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English for chemistry students 510 multiple choice questions UNIT 1 : PERIODIC TABLE Questio n 1 C Who was the scientist who arranged the elements according to groups of three? A John Dalton B Dmitri Inovich Mendeleev C Johann Wolfgang Dobereneir D John Alexander Newlands Questio n 2 B The number of protons in an atom represents the A ionization energy B atomic number C Electron egativity D atomic mass Questio n 3 A Which of the following decreases across a period on the periodic table A Atomic radius B Ionization energy C Electron affinity D electronegativity Questio n 4 A Which of the following statements is correct? A Atoms become smaller as one moves down a group B Atoms become smaller as one moves to the right across a period C Atoms become larger when electrons are removed D The size of an atom is not a factor in arranging the elements in the periodic table Questio n 5 A Who was the scientist who arranged the elements in horizontal rows according to increasing atomic masses A John Dalton B Dmitri Inovich Mendeleev C Johann Wolfgang Dobereneir Designed by Master Nguyen Dinh Vinh Faculty of chemistry, College of Science

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English for chemistry students 510 multiple choice questions

UNIT 1 : PERIODIC TABLEQuestion 1 C

Who was the scientist who arranged the elements according to groups of three?

A John DaltonB Dmitri Inovich MendeleevC Johann Wolfgang DobereneirD John Alexander NewlandsQuestion 2 B

The number of protons in an atom represents the

A ionization energyB atomic numberC Electron egativityD atomic massQuestion 3 A

Which of the following decreases across a period on the periodic table

A Atomic radiusB Ionization energyC Electron affinityD electronegativityQuestion 4 A

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Atoms become smaller as one moves down a groupB Atoms become smaller as one moves to the right across a periodC Atoms become larger when electrons are removedD The size of an atom is not a factor in arranging the elements in the periodic

tableQuestion 5 A

Who was the scientist who arranged the elements in horizontal rows according to increasing atomic masses

A John DaltonB Dmitri Inovich MendeleevC Johann Wolfgang DobereneirD John Alexander NewlandsQuestion 6 B

Each vertical column of the periodic table is called

A A periodB A groupC A elementD None of theseQuestion 7 D

What family of elements includes helium and neon

A Alkali metalB Metalloid

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C HalogensD Noble gasesQuestion 8 B

Silver is

A A nonmetal elementB A transition metalC A compound of copperD A saltQuestion 9 B

In a period, atomic radii decrease when

A Atomic numbers decreaseB Atomic numbers increaseC Atomic masses decreaseD Metal property increasesQuestion 10 C

The ability of an element to attract an electron from another atom is called

A electronegativityB ionization energyC electron affinity D metallic propertyQuestion 11C

What family of elements includes fluorine and chlorine

A noble gasesB alkali metalsC halogensD none of theseQuestion 12C

The scientist who grouped the elements into sets of three is

A MendeleevB NewlandsC DobereinerD MoseleyQuestion 13 B

As you move from left to right of the periodic table, the elements

A increase in atomic radiusB increase ionization energyC decrease in electron affinityD have no periodic trendsQuestion 14D

The energy change when an electron is added is called:

A electronegativityB reactivity

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C electron affinityD ionization energyQuestion 15D

Who stated the “law of Octaves’?

A Dmitri Inovich MendeleevB John DaltonC Johann Wolfgang DobereneirD John Alexander NewlandsQuestion 16B

Sodium, potassium and lithium are called

A Noble gasesB Alkali metalsC Earth alkali metalD None of theseQuestion 17C

Atoms of elements in a group have the same

A Atomic numberB Atomic radiusC Number of electrons in outermost shellD Ionization energyQuestion 18B

Metal elements have

A 8 electrons in the outermost shellB 1, 2, or 3 electron in the outermost shellC The same electron configurationD The same electron radiusQuestion 19 A

Under ordinary, room temperature conditions, the greatest number of elements are

A gasesB liquidsC metallic solidsD nonmetallic plasmasQuestion 20 B

A solution of sugar dissolved in water is

A a heterogeneous mixtureB a homogeneous mixtureC an alloyD a pure substanceQuestion 21 B

Which of the following represents a physical change

A Calcium carbonate is dissolved by stomach acidB Solid ice is melted into liquid water

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C Natural gas is burned as a heat sourceD Electricity is used to generate oxygen and hydrogen from waterQuestion 22 A

Carbon cannot be broken down into anything simpler by chemical means, so carbon must be

A a compoundB an elementC a homogeneous mixtureD a heterogeneous mixtureQuestion 23 A

About 75 percent of the earth's solid surface is made up of

A hydrogen, oxygen, and carbonB hydrogen and oxygenC nitrogen and oxygenD silicon and oxygenQuestion 24 C

About 99 percent of the earth's atmospheric air is made up of

A hydrogen, oxygen, and carbonB hydrogen and oxygenC nitrogen and oxygenD silicon and oxygenQuestion 25 C

The masses of all isotopes are based on a comparison to the mass a particular isotope of

A UraniumB OxygenC CarbonD HydrogenQuestion 26 D

The sum of the number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom is called the

A mass numberB atomic structureC atomic massD atomic numberQuestion 27 D

The modern periodic law is based on

A chemical activityB atomic weightC atomic massD atomic numberQuestion 28 C

Each family, or group of elements in a vertical column of the periodic table has elements with chemical characteristics that are

A exactly oppositeB different

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C similarD exactly the same

Question 29 D

Which of the following belongs to the alkali metal family of elements?

A neonB chlorineC calciumD sodiumQuestion 30 A

Which of the following belongs to the noble gas family of elements

A neonB chlorineC calciumD Potassium Question 31 D

An atom of an element belonging to the alkali metal family has

A all outer shell electronsB all outer shell electrons but oneC two outer shell electronsD outer shell electron oneQuestion 32 D

An element that is a very reactive gas is most likely a member of the

A Noble gasesB Alkali metalC Transition metalD Halogen Question 33 B

Which statement is true

A Alkali metals are generally found in their uncombined form.B Alkali metals are Group 1 elements.C Alkali metals should be stored under water.D Alkali metals are unreactiveQuestion 34C

Which statement about the periodic table is NOT true

A There are more metals than nonmetals.B The metalloids are located in Groups 13 through 16.C The elements at the far left of the table are nonmetals.D Elements are arranged by increasing atomic number.Question 35 D

One property of most nonmetals is that they are

A shiny

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B solids at room temperatureC flattened when hit with a hammerD poor conductors of electric currentQuestion 36 A

Alkaline-earth metals ____ than alkali metals

A have greater densityB are more explosiveC are more reactiveD have lower atomic numbersQuestion 37 A

The element ____ is a metalloid.

A silicon, SiB carbon, CC lead, PbD phosphorus, PQuestion 38 C

____ is a gas at room temperature, and its atoms have six electrons in their outermost shell.

A NitrogenB BromineC OxygenD SulfurQuestion 39 D

When the elements were arranged in order of increasing atomic number, similar chemical and physical properties were observed in every____ elements.

A threeB eightC eighteenD eight or eighteenAnswer DQuestion 40 B

The elements in a period on the periodic table become

A more metallic moving from top to bottomB less metallic moving from left to rightC less metallic moving from top to bottomD more metallic moving from left to rightQuestion 41 B

Which of the following statements is NOT true of elements on the periodic table

A Elements are arranged by increasing atomic number.B Elements to the left of the zigzag line are metalloids.C Elements that are in the same group tend to have similar properties.D Elements in the column farthest to the right are unreactive.Question In the periodic table, elements are classified as ____ according to their

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42 B properties.A solid, liquid, or gasB metals, nonmetals, and metalloidsC neutral or ionizedD bondable or not bondableQuestion 43 A

The group of metals that are soft enough to be cut with a knife are

A alkali metalsB alkaline-earth metalsC transition metalsD lanthanidesQuestion 44 D

Elements in a family or group in the periodic table often share similar properties because

A they look alikeB they are found in the same place on Earth.C they have the same physical stateD their atoms have the same number of electrons in their outer energy levelQuestion 45 A

Transition metals from Period 7 that are placed at the bottom of the periodic table are commonly referred to as

A lanthanidesB actinidesC alkali metalsD alkaline-earth metalsQuestion 46 C

Titanium is a transition metal that can be used in artificial bones because it is

A very reactiveB radioactiveC not very reactiveD naturally found in the bodyQuestion 47 B

Unlike most transition metals, mercury

A is gold-coloredB is in the liquid state at room temperatureC is very reactiveD is not very reactiveQuestion 48 B

Which of the following groups is used in neon lights?

A halogensB noble gasesC nitrogen groupD oxygen groupQuestion Atoms of one group of nonmetals, the noble gases, have ____ electrons in

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49 B their outer energy level.A fewB about a half-complete set ofC an almost complete set ofD a complete set ofQuestion 50 A

An iron griddle can cook your favorite foods on a stove because it has high thermal

A conductivityB malleabilityC ductilityD reflectivityQuestion 51 D

Which one of the following is a physical change?

A when ignited with a match in open air, paper burnsB in cold weather, water condenses on the inside surface of single pane

windowsC when heated strongly, sugar turns dark brownD grape juice left in an open un refrigerated container turns sourQuestion 52 C

All of the following properties of a sample of a pure substance can be used for identification except its

A freezing point temperatureB densityC massD melting point temperatureQuestion 53 A

The two major types of pure substances are

A compounds and elementsB compounds and solutionsC elements and mixturesD mixtures and solutionsQuestion 54 D

The relative number of atoms of each element in a particular compound

A cannot be determined experimentallyB is definite and constantC is the same as the weight ratioD is the same as the density ratioQuestion 55 D

Which one of the following contributes to the charge but does NOT contribute significantly to the mass of an atom?

A nucleiB neutronsC protons D electrons

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Question 56 C

Uranium exists in nature in the form of several isotopes; the different isotopes have different

A atomic numbersB numbers of protonsC numbers of neutronsD numbers of electronsQuestion 57 A

The average atomic mass reported on the Periodic Table for each element is:

A the weighted average mass of all of the isotopes of that elementB the mass number of the most abundant isotope of that elementC the average of the mass numbers of all of the isotopes of that elementD all of the aboveQuestion 58 C

Which set of elements below includes mostly non-metals?

A sodium, lithium, nitrogenB silicon, zinc, strontiumC oxygen, selenium, telluriu /mD lanthanum, lutetium, rhodiumQuestion 59 C

Which of the following particle pairs has approximately the same mass?

A a proton and a neutronB a neutron and an electronC a proton and an electronD an electron and a hydrogen atomQuestion 60 D

Three atoms, I, II and III, each have an atomic number of 12. Atom I has 12 neutrons, atom II has 13 neutrons and atom III has 14 neutrons. Which of the following sentences is correct?

A Atom I is a neutral atom while atoms II and III are anions of atom IB Atom I is a neutral atom while atoms II and III are cations of atom IC Atoms I, II and III are allotropes of each otherD Atoms I, II and III are isotopes of the same elementQuestion 61 A

Which of the following statements regarding subatomic particles is correct?

A Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons

B In a neutral atom, the number of neutrons is equal to the number of protons

C The relative masses of an electron, a proton and a neutron are all about 1 unit

D Protons are positively charged particles and neutrons are negatively charged

Question Which of the following statements about the Periodic Table is

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62 B CORRECT?A Elements in the same group have the same number of isotopesB Group VIIA elements are non-metalsC Across a period from left to right, the elements change from non-metals to

metalsD Elements in the same group have the same number of electron shellsQuestion 63 D

Down a group, the electron affinity

A increases and then decreasesB remains sameC decreasesD increasesQuestion 64 B

The family of elements to which calcium belongs is

B

A noble gasesB alkaline earth metalsC halogensD alkali metalsQuestion 65 C

A purple coloured solid halogen is

A chlorineB bromineC iodineD astatineQuestion 66 A

The family of elements to which potassium belongs is

A alkali metalsB alkaline earth metalsC halogensD noble gasesQuestion 67 C

Which of the following factors does not affect the metallic character of an element?

A Atomic sizeB Ionization energyC atomic massD Atomic radiusQuestion 68 B

The family of elements having seven electrons in the outermost shell is

A alkali metalsB halogens

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C noble gasesD alkaline earth metalsQuestion 69 D

At the end of each period the valence shell is

A incompleteB half filledC singly occupiedD completely filledQuestion 70 B

The structure of an alpha particle is the same as a(n):

A helium nucleusB electronC lithium atomD hydrogen nucleusQuestion 71C

Which of the following best describes a Group II metal?

A it will tend to gain electrons to form an ion with a 2+ chargeB it will react with acid to produce oxygen gasC it will react with water to produce a basic solutionD all of the aboveQuestion 73CB

Which of the following metals is the most metallic?

A calciumB titaniumC platinumD bariumQuestion 74B

Which “block” is silicon found on the Periodic Table?

A the “d” blockB the “p” block C the “f” blockD the “s” block Question 75B

An element has the electron configuration: 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2. You would expect that:

A a solution of this element in water will change the colour of phenolphthalein to blue

B the element will form ions with a 2+ chargeC the element will react with water to produce an acidic solutionD all of the above will occurQuestion 76C

An element has the electron configuration

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p66s2. This element is found in:A the fourth period and Group VIB

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B the sixth period and Group VIIIBC the sixth period and Group IIAD the fifth period and Group IIAQuestion 77B

An element has the electron configuration

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p66s24f145d106p67s1. It is in:A Group VIIB and the seventh periodB Group IA and the seventh period C Group 17 and the sixth periodD Group VIIA and the fifth periodQuestion 78D

The elements in the “s” block on the Periodic Table:

A will tend to lose electronsB will form positive ionsC will react with an acid to form hydrogen gas D all of the aboveQuestion 79D

Which of the following lists includes only elements from the D block?

A C, N, P and SeB Na, Mg, Li and SrC Ce, Eu, Th and UD Cr, Ti, Ag and ZnQuestion 80B

After the 5s orbital of an atom is filled, the next electron will be found in the:

A 5d orbitalB 4d orbitalC 4f orbitalD 5p orbitalQuestion 81A

The greater the electronegativity of an element, the greater the tendency to:

A gain electronsB gain protonsC lose electronsD lose protonsQuestion 82C

The atoms of the most reactive non-metals have:

A large atomic radii and high ionizationB small atomic radii and low ionization C small atomic radii and high ionization energiesD large atomic radii and low ionization energiesQuestion 83B

Which of the following elements has the lowest electronegativity?

A carbon

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B fluorineC nitrogenD oxygenQuestion 84C

Which of the following statements apply to most non-metals? They have:

A high ionization energy and good electrical conductivityB low ionization energy and poor electrical conductivityC high ionization energy and poor electrical conductivityD low ionization energy and good electrical conductivityQuestion 85A

Atoms of metallic elements tend to:

A lose electrons and form positive ionsB lose electrons and form negative ionsC gain electrons and form positive ionsD gain electrons and form negative ionsQuestion 86B

The amount of energy required to remove the outermost electron from an atom in the gaseous phase is the definition for:

A electronegativityB ionization energyC kinetic energyD potential energyQuestion 87B

An atom with the electron configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10

4p6 5s2 4d10 5p3 is most likely to:A lose three electrons to form a 3- ionB gain three electrons to forma a 3- ionC lose three electrons to form a 3+ ionD gain three electrons to form a 3+ ionQuestion 88A

Which statement best describes the pattern in electronegativity of elements on the Periodic Table?

A electronegativity increases as atomic radius decreasesB electronegativity increases as ionization energy decreasesC electronegativity increases as reactivity of metals increasesD electronegativity increases as shielding effect increasesQuestion 89A

The number of valence electrons in an atom with the electron

configuration 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 is:A 6B 2C 16D 4Question 90D

The reactivity of the Alkali metals generally increases with:

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A increasing atomic numberB increasing atomic radiusC increasing shielding effectD all of the aboveQuestion 91D

In Period 2, as the elements are considered from left to right, there is a decrease in:

A electronegativityB ionization energyC average atomic massD metallic character Question 92B

Which is the most reactive non-metal on the Periodic Table of the Elements?

A chlorineB fluorineC franciumD oxygenQuestion 93B

The pair of elements with the most similar chemical properties are:

A S and ArB Mg and Ca C Mg and S D Ca and BrQuestion 94D

In a given period on the Periodic Table, the element with the lowest first ionization energy is always:

A an Alkaline Earth metalB an Alkali metalC a halogenD a Noble gasQuestion 95C

Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

A sodiumB sulfurC oxygenD phosphorusQuestion 96D

The Alkaline Earth element having the largest atomic radius is found in Period:

A 1B 7C 6D 2Question 97A

The element in Period 3 with the most metallic character is:

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A aluminumB phosphorusC potassiumD sodiumQuestion 98C

Which of the following electron configurations represents a non-metal?

A 1s22s22p63s23p64s1

B 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d6

C 1s22s22p63s23p5

D 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d105p66s24f11

Question 99C

Which of the electron configurations represents an element in the same Group as silicon?

A 1s2 2s2 2p4

B 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

C 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p64s2 3d25p2

D 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10

Question 100D

In which of the following do all of the particles have the same number of electrons?

A Ca2+, Fe2+, Zn2+

B Se2- , Kr, Rb1+

C F, Ne, NaD O2– , S2– , Se2–

Question 101C

Which element requires the least amount of energy to remove its outermost electron?

A BeB MgC SrD CaQuestion 102B

Which of the following lists of elements includes only Halogens?

A Li, Na, K and RbB Cl, Br, I and FC N, O, F and NeD He, Ne, Ar, and Kr

Unit 2: Chemical bondingQuestion 1D

Which element has a full outermost energy level containing only two electrons

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A oxygen (O)B fluorine (F)C hydrogen (H)D helium (He)Question 2C

Which of the following describes what happens when an atom becomes an ion with a 2– charge?

A The atom gains 2 protonsB The atom loses 2 protonsC The atom gains 2 electrons.D The atom loses 2 electronsQuestion 3C

The properties of ductility and malleability are associated with which type of bonds?

A ionicB covalentC metallicD none of the aboveQuestion 4D

In which area of the periodic table do you find elements whose atoms easily gain electrons

A across the top two rowsB on the right sideC across the bottom rowD on the left sideQuestion 5A

What type of element tends to lose electrons when it forms bonds

A metalB metalloidC nonmetalD noble gasQuestion 6C

Which pair of atoms can form an ionic bond

A sodium (Na) and neon (Ne)B sodium (Na) and potassium (K)C potassium (K) and fluorine (F)D fluorine (F) and chlorine (Cl)Question 7D

The number of ____ is most important in determining how an atom will bond

A protonsB neutronsC electrons in the innermost energy levelD electrons in the outermost energy levelQuestion 8C

Which type of element is most likely to gain electrons when it forms bonds

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A metalB metalloidC nonmetalD noble gasQuestion 9C

Why do atoms have no charge

A The number of protons is equal to the number of neutrons.B The number of electrons is equal to the number of neutrons.C The number of protons is equal to the number of electrons.D There is an equal number of neutrons, protons, and electrons.Question 10B

Which of the following elements does NOT exist as a diatomic molecule

A oxygenB argonC nitrogenD iodineQuestion 11D

____ are formed by atoms losing electrons

A Negative ionsB ElementsC CompoundsD Positive ionsQuestion 12B

Which of the following is NOT a metallic property

A a hard and brittle textureB high densityC the ability to be flattened and shapedD the ability to conduct electricityQuestion 13C

The number of electrons in an atom can be determined from the ____ of the element.

A atomic massB mass numberC atomic numberD bonding numberQuestion 14A

Atoms and the chemical bonds that connect them cannot be observed with your eyes, so it is necessary to use a

A microscope.B model.C theory.D Both (b) and (c)Question 15A

Electrons in an atom are organized

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A in energy levels. B in nucleiC in chainsD None of the aboveQuestion 16A

The levels farther from the nucleus contain electrons that have ____ levels closer to the nucleus

A less energy thanB half the energy ofC the same energy asD more energy thanQuestion 17A

The first energy level is closest to the nucleus and can hold up to ____ electrons

A 2B 4C 6D 8Question 18B

Electrons will enter the second energy level after the ____ electron enters the first energy level

A firstB secondC thirdD fourthQuestion 19C

The second energy level can hold up to ____ electrons.

A 2B 4C 6D 8Question 20C

Most atoms form bonds using only the electrons in their ____ energy level.

A innermostB fullestC outermostD firstQuestion 21B

Oxygen is in Group 6. How many valence electrons does oxygen have?

A 2B 6C 8D 16Question 22A

Sodium is in Group 1. How many valence electrons does sodium have?

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A 1B 2C 8D 11Question 23B

Chlorine is in Group 7. How many valence electrons does chlorine have?

A 5B 7C 17D 35Question 24B

Neon is in Group 8. How many valence electrons does helium have?

A 2B 8C 10D 18Question 25D

Atoms of ____ do not normally form chemical bonds.

A noble gasesB halogensC elements in Group 18D Both (a) and (c)Question 26D

Atoms ____ to have a filled outermost energy level.

A splitB bondC are attracted to protons in orderD None of the aboveQuestion 27D

Atoms bond by ____ electrons

A gainingB losingC sharingD All of the aboveQuestion 28B

The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is a(n) ____ bond.

A atomicB ionicC covalentD metallicQuestion 29C

The force of attraction between the nuclei of atoms and the electrons shared by the atoms is a(n) ____ bond.

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A metallicB ionicC covalentD atomicQuestion 30A

The joining of atoms to form new substances is

A chemical bonding.B valence electrons.C electron bonding.D None of the aboveQuestion 31B

The force of attraction between a positively charged metal ion and the electrons in a metal is a(n) ____ bond.

A ionicB atomicC covalentD metallicQuestion 32D

A transfer of electrons between atoms changes the number of electrons in each atom, while the number of protons

A decreases.B stays the sameC increases.D None of the aboveQuestion 33A

Atoms that _____ form positive ions

A lose electronsB lose protonsC gain electronsD gain protonsQuestion 34C

Atoms that _____ form negative ions

A gain protonsB lose protonsC gain electronsD lose electronsQuestion 35D

During chemical changes, an aluminum atom can lose its 3 electrons in the third energy level to another atom. What is the symbol of the resulting aluminum ion?

A AlB Al-3

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C Al3–

D Al3+

Question 36B

Removing electrons from atoms of metals requires ____ energy.

A noB a small amount ofC a large amount ofD None of the aboveQuestion 37C

Removing electrons from atoms of nonmetals requires ____ energy

A noB a small amount ofC a large amount ofD None of the aboveQuestion 38B

When a chlorine atom becomes Cl–, it ____ in the third energy level

A loses one electronB gains one electronC loses one protonD gains one protonQuestion 39A

The scientific understanding of metallic bonding is that metal atoms

A form a crystal much like the ions associated with ionic bonding.B have valence electrons that move throughout the metal from the energy

level of one atom to the energy levels of the atoms nearbyC get so close together that their outermost energy levels overlap.D All of the aboveQuestion 40B

Ionic compounds break when hit with a hammer because

A the outermost energy levels of the ions overlapB the electrons move into new positionsC the shared electrons cannot move.D neither the positive ions nor the negative ions are free to moveQuestion 41A

What is the charge of an ion that contains 16 protons and 18 electrons?

A 2–B 1–C 1+D 2+Question 42A

Which of the following would most likely be a brittle solid at room temperature?

A ionic compound

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B covalent compoundC metallic compoundD nonmetallic compoundQuestion 43A

Which ofWhich of the following compounds has a high melting point and boiling point

A metallic compoundB ionic compoundC covalent compoundD valence compoundQuestion 44B

The element calcium (Ca) is in Group 2. How many valence electrons does each of its atoms have

A 1B 2C 6D 7Question 45D

Which of the following is the LEAST likely to form chemical bonds?

A an atom with 2 valence electronsB an atom with 4 valence electronsC an atom with 7 valence electronsD an atom with 8 valence electronsQuestion 46A

Which of the following atoms does NOT have a full set of electrons?

A hydrogenB heliumC neonD argonQuestion 47B

A mutual electrical attraction between the nuclei and valence electrons of different atoms that binds the atoms together is called a

A London forceB Lewis structureC dipoleD chemical bondQuestion 48C

The electrons involved in the formation of a chemical bond are called

A s electronsB dipolesC valence electronsD Lewis electronsQuestion 49C

Atoms are when they are combined

A at a high potential energy

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B not bound togetherC more stableD less stableQuestion 50D

The chemical bond formed when two atoms share electrons is called a(n)

A orbital bondB ionic bondC Lewis structureD covalent bondQuestion 51A

If two covalently bonded atoms are identical, the bond is

A nonpolar covalentB polar covalentC nonionicD coordinate covalentQuestion 52B

When atoms share electrons, the electrical attraction of an atom for the electrons is called the atom's

A electron affinityB electronegativityC resonanceD hybridizationQuestion 53A

If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called

A nonpolarB polarC ionicD dipolarQuestion 54B

The electrostatic attraction between forms an ionic bond.

A orbitalsB ionsC dipoles D electronsQuestion 55C

Most chemical bonds are

A purely covalentB purely ionicC partly ionic and partly covalentD metallicQuestion 56D

Nonpolar covalent bonds are not common because

A dipoles are rare in nature

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B the electrons usually remain equally distant from both atomsC ions always form when atoms joinD one atom usually attracts electrons more strongly than the otherQuestion 57A

The greater the electronegativity difference between two bonded atoms, the greater the percentage of

A covalent characterB ionic characterC metallic characterD electron sharingQuestion 58C

In which of these compounds is the bond between the atoms NOT a nonpolar covalent bond?

A Cl2B H2C HClD O2Question 59A

In a molecule of fluorine, the two shared electrons give each fluorine atom electron(s) in the outermost energy level

A 1B 8C 2D 32Question 60C

When the octet rule is satisfied, the outermost are filled

A d and p orbitalsB s and d orbitalsC s and p orbitalsD d and f orbitalsQuestion 61A

In drawing a Lewis structure, the central atom is the

A least electronegative atomB atom with the highest atomic numberC atom with the greatest massD atom with the fewest electronsQuestion 62D

To draw a Lewis structure, it is NOT necessary to know

A the number of atoms in the moleculeB the number of valence electrons for each atomC the types of atoms in the moleculeD bond energiesQuestion 63A

If, after drawing a Lewis structure, too many valence electrons have been used, the molecule probably contains

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English for chemistry students 510 multiple choice questions

A one or more multiple covalent bondsB too many atomsC an ionic bondD too many unshared pairs of electronsQuestion 64C

The substance whose Lewis structure shows three covalent bonds is

A CH2Cl2B H2OC NH3D CCl4Question 65B

How many double bonds are in the Lewis structure for hydrogen fluoride, HF?

A noneB oneC twoD threeQuestion 66A

Bonding in molecules or ions that cannot be correctly represented by a single Lewis structure is

A resonance.B covalent bondingC single bondingD double bondingQuestion 67C

The chemical formula for an ionic compound represents the

A number of atoms in each moleculeB number of ions in each moleculeC simplest ratio of the combined ions that balances total chargesD total number of ions in the crystal latticeQuestion 68C

A formula that shows the types and numbers of atoms combined in a single molecule is called a(n)

A ionic formulaB Lewis structureC molecular formulaD covalent formulaQuestion 69D

A formula unit of an ionic compound

A is the simplest ratio of ions that balances total chargeB describes the crystal latticeC is an independent unit that can be isolated and studiedD all of the above

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Question 70D

The ions in an ionic compound are organized into a(n)

A moleculeB Lewis structureC crystalD polyatomic ionQuestion 71B

In a crystal of an ionic compound, each cation is surrounded by

A positive ionsB anionsC dipolesD moleculesQuestion 72B

VSEPR theory is a model for predicting

A lattice energy valuesB the shape of moleculesC the strength of metallic bondsD ionization energyQuestion 73D

According to VSEPR theory, the electrostatic repulsion between electron pairs surrounding an atom causes a.

A positive ions to form.B an electron sea to form.C light to reflectD these pairs to be separated as far as possibleQuestion 74A linearB bentC tetrahedralD pyramidalQuestion 75A

Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the hydrogen chloride molecule, HCl.

A linearB tetrahedralC bentD trigonal planarQuestion 76C

The intermolecular attraction between a hydrogen atom bonded to a strongly electronegative atom and the unshared pair of electrons on another strongly electronegative atom is called

A covalent bondingB electron affinityC hydrogen bondingD electronegativity

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Question 77B

Compared with molecular bonds, the strength of intermolecular forces is

A strongerB weakerC about the sameD too variable to compareQuestion 78A

The equal but opposite charges present in the two regions of a polar molecule create a(n)

A dipoleB electron seaC crystal latticeD ionic bondQuestion 79D

That the boiling point of water (H2O) is higher than the boiling point of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is partially explained by

A covalent bondingB London forcesC ionic bondingD hydrogen bondingQuestion 80D

The following molecules contain polar bonds. The only nonpolar molecule is

A H2OB HClC NH3D CO2Question 81C

A polar molecule contains

A no bondsB only London forcesC a region of positive charge and a region of negative chargeD ionsQuestion 82D

A molecule of hydrogen chloride is polar because

A it is composed of ionsB it is magneticC it contains metallic bondsD the chlorine attracts the shared electrons more strongly than does the

hydrogen atom.Question 83C

When a polar molecule attracts the electron in a nonpolar molecule,

A a crystal lattice formsB a dipole is induced

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C an ionic bond formsD a Lewis structure formsQuestion 84A

Use VSEPR theory to predict the shape of the hydrogen sulfide molecule, H2S

A tetrahedralB octahedralC bentD linearQuestion 85B

How many electrons must be shown in the Lewis structure of the hydroxide

ion, OH–?A 1B 8C 9D 10Question 86B

Which one of the following species contains a polar covalent bond?

A oxygenB carbon dioxideC sodium chlorideD magnesium fluorideQuestion 87B

The electronegativity of carbon is 2.5, whereas that of oxygen is 3.5. What type of bond would you expect to find in carbon monoxide?

A Nonpolar covalentB Polar covalentC Covalent networkD IonicQuestion 88A

Among the following the one which is composed of all the three kinds of bonds, (ionic, covalent and coordinate bond) is

A Sodium chlorideB AmmoniaC Carbon tetrachlorideD Ammonium chlorideQuestion 89D

Select the acid which contains four hydrogen atoms in it

A Acetic acidB Nitric acidC Sulphuric acidD Formic acidQuestion 90A

Within a molecule, the atoms are held together by

A Vander Wall's forcesB Ionic bonds

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C Chemical bondsD Covalent bondsQuestion 91A

Valence electron is the term used for

A Number of electrons present in outermost shell of an atom

B Remaining electrons in an atomC Number of protons in an atomD Number of neutrons in atomQuestion 92D

In order to resemble Neon, Oxygen needs to

A Lose one electronB Gain one electron C Lose two electrons D Gain two electrons Question 93C

An Oxygen molecule is formed due to

A Ionic bonds.B Electrovalent bondsC Covalent bondsD polar bondsQuestion 94A

The Methane molecule consist of

A Four single bondsB Double bondsC Two single and two double bondsD One single and two double bondsQuestion 95B

Which of the following properties is not related to Ionic compounds?

A Charged particlesB Liquids or soft solidsC Brittle solidsD Crystalline solidsQuestion 96D

Insert gases can

A Gain one electronB Lose one electronC Both gain or lose one electronD Neither gain nor lose any electronQuestion 97D

Ionic compounds are

A Soluble in water

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B Insoluble in water C Soluble in organic solventsD Generally soluble in water Question 98C

Covalent compound have

A Low melting and high boiling pointsB High melting and low boiling pointsC Low melting and boiling pointsD High melting and boiling pointsQuestion 99C

Methane molecule is an excellent example of which of the following?

A Non-polar covalent bondsB Polar covalent bondsC Covalent bondsD Electrovalent bondsQuestion 100C

In CaO

A Calcium loses one electron to OxygenB Calcium gains one electron from OxygenC Calcium loses two electrons to

OxygenD Calcium gains two electrons from

Oxygen

UNIT 3 : SOLUTIONQuestion 1A

Solution is a

A Homogeneous mixtureB Heterogeneous mixture C Mixture of oil and waterD Mixture of sand and iron powderQuestion 2D

Which of following substances can dissolve into water

A Sand

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B LimestoneC SteelD sugarQuestion 3A

In the homogeneous mixture of 1g sodium chloride and 99g water, water is called

A solventB soluteC Environmental substanceD reactantQuestion 4C

The strong electrolytes include

A Strong acids and weak basesB Strong acids, strong bases, and insoluble saltsC Strong acids, strong bases, and soluble saltsD Weak acids and strong baseQuestion 5D

Sugar is a

A Strong electrolyteB Weak electrolyteC Strong electric conductorD NonelectrolyteQuestion 6A

The strong electrolyte is a

A Substance which completely separate to ions when dissolved in waterB Substance which slightly separate to ions when dissolved in waterC Substance which can not separate to ions when dissolved in waterD Substance which completely reacts with acidsQuestion 7B

NH3, CH3COOH, and H2S are

A Strong electrolytesB Weak electrolytesC NonelectrolytesD Strong acidsQuestion 8A

Aqueous solution of sodium chloride can

A Conduct electricityB become solid at 00CC Act as acid solutionD React with oxygenQuestion 9A

Molarity is

A The moles of solute per liter solution

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B The mass of solute in 1 liter solutionC The weight of solute in 100 gram solutionD The electrons that solute can donateQuestion 10C

Molarlity is

A The moles of solute per liter solutionB The separating level of soluteC The moles of solute per 1kg solventD The mass of solute per 1kg solventQuestion 11D

The concentration of Pb2+ in a sample of water is 50ppm, that means

A There are 50g of Pb2+ in 1000 g waterB There are 50g of Pb2+ in 10000 g waterC There are 50g of Pb2+ in 100000 g waterD There are 50g of Pb2+ in 1000000 g waterQuestion 12A

What is the solubility of a solute

A The maximum amount of a solute that can be dissolved in a given solventB The minimum amount of a solute that can be dissolved in a given solventC The exact amount of a solute that dissolves in solutionD The concentration of a solute in solutionQuestion 13B

What is the saturated solution

A A solution, in which solute can dissolve moreB A solution contains maximum amount of a soluteC A solution contains minimum amount of soluteD A solution can boil above 1000CQuestion 14B

What is the unsaturated solution

A A solution contains maximum a mount of solutesB A solution, in which solute can dissolve moreC A solution can boil below 1000CD A solution contain many solutesQuestion 15C

There is a saturated solution of K2Cr2O7 at 600C. What happen when we cool it from 600C to 00C

A Solution becomes solid

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B Solution becomes vaporC Crystals of K2C2O7 formD A gas formsQuestion 16C

Which following statements is not true

A 100 ml of 1M solution of NaOH contain 0.1 mole NaOHB The concentration of HNO3 solution is 20% that means there are 20 g HNO3

per 100g solution.C The concentration of Fe3+ solution is 10ppm that means there are 10g Fe3+ per

1000g water.D When concentration of H2SO4 solution is 98%, it is a concentrated solution of

H2SO4.

Question 17C

What happen when we put some iron foils into CuSO4 1M solution

A A acid-base reaction occursB Solution becomes redC A redox reaction occursD A gas formsQuestion 18B

When we mix 1M NaCl solution with 1M AgNO3 solution.

A Red precipitate occursB White precipitate occursC Black precipitate occursD Nothing occursQuestion 19A

When we put some aluminium powder into NaOH solution

A A gas escapes from solution B Solution be come redC Solution become solidD Some crystals of Na formQuestion 20A

When CO2 gas reacts with excess Ca(OH)2 solution

A Some precipitates of CaCO3 formB No thing happenC Solution becomes clearerD An explosion occursQuestion To determine the concentration of a NaOH solution we can use

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21BA Redox titration methodB Acid base titration methodC Distillation methodD Extraction methodQuestion 22A

To determine the concentration of a KMnO4 solution we can use

A Redox titration methodB Acid base titration methodC Distillation methodD Extraction methodQuestion 23C

Concentration of a KOH solution can be determined by

A Na2CO3 solution (concentration had been known)B NaCl solution (concentration had been known)C HCl solution (concentration had been known)D CaCl2 solution (concentration had been known)Question 24A

Which of following solution can be used to titrate KMnO4 solution

A Solution contains H2C2O4 and H2SO4

B Solution contains H2C2O4 and NaNO3

C Solution contains Na2C2O4 and NaOHD Solution contains H2C2O4

Question 25A

In acid-base titration, phenolphthalein is used as

A An indicatorB A reactantC A catalystD Electric conductorQuestion 26D

To accelerate reaction between KMnO4 and H2C2O4 we can use

A A catalyst such as MnSO4

B Heating solutionC Cooling solutionD A and BQuestion Which of following statements is not correct

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27DA Ethanol and water can form a solutionB Sugar can dissolve in waterC Sodium chloride can dissolve in waterD Oil can dissolve in waterQuestion 28D

To prepare 1M solution of KMnO4 from KMnO4(solid) we must use

A a Volumetric flask, a pipette, a container, a weigh, distilled waterB a round bottom flask, pipette, weigh, a container, water, a test tubeC a cylinder, a containerD a weigh, a cylinder, a test tube.Question 29D

Aluminium hydroxide can reacts with both acids and base so it is a(n)

A acidic substanceB basic substanceC saltD amphoteric subsatanceQuestion 30D

Which of following substances can reacts with both acid and base

A Sodium carbonateB potassium bicarbonateC sodium sulphateD potassium hydroxide

UNIT 4: ACID-BASEQuestion 1C

Which statement concerning Arrhenius acid‐base theory are correct?

A Acid‐base reactions must take place in aqueous solutionB A neutralization reaction produces waterC An Arrhenius base produces hydroxide ions in water solutionD An Arrhenius acid produces hydrogen ions in water solutionQuestion 2C

A Bronsted‐Lowry acid is a substance which

A accepts hydronium ions from other substances

B accepts protons from other substancesC donates protons to other substancesD produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solution

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Question 3A

A Bronsted‐Lowry base is a substance which

A accepts protons from other substancesB donates protons to other substancesC produces hydroxide ions in aqueous solutionD produces hydrogen ions in aqueous solutionQuestion 4

AAccording to Bronsted‐Lowry theory, acid‐base reactions can be described as

A proton transferB nuclear transferC gas phaseD electron transferQuestion 5D

Ammonia reacts with acids because

A it is itself an acidB it contains a lone pair of electronsC it is a saltD it contains the hydroxide groupQuestion 6A Which statement is correct for pure water?

A Pure water contains equal amounts of hydroxide, [OH‐], and hydronium,

[H3O+], ions.

B Pure water contains larger amounts of hydroxide, [OH‐], ions than

hydronium, [H3O+], ions

C Pure water contains larger amounts of hydronium, [H3O+], ions than

hydroxide, [OH-]

D Pure water contains no ions.Question 7B

Acetic acid is a weak acid in water because it is

A unable to hold onto its hydrogen ion.B only slightly dissociated into ions.C completely dissociated into hydronium ions and acetate ionsD only slightly solubleQuestion 8C

Hydrogen cyanide, HCN, is a weak acid. Which equation best represents its aqueous chemistry?

A A) HCN (aq) + H2 (l) CN- (aq) + H3O+ (aq)

B B) HCN (aq) + H2 (l) H2CN+ (aq) + OH- (aq)

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C HCN (aq) H+ (aq) + CN- (aqD HCN (aq) H- (aq) + C N+ (aqQuestion 9B

Which reaction best illustrates the behaviour of the weak base H2PO4‐ in aqueous solution?

A H2PO4‐ (aq) + H+ (aq) H3PO4 (aq

B H2PO4‐ (aq) H+ (aq) + HPO42‐ (aq

C H2PO4‐ (aq) + H2O (l) HPO42‐ (aq) + H3O+ (aq)

D H2PO4‐ (aq) + H2O (l) H3PO4 (aq) + OH‐ (aq)

Question 10C

In water solution that is basic, [H3O+] is than 1.0 × 10-7, and than

[OH-]

A greater; lessB less; greaterC less; lessD greater; greaterQuestion 11D

Which example is not acidic?

A a solution in which [H3O+] = 1.00 x 10-7

B lake water that turns blue litmus to redC a solution of NH4NO3 with pH < 7.00

D soil for azaleas with pH of 4.8Question 12B

If the [H+] of a water sample is 1 × 10-4 M, the pH of the sample is , and the sample is

A ‐4; acidicB 4; acidicC 4; basicD 10; basicQuestion 13D

A buffer solution

A is a salt solutionB maintains pH at 7.00C is a strong baseD closely maintains its original pHQuestion Which of the following solutions is a buffer?

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14CA a solution of sulfuric acid and sodium sulfateB a solution of hydrochloric acid and sodium acetateC a solution of acetic acid and sodium acetateD a solution of acetic acid and sodium sulfateQuestion 15D

Which of the following is a property of acids   

A Turn red litmus blueB Feel slipperyC taste bitter D react with carbonates to form CO2 gas Question 16C

Bases cause phenolphthalein to turn:

A greenB clearC pinkD orangeQuestion 17C

When acids react with active metals, the gas produced is:

A water vaporB carbon dioxideC hydrogenD oxygenQuestion 18C

What two substances are always produced by a neutralization reaction

A water and a baseB an acid water and C an acid and a baseD water and a saltQuestion 19A

An acid is:

A a hydrogen ion (H+) donorB a hydrogen ion (H+) acceptorC a hydrogen ion (H+) destroyer

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D a hydrogen ion (H+)Question 20B

Strong acids:

A Ionize completely and produce many hydroxide ions in solutionB Ionize completely and produce many hydrogen ions in solutionC Ionize slightly and produce few hydroxide ions in solutionD Ionize slightly and produce few hydrogen ions in solutionQuestion 21B

Which of the following statements is true

A Acids and bases are nonelectrolytesB Acids and bases are electrolytesC Acids are electrolytes and bases are nonelectrolytesD Acids are nonelectrolytes and bases are electrolytesQuestion 22C

The strongest bases are hydroxides of:

A transition metalsB noble gasesC group 1 and group 2 metalsD halogensQuestion 23B

In a neutralization reaction between sodium hydroxide, NaOH, and hydrochloric acid, HCl, the salt produced would be:

A sodium hydrochlorideB sodium chlorideC sodium acidD hydrochloric hydroxideQuestion 24C

Which one is suitable method to find the accurate pH value?

A pH meter B pH paperC Universal indicatorD Litmus solutionQuestion 25B

Which one of the following statements is correct about universal indicator

A It is a solution of phenolphthalein in water

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B It is a solution of phenolphthalein in alcoholC It is a mixture of many indicatorsD It is a mixture of HCl and NaOHQuestion 26B

A teacher gave two test tubes – one containing water and the other containing sodium hydroxide solution to two students. Then he asked them to identify the test tube containing sodium hydroxide solution. Which one of the following can be used for correctly identifying the test tube containing the solution of sodium hydroxide?

A Blue litmusB Red litmus C Sodium carbonate solution D Dilute HCl Question 27A

A student tests a sample drinking water and reports its pH value as 6 at room temperature. Which one of the following might have been added in water?

A Sodium bicarbonate B Bleaching powderC Calcium  chloride D Lemon juiceQuestion 28D

Which of the following natural sources contains oxalic acid?

A lemonB orangeC tomatoD tamarindQuestion 29A

The acid found in an ant sting is

A acetic acid B methanoic acidC citric acidD tartaric acid Question 30D

Which one of the following is required to identify the gas evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with zinc metal?

A lime waterB blue litmus paperC red litmus paperD a burning slinter

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Question 31B

SnCl4 accepts two electron pairs and acts as

A a Lewis baseB a Lewis acidC an Arrhenius baseD a Brønsted acidQuestion 32A

In which pair is the first member a stronger proton donating acid than the second member?

A HClO4, HClO3B H2SO3, H2SO4C HIO, HBrOD H2O, H2S

Question 33 D

Zinc hydroxide is amphoteric, which means that

A it is highly colored.B it is insoluble in strong acidsC it is insoluble in strong basesD it can act as either a weak acid or a weak baseQuestion 34A

Which statement is a logical inference from the fact that a 0.10 M solution of potassium acetate, KC2H3O2, is less alkaline than a 0.10 M solution of potassium cyanide, KCN?

A Acetic acid is a weaker acid than hydrocyanic acidB Hydrocyanic acid is a weaker acid than acetic acidC Hydrocyanic acid is less soluble in water than acetic acidD Cyanides are less soluble than acetatesQuestion 35A

The new species formed by the hydrolysis of KCN are

A HCN molecules and KOH moleculesB HCN molecules and OH– ionsC H3O+ ions and KOH molecules

D CN– ions and OH– ionsQuestion 36B

The major phosphate species produced by the reaction between equimolar amounts of aqueous phosphoric acid, H3PO4, and potassium hydroxide, KOH, is

A H2PO4-

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B PO43–

C H3PO4D HPO42–

Question 37B

When carbon dioxide gas is passed into a solution of ammonia in water, the conductivity increases because

A the original basic solution becomes acidic.B carbonic acid is formedC an ionized salt is formedD NH2)2CO is formed by the reaction of the CO2 with the NH3Question 38B

Which provides the best experimental evidence for the fact that acetic acid is a weaker acid than hydrobromic acid?

A Zinc reacts more rapidly with 0.1 M HBr than with 0.1 M acetic acidB Inorganic acids are stronger than organic acidsC In the bond in HBr the electrons are shifted more towards the bromine than

they are towards the oxygen in the corresponding H–O bond in acetic acidD Acetic acid tends to donate protons to a basic solvent more strongly than

does HBrQuestion 39C

Which will occur if a 0.1 M solution of a weak acid is diluted to 0.01 M at constant temperature

A pH will decreaseB Percentage ionization will increaseC [H+] will decrease to 0. 01D Ka will increase

Question 40A

The fact that pure water has a low conductivity points to the conclusion that

A water is slightly ionizedB water is highly ionizedC water is acidic in characterD water is a pure solventQuestion 41D

The pH of distilled water in an open beaker decreases slowly to 5.5. How do you explain the drop in pH?

A The water dissociatesB Distillation does not remove acidic impurities from waterC Nitrogen from the atmosphere dissolves in the water

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D Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere dissolves in the waterQuestion 42B

A solution of ammonia in water does not contain

A ammonium ionsB nitrogen ionsC hydroxide ionsD ammonia moleculesQuestion 43D

Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3, is added to a solution of sodium hydroxide, NaOH, and the solution warmed. The gas evolved is

A oxygenB hydrogenC dinitrogen oxideD ammoniaQuestion 44C

A white crystalline solid dissolves in water to yield a basic solution which produces a gas upon the addition of an acid. Which is the solid?

A NaClB NaOHC Na2CO3D Na2SO4Question 45C

Which of the following pairs of solutions, when mixed, would give a neutral solution?

A 20 cm3 of 2 M sulphuric acid and 10 cm3 of 2 M sodium hydroxide solutionB 10 cm3 of 2 M sulphuric acid and 20 cm3 of 1M sodium hydroxide solutionC 10 cm3 of 1 M sulphuric acid and 10 cm3 of 2 M sodium hydroxide solutionD 10 cm3 of 1 M sulphuric acid and 10 cm3 of 1 M sodium hydroxide solutionQuestion 46D

A mixture consists of two solids, sodium chloride and lead(II) oxide. Which of the following methods can be used to remove the sodium chloride from the mixture?

A Add dilute sulphuric acid solution to the mixture and then filterB Add water to the mixture and then filterC Add concentrated sulphuric acid to the mixture and then filterD Add dilute nitric acid to the mixture and then filterQuestion 47

Which of the following substances can cause acid rain?

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DA lead compounds from the burning of leaded petrol in motor carsB nitrogen dioxide from the burning of fuels in power stationsC carbon soots from the incomplete combustion of coalD carbon dioxide from the complete combustion of town gasQuestion 48C

Which of the following substances is used by farmers to increase the pH of soil

A potassium hydroxideB citric acidC calcium hydroxideD ammonium nitrateQuestion 49A

Metal X reacts with dilute nitric acid to give a colourless solution. When sodium hydroxide solution is added to the solution, a white precipitate which dissolves in excess sodium hydroxide solution is formed. X is probably

A zincB copperC magnesiumD ironQuestion 51D

Which of the following statements concerning the reaction of ammonia gas with hydrogen chloride gas is correct?

A The product ammonium chloride is a covalent compound.B Ammonium chloride and chlorine are producedC A white precipitate is formedD A white smoke is formedQuestion 52D

Which of the following substances would react with sodium hydroxide solution? (1) ammonium chloride solution(2) copper(II) sulphate solution (3) ethanoic acid

A (1) and (2) onlyB (1) and (3) onlyC (1), (2) and (3)D (2) and (3) onlyQuestion 53B

In an experiment, 10 cm3 of 1 M HCl is added slowly into 10 cm3 1M NaOH solution. Which of the following statements concerning this experiment is correct?

A The concentration of sodium ions in the mixture remains unchangedB The temperature of the mixture increases

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C The pH of the mixture increasesD The mixture does not conduct electricity at the end of the experimentQuestion 54B

Which of the following is NOT the appropriate substance for preparing zinc sulphate by directly mixing with dilute sulphuric acid?

A zincB zinc carbonateC zinc hydroxideD zinc nitrateQuestion 55A

What is the purpose of adding quicklime (calcium oxide) to soil? A.

A to neutralize the acidity of the soilB to increase the amount of calcium ions in the soilC to act as a fertilizer for the soilD to kill micro-organisms in the soilQuestion 56A

Which of the following solutions would produce a white precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution

A potassium nitrate solutionB copper(II) nitrate solutionC lead(II) nitrate solutionD iron(III) nitrate solutionQuestion 57A

Which of the following reagents is/are commonly stored in brown bottles? (1) potassium permanganate solution(2) concentrated sulphuric acid(3) silver nitrate solution

A (1) and (3) onlyB (2) and (3) onlyC (1) onlyD (2) onlyQuestion 58D

A white solid dissolves in water to give an alkaline solution. The solution reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to give a gas. The solid is probably

A potassium hydroxideB potassium carbonateC calcium carbonateD calcium oxideQuestion 59

Which of the following statements concerning sulphur dioxide are correct?

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B (1) It can be prepared by heating copper foils with concentrated sulphuric acid. (2) It is denser than air.(3) It can be absorbed by sodium hydroxide solution

A (1), (2) and (3)B (2) and (3) onlyC (1) and (3) onlyD (1) and (2) onlyQuestion 60C

Phosphoric acid is a tribasic acid with formula H3PO4. Which of he following formulae is INCORRECT?

A Na2HPO4B (NH4)2HPO4C CaH2PO4D Mg3(PO4)2Question 61D

Which of the following statements concerning the reaction of iron(II) carbonate with 1M sulphuric acid is/are correct?(1) Sulphuric acid acts as an acid.(2) Sulphuric acid acts as an oxidizing agent. (3) Sulphuric acid acts as a dehydrating agent

A (1) and (3) onlyB (2) and (3) onlyC (1) onlyD (2) onlyQuestion 62D

Consider this reaction:NH3 + H2O NH4

+ + OH- Which of following statements is true

A ammonium ion is conjugate acid of ammoniaB ammonia acts as an acidC water acts as a baseD hydroxide ion is a conjugate acid of waterQuestion 63C

Which of following reaction is neutral reaction

A iron react with hydrochloric acidB sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate solutionC sodium hydroxide reacts with sulphuric acidD potassium sulphate reacts with barium chlorideQuestion 64

A white solid dissolves in water to give an alkaline solution. The solution reacts with copper sulphate to form precipitate. The solid is probably

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CA potassium hydroxideB potassium chlorideC calcium carbonateD calcium fluorideQuestion 65B

Which of the following solutions would produce a blue precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution

A potassium nitrate solutionB copper(II) nitrate solutionC lead(II) nitrate solutionD iron(III) nitrate solutionQuestion 66B

A solution of acetic acid in water does not contain

A acetate ionsB nitrate ionsC hydroxide ionsD ethanoic moleculesQuestion 67A

The new species formed by the hydrolysis of CH3COONa are

A CH3COOH molecules and NaOH moleculesB CH3COOH molecules and OH– ionsC H3O+ ions and NaOH molecules

D CH3COO– ions and OH– ionsQuestion 68C

Which of the following is NOT the appropriate substance for preparing magnesium sulphate by directly mixing with dilute sulphuric acid?

A magnesiumB magnesium bicarbonateC magnesium hydroxideD magnesium chlorideQuestion 69D

In the laboratory, to prepare hydrochloric acid we mix

A sodium chloride crystal with concentrated sulphuric acidB sodium chloride solution with concentrated sulphuric acidC sodium chloride solution with dilute sulphuric acid

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D sodium chloride solution with dilute sulphuric acidQuestion 70C

In which of following reactions, hydrochloric acid is formed

A barium hydroxide reacts with nitric acid solutionB barium chloride reacts with sodium sulphate solutionC barium chloride reacts with sulphuric acid solutionD barium carbonate reacts with nitric acid solution

UNIT 5: LABORATORY TECHNIQUE

Question 1DA Pour quickly acid into waterB Pour quickly water into acidC Pour slowly water in to acidD Pour slowly acid into waterQuestion 2D

To contain chemicals long time we must use

A A pipetteB A buretteC A test tubeD A closed bottleQuestion 3D

In titration method, we must use

A a buretteB a round bottom flaskC a test tubeD a burner

Question 4A

In filtration method, we must use

A a funnel, a glass rod, and filter paperB a funnel, a test tube, and a glass rodC a round bottom flask and a filter paperD a erlenmeyer flaskQuestion 5B

Consider this equipment

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Which of following statement is trueA It is a test tubeB It is a Erlenmeyer flaskC It is a glass beakerD It is a bottleQuestion 6B

Consider this equipment

Which of following statement is trueA It is an ovenB It is a pH meter C It is a centrifugeD It is a magnetic stirrer Question 7C

What is this?

A This is a glass beakerB This is a condenserC This is a separating funnelD This is a fanQuestion 8A

To separate a mixture of sand and iron we can use

A a magnetB a buretteC a containerD a thermal meterQuestion Oil can be separated from mixture of it and water byDesigned by Master Nguyen Dinh Vinh Faculty of chemistry, College of Science

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9CA a stirrerB a funnelC a separating funnelD a weighAnswer CQuestion 10D

To purify K2C2O7 from impurity, K2SO4, we can use

A decantation methodB distillation methodC chromatography methodD recrystallization methodQuestion 12A

In filtration, the term ‘filtrate’ refers to

A the solid that remains on the filter paperB the liquid that drains through the filter paperC the type of filter paper usedD the mixture before separation

Question 13B

Distillation can be used to separate

A a soluble solid from a solutionB a liquid from a solutionC a solid from a solidD an insoluble solid from a solutionQuestion 14B

Fractional distillation cannot be used to

A separate methanol and water B test the purity of a substanceC refine crude oilD separate the components of liquid airQuestion 15A

In fractional distillation, a mixture of liquids is separated based on their

A boiling pointsB solubilityC densityD chemical compositionQuestion 16C

Chromatography can be used to ______(I) Test the purity if a substance (II) Separate a mixture (III) Identify the components of a dye (IV) Obtain pure water from sea water

A I, II, III and IV

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B II and III onlyC I, II and III D III onlyQuestion 17C

Which one of the following statements about reverse osmosis is not true?

A Sea water is first heated before it is separated into water and salt.B It is a process used in Singapore to obtain drinking waterC A membrane is used to separate water from the salt in the seawaterD It is an expensive processQuestion 18D

Which one of the following can be separated by adding water, stirring and filtering?

A Salt and sugar B Salt and copper sulfateC Copper and tin D Sulfur and sugarQuestion 19B

Which of the following substances passes through the partially membrane in reverse osmosis?

A SaltB waterC Waste particlesD Salt and waste particlesQuestion 20C

Which one of the following is NOT a mixture?

A crude oilB paintC airD sugarQuestion 21C

Sand and gravel may be separated from each other through using

A an evaporating basinB a filter funnelC a sieveD a Liebig CondenserQuestion 22A

In the distillation apparatus shown, what are the parts labelled A and B?

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A A = Liebig condenser, B = thermometerB A = Liebig condenser, B = flaskC A = funnel, B = thermometerD A = thermometer, B = funnelQuestion 23C

Which of the following techniques is best suited for purifying whiskey?

   A evaporationB filtrationC distillationD chromatographyQuestion 24D

Water and alcohol are easily separated by distillation because of their

A different melting pointsB different densitiesC different coloursD different boiling pointsQuestion 25B

Which one of the following methods is used to separate the colours in food dyes?

A decantingB evaporationC chromatographyD sievingQuestion 26B

Which of the following pairs of substances may best be separated through distillation?

A salt and sandB water and alcoholC water and soilD sand and soilQuestion 27B

The separation technique that involves heating a solution until the liquid changes into a gaseous state is known as

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A decantingB evaporationC sterilizationD chromatographyQuestion 28A

Name the separation technique shown in the diagram

A evaporationB distillationC decantingD filtrationQuestion 29B

Which one of the following methods would NOT be used to separate an insoluble solid and a liquid?

A decantingB chromatographyC evaporationD filtrationQuestion 30B

Which one of the following solids is immiscible in water?

A copper sulfateB sandC sugarD saltQuestion 31D

In the process of evaporation, which one of the following pieces of laboratory apparatus would NOT be used?

A wire gauzeB evaporating basinC filter funnelD bunsen burnerQuestion 32C

Evaporation is used to   

A separate the dyes in a markerB separate solids of different particle sizeC obtain the solids from the solution

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D separate liquids of different boiling pointsQuestion 33B

Which one of the following is a disadvantage of evaporation?

A It always requires heatB It cannot be used for insoluble solidsC The solvent is not recoveredD All of the solute is recoveredQuestion 34A

Which one of the following substances is a mixture?

A seawaterB saltC waterD copperQuestion 35D

Two or more substances mingled together, but not chemically combined are known as a

A residueB solutionC mixtureD distillateQuestion 36A

Which one of the following techniques would best be used to separate soil and water?

A filtrationB distillationC chromatographyD decanting

Question 37B

Which one of the following is NOT an example of a separation technique?

A tea strainerB iodine sublimationC fishing netD boiling an eggQuestion 38A

A liquid ester used to flavour food is believed to be impure. What would be the best way of testing its purity?

A use paper chromatographyB measure its boiling pointC filter itD evaporate it to drynessQuestion 39D

A mixture contains two substances. What property must the two substances have for them to be separated by paper chromatography?

A Both substances must be solid at room conditions.B Both substances must be colouredC Both substances must have low boiling points

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D Both substances must be soluble in the chromatography solventQuestion 40B

Which substance is likely to be a pure compound?

A green crystals that melt over the range 68oC to 72oCB a colourless liquid which gives two fractions when distilledC a white powder that dissolves in waterD a yellow liquid that boils at 124oCQuestion 41D

The solid surface of the Europa, a moon of Jupiter, is believed to consist of ice. Which test could be used to show that a sample of this ice is pure?

A Show that it melts at exactly 0oCB Show that the solid is colourlessC Heat it and show that it leaves no residue when it is evaporatedD Melt it and show that it all becomes liquid

UNIT 6: electrochemistryQuestion 1D

The process of applying an electric current through a cell to produce a chemical change is called:

A corrosionB ionizationC hydrolysisD electrolysisQuestion 2A

In a redox reaction, the species that loses electrons

A is oxidizedB gains mass at the electrodeC is called the cathodeD decreases in oxidation numberQuestion 3B

As an element is oxidized, its oxidation number

A decreases as electrons are gainedB decreases as electrons are lostC increases as electrons are gainedD increases as electrons are lost

Question 4B

Consider the following redox reaction :

Hg2+ + Cu → Hg + Cu2+ . In this reaction, Hg2+ is a

A stronger reducing agent than Cu2+

B stronger oxidizing agent than Cu2+

C weaker oxidizing agent than Cu2+

D weaker reducing agent than Cu2+

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Question 5A

The species which gains electrons in a redox reaction

A is the oxidizing agentB is oxidizedC increases in oxidization numberD loses massQuestion 6C

When NO2 reacts to form N2O4 the oxidation number of nitrogen

A increases by 8 B increases by 2C does not changeD increases by 4 Question 7B

Consider the following redox reaction:

2MnO4- + 5CH3CHO + 6H+ → 5CH3COOH + 2Mn2+ + 3H2O The species that loses the electron is

A H2O

B MnO4-

C CH3CHO

D CH3COOH

Question 8B

Consider the following:

2NO3- + 4H+ + 2e- → N2O4 + 2H2O

This equation represents

A reductionB oxidationC neutralizationD decompositionQuestion 9D When MnO4- reacts to form Mn2+, the manganese in MnO4- is

A reduced as its oxidation number increasesB oxidized as its oxidation number increasesC reduced as its oxidation number decreasesD oxidized as its oxidation number decreasesQuestion 10A

Which of the following systems would be correct if the zinc half-cell would have been chosen as the standard instead of the hydrogen half-cell?

A The reduction potentials of all the half-cells would remain unchangedB The reduction potentials of all the half-cells would increase by 0.76 VC The reduction potentials of all the half-cells would have positive values

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D The reduction potentials of the hydrogen half-cell decrease by 0.76 VQuestion 11D

Three beakers contain 1.0 M CuCl2. A piece of metal is placed in each of the beakers

BEAKER SOLUTION METAL1 CuCl2 Zn2 CuCl2 Ag3 CuCl2 Ni

Reactions occur inA beaker 2 onlyB beakers 1 and 2 onlyC beakers 1, 2, and 3D beakers 1 and 3 onlyQuestion 12C

Consider the following redox reaction:

3SO2 + 3H2O + ClO3- → 3SO42- + 6H+ + Cl-

The reduction half-reaction isA ClO3- + 6H+ → Cl- + 3H2O + 6e-

B ClO3- + 6H+ + 6e- → Cl - + 3H2O

C SO2 + 2H2O → SO42- + 4H+ + 2e-

D SO2 + 2H2O + 2e- → SO42- + 4H+

Question 13B

A strong oxidizing agent has a

A weak attraction for electronsB strong attraction for electronsC weak ability to become reducedD strong ability to become oxidizedQuestion 14C

Consider the following redox reaction: Fe2+(aq) + Ag(s) → Ag+(aq) + Fe(s)The reaction is

A spontaneous and Eo is positiveB spontaneous and Eo is negativeC non-spontaneous and Eo is positiveD non-spontaneous and Eo is negativeQuestion 15C

In the zinc-copper electrochemical cell , the electrons flow from

A zinc to copper and the mass of zinc increasesB zinc to copper and the mass of copper increasesC copper to zinc and the mass of zinc increasesD copper to zinc and the mass of copper increasesQuestion In the lead-zinc electrochemical cell

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16A (Zn│Zn(NO3)2 1M║Pb(NO3)2 1M│Pb), the cathodeA gains mass as cations are reduced B loses mass as cations are reducedC gains mass as anions are reduced D loses mass as anions are reducedQuestion 17D

The direction of electron flow in an electrochemical cell is from

A anode to cathode through the external wireB cathode to anode through the external wireC anode to cathode through the external wire and back through the salt bridgeD cathode to anode through the external wire and back through the salt bridgeQuestion 18C

In an operating electrochemical cell, the anions migrate

A towards the anode through the wireB towards the cathode through the wireC towards the anode through the salt bridgeD towards the cathode through the salt bridgeQuestion 19B

In the electrolysis of molten zinc chloride, the half-reaction at the anode is

A Cl2 + 2e- → 2Cl-

B 2Cl- → Cl2 + 2e-

C Zn → Zn2+ + 2e-

D Zn2+ 2e- → ZnQuestion 20A

The corrosion of iron can be prevented by attaching a piece of zinc to the iron because the

A iron acts as an anodeB iron reduces more readily than zincC electrons flow from the iron to the zincD iron ions form more readily than zinc ionsQuestion 21B

In an operating zinc-copper electrochemical cell, the oxidizing agent

A gains electrons from the anionsB gains electrons at the anodeC loses electrons to the cationD loses electrodes at the anodeQuestion 22D

An example of electro refining is the

A extraction of aluminum from bauxite

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B purification of lead from an impure anodeC recovery of zinc from a zinc sulphide solutionD production of chlorine from a sodium chloride solutionQuestion 23A

Electroplating always involves the

A reduction of cationsB oxidation at the cathodeC reduction at the anode D oxidation of anionsQuestion 24D

Hydrogen and oxygen react to provide energy in a

A dry cellB lead-acid storage cellC alkaline cellD fuel cellQuestion 25B

An industrial process involving electrolysis is the reduction of

A water forming oxygen gasB sea water forming bromine liquidC water forming hydrogen gasD sea water forming chlorine gasQuestion 26A

If a piece of nickel is to be gold-plated using an electolytic process, which half-reaction occurs at the cathode?

A Ni → Ni2+ + 2e-

B Ni2+ + 2e- → NiC Au3+ + 3e- → AuD Au → Au3+ + 3e-

Question 27C

Consider the following redox reaction

AS2O3 + 2NO3- + 2H2O + 2H+ → 2H3AsO4 + N2O3

In this reaction, nitrogen

A loses electrons and increases in oxidation numberB gains electrons and increases in oxidation numberC gains electrons and decreases in oxidation numberD loses electrons and decreases in oxidation numberQuestion 28A

In an electrochemical cell, the cathode

A is reduced

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B loses massC is the reducing agentD is the site of reductionQuestion 29B

Which of the following metals could be used to cathodically protect a sample of lead?

A silverB ironC copperD goldQuestion 30D

A piece of iron can be prevented from corroding by

A attaching a small piece of lead to itB attaching a small piece of gold to itC placing it in an acidic solutionD attaching a small piece of zinc to itQuestion 31A

As a metal corrodes,

A it acts as a reducing agentB its oxidation number decreasesC it becomes reducedD gains electronsQuestion 32B

Which method will cathodically protect a piece of iron?

A Attach a piece of lead to the ironB Attach a piece of magnesium to the ironC Cover the iron with greaseD Paint the ironQuestion 33A

Compound X is a white solid. When X is warmed with sodium hydroxide solution, a gas is evolved which turns moist red litmus paper blue. When chlorine water is added to an aqueous solution of X, a brown solution is formed. X is probably

A ammonium bromideB ammonium chlorideC sodium chlorideD sodium bromideQuestion 34D

Consider following reaction : Fe2O3(s) + 3CO(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g)Which of the following statement is/are correct?(1) Carbon monoxide is an oxidizing agent.(2) The oxidation number of carbon changes from +2 to +4. (3) The oxidation number of iron changes from +2 to 0.

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A (1) onlyB (2) and (3) onlyC (1) and (3) onlyD (2) onlyQuestion 35D

Which of the following methods can produce hydrogen? (1) adding zinc to water(2) electrolyzing dilute sulphuric acid(3) adding magnesium to dilute hydrochloric acid

A (1) and (2) onlyB (1) and (3) onlyC (2) and (3) onlyD (3) onlyQuestion 36D

Which of the following statements concerning the above set-up is correct?A Oxidation occurs at the magnesium electrodeB The mass of the lead electrode remains unchangedC Electrons flow from the lead electrode to the magnesium electrode through

the external circuitD Electrons flow through the salt bridgeQuestion 37C

In which of the following processes will lead be produced?

(1) the electrolysis of molten lead(II) bromide(2) heating lead(II) oxide strongly(3) adding magnesium to lead(II) nitrate solution

A (1) onlyB (2) and (3) onlyC (1) and (3) onlyD (2) onlyQuestion 38C

The following equation represents the reaction of chlorine with dilute sodium hydroxide solution at room temperature :Cl2(g) + 2NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + NaClO(aq) + H2O(l)

Which of the following statements concerning this reaction is correct?A Chlorine is oxidized and sodium hydroxide is reducedB Sodium hydroxide is simultaneously oxidized and reducedC Chlorine is simultaneously oxidized and reduced

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D Chlorine is reduced and sodium hydroxide is oxidizedQuestion 39D

Which of the following statements concerning bromine and chlorine is INCORRECT?

A They exist as diatomic moleculesB Their atoms have the same number of outermost shell electronsC They formed ions with a single negative chargeD Bromine is a stronger oxidizing agent than chlorineQuestion 40B

Consider the electrolysis system shown below

Which of the following statement concerning this experiment is correct?A The mass of the impure copper (anode) rod decreases.B The electrolysis process can enhance the corrosion resistance of copperC Oxidation takes place at the pure copper rod (cathode)D The blue colour of the copper(II) sulphate solution gradually fades offQuestion 41C

Potassium permanganate solution acidified with dilute sulphuric acid is a commonly-used oxidizing agent. Dilute nitric acid is not used to acidify potassium permanganate solution because

A dilute nitric acid would react with potassium permanganate solutionB nitric acid decomposes more readily than sulphuric acidC dilute nitric acid is an oxidizing agent and would react with the reducing

agentD nitric acid is more expensive than sulphuric acidQuestion 42A

Consider following electrochemical cell:

Which of following changes will lead to an increase voltage of the cell.

(1) The zinc electrode is replaced with a magnesium electrode. (2) The

copper electrode is replaced with an iron electrode.

(3) The sodium chloride solution is replaced with a sugar solution.A (1) onlyB (2) only

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C (2) and (3) onlyD (1) and (3) onlyQuestion 43B

Which of the following solutions can react with bromine water to give a colourless solution?

A sodium iodide solutionB sodium hypochlorite solutionC sodium chloride solutionD sodium sulphite solutionQuestion 44A

Sodium chromate, Na2CrO4, dissolves in water to give a yellow solution. When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to the solution, the following reaction occurs :

2CrO42–(aq) + 2H+(aq) → Cr2O72–(aq) + H2O(l)Which of the following statements concerning this reaction is correct?

A The reaction is a neutralizationB The oxidation number of oxygen remains unchanged during the reactionC Chromate ions act as a reducing agentD The colour of the solution changes from yellow to greenQuestion 45D

Which of the following acids, when heated with copper, would produce a gas? A.

A concentrated ethanoic acidB dilute sulphuric acidC dilute hydrochloric acidD dilute nitric acidQuestion 46C

Which of the following methods can be used to obtain aluminium from aluminium oxide?

A heating the oxide with iron powderB heating the oxide stronglyC electrolysis of the molten oxideD reducing the oxide with carbonQuestion 47B

Which of the following substances will NOT react with bromine water?

A propyleneB ammonium chloride solutionC potassium iodide solutionD sulphur dioxideQuestion 48B

In the electrolysis of a copper(II) sulphate solution, copper is used as the anode and carbon as the cathode. Which of the following statements concerning this electrolysis is correct?

A H2(g) is liberated at the cathode.

B O2(g) is liberated at the anode.

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C The concentration of H+(aq) ions in the solution increases

D The concentration of Cu2+(aq) ions in the solution remains unchanged

Question 49C

When substance X is treated with aqueous solution of iron(II) sulphate, the iron(II) ions act as oxidising agent. X may be

A aqueous ammonia.B zinc granulesC acidified potassium dichromate solutionD concentrated hydrochloric acidQuestion 51A

In an experiment, a copper plate and a zinc plate are placed in a beaker containing dilute sulphuric acid.as shown in the diagram below:

Which of the following statements correctly describes the observation in the experiment?

A Gas bubbles are formed on the surface of the copper plate.B A white precipitate is formed in the beaker.C The mass of the zinc plate remains unchangedD The solution in the beaker turns blueQuestion 52A

Consider the conversions between three nitrogen compounds shown in the flow diagram below:

Which of the following statements is correctA Reaction 1 occurs spontaneously when nitrogen monoxide is exposed to airB Reaction 4 can be brought about by adding concentrated nitric acid to copperC Reaction 3 can be brought about by adding very dilute nitric acid to

magnesiumD The oxidation number of nitrogen remains unchanged in Reaction 2Question In which of the following processes does sulphur dioxide act as a reducing Designed by Master Nguyen Dinh Vinh Faculty of chemistry, College of Science

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53C agent? A passing sulphur dioxide into sodium hydroxide solutionB passing sulphur dioxide into iron(II) sulphate solutionC passing sulphur dioxide into bromine waterD passing sulphur dioxide into waterQuestion 54A

X and Z are metals. X reacts with Z (NO3 ) 2 solution according to the

following equation : X(s) + Z 2+ (aq) → X2+ (aq) + Z(s)Which of the following deductions is correct?

A Z acts as the negative pole when X and Z are used as electrodes in a chemical cell with sodium chloride solution as electrolyte.

B The reactivity of Z is higher than that of XC X acts as a reducing agent in the reaction.D Both X and Z can react with water.Question 55B

Which of the following processes does NOT involves redox reaction

A removal of air pollutants in car exhaust by catalyst convertorB thermal decomposition of limestoneC electrolysis of sea waterD bromination of methaneQuestion 56A

In which of the following reactions does nitrogen exhibit three different oxidation numbers in the species involved?

A NH4NO3 → N2O +2H2O

B 8NH3 + 3Cl2 → 6NH4Cl+N2C Mg + 4HNO3 → Mg(NO3)2 + 2NO2 +2H2O

D 3Cu + 8HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO + 4H2O

Question 57C

Which of the following substances can react with acidified potassium permanganate solution? (1) propylene (2) potassium iodide solution(3) sodium sulphite solution

A (1), (2) and (3)B (1) and (2) onlyC (2) and (3) onlyD (1) and (3) onlyQuestion 58A

Which of the following acids can react with silver ? (1) dilute sulphuric acid(2) concentrated nitric acid(3) concentrated hydrochloric acid

A (2) and (3) only

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B (1) and (3) onlyC (2) onlyD (1) onlyQuestion 59D

In the electrolysis of a copper(II) sulphate solution using copper cathode and graphite anode, which of the following would change (l) pH of the solution (2) colour of the solution(3) mass of the graphite anode

A (l), (2) and (3)B (1) and (2) onlyC (2) and (3) onlyD (1) and (3) onlyQuestion 60C

Which of the following reagents can convert iron(II) ions to iron(III) ions ? (1) chlorine water(2) dilute nitric acid(3) potassium bromide solution

A (1), (2) and (3)B (2) and (3) only C (1) and (2) onlyD (1) and (3) onlyQuestion 61D

Which of the following is / are redox reaction(s) ? (1) CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl

(2) 2CrO42- + 2 H+ → Cr2O72- + H2O

(3) 2 KNO3 → 2 KNO2 + O2A (2) and (3) only B (1), (2) and (3)C (1) and (2) onlyD (1) and (3) onlyQuestion 62D

Which of the following statements concerning potassium and calcium is / are correct ? (1) The reducing power of potassium is stronger than that of calcium.(2) The hardness of potassium is higher than that of calcium.(3) The density of potassium is greater than that of calcium.

A (2) and (3) onlyB (1) and (3) onlyC (2) onlyD (1) onlyQuestion 63A

Upon electrolysis, which of the following solutions would give hydrogen at carbon cathode and oxygen at platinum anode?(1) dilute sodium hydroxide solution(2) dilute copper(II) sulphate solution

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(3) concentrated potassium sulphate solutionA (1) and (3) onlyB (2) and (3) onlyC (1) onlyD (2) onlyQuestion 64A

Which of the following metal oxides CANNOT be reduced by heating with carbon?(1) magnesium oxide(2) lead(II) oxide(3) iron(III) oxide

A (1) only B (2) and (3) onlyC (1) and (3) onlyD (2) onlyQuestion 65B

An oxidizing agent

A loses electronsB decreases in oxidation numberC loses mass in an operating electrochemical cellD acts as an anode in an operating electrochemical cellQuestion 66D

As SO42- changes to SO3

2-, it is said that sulphur is being reduced since its oxidation number:

A decreases as electrons are gainedB increases as electrons are gainedC increases as electrons are lostD decreases as electrons are lostQuestion 67B

Electrons are lost by the

A oxidizing agent as it undergoes oxidationB reducing agent as it undergoes oxidationC reducing agent as it undergoes reductionD oxidizing agent as it undergoes reductionQuestion 68C

In an oxidation half-reaction there is a

A loss of electronsB loss of protonsC gain of electronsD gain of protonsQuestion 69D

As an element is oxidized, its oxidation number

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A decreases as electrons are gainedB increases as electrons are gainedC decreases as electrons are lostD increases as electrons are lostQuestion 70A

In an operating electrochemical cell the function of a salt bridge is to

A transfer electrons from the cathode to the anodeB permit the migration of ions within the cellC allow a non-spontaneous reaction to occurD allow hydrolysis to occur

UNIT 7: ORGANIC CHEMISTRY

Question 1B Molecules of 1-propanol and 2-propanol have different

A molecular massesB structural formulasC percentage compositionsD molecular formulasQuestion 2D

Each member of the alkane series differs from the preceding member by one additional carbon atom and

A 3 hydrogen atomsB 4 hydrogen atomsC 1 hydrogen atomD 2 hydrogen atomsQuestion 3A

The members of the alkanes series of hydrocarbons are similar in that each member has the same

A molecular formulaB general formulaC empirical formulaD structural formulaQuestion 4

BWhat could be the name of a compound that has the general formula R-OH

A methanoic acidB methanolC methaneD methyl methanoateQuestion 5C

Given the following reaction:C2H4 + H2 <======> C2H6

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B substitutionC additionD esterificationQuestion 6B

A reaction between an acid and alcohol produces an ester and

A carbon dioxideB waterC glycerolD ethanolQuestion 7B

All carbon-carbon bonds in a saturated hydrocarbon molecule are

A coordinate covalentB single covalentC double covalent D triple covalentQuestion 8D

Which reaction produces ethyl alcohol as one of the principal products?

A an esterification reactionB a neutralization reactionC a saponification reactionD a fermentation reactionQuestion 9D

Given the following reaction: C4H10 + Br2 <======> C4H9Br + HBr. The above reaction is an example of

A polymerizationB fermentationC additionD substitutionQuestion 10A

The fermentation of C6H12O6 will produce carbon dioxide and

A an alcoholB a polymerC an esterD a soapQuestion 11B

Compounds which have the same molecular formula but different molecular structures are called

A allotropesB isomers

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C isotopesD mixtureQuestion 12A

A molecule of ethene is similar to a molecule of methane in that they both have the same

A number of hydrogen atomsB number of carbon atomsC structural formulaD molecular formulaQuestion 13D

A molecule of which alcohol contains more than one hydroxyl group

A propanolB butanolC pentanolD glycerolQuestion 14A

Hydrogen bonding is most noticable in

A organic acidsB alkanesC alkynesD estersQuestion 15D

Ethyl formate can be produced by heating concentrated sulfuric acid, ethyl alcohol and formic acid. This type of reaction is called.

A polymerizationB saponificationC fermentationD esterificationQuestion 16B

Compared with inorganic compounds in general, organic compounds usually have

A more rapid reaction ratesB lower melting pointsC a tendency to form ions more readilyD greater solubility in waterQuestion 17B

The isomers of propanol differ in

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A molecular massB the arrangement of the carbon atomsC the type of functional groupD the number of carbon atomsQuestion 18C

A process in which large molecules are broken down into smaller molecules is used commercially to increase the yield of gasoline from petroleum. This process is called

A esterificationB hydrogenationC crackingD polymerizationQuestion 19A

A specific arrangement of several atoms which gives characteristic properties to an organic molecule is known as a(an)

A functional groupB alkyl groupC carboxyl groupD groupQuestion 20C

The series of unsaturated hydrocarbons containing a triple bond shared between two adjacent carbon atoms is known as the

A alkanesB alkenesC alkynesD benzenesQuestion 21B

Addition reactions occur in unsaturated hydrocarbons rather than in saturated hydrocarbons because unsaturated hydrocarbons

A contain more atomsB have tetrahedral bondsC have a greater molecular massD contain multiple bondsQuestion 22A

A long chain protein is an example of a(an)

A polymerB isomerC monomerD fatQuestion A fermentation reaction and a saponification reaction are similar in that they

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23B

both can produce

A an esterB an alcoholC an acidD a soapQuestion 24B

CH3 -CH2 -OH is classified as

A an organic acidB an alcoholC an esterD a carbohydrateQuestion 25B

Which organic molecule undergoes resonance?

A benzeneB propyneC methaneD ethanolQuestion 26C

As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkene series increases, the ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

A increasesB decreasesC remains the sameD changes randomlyQuestion 27A

Both cellulose and proteins are classified as

A polymersB ketonesC aldehydesD estersQuestion 28D

In the reaction between methanol and ethanol, the organic compound formed is

A an acidB a ketoneC an ester

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D an etherQuestion 29D

Organic compounds that are essentially nonpolar and exhibit weak intermolecular forces have

A high boiling pointsB high conductivity in solutionC high boiling pointsD low melting pointsQuestion 30A

Which organic reaction involves the bonding of monomers by a dehydration process?

A condensation polymerizationB substitutionC oxidationD addition polymerizationQuestion 31C

In crude petroleum, fractions can be separated according to their differing boiling points

A crackingB the Haber processC fractional distillationD the contact processQuestion 32B

As the molecular mass of the compounds of the alkane series increase, their boiling points

A remain the sameB increaseC change randomly D decreasesQuestion 33A

As the number of carbon atoms in the members of the alkyne series increases, the ratio of carbon atoms to hydrogen atoms

A remains the sameB decreasesC increasesD changes suddenlyQuestion 34C

Which property is generally characteristic of an organic compound?

A insoluble in nonpolar solvents

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B soluble in polar solvents C low melting point D high melting point Question 35C

Compared to the rate of inorganic reactions, the rate of organic reactions generally is

A faster because organic particles contain covalent bondsB faster because organic particles are ions C slower because organic particles contain covalent bonds D slower because organic particles are ions Question 36D

Which compounds are isomers?

A ethane and ethanol B methanol and methanal C methanoic acid and ethanoic acidD 1-propanol and 2-propanol Question 37A

Which statement explains why the element carbon forms so many compounds?

A Carbon readily forms covalent bonds with other carbon atomsB Carbon readily forms ionic bonds with other carbonC Carbon atoms have very high electronegativity atomsD Carbon atoms combine readily with oxygenQuestion 38C

Which polymers occur naturally?

A protein and plastic B protein and nylonC starch and celluloseD starch and nylon Question 39B

What is the name of the compound that has the molecular formula C6H6?

A butyneB benzeneC buteneD butaneQuestion 40

In a molecule of CH4, the hydrogen atoms are spatially oriented toward the centers of a regular

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CA rectangleB squareC tetrahedronD pyramidQuestion 41C

In which pair of hydrocarbons does each compound contain only one double bond per molecule?

A acetylene and ethaneB ethylene and propaneC butene and ethene D benzene and styreneQuestion 42D

Which compound is a saturated hydrocarbon?

A ethanolB ethyneC etheneD ethaneQuestion 43C

What type of reaction is CH3CH3 + Cl2 -> CH3CH2Cl + HCl

A an esterification reactionB a saponification reactionC a substitution reaction D an addition reactionQuestion 44B

Which molecule contains a total of three carbon atoms

A butanolB propanolC 2-methylbutaneD 2-methylpropaneQuestion 45C

What substance is made up of monomers joined together in long chains?

A acidB esterC proteinD ketone

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Question 46D

Which of following substances can not react with sodium hydroxide

A phenolB carboxylic acidC amino acidD aldehydeQuestion 47C

Why does acetic acid can react with sodium carbonate

A Because it is a strong reducing agentB because its taste is sourC be cause it is more acidic than carbonic acidD because in this reaction, a precipitate is formedQuestion 48B

To distinguish ethanol and glycerol we use

A sodium chloride solution and copper sulphate solutionB sodium hydroxide solution and copper sulphate solutionC sodium hydroxide solution and potassium sulphate solutiionD sodium chloride solution and magnesium sulphate solutionQuestion 49C

Which of the following is an isomer of hexanal

A 2-methyl butanalB 3-methylpentan-2-oneC 2,2-dimethylbutan-1-olD 3-ethylpentanalQuestion 51C

Which alkanol will produce a ketone on oxidation using acidified potassium dichromate?

A 2-methyl butan-2-olB 2-methyl propan-2-olC 3-methyl hexan-2-olD pentan-1-olQuestion 52D

4. The alcohol shown below will

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A oxidize to form an aldehydeB oxidize to form a ketoneC oxidize to form an aldehyde and a ketoneD not oxidizeQuestion 53D

Oxidation of 4-methylpentan-2-ol to the corresponding ketone results in the alcohol

A not changing in massB gaining 16g per moleC gaining 2g per moleD losing 2g per moleQuestion 54A

When propanal is heated with Fehling’s solution there is

A a colour change from blue to red/orangeB a colour change from green to orangeC a colour change from pink to blueD no colour changeQuestion 55B

When butanone is heated with Feelling’s solution there is

A a silver mirror formedB no colour changeC a colour change from blue to red/orangeD a colour change from orange to greenQuestion 56B?

When the vapour of liquid X is passed over hot copper(II)oxide, a reaction occurs and the vapour produced gives an orange precipitate with Fehling’s solution. X could be

A propanoneB propanalC propan-2-olD propan-1-olQuestion 57B?

Butan-1-ol is converted to butanal by warming it with potassium dichromate acidified with sulphuric acid. The purpose of the acidified dichromate is to

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A dehydrate the alcoholB oxidize the alcoholC hydrate the alcoholD reduce the alcoholQuestion 58A

What is a functional group?

A a group of atoms that help determine the properties of an organic compoundB a group of organic compounds that undergo similar chemical reactionsC group of organic compounds with similar structural formulasD a carboxyl groupQuestion 59C

Structural isomers are defined as compounds that

A have the same Lewis structure, but different molecular orbital energiesB have the same molecular orbitalsC have identical chemical formulas but different structuresD have identical molar masses.Question 60D

An unsaturated hydrocarbon is

A a cycloalkane with five or more carbonsB a hydrocarbon that contains oxygenC a compound in which all carbon atoms have four single bonds.D a compound in which carbon atoms have double or triple bondsQuestion 61A

All of the statements below concerning hydrocarbons are correct EXCEPT

A most are gases at room temperatureB most have only covalent bonding.C most are insoluble in waterD they tend to be oxidized by O2 to form CO2 and H2O

Question 62B

The process of cracking, which occurs in the refining of petroleum, is

A the method by which hydrocarbons are separatedB the fragmenting of longer chain hydrocarbons to smaller unitsC the method used to eliminate double or triple bondsD the method used to make oxygenated fuelsQuestion All of the following functional groups are members of the class of Designed by Master Nguyen Dinh Vinh Faculty of chemistry, College of Science

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63C compounds known as carbonyls EXCEPT

A ketonesB aldehydesC ethersD carboxylic acidsQuestion 64B

What is the product of the reaction of an aldehyde with potassium dichromate?

A alcoholB carboxylic acid

C alkaneD esterQuestion 65B

The hydrolysis of an ester in the presence of NaOH produces

A an ether and a carboxylate ionB a carboxylate ion and an alcoholC an aldehyde and an etherD an alcohol and an aldehydeQuestion 66A

What is the name of the product of the reaction that occurs when a mixture of methanol and butanoic acid is heated in the presence of acid?

A methyl butanateB methyl butyl etherC butyl formateD 2-methylbutanoneQuestion 67B

When a secondary alcohol is oxidized, the product is a(n)

A esterB ketoneC aldehydeD amineQuestion 68D

The C=O linkage occurs in molecules with the following functional groups EXCEP

A carboxylic acidsB estersC aldehydes

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D aminesQuestion 69B

The functional group RCO2R' is characteristic of an .

A amideB esterC etherD aldehyde Question 70A

Which functional group does not contain an oxygen atom?

A amineB alcoholC esterD ether

UNIT 8: PolymerQuestion 1B

Which of following polymers is a natural polymer

A polyvinyl chlorideB celluloseC teflonD polyethyleneQuestion 2C

The fibre obtained by condensation hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid is

A poly butadieneB nylon 7C nylon 6,6D dacronQuestion 3B

Natural rubber is polymer of

A butadieneB isopreneC chloropreneD tolueneQuestion 4

CTerylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and

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A benzoic acidB phthalic acidC terepthalic acidD salicylic acidQuestion 5D

Polymerization in which two or more chemically different monomers take part is called

A HomopolymerizationB addition polymerizationC vulcanizationD copolymerizationQuestion 6A

Which of following fibres is made of polyamides

A NylonB OrlonC DacronD RayonQuestion 7B

Bakelite is a product of reaction between

A formaldehyde and sodium hydroxideB methanal and phenolC aniline and urea D phenol and chloroform Question 8C Polyethylene is an

A contains triple bondsB reacts with methanol to form DacronC example of a addition polymerD example of a condensation polymerQuestion 9B

Nylon -7 is made by

A additionB condensationC substitutionD combustionQuestion 10D

The word ‘polymer’ meant for material made from

A Any entityB Single entity

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C Two entitiesD Multiple entitiesQuestion 11D

One of characteristic properties of polymer material is

A High elongation B Low hardnessC High temperature stability D High mechanical strengthQuestion 12A

3. Polymers are ___________ in nature.

A OrganicB InorganicC Both A and BD neither A nor BQuestion 13A

In general, strongest polymer group is __________ .

A ThermoplastsB ThermosetsC ElastomersD All polymersQuestion 14C

Ethene is used in the manufacture of addition polymers.What type of reaction is used to produce ethene from ethane?

A crackingB oxidationC hydrogenationD additionQuestion 15C

A condensation polymerization reaction is best described as the

A Oxidation of a hydrocarbon by waterB Oxidation of a hydrocarbon by oxygenC Joining of monomers by the removal of waterD Joining of monomers by the removal of oxygenQuestion 16C

Which of following is not a natural polymer

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A woolB leatherC nylonD silkQuestion 17D

Heating rubber with sulphur is known as

A condensationB galvanizationC polymerizationD vulcanizationQuestion 18D

On the basis mode of formation, polymer can be classified as

A condensation polymer onlyB addition polymer onlyC copolymerD addition and condensation polymerQuestion 19C

Which of following statements is incorrect

A Silk is a natural polymerB Nylon 6,6 is a synthetic polymerC Viscose is a natural fibreD Wool is a natural polymerQuestion 20C

A monomer that can undergo condensation reaction must

A contain double bond in its moleculesB contain hydroxide groupC contain at least two active functional groupD contain carboxyl groupQuestion 21D

Which of following is not a linear polymer

A polyethyleneB vulcanized rubberC polyvinyl chlorideD polystyreneQuestion Which of following is a cross-linked polymer

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22DA polypropeneB polyvinyl alcoholC bakeliteD celluloseQuestion 23A

Which of following is a polyamide

A viscoseB polyethyleneC teryleneD nylon 7Question 24A

Which of following substances can not form polymer

A tolueneB styreneC chloropreneD isopreneQuestion 25A

Which of following is a synthetic polymer

A phenol – formaldehyde resinB proteinC polysaccharideD natural rubberQuestion 26D

Polymer that is often used to manufacture water pipes is

A BakeliteB poly isopreneC polyvinyl alcoholD polyvinyl chlorideQuestion 27D

Nylon 6 can be obtained by

A condensationB additionC vulcanization

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D both condensation and additionQuestion 28D

Buna-s is made from

A buta-1,3-diene and ethyleneB buta-1,2-diene and styreneC buta-1,2-diene and propyleneD buta-1,3-diene and styreneQuestion 29C

Buna-N is an example of

A condensation polymerB natural polymerC copolymerD homoplymerQuestion 30C

The products of condensation reaction of acid 7-amino heptanoic are

A nylon 6 and waterB nylon 6,6 and waterC nylon 7 and waterD nylon 6 and hydrogenQuestion 31A

Polysaccharide are polymers made up of which kind of monomers?  

A Simple sugars B Amino acids C Nucleotides D Fatty acids and glycerol  Question 32A

A protein is a polymer made up of which kind of monomers?  

A Amino acids B Fatty acids and glycerol  C carboxylic acidD Glucose or modified glucose molecules 

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