2) #- 60,000 (3) #- 72,000 (4) #- 75,000

96. If fixed cost is Rs. 10,000 and P/V ratio is 50%, the break even point will be: (1) Rs. 20,000 (2) Rs. 40,000 (3) Rs. 50,000 (4) Rs. 70,000

96. ;fn LFkk;h ykxr #i, 10,000 gS ,oa ih-@oh- vuqikr 50% gS rks

lerk fcUnq ¼czsd bosu Iokb±V½ gksxk%

(1) #- 20,000 (2) #- 40,000 (3) #- 50,000 (4) #- 70,000

97. In financial management, operating leverage is the leverage associated with: (1) Fixed costs (2) Operating costs (3) Total costs (4) Total assets

97. foÙkh; çcU/ku esa çpkyu mÙkksyu og mÙkksyu gS ftldk lEcU/k gksrk

gS%

(1) LFkk;h ykxr ls (2) çpkyu ykxr ls (3) dqy ykxr ls (4) dqy lEifÙk;ksa ls

98. In case the call’s market price is the same as its exercise price, it would be called: (1) In-the-Money (2) At-the-money (3) Out-of-the-money (4) None of these

98. ,slh n'kk esa tgk¡ dky ekfdZV dher ogh gksrh gSa tSls fd vH;kl

dher rks ;g dgh tk,axh%

(1) bu&n&euh (2) ,V&n&euh (3) vkmV&vkWQ&n&euh (4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha

99. The credit control function is performed by: (1) State Bank of India (2) Reserve bank Of India (3) Central government (4) SEBI

99. lk[k fu;a=.k dk dk;Z fu"iknu dkSu djrk gS%

(1) LVsV cSad vkWQ bafM;k (2) fjtoZ cSad vkWQ bafM;k

(3) dsUæh; ljdkj (4) lsch

100. An exception to the doctrine of constructive notice is a: (1) Doctrine of ultra vires (2) Doctrine of indoor management (3) Lifting the corporate veil (4) None of these

100. daLVªhfDVo uksfVl ds fl)kUr dk viokn gS%

(1) “kfä&oká dk fl)kUr

(2) Hkhrjh çcU/ku dk fl)kUr

(3) fuxfer vkoj.k mBkuk


101. Calls in arrears is shown in the balance sheet on the liability side: (1) Under the head Reserves and surplus (2) By deducting the amount from the capital reserve (3) By deducting the amount from the share forfeited A/c (4) By deducting the amount from called up capital

101. “ks;jksa ij ^cdk;k ek¡x* dks vkfFkZd fpës ds ^ns;rk;sa* i{k esa fn[kk;k

tkrk gS%

(1) lafpfrvksa ,oa fuf/kvksa ds en esa

(2) iw¡thxr lafpfr ls ?kVkdj

(3) “ks;j viâr [kkrs ls ?kVkdj

(4) ek¡xh x;h iw¡th ls ?kVkdj

102. The owners equity and the total liabilities of a firm is Rs. 10,000 and Rs. 15,000 respectively. The value of the total asset of the firm is: (1) Rs. 15,000 (2) Rs. 20,000 (3) Rs. 25,000 (4) Rs. 30,000

102. fdlh QeZ ds ekfyd dh bZfDoVh vkSj dqy ns;rk,a Øe'k% 10,000 ,oa 15,000 #- gSaA QeZ dh dqy ifjlaifÙk;ksa dk ewY; gS%

(1) :- 15,000 (2) :- 20,000 (3) :- 25,000 (4) :- 30,000



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103. The balance of share forfeiture account, after the re-issue of forfeited shares, is transferred to: (1) Capital redemption reserve A/c (2) Capital reserve (3) General reserve (4) Profit and Loss A/c

103. viâr “ks;j ds iquZfuxZeu ds ckn] “ks;j vigj.k [kkrs ds “ks’k dks

gLrkarfjr fd;k tkrk gS%

(1) iw¡th Hkqxrku lafpfr [kkrs esa

(2) iw¡thxr lafpfr [kkrs esa

(3) lkekU; lafpfr [kkrs esa

(4) ykHk gkfu [kkrs esa

104. Assets of a business = Rs. 20,000: Liabilities = Rs. 3,600 What is the owner’s equity ? (1) Rs. 23,600 (2) Rs. 16,400 (3) Rs. 20,000 (4) Rs. 3,600

104. O;kikj dh lEifÙk;k¡ = #- 20,000] nkf;Ro = #- 3,600 rks LokfeRo dh iw¡th gksxh\

(1) #- 23,600 (2) #- 16,400 (3) #- 20,000 (4) #- 3,600

105. Cost of good sold = Rs. 2,00,000: Gross loss = Rs. 25% of sales What is the amount of sales ? (1) 2,00,000 (2) 1,60,000 (3) 2,40,000 (4) 2,50,000

105. foØ; fd, x, eky dh ykxr = #- 2,00,000] ldy gkfu = fcØh dk 25%

rks fcØh dh jkf'k D;k gksxh%

(1) #- 2,00,000 (2) #- 1,60,000 (3) #- 2,40,000 (4) #- 2,50,000

106. Qualitative characteristics are the attributes that make the information provided in the financial statements useful to the users. The conceptual framework does not consider ... as a principal qualitative characteristic: (1) Relevance (2) Reliability (3) Comparability (4) Materiality

106. xq.kkRed fof'k"Vrk,a gh os lgt xq.k gSa tks ç;ksxdrkZ dks foÙkh; fooj.kksa esa miyC/k djkbZ xbZ lwpuk dks mi;ksxh cukrs gSaA çeq[k

xq.kkRed fof'k"Vrk ds :i esa oSpkfjd <kapk ---- ij fopkj ugha

djrk gS%

(1) çklafxdrk (2) fo'oluh;rk (3) rqyukRedrk (4) egRoiw.kZrk

107. If it lacks, it may disturb the comparability quality of financial statement information: (1) Materiality (2) Consistency (3) Relevance (4) None of the above

107. buesa ls fdldh deh gksus ij foÙkh; fooj.k lwpuk dh rqyukRed xq.koÙkk {kqC/k gks ldrh gS%

(1) egRoiw.kZrk (2) lqlaxfr (3) çklafxdrk (4) mijksä esa ls dksbZ ugha

108. The conceptual framework has considered all the four important measurement bases generally used in the preparation of financial statements. One of the following is not a measurement base: (1) Historical Cost (2) Current Cost (3) Realisable Value (4) Standard Cost

108. oSpkfjd <kaps us lHkh pkj egRoiw.kZ ekiu vk/kkjksa ij fopkj fd;k gS

tks lkekU;r% foÙkh; fooj.kksa ds rS;kj djus esa ç;ksx fd, tkrs gSaA

fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d ekiu vk/kkj ugha gS%

(1) ,sfrgkfld ewY; (2) orZeku ewY; (3) mxkgus ;ksX; ewY; (4) ekud ewY;

109. expenses operating cash daily Average

Securities Marketable+Cash

The above ratio suggest what? (1) Interval measure (2) Profitability measure (3) Inadequacy of cash (4) Surplus of cash

109. ; O; çpkyuk jkf' udn nSfudvkSlr

k¡ çfrHkwfr; ;¨X; foi.ku$ k jkf'udn

mijksä vuqikr D;k lq>ko nsrk gS%

(1) e/;kUrj eki

(2) ykHknk;drk eki

(3) vi;kZIr udn jkf'k

(4) udn jkf'k dk vkf/kD;

110. Market beta is calculated to judge the company’s position with reference to: (1) Average market investments (2) Average market return (3) Predetermined Rate of Return (4) None of these

110. fuEukafdr esa ls fdlds lanHkZ esa dEiuh dh fLFkfr dk vkdyu djus

ds fy, cktkj chVk dh x.kuk dh tkrh gSA

(1) vkSlr cktkj fuos'k

(2) vkSlr cktkj vk;

(3) vk; dh iwoZfu/kkZfjr nj


111. The cost auditor submits its report to: (1) Shareholders (2) Central Government with copy to company (3) Board of Directors (4) Company Law Board

111. ykxr ys[kk ijh{kd viuh fjiksVZ çLrqr djrk gS%

(1) va'k/kkjdksa dks

(2) dsUæ ljdkj dks lkFk esa ,d çfr dEiuh dks

(3) funs'kd eaMy dks

(4) dEiuh fof/k cksMZ dks



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112. Which of the following functions should not be responsibility of finance manager? (1) Negotiating loan with banks (2) Analysis of new projects (3) Ensuring that enough cash is available at all branches

and factories of the companies (4) Maintaining of books of accounts

112. fuEukafdr esa ls dkSu&lk dk;Z djuk foÙk çcU/kd dk mÙkjnkf;Ro ugha gksuk pkfg,%

(1) _.k ds ckjs esa cSad ls eksyHkko djuk

(2) ubZ ifj;kstukvksa dk fo'ys"k.k djuk

(3) ;g lqfuf'pr djuk fd dEiuh dh QSfDVª;ksa vkSj lHkh 'kk[kkvksa

esa i;kZIr jksdM+ miyC/k gS

(4) ys[kk cfg;ksa dk j[k&j[kko

113. For which policy, the budget is a major instrument? (1) Fiscal policy (2) Monetary policy (3) Economic policy (4) Export policy

113. fuEukafdr esa ls fdl uhfr ds fy, ctV ,d çeq[k çi= gS% (1) jktdks"kh; uhfr

(2) ekSfæd uhfr

(3) vkfFkZd uhfr

(4) fu;kZr uhfr

114. The conservatism concept in accounting is that the firm values its securities at: (1) Cost price (2) Market price (3) Lower of either cost price or market price (4) Higher of either cost price or market price

114. ys[kksa esa dUtZosVhTe vo/kkj.kk gksrk gS fd QeZ viuh çfrHkwfr;ksa dk

ewY;kadu djrs gSa%

(1) ykxr ewY; ij (2) ckt+kj ewY; ij

(3) ykxr ewY; ;k ckt+kj ewY; nksuksa esa ls tks de gks (4) ykxr ewY; ;k ckt+kj ewY; nksuksa esa ls tks vf/kd gks

115. Which among the following is not fundamental accounting assumptions: (1) Going concern (2) Consistency (3) Materiality (4) Accrual

115. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d ekSfyd ys[kk ekU;rk ugha gS% (1) xksb±x dUluZ

(2) dkWufllVsalh

(3) eSVsfj;fyVh

(4) ,Øwvy

116. Casual vacancy in the office of auditor caused by resignation can be filled by: (1) Board of directors (2) In Annual General Meeting (3) Company Law Board (4) Any of these

116. vads{kd ds dk;kZy; esa R;kx&i= fn;s tkus ds dkj.k gq;h vkdf"ed

fjfä dks fdlds }kjk Hkjk tk ldrk gS%

(1) lapkyd eaMy

(2) okf"kZd lk/kkj.k lHkk

(3) dEiuh ykW cksMZ

(4) buesa ls dksbZ Hkh

117. Retained earnings for the "base year" equals 100 percent. You must be looking at: (1) A common-size balance sheet (2) A common-size income statement (3) An indexed balance sheet (4) An indexed income statement

117. vk/kkj o’kZ ij jf{kr vk; ¼fjVsUM vfuZ ax½ cjkcj gS 100 çfr”krA

vki voyksdu dj jgs gSa ,d%

(1) lk/kkj.k vkdkj dk vkfFkZd fpðk

(2) lk/kkj.k vkdkj dk vk; fooj.k

(3) ,d lwpdkafdr vkfFkZd fpðk

(4) ,d lwpdkafdr vk; fooj.k

118. Profit on sale of machinery is represented under the head of: (1) Operating revenue (2) Non-operating revenue (3) Gross profit (4) Net profit

118. e'khujh dh fcØh ij ykHk fdl 'kh"kZd ds vUrxZr n'kkZ;k tkrk gS%

(1) çpkyu vk;

(2) xSj&çpkyu vk;

(3) ldy ykHk

(4) 'kq) ykHk

119. Find the odd one out amongst exchanges: (1) NSE (2) NCDEX (3) MCX (4) NMCE

119. ,DlpsUtksa esa fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu&lk ,d fo"ke gS%

(1) NSE (2) NCDEX (3) MCX (4) NMCE

120. The term “T+ 2 rolling settlement” is used in: (1) Cargo management (2) Stock Exchanges (3) Warehousing management (4) Transport management

120. in ßT+2 jksfyax lsVyesUVÞ ç;qä gksrk gS%

(1) dkxksZ çcU/ku

(2) LVkWd ,Dlpsat

(3) os;jgkmflax çcU/ku

(4) ;krk;kr çcU/ku



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egRoiw.kZ% fuEufyf[kr funsZ'k /;kuiwoZd i<+saA vius ç”uksa ds mÙkj ç”u&iqfLrdk esa u yxk,a vU;Fkk p;u çfØ;k ls vkidh ik=rk oafpr dj nh tk;sxhA

1. viuk mÙkj fy[kuk çkjEHk djus ls igys viuh ç'u iqfLrdk dh Hkyh&Hkk¡fr tk¡p dj ysa] ns[k ysa fd blesa 120 ç'u gSaA çR;sd ç'u iqfLrdk dh fljht fHké gksxh ¼ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht dk la;kstu½A vkidks OMR mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç'u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k

fy[kuk gSA iqu% ;g Hkh ij[k ysa fd blesa fçafVax laca/kh vFkok vU; fdLe dh dksbZ deh ugha gSA ;fn fdlh çdkj dh dksbZ deh gks rks i;Zos{kd dks lwfpr djsa

vkSj ç”u&iqfLrdk cnydj ,d u;h iqfLrdk ysaA bl lanHkZ esa fdlh Hkh çdkj dh dksbZ f'kdk;r ij ckn esa dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA

egRoiw.kZ uksV% vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk vH;FkÊ ds ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ds la;kstu ls ewY;kafdr dh tk;sxhA vr% vkidks vks-,e-vkj-

mÙkj if=dk ij lgh ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k fy[kuk pkfg,A buesa ls fdlh ,d esa Hkh xyrh gksus ij vkidh vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk

fujLr gks ldrh gSA vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk esa ç”u&iqfLrdk dksM la[;k ,oa ç”u&iqfLrdk fljht ugha Hkjus ij vH;FkÊ ds mÙkj if=dk dk ewY;kadu ugha fd;k

tk;sxk ftldh ftEesnkjh Lor% vH;FkÊ dh gksxhA

2. xyr mÙkj ds fy, 1/3 _.kkRed vadu gksxkA çR;sd ç”u ds vad leku gSaA foLr`r tkudkjh ds fy, mÙkj i=d dk voyksdu djsaA 3. d{k&fujh{kd ls vius ços”k&i= ij gLrk{kj vo”; djok,aA ;fn vkius gLrk{kj ugha djok;k rks vkidh ik=rk jí dj nh tk,xhA

4. ;g ,d oLrqijd fdLe dh ijh{kk gS ftlesa çR;sd ç'u ds uhps Øekad (1) ls (4) rd pkj çLrkfor mÙkj fn;s gSaA vkids fopkj esa tks Hkh mÙkj lgh@loZJs"B gS mldks

vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i= esa fn;s funsZ'k ds vuqlkj fpfUgr dhft,A vius mÙkj ç'u iqfLrdk esa u yxk,A 5. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij lHkh dk;ks± ds fy, uhys@dkys ckWy Iokb±V isu ls fy[ksaA vks-,e-vkj mÙkj if=dk ij vksoy dks iw.kZ :i ls dsoy uhys@dkys ckWy

Iokb±V isu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj fn, x, mÙkj dks cnyk ugha tk ldrkA 6. mÙkj&i= ij u rks jQ+ dk;Z djsa u gh vkSj fdlh çdkj dk fu'kku vkfn yxk,a ;k bls eksaM+sA 7. dsYdqysVj] LykbM:y] eksckbZy] dsYdqysVj ?kfM+;k¡ ;k bl çdkj dh dksbZ Hkh ;qfä ,oa fdlh Hkh v/;;u@lanHkZ lkexzh vkfn dk ç;ksx ijh{kk d{k esa oftZr gSA 8. jQ+ dk;Z iqfLrdk esa fdlh Hkh [kkyh LFkku esa fd;k tkuk pkfg,] vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj if=dk ij dksbZ Hkh jQ+ dk;Z u djsaA fdlh vU; dkx+t ij bls djus dh

vuqefr ugha gSA 9. ijh{kk dh lekfIr ds i'pkr~ viuh iwjh ç'u&iqfLrdk rFkk mÙkj&if=dk i;Zos{kd dks okil dj nsaA ç'u iqfLrdk ;k blds fdlh Hkkx vFkok OMR mÙkj if=dk

dks ijh{kk d{k ls ckgj ys tkuk oftZr gS ,slk djuk nUMuh; vijk/k gSA 10. gj ,d ç'u ds fy, dsoy ,d gh mÙkj bafxr djsaA ,d ls vf/kd mÙkj nsus ij ç'u dk dksbZ vad ugha fn;k tk,xkA mÙkj esa dksbZ Hkh dfVax ;k vksojjkbZfVax

ekU; ugha gksxhA iqu% ç'u i= f}Hkk"kh; ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ esa gSA fgUnh laLdj.k esa fdlh Hkh fHkérk gksus ij ewY;kadu ds fy, vaxzsth laLdj.k dks vfUre ekuk

tk;sxkA dPps dk;Z ds fy,

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