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    Diabetes

    685.1 Physiology of Glucose RegulationPost Test

    Page 1 of3

    These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of

    the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when thetest is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.1) The primary source of energy for all living organisms is:

    @ a) glucose.

    o b) fat.o c) protein.o d) vitamins.

    2) To a large extent, the regulation of the blood glucose level depends on the:

    o a) stomach.o b) large intestine.@ c) liver.

    o d) kidney.

    3) Which of the following is the best description of glycogen?

    @ a) A storage material

    o b) Another name for glucoseo c) A secretion from the pancreaso d) A secretion from the alpha cells

    4) Glycogenolysis is the metabolic conversion of:

    @ a) glycogen into glucose.

    o b) glucagon into glucose.o c) glucose into glycogen.o d) amino acids into giucose.

    5) Glycogenolysis occurs when:

    o a) food is eaten.@ b) the blood glucose level drops.

    o c) the blood glucose level rises.o d) the liver cells are saturated with glycogen.

    6) Receptors on cell membranes that allow glucose to enter the cells are activated by:o a) the potassium ion.o b) the phosphate ion.

    o c) giycogen.@ d) insulin.

    - - .. 7) In the liver, insulin:

    o a) promotes the stored glycogen to be converted to glucose.o b) is converted to alpha cells.

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    @ c) inhibils lhe conversion of glycogen to glucose.

    o d) is converted 10bela cells.

    Page 2 of3

    8) Almost all of the body's tissues and organs require insulin for glucose to be used EXCEPT:

    o a) muscles.o b) the liver.@ c) the brain.

    o d) the heart.

    9) Insulin is secreted from the:

    o a) alpha cells of the pancreas.o b) beta cells of the liver.o c) muscle cells.@ d) bela cells of the pancreas.

    10) Which of the following is NOT an effect of insulin?

    o a) Prevenls fals from being used for energy@ b) Blocks prolein synlhesis

    o c) Enhances fal storageo d) Transports amino acids inlo cells

    11) Without insulin:

    @ a) glucose does nol enter the cells.

    o b) hypoglycemia occurs.o c) glucose cannot enter the brain.o d) All the above

    12) Counter regulatory hormones are stimulated by:

    o a) an elevated blood glucose.o b) abnormal lipid profiles.@ c) hypoglycemia.

    o d) All the above

    13) Which of the following counter-regulatory hormones is produced by the alpha cells of the

    pancreas?

    @ a) Glucagon

    o b) Cortisolo c) Growth hormoneo d) Epinephrine

    14) Glucagon acts by:

    o a) converting glucose to glycogen.

    @ b) converting glycogen to glucose.

    o c) stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas.o d) stimulating the alpha cells of the pancreas.

    15) Glucagon:

    o a) stimulates glycogenolysis.

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    o b) stimulates gluconeogenesis.o c) raises blood glucose.

    @ d) All the above

    Page 3 of3

    16) Which of these counter-regulatory hormones causes the most rapid rise in blood glucose?

    o a) Glycogeno b) Cortisolo c) Growth homnone@ d) Epinephrine

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    Diabetes

    685.2 Pathophysiology of Diabetes

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    Page 1 of3

    These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of

    the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when thetest is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.1) Approximately __ of the United States population has diabetes mellitus.

    o a) 2%o b) 4%@ c) 6%

    o d) 10%

    2) Of the total number of Americans with diabetes, __ have type 2.

    o a) 10%o b) 24%

    o c) 70%@ d) 90%

    3) An individual with metabolic syndrome has which of these signs and symptoms?

    o a) Overweight or obesityo b) High blood pressureo c) Abnormal lipid levels@ d) All of the above

    4) All of the following are symptoms of type 1 diabetes EXCEPT:

    oa) polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria.

    @ b) weight gain.

    o c) lack of energy.o d) blurred vision.

    5) Which of the following statements is NOT accurate about type 1 diabetes?

    o a) Destruction of pancreatic beta cells is due to an autoimmune response.o b) There is a slight genetic predisposition to type 1 diabetes.@ c) Signs and symptoms develop gradually oVer a long period of time.

    o d) A person with type 1 diabetes must use insulin.

    6) Which of the following meet the criteria for a diagnosis of diabetes?o a) A fasting plasma glucose of 126 mg/dL or highero b) A casual plasma glucose unrelated to meals of 200 mg/dL or higher with symptoms of diabeteso c) A plasma giucose toierance test reading of 200 mg/dL or higher during as oral glucose tolerance test.@ d) All of the above

    7) The peak age for development of type 1 diabetes is:

    o a) 8 to 10 years.@ b) 12 to 14 years.

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    a c) 20 to 25 years.

    a d) over 50 years.

    8) When the body burns fat rather than carbohydrates for energy. which of the following symptoms

    may occur?

    a a) Abdominal pain

    a b) Nausea and vomiting

    a c) Diarrhea

    a d) All of the above

    @ e) a and b

    9) Ketoacidosis is a common complication of type 2 diabetes.

    a a) True

    @ b) False

    10) Blurred vision in diabetes is due to:

    a a) decreased osmotic pressure.

    a b) use of fats rather than carbohydrates for energy.

    @c) swelling of the lens.

    a d) Polydipsia.

    11) Which of the following ethnic groups has the LOWEST incidence of type 2 diabetes?

    a a) Native Americansa b) African-Americans

    a c) Latinos

    @ d) Caucasians

    12) There has been a 30% increase In the incidence of type 2 diabetes. Which age group has seen

    the most dramatic rise?

    aa) 20 to 30 years of age

    @ b) 30 to 40 years of age

    a c) 40 to 50 years of age

    a d) Over 50 years of age

    13) Type 2 diabetes can be caused by:

    a a) decreased insulin production by the beta cells of the pancreas.

    a b) destruction of the alpha cells of the pancreas.

    a c) insulin resistance by the body's tissues.

    @ d) a and c

    a e) band c

    14) Symptoms of metabolic syndrome include:

    a a) being overweight or obese, especially around the hips and thighs.

    a b) high blood pressure.

    a c) high triglycerides.a d) clotting disorders.

    @ e) b, c, and d

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    15) People with metabolic syndrome are at high risk for developing:

    o a) diabetes.o b) cardiac disease.o c) multiple sclerosis.@ d) a and b

    o e) All of the above

    16) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state usually occurs with:

    o a) type 1 diabetes.@ b) type 2 diabetes.

    o c) both types of diabetes.

    Page 3 of3

    17) If a person has an abnormally high level of plasma glucose, but that level is below that indicating

    diabetes, he or she may be diagnosed has having:

    o a) metabolic syndrome.o b) hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state.o c) ketoacidosis.@ d) prediabetes.

    18) Complications of diabetes include:

    o a) increased risk of heart disease or stroke.o b) retinopathy.o c) nephropathy.o d) neuropathy.@ e) All of the above

    19) A common problem in women with type 2 diabetes is:

    @ a) yeast infection.

    o b) ovarian polyps.o c) pelvic inflammatory disease.o d) Endometriosis.o e) All of the above

    20) Prediabetes may develop into:

    o a) type 1 diabetes.@ b) type 2 diabetes.

    o c) either type of diabetes.o d) neither type of diabetes.

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    Diabetes

    685.3 Nutrition Therapy, Exercise, and Sick DayManagement

    Post Test

    These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of

    the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the

    test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.1) The goals of medical nutrition therapy for people with type 1 and type 2 diabetes are to:

    a a) keepblood glucose levels as close to normal as possible.

    a b) preventor reducethe risk of diabetic complications.

    a c) achievea lipid and lipoprotein level that reducesthe risk of cardiovasculardisease.

    @ d) All the above

    2) Healthy eating and regular exercise can usually prevent all of the following EXCEPT:

    @a) type 1 diabetes.

    a b) metabolicsyndrome.

    a c) type 2 diabetes.

    a d) hypoglycemia.

    3) The body's primary energy source is:

    @ a) carbohydrate.

    a b) protein.

    a c) fiber.

    a d) fat.

    4) Carbohydrates should comprise approximately what percentage of the daily diet for a person withdiabetes?

    a a) 20% t030%

    a b) 30% to 45%

    @ c) 45% to 55%

    a d) 50% to 70%

    5) Which of the following foods is NOT a source of carbohydrate?

    a a) Milk

    @ b) Steak

    a c) Cereal

    a d) Fruit

    6) Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index?

    a a) Eggs

    @ b) Potatoes

    a c) Milk

    a d) Asparagus

    7) What percentages of people with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes are overweight or obese?

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    o a) 20% to 30%o b) 40% to 50%o c) 60% to 70%

    @ d) 80% to 90%

    8) All of the following are accurate statements about protein EXCEPT:

    o a) protein is needed for tissue growth and repair.

    o b) protein can be used as a secondary energy source.@ c) protein is primarily responsible for raising the blood glucose level after meals.

    o d) protein sources include meat, eggs, and legumes.

    9) Protein intake should be limited to 10% of the total daily food intake for people with:

    o a) hypoglycemia.o b) retinopathy.@ c) nephropathy.

    o d) neuropathy.

    Page 2 of3

    10) Which of the following nutrients has been shown to help individuals with type 2 diabetes lower

    blood glucose and blood fat levels?

    o a) Protein@ b) Fiber

    o c) Carbohydrateo d) Vitamins

    11) The preferred method for diabetes meal planning is to:

    o a) use food exchanges.

    o b) keep a food diary.o c) count calories.@ d) count carbohydrates.

    12) Exercise that involves major muscle groups and requires oxygen for muscular effort is referred

    to as:

    o a) strenuous exercise.@ b) aerobic exercise.

    o c) regular exercise.o d) anaerobic exercise.

    13) All of the following statements are accurate regarding exercise and hypoglycemia EXCEPT:

    @ a) exercise causes blood glucose levels to rise.

    o b) hypoglycemia symptoms can sometimes occur hours after exercise.o c) exercise increases insulin sensitivity.o d) individuals who use insulin or drugs that stimulate insulin secretion are at risk for exercise- related

    hypoglycemia.

    14) Which of the following is NOT an appropriate strategy to prevent and/or treat exercise-induced

    hypoglycemia?

    @ a) Begin exercise if blood glucose is 80 mg/dL.

    o b) Have a carbohydrate snack if the exercise session is over an hour.

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    a c) Monitor blood glucose before and during exercise.

    a d) Check blood glucose after exercise

    15) Which of these statements regarding illness in people with diabetes is NOT accurate?

    @ a) There is a decrease in the secretion of counter-regulatory hormones.

    a b) The body begins to break down fats for energy.

    a c) Insulin resistance is increased.

    a d) Muscle uptake of glucose is inhibited.

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    Diabetes

    685.4 Insulin and Oral Antidiabetic AgentsPost Test

    Page 1 of3

    These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of

    the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when the

    test is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.1) What percentage of those with diabetes need insulin injections, oral antidialietic medications, or

    both, to control blood glucose levels?

    a a) 25%

    a b) 50%a c) 65%

    @ d) 75%

    2) Persons with type 1 diabetes need exogenous insulin because they:

    @ a) have complete or almost complete absence of endogenous insulin production by the beta cells.

    a b) are usually overweight or obese.

    a c) often have allergic reactions to oral anti-diabetic agents.a d) have higher than nonmal amounts of counter-regulatory hormones.

    3) Which of the following individuals may need insulin therapy?

    a a) Those with type 2 diabetes whose oral antidiabetic therapy doesn't adequately control blood glucose levels

    a b) Pregnant women with gestational diabetes

    a c) Individuals with secondary diabetes

    @ d) All of the above

    4) Insulin lispro and insulin aspart are NOT:a a) rapid-acting.

    a b) given Immediately before or after meals.

    @ c) long-acting.

    a d) synthetic.

    5) All of the following are true statements about insulin preparations EXCEPT:

    @ a) intermediate-acting insulin has an onset of action of 15 to 30 minutes.

    a b) insulin is supplied in U-50, U-100, and U-500 concentration.

    a c) human insulin is the preferred insulin source.

    a d) clear insulin that appears cloudy should not be used.

    6) All of the following statements regarding insulin are true EXCEPT:

    a a) regular insulin has an R on the label.

    a b) regular insulin can be given IV.

    @ c) insulin is usually injected sub Q at a 45 degree angle.

    a d) two nurses need to check the insulin dosage.

    7) Which insulin preparation provides basal insulin coverage over a 24-hour period?

    aa) Ultralente

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    @ b) Insulin glargine

    o c) NPH" 0d) Insulin aspart

    8) The MOST serious side effect of the sulfynourea oral antidiabetic agents is:

    @ a) hypoglycemia.

    o b) gastrointestinal distress.

    o c) liver damage.o d) weight gain.

    9) Which of these types of insulin can be given intravenously?

    o a) Insulin aspart@ b) Regular insulin

    o c) NPHo d) Insulin glargine

    Page 2 of3

    10) All of the following statements are true of oral antidiabetic therapy EXCEPT:

    o a) oral agents can be used as single therapy, in combination with each other, or with insulin.

    o b) some oral agents can be used to treat diabetes in persons who can produce some endogenous insulin.@ c) oral agents cannot be used with insulin.

    o d) the sulfonylureas were the first oral agents developed.

    11) Which of the following oral antidiabetic agents is NOT associated with hypoglycemia?

    @ a) metformin

    o b) glyburideo c) glipizideo d) repaglinide

    12) Which oral antidiabetic agent acts in the small intestine?

    o a) metformin

    o b) nateglinide@ c) miglitol

    o d) glyburide

    13) Oral antidiabetic drugs interrupt pathologic processes in type 2 diabetes in all of the following

    ways EXCEPT by:

    o a) increasing insulin production in the pancreas.@ b) increasing glycogen production in the pancreas.

    o c) decreasing insulin resistance at the tissue level.

    o d) inhibiting glucose production by the liver.14) Which of these drugs is most likely to cause hypoglycemia?

    @ a) sulfonylureas

    o b) thiazolidinedioneso c) biguanideso d) alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

    Match each drug category with its primary action.

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    15) alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

    -- 0a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas

    @ b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine

    o c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue levelo d) inhibits glucose production by the liver

    16) amino acid derivatives

    @ a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas

    o b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestineo c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue levelo d) inhibits glucose production by the liver

    17) sulfonylureas

    @ a) stimulates insulin production from pancreas

    o b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestineo c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue levelo d) inhibits glucose production by the liver

    18) thiazolidinediones

    o a) stimulates insulin production from pancreaso b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine@ c) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue level

    o d) inhibits glucose production by the liver

    19) biguanidess

    o a) stimulates insulin production from pancreaso b) inhibits carbohydrate absorption from the intestine

    oc) decreases insulin resistance at the tissue level

    @ d) inhibits glucose production by the liver

    Page 3 of3

    20) If a person needed to mix two different types of insulin, which should he or she draw up first?

    @ a) Regular

    o b) Intermediate-actingo c) NPH lenteo d) Ultra lente

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    Diabetes

    Page 1 of 4

    685.5 Hypoglecemia, Hyperglycemia, And MonitoringPost Test

    These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of

    the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when thetest is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.1) The risk of hypoglycemia:

    o a) is negligible for people with type 2 diabetes.@ b) has increased lately due to an emphasis on strict blood glucose control.

    o c) is less of a problem than in prior years due to intensive insulin therapy.o d) only affects those who use insulin.

    2) All of the following are symptoms of neuroglycopenia EXCEPT:

    @ a) sweating.

    o b) mental confusion and disorientation.o c) irrational or unusual behavior.o d) lack of concentration.

    3) Autonomic symptoms of hypoglycemia are caused by the effect of:

    o a) glucagon.@ b) epinephrine.

    o c) glycogen.o d) glucose.

    4) Prolonged strenuous exercise is a common cause of which diabetes complication?

    oa) Diabetic ketoacidosis

    o b) Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

    o c) Hyperglycemia@ d) Hypoglycemia

    Match each symptom with its cause.

    5) Uncoordination

    o a) hypoglycemia@ b) neuroglycopenia

    6) Profuse sweating

    @ a) hypoglycemia

    o b) neuroglycopenia

    7) Drowsiness

    o a) hypoglycemia@ b) neuroglycopenia

    8) Fast pulse and respiratory rate

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    @ a) hypoglycemia

    o b) neuroglycopenia

    9) Slurred speech

    o a) hypoglycemia@ b) neuroglycopenia

    10) Trembling or shaking@ a) hypoglycemia

    o b) neuroglycopenia

    11) Difficulty concentrating

    o a) hypoglycemia@ b) neuroglycopenia

    12) Dizziness

    o a) hypoglycemia@ b) neuroglycopenia

    Page 2 of4

    13) Prolonged hyperglycemia from uncontrolled diabetes can lead to which of these acute metabolic

    crises?

    @ a) Ketoacidosis and hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

    o b) Diabetic retinopathy and hypertensiono c) Cerebral vascular accident and severe dehydrationo d) Diabetic neuropathy and acute dehydration

    14) A characteristic respiratory symptom seen in diabetic ketoacidosis is:

    o a) shallow breaths.@ b) deep, rapid respirations.

    o c) wheezes and rales.o d) stridor.

    15) Kussmal respirations are a physiologic response to:

    o a) alkalosis.o b) dehydration.@ c) acidosis.

    o d) hypoglycemia.

    16) Which of the following features is NOT usually present in hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state

    (HHS)?

    o a) Severe hyperglycemiao b) Neurologic symptoms@ c) Ketosis

    o d) Profound dehydration

    17) HHS is a life-threatening emergency with a high mortality rate, Which of the following patients is

    at greatest risk?

    o a) A middle aged person with type 1 diabeteso b) A young person with type 2 diabetes

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    o c) A woman with gestational diabetes@ d) An elderly person with type 2 diabetes

    18) Which of the following signs and symptoms characterize HHS?

    o a) Moderate hyperglycemia, ketosis, dehydrationo b) Kussmaul's breathing, dehydration, ketonuria

    oc) Hyperglycemia, ketosis, osmotic diuresis

    @ d) Severe hyperglycemia, profound dehydration

    Page 3 of 4

    19) The sudden onset of confusion associated with HHS may mimic which of the following

    conditions?

    o a) Diabetic ketoacidosiso b) Alzheimer's disease@ c) Cerebral vascuiar accident

    o d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

    20) The mortality rate for HHS is approximately:

    o a) 5%o b) 10%@ c) 15%

    o d) 20%

    21) Blood glucose levels in HHS are often very high because:

    o a) most individuals with HHS are elderly and consume more fiuids than recommended.@ b) there is prolonged osmotic diuresis with resulting dehydration.

    o c) an osmotic diuresis prevents fluid and electrolyte loss.o d) individuais seek care as soon as symptoms occur.

    22) The reason the outcome of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is frequently less dire than that of HHS isthat:

    @ a) a person with DKA frequently receives more timely medical help due to gastrointestinal symptoms.

    o b) DKA generally occurs among older adults who are more likely to take better care of themselves.

    o c) people with HHS have some insulin reserves that tend to blunt symptoms.o d) those with DKA are not likely to lose consciousness.

    23) All of the following patients should regularly monitor for the presence of urine ketones EXCEPT:

    o a) a pregnant woman with pre-existing diabetes.o b) a person with type 1 diabetes.o c) a pregnant woman with gestational diabetes@ d) a person with type 2 diabetes

    24) The American Diabetes Association (ADA) recommends that the A1C hemoglobin goal for

    persons with diabetes is:

    o a) less than 4%.o b) between 4% and 6%.@ c) less than 7%.

    o d) between 7% and 10%.

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    25) The American College of Endocrinology recommends that the H1C be:

    @ a) below 6.5%.

    o b) above 7%.

    o c) below 4%.o d) the same as the ADA's recommendation.

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    Diabetes

    Page 1 00

    685.6 Neuropathy, Nephropathy, and Retinopathy

    Post Test

    These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of

    the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when thetest is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.1) Which of the following statements best describes neuropathy, nephropathy and retinopathy?

    o a) They are an inevitableconsequenceof diabetesand ultimatelylead to extreme disability.o b) They affect everyonewith type 1 diabetes.o c) They affect everyonewith type 2 diabetes.@ d) Measuressuch as tight control of blood glucose can reduceoccurrenceand severity.

    2) The most common chronic complication of diabetes is:

    o a) retinopathy.o b) diabeticketoacidosis.@ c) neuropathy.

    o d) nephropathy.

    3) Approximately what percentage of individuals with type 1 and type 2 diabetes develop

    neuropathy?

    o a) 10% to 20%o b) 35% to 40%@ c) 50% t070%

    o d) 75% to 85%

    4) Symptoms of peripheral neuropathy include:

    o a) numbnessand tingling.o b) pain.o c) burningsensations.@ d) All the above

    5) The most important strategy to prevent peripheral neuropathy is:

    o a) physicaltherapy.o b) anti-inflammatorydrugs.@ c) strict control of blood glucose levels.

    o d) muscle relaxants.

    6) Approximately what percentage of people with diabetes develop cardiovascular autonomic

    neuropathy?

    o a) 10%o b) 25%@ c) 40%

    - . . . 0d) 70%

    7) Which of the following actions should be avoided by a person with a fixed heart rate due to

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    cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy?

    a a) Sudden changes in activity or position

    " a b) Straining

    a c) Exercising in temperature extremes

    @ d) All the above

    8) Hypoglycemia unawareness is caused by damage to the nerves that innervate the:

    a a) peripheral nervous system.

    a b) cardiovascular system.

    a c) central nervous system.

    @ d) adrenal glands.

    9) Which of the following are symptoms of bladder dysfunction in a person with diabetic

    neuropathy?

    a a) Decreased urinary frequency

    a b) Incomplete or difficult bladder emptying

    a c) Frequent urinary tract infections due to urinary retention

    @ d) All the above

    10) The most serious consequence of genitourinary autonomic neuropathy is:

    @ a) ascending urinary tract infections.

    a b) urinary incontinence.

    a c) vaginal dryness.

    a d) erectile dysfunction.

    11) The leading cause of death for people with type 1 diabetes is:

    a a) cardiovascular disease.

    @ b) nephropathy.

    a c) autonomic neuropathy.a d) diabetic ketoacidosis.

    12) The first sign of diabetic nephropathy is:

    @ a) microalbuminuria.

    a b) ketonuria.

    a c hypertension.

    a d) nausea and vomiting.

    13) All of the following statements are true regarding diabetes and eye disease EXCEPT:

    a a) diabetes is the leading cause of blindness in people between 20 and 74 years of age.

    a b) diabetic retinopathy is the most common type of visual impairment affecting those with diabetes.@ c) only individuals with type 1 diabetes are at risk for retinopathy and other eye conditions.

    a d) diabetic retinopathy is often detectable within five years after diabetes is diagnosed.

    14) Which of the following statements about diabetic retinopathy is correct?

    @ a) Diabetic retinopathy can worsen during pregnancy.

    a b) Diabetic retinopathy improves during pregnancy.

    a c) Very few persons with diabetes develop retinopathy

    a d) Proliferative retinopathy precedes non-proliferative retinopathy.

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    Diabetes

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    685.7 Cardiovascular Disease and The Diabetic Foot

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    These questions may be used as a pretest, or if printed out, as a "review" of the main points of

    the program. If the test is taken on the computer, the responses are recorded, and when thetest is completed, a score is given along with the correct responses.1) The primary cause of death for people with both type 1 and type 2 diabetes is:

    o a) autonomic neuropathy.@ b) cardiovascular disease.

    o c) nephropathy.

    o d) peripheral vascular disease.

    2) Which of the following statements regarding atherosclerosis is accurate?

    o a) Atherosclerosis occurs when the walls of blood vessels become thick, hard, and non-elastic.@ b) Atherosclerosis produces deposits of lipids and calcium that eventually decrease blood vessel diameter.

    o c) Atherosclerosis occurs late in the course of diabetes.o d) There is no relationship between diabetes control and the development of atherosclerosis.

    3) Which of the following risk factors for cardiovascular disease is NOT controllable?

    o a} Smokingo b) Diet@ c) Genetic makeup

    o d) Dyslipidemia

    4) In persons with diabetes, cardiovascular disease is:

    o a) more severe than in non-diabetics.o b) often present when diabetes is diagnosed.o c) seen at an earlier age.@ d) All the above

    5) Which type or category of medication should be used with caution in patients with diabetes?

    o a) Low-dose aspirino b) Diureticso c) ACE inhibitors@ d) Beta blockers

    6) The best indicator of peripheral sensory neuropathy is:

    o a) palpable pedal pulses.@ b) inability to feel a monofilament on the feet.

    o c) calluses developing over the metatarsal heads.

    7) The two most effective strategies for preventing complications in the feet are to: LP'O

    o a) walk daily and avoid 'breaking in" shoes. e1eo6ulsslWo b) wear well-filting shoes and cut toenails carefully. WV3M1SM3sn@ c) control blood glucose and stop smoking.

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    B) Most diabetic foot ulcers:

    -, a a) require parenteral antibiotics.a b) involve joint spaces and bone.@ c) are caused by minor, repetitive trauma.

    a d) cause pain and are recognized quickly by the person.

    9) All of the following areas of the feet are prone to foot ulcers EXCEPT:a a) the plantar surfaces of the great toe and the 5th toe.@ b) the dorsal surface of the 1st and 5th toes.

    a c) the 1st and 5th plantar metatarsal heads.

    a d) the heel.

    10) Peripheral sensory neuropathy can result in:

    a a) decreased foot sensation.

    a b) Charcot foot.a c) damage to nerves that control blood flow, perspiration and skin moisture.

    ~) d) All the above

    Match the type of injury with the appropriate risk factors

    11) Foreign objects in the shoe

    @ a) mechanical

    a b) chemicala c) thermal

    12) Walking barefoot

    @ a) mechanical

    a b) chemical

    a c) thermal

    13) Using a heating pad

    a a) mechanicala b) chemical@ c) thermal

    14) Using a topical over-the-counter corn or callus treatment

    a a) mechanical

    @ b) chemical

    a c) thermal

    15) Wearing shoes with poor cushioning

    @ a) mechanical

    a b) chemicala c) thermal

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