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Date: PG-QS-13 Session:

Entrance Test for the programs: M. Sc. in Chemistry (C U Kerala)/Chemistry (C U Raj.)/ Chemistry (C U Haryana)/ Applied Chemistry (C U Jharkhand) City: .................................. Hall Ticket Number:

Examination Centre: .............................................. Application Number: Candidate of Name: .................................................. Signature.............................................. Booklet Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1. Do not open the Question Booklet until the Hall Superintendent gives the signal for the

commencement of the examination. 2. Write your Name, your Hall Ticket Number, Application Number and the Name of your Examination

Centre (as found in the HALL TICKET) and sign in the space provided above. Do not write or mark anything anywhere on the Question booklet.

3. If you write anything or put any mark on any part of the Question booklet or Answer Sheet (OMR), except for the space allotted for the relevant entries, or use abusive language or employ any other unfair means, you will render yourself liable to disqualification.

4. After the commencement of the examination, open the Question Booklet. If the Question Booklet or the Answer Sheet or both are not in good condition, then ask for immediate replacement. No replacement will be made 5 minutes after the commencement of the examination.

5. In the ANSWER SHEET (OMR) fill up / shade the required entries (Examination Centre, Hall Ticket Number, Application Number, Programs etc in the space provided) using an HB pencil.

6. The Question Booklet consists of two parts; Part A and Part B. Part A contains 35 questions from English, General Awareness / General Knowledge and Reasoning & Analytical Skills. Part B contains 65 questions from the subject knowledge. Attempt all the 100 Questions.

7. All questions are in Multiple Choice Question (MCQ) pattern. The blank space at the end of the question paper may be used for Rough Work.

8. All questions carry equal marks. Each correct answer carries 1 mark. No NEGATIVE marks for wrong answers.

9. Shade with HB Pencil one of the four ovals against each question number in the Answer Sheet, which according to you correspond to the correct answer.

10. If you want to change any answer, erase the Pencil shading thoroughly and shade the new oval clearly. Only one oval for each question should remain finally shaded. Answers with multiple shading will be considered as wrong answer.

11. Use the answer Sheet carefully. No spare Answer Sheet will be given. 12. At the end of the examination, when the Hall Superintendent announces ‘Stop Writing’, you must stop

answering immediately and place the Answer Sheet inside the Question Booklet (s) and be ready to handover the material.

13. When you have completed answering, stand up and remain in your place. The Hall Superintendent will come to you and collect your Question Booklet and Answer Sheet. Under no circumstances should any of these articles be taken out of the Examination Hall. No candidate shall leave the Hall until these articles are collected.

14. No candidate can leave the Hall during the first 30 minutes and the last 15 minutes of the examination.

15. No candidate can re-enter the Hall after leaving. 16. Calculators, tables or any other calculating devices, mobiles, pagers, Booklets, Papers etc. are strictly

prohibited for this examination.

17 May 2014 III

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PART – A

1. I had a swim, quickly dried ______________, and put on my clothes.

A) mine B) me C) my D) myself

2. I've just recently bought a _______________ car.

A) blue small Japanese B) small blue Japanese

C) Japanese small blue D) Japanese blue small

3. There was no need to hurry for you, _____________ ?

A) was there? B) wasn’t there? C) was it? D) isn't there?

4. Remember to switch off when you’ve finished,’ he said. Transform into indirect

speech.

A) He requested me that I switch off when I’d finished.

B) He reminded me to switch off when I’d finished.

C) He asked me to switch off when I finish.

D) He reminded me that I should switch off when I’d finished.

5. You don’t need ________________ his permission every time you want

_______________ the room.

A) asking, to enter B) to ask, entering

C) to ask, to enter D) for asking, to enter

6. Try on the blue one if ________________________.

A) the red one isn’t fitting well B) the red one will not fit well

C) the red one doesn’t fit well. D) the red one didn’t fit well

7. It is __________ pleasure to do ____________ business with such ___________

efficient organisation.

A) a, a, an B) a, the, an C) a, X, an D) the , X, an

8. ‘I dare say he’ll come later,’ expresses:

A) a polite request B) suggestion C) likelihood D) intention

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9. Change the degree of comparison, without changing the meaning.

Iron is more useful than any other metal.

A) Iron is the most useful metal

B) No other metal is useful than any other metal.

C) Iron is as useful as any other metal.

D) No other metal is as useful as iron.

10. I could not reach in time because my car……..on the way.

A) broke down

B) broke in

C) broke off

D) broke out

11. Pick out the correct sentence.

A) He shall have been playing since three hours by 6 a.m.

B) He will have been playing since three hours by 6 a.m.

C) He will have been playing for three hours by 6 a.m.

D) He shall have been playing for three hours by 6 a.m.

12. Change the following into Passive Voice.

One must do one’s duty.

A) One must done his duty.

B) One’s duty must be done by him.

C) Duty must be done by one.

D) Duty must be done.

13. The early Buddhist literature was written in which language?

A) Prakrit Language B) Pali Language

C) Sanskrit Language D) Regional Language

14. Which battle has transformed King Ashoka that he renounced war and adopted non-

violence?

A) Battle of Kalinga B) Battle of Panipat

C) Battle of Haldighati D) Battle of Khanwa

15. Which of the following is/are an example of tropical cyclones?

A) Willy-willies B) Typoons C) Hurricanes D) All of the above

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16. Which of the following revolution and its area in India is not correctly matched?

A) Yellow Revolution- Oil seeds B) Pink Revolution- Fruits

C) Blue Revolution- Fish D) Grey revolution- Fertilizers

17. In 2013, the National Tiger Conservation Authority has developed certain sites as new

tiger reserves, which of the following sites do not figure in this list

A) Pilibhit in Uttar Pradesh B) Sunabeda in Odisha

C) Satyamangalam in Tamil Nadu D) Mhadei Sanctuary in Goa

18. Who chairs the Joint Sitting of both the Houses of Parliament?

A) President of India B) Speaker of House of the People

C) Prime Minister D) Leader of the ruling political party

19. Bandung Conference was held in which year?

A) 1956 B) 1955 C) 1976 D) 1961

20. By which Constitutional Amendment the word ‘Socialism’ has been included in the

Indian Constitution?

A) 42nd B) 43rd C) 44th D) 45th

21. Which is one of the following is a bad conductor of heat?

A) copper B) wood C) aluminum D) iron

22. The revolution time of reath arth around the sun is

A) 24 hour B) 30 days C) 365.6 days D) 12 hour

23. Which of the following disease is mainly caused by deficiency of Viamin A?

A) Colour blindness B) Night blindness

C) Cataract D) Glaucoma

24. Dadasaheb Phalke award for year 2013 is conferred to

A) Shyam Benegal B) Pran Krishan Sikand

C) Amitabh Bachchan D) Gulzar

25. Choose the correct alternative in place of question mark, 198, 194, 185, 169, ?

A) 92 B) 144 C) 112 D) 136

26. Choose the correct option in place of question mark, Typist : Typewriter :: Writer : ?

A) Paper B) Book C) Pen D) Script

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27. Choose the odd one out,

A) Rectangle B) Rhombus C) Square D) Triangle

28. If KAVERI is coded as VAKIRE, the code for MYSORE will be

A) EROSYM B) SYMROE C) SYMEOR D) SYMERO

29. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man

related to the woman?

A) Cousin B) Son C) Nephew D) Grandson

30. Which name will come in the last in a telephone directory

A) Mohinder B) Mahindra C) Mahinder D) Mahender

31. How many days will there be from 26th January 2004 to 15th May 2004(including both

days)?

A)112 B) 110 C) 113 D) 111

32. Raj is much older than Kavita as he is younger than Pratik. Mehul is as old as Kavita.

Which of the following statements is wrong?

A) Kavita is younger than Pratik B) Mehul is younger than Pratik

C) Pratik is not the oldest D) Raj is older than Mehul

33. The missing number from the given sequence 5, 7, 11, 17, 25, …..is

A) 35 B) 45 C) 33 D) 40

34. If a-b = 6, and a2+b2 = 56, then the value of ab will be

A) 12 B) 10 C) 15 D) 17

35. If a+b+c = 13 and a2+b2+c2 = 69, then the value of ab+bc+ca is

A) -50 B) 69 C) 50 D) 75

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PART B 36. The liquid mixtures which distill with a change in composition are called

A) Azeotropic mixtures B) Equilibrium mixtures C) Zeotropic mixtures D) Non-equilibrium mixtures

37. An alloy is a homogenous mixture of

A) Two solids B) Two liquids C) Two metals D) Two non-metals

38. The Henry’s laws gives the relationship between

A) The pressure and solubility of a gas in a particular solvent B) The temperature and solubility of a gas in a particular solvent C) The composition of the mixture and solubility of a gas in a particular solvent D) The temperature and composition of the gas in a particular solvent

39. The molal depression constant is given by the expression

A) ΔTf x M B) ΔTf x m C) ΔTf ÷ M D) ΔTf ÷m

40. The activity coefficient of strong electrolytes is

A) Always equal to zero

B) Always equal to one C) Always less than one D) Always greater than one

41. The ratio of osmotic pressure of BaCl2, NaCl and urea will be

A) 3:2:1 B) 1:2:3 C) 2:1:3 D) 3:1:2

42. A catalyst will increase the rate of a chemical reaction by

A) Shifting the equilibrium to the right B) Lowering the activation energy C) Shifting the equilibrium to the left D) increasing the activation energy

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43. When the solute undergo association in one of the solvent, the Nernst distribution law is

modified as

A) ∁!=   𝐶!    ×  𝐾!

B) 𝐶!  ×  𝐶! = 𝐾! C) 𝐶! =  𝐾!  ×  𝐶!! D) 𝐶! =  𝐾!  ×  𝐶!!

44. A super saturated solution of sodium chloride is a

A) one phase system B) two phase system C) three phase system D) four phase system

45. A one component system has four phases. Can the four phases co-exist in equilibrium

A) No B) Yes C) Yes, at constant temperature D) Yes, at constant pressure

46. At a triple point A) three phases co-exist in equilibrium B) the vapour pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure C) there are three components in equilibrium D) there are three degrees of freedom

47. The rate law relates the rate of a chemical reaction to

A) The concentrations of reactants B) The temperature C) The activation energy D) The reaction mechanism

48. The half-life for a first order reaction is 2768 years. If the concentration after 11,072 years is 0.0216 M. what was the initial concentration? A) 0.0690 M B) 0.345 M C) 0.173 M D) 1.000M

49. A catalyst

A) Changes the free energy change of a reaction B) Is included in the balanced chemical equation for a reaction C) Changes the mechanism for a reaction D) Slows down the rate of a reaction

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50. The scattering of light by the dispersed phase is called

A) Brownian movement B) Tyndall effect C) Adsorption D) Electrophoresis

51. The molar conductance of a solution of an electrolyte is measured in

A) ohm cm mol-1

B) ohm-1 cm-1 mol-1

C) ohm cm-1 mol-1

D) ohm-1 cm2 mol-1

52. The fraction of the total current carried by the cation or anion is termed as

A) Fractional number B) Speed number C) Carrier number D) Transport number

53. The ionic mobility of Li+ is small as compared to that of K+ ions. It is because

A) Li+ ion is very small

B) Li+ ion is heavily hydrated

C) Li+ has only one principal quantum number

D) Li+ ion has small value of transport number

54. The pH of an aqueous solution of a weak acid and strong base is given by the relation

A) pH = 7 + ½ pka + ½ log C B) pH = 7 + ½ pka - ½ log C C) pH = 7 - ½ pka + ½ log C D) pH = 7 - ½ pka - ½ log C

55. The compressibility factor, z, i.e. the extent to which a real gas deviates from ideal

behavior is given by

A) 𝑍 = 𝑃𝑉 𝑅 𝑇! B) 𝑍 = 𝑃𝑉 𝑅 𝑇 C) 𝑍 = 𝑃𝑉 2𝑅 𝑇 D) 𝑍 = 2𝑃𝑉 𝑅 𝑇

56. Insects can walk on the surface of water due to

A) Viscosity B) Surface tension C) Refractivity D) Optical activity

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57. Which of the following changes the value of K?

A) Adding reactant B) Adding product C) Changing temperature D) Adding a catalyst

58. What causes water molecules to have a bent shape, according to VSEPR theory?

A) ionic attraction and repulsion B) the unusual location of the free electrons C) interaction between the fixed orbitals of the unshared pairs of oxygen D) repulsive forces between specific electrons

59. A dental hygienist uses x-rays (λ = 1.00 Å) to take a series of dental radiographs. The frequency of the electromagnetic radiation from this source is A) 3.00 x 1018 s-1 B) 3.00 x 1016 s-1 C) 3.00 x 1014 s-1 D) 3.00 x 1012 s-1

60. Which of the following atoms would acquire the most negative charge in a polar covalent bond with hydrogen? A) S B) O C) C D) F

61. The Zeff for the 4s electron in Cu(Z=29) is A) 4.72 B) 3.70 C) 5.00 D) 4.10

62. Which of the following ions CANNOT be determined quantitatively by gravimetric

analysis? (i) Ag

+

(ii) K+

(iii) NO

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-

A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (i) and (iii) only D) (ii) and (iii) only

63. Which is a correct statement of bond strength?

A) Compounds with smaller atoms have weaker bond strength. B) Compounds with a higher total number of atoms in the compound have greater

bond strength. C) Compounds containing atoms with greater charges have higher bond strength D) Compounds with more negative lattice energy have lower bond strength.

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64. Which of the following compounds are all ionic compounds? A) LiCl, K2O, NO2 B) CO2, Na2SO4,SCl4 C) SO2, CO2, SiO2 D) CsClO, KCl, MnO3

65. Which is the correct order of bond strength, from greatest to least, for the compounds

MgCl2, MgO, and Mg3N2? A) Mg3N2, MgO, MgCl2 B) MgO, MgCl2, Mg3N2 C) MgCl2, MgO, Mg3N2 D) Mg3N2, MgCl2, MgO

66. What is the correct formula for the compound formed between magnesium and the

phosphate ion? A) MgPO4 B) Mg3PO2 C) Mg3(PO4)2 D) MgP2O8

67. Which is a property of substances that exhibit metallic bonding?

A) low melting points B) high boiling points C) rigid and brittle D) poor conductors of electricity

68. Which is the correct formula for the compound formed between beryllium and nitrogen? A) BeN B) Be3N C) Be3N2 D) Be2N3

69. Which statement regarding stable heteronuclear diatomic molecules is false?

A) Their molecular orbital diagrams are more symmetrical than those of

homonuclear diatomic molecules. B) All have bond orders greater than zero. C) The antibonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more

electropositive element than of the more electronegative element. D) The bonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more

electronegative element than of the less electronegative element.

70. Magnetic measurements indicate that [Co(OH2)6]2+ has 3 unpaired electrons. Therefore, the hybridization of the metal's orbitals in [Co(OH2)6]2+ is: A) sp3 B) sp2d C) dsp2 D) sp3d2

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71. Which one of the following complexes can exhibit geometrical isomerism? A) [Zn(NH3)2Cl2] (tetrahedral) B) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (square planar) C) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (square planar) D) [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ (octahedral)

72. Which is the strongest acid? A) HClO4 B) HClO3 C) HClO2 D) HClO

73. For the compound [Cr(ox)2(H2O)2]Cl2, where “ox” represents the oxalate anion, the

coordination number is ------ and the number of ligands is ------ A) 4, 4 B) 4, 6 C) 6, 4 D) 6, 6

74. Balance the following redox equation in acidic solution with the smallest whole number

coefficients possible. What is the sum of all the coefficients? (Do not forget coefficients of one.) Cu + SO4

2- → Cu2+ + SO2 (in acidic solution) A) 9 B) 10 C) 11 D) 12

75. Which of the following is NOT true for the Group 1A elements? A) Most of them are soft, silvery corrosive metals. B) Their atomic radii increases with increasing molecular weight. C) They are named the alkaline earth metals. D) They are excellent conductors of heat and electricity.

76. The nitrate of which of the following cations would exhibit paramagnetism to the

GREATEST extent? A) Co3+ B) Cr3+ C) Fe3+ D) Mn3+

77. Which of the following properties of the alkaline earth metals decreases with increasing

atomic weight? A) ionic radii B) ionization energy C) atomic radii D) activity

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78. Which polyatomic ion is incorrectly matched with its ionic geometry? A) SiCl62- - trigonal bipyramidal B) PH4

+ - tetrahedral C) ClO2

- - angular D) NH4

+ - tetrahedral

79. Which molecule is nonpolar? A) H2Se B) BeH2 C) PF3 D) CHCl3

80. Which one of the following compounds will have highest boiling point?

A) n-Butanol B) 2-Butanone C) n-Butyraldehyde D) n-Butane

81. The absolute configuration of the chiral centers 1 and 2 in the given molecules is

A) (1R, 2S) B) (1S, 2R) C) (1S, 2S) D) (1R, 2R)

82. Which of the following compounds can exhibit optical isomerism? A) 1-Chloropentane B) 1,5-dichloropentane C) 2-Chloropentane D) 3-Chloropentane

83. The correct order of stability of carbocation is: A) CH3

+ > (CH3)2CH+ > CH3CH2+ > (CH3)3C+

B) (CH3)3C+ > (CH3)2CH+ > CH3CH2+ > CH3

+ C) (CH3)3C+ > (CH3)2CH+ > CH3

+ > CH3CH2+

D) CH3CH2+ > CH3

+ > (CH3)3C+ > (CH3)2CH+

84. Identify which of the given compounds undergo SN

2 reaction faster with OH- A) Isopropyl Chloride B) 2,2-dimethyl-1-propyl chloride C) Ethyl Chloride D) tert-Butyl Chloride

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85. The first person, who did the mechanical separation of the racemic mixture into individual enantiomer is A) H.C. Brown B) Sharpless C) C) H.E. Fischer D) L. Pasteur

86. Identify the product formed in the following reaction.

A) ortho-Hydroxylbenzaldehyde B) Benzoquinone C) ortho-Chlorophenol D) cinnamaldehyde

87. The conversion of silver salt of the carboxylic acid to alkyl halide is known as

A) Ritter reaction B) Hunsdiecker reaction C) Darzens reaction D) Aldol reaction

88. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE?

A) When a chiral compound with one stereogenic is undergoing SN

1 reaction pathway, the resultant product will be achiral

B) When a chiral compound with one stereogenic is undergoing SN2 reaction

pathway, the resultant product will be chiral with retention of the configuration. C) When a chiral compound with one stereogenic is undergoing SN

1 reaction pathway, the resultant product will be chiral with walden inversion

D) In SN2 reaction the rate of the reaction depends upon both substrate and

attacking nucleophile.

89. Identify which of the following compounds could be resolvable.

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90. Among HCN, CS2, allene and CO, the common hybridization at the carbon atoms is:

A) Sp3 B) sp2 C) dsp3 D) sp

91. The order of basicity of the following substituted anilines is:

(A) IV > II > III > I (B) I > IV > III > II (C) I > IV > II > III (D) IV > I > II > III

92. The ester that undergoes acid hydrolysis most readily is:

93. Phenyl isocyanide is prepared by

A) Carbylamine reaction B) Grignard reaction C) Wurtz reaction D) Aldol reaction

94. Which of the following statement is NOT TURE?

A) Carbocation is the intermediate in SN1 mechanism

B) Carbocation is the intermediate in SN2 mechanism

C) Carbocation is the intermediate in E1 elimination mechanism D) Presence of chiral center is NOT compulsory for a compound to be chiral.

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95. Identify the product with molecular formula C15H16O2, formed when phenol reacts with acetone in presence of conc.H2SO4.

96. Identify the compound, which cannot be purified by sublimation technique.

A) Camphor B) Benzoic acid C) Napthalene D) MgCl2

97. The most stable conformation of cyclohexane is:

A) Chair form B) Boat form C) Twist boat D) Newman(eclipsed)

98. Which of the following compound is aromatic?

99. Oxidation of toluene with chromyl chloride gives benzaldehyde. This reaction is known

as: A) Perkin’s reaction B) Etard’s reaction C) benzoin condensation D) Swern oxidation

100. When toluene is reacted with bromine in presence of UV light (hn), the product formed

will be A) Benzylbromide B) m-bromotoluene C) o-bromotoluene D) benzoylbromide