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GUJARAT FIBRE GRID NETWORK LIMITED (GFGNL)

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Number Series

001 QUESTION PAPER

MANAGER (PROJECT) A

Time: 60 Minutes Maximum Marks: 60

General Instructions

1. This question paper contains total of 60 questions. Each question is of

multiple choice type.

2. For each question, you need to pick exactly one of the four choices which you think is the most appropriate answer for the question.

3. Each question carries one mark and you need to attempt all the questions.

4. Answers to the questions are to be marked on the OMR sheet provided.

Instructions for writing on OMR sheet

1. Fill in the question paper series code given above in your OMR sheet.

2. As far as possible, fill in the answer only after you are sure that you do

not need to change it. Once an answer is filled in the OMR sheet, it can

not be changed/erased.

3. Check that you are filling the answer for the corresponding question on the

OMR sheet.

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Space for Rough Work

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Answer question number 1 to 5 based on the following information: Figure 1 shows the amount of work distribution, in man-hours, for a software company between offshore and onsite activities. Figure 2 shows the estimated and actual work effort involved in the different offshore activities in the same company during the same period. [Note: Onsite refers to work performed at the customer's premise and offshore refers to work performed at the developer's premise.]

1. Roughly what percentage of the total work is carried out onsite?

A. 40 percent B. 20 percent C. 30 percent D. 50 percent

2. The total effort in man-hours spent onsite is nearest to which of the

following? A. The sum of the estimated and actual effort for offshore design B. The estimated man-hours of offshore coding C. The actual man-hours of offshore testing D. Half of the man-hours of estimated offshore coding

3. If the total working hours were 100, which of the following tasks will

account for approximately 50 hours? A. Coding B. Design C. Offshore testing D. Offshore testing plus design

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4. If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with

the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, the proportion of testing carried out offshore would be

A. 40 percent B. 30 percent C. 50 percent D. 70 percent

5. If 50 percent of the offshore work were to be carried out onsite, with

the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, which of the following is true of all work carried out onsite?

A. The amount of coding done is greater than that of testing B. The amount of coding done onsite is less than that of design

done onsite C. The amount of design carried out onsite is greater than that

of testing D. The amount of testing carried out offshore is greater than that

of total design Answer questions 6 to 9 based on the following information: The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand at Vaishali is 400, at Jyotishmati is 400, at Panchal is 700, and at Vidisha is 200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline. The flow from Vaishali to Jyotishmati is 300. The quantity of material flow is such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity of each pipeline is 1000.

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6. The quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is A. 200 B. 800 C. 700 D. 1000

7. The free capacity available at the Avanti-Vaishali pipeline is

A. 0 B. 100 C. 200 D. 300

8. What is the free capacity available in the Avanti-Vidisha pipeline?

A. 300 B. 200 C. 100 D. 0

9. What is the amount of quantity moved from Vidisha to Jyotishmati?

A. 100 B. 800 C. 1100 D. 1000

Answer question number 10 to 12 based on the following information: “The questions are based on the pie charts given below. Chart 1 shows the distribution of twelve million tons of crude oil transported through different modes over a specific period of time. Chart 2 shows the distribution of the cost of transporting this crude oil. The total cost was Rs. 30 million.”

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10. The cost in rupees per ton of oil moved by rail and road happens to be roughly

A. 3 B. 1.5 C. 4.5 D. 8

11. From the charts given, it appears that the cheapest mode of transport is

A. Road B. Rail C. Pipeline D. Ship

12. If the costs per ton of transport by ship, air and road are represented by P, Q and R respectively, which of the following is true?

A. R > Q > P B. P > R > Q C. P > Q > R D. R > P > Q

13. Four persons are chosen at random from a group of 3 men, 2 women and 4 children. Find the probability of selecting 1 man, 1 woman and 2 children.

A. 1/5 B. 2/5

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C. 2/7 D. 5/13

14. Which of the following statements is not correct?

A. log (2×4×6) = log 2 + log 4 + log 6 B. log51 = 0 C. log (3+4) = log (3 × 4) D. log55 = 1

15. An observation at the 50th percentile would correspond to one of

the following in dataset. A. Median B. Mean C. Q1 D. Standard deviation

16. A man weighs 70 kgs at the age of 65. He steadily loses

weight in the next few years at the rate of 5% per year. Approximately how many kgs (rounded to the nearest whole number) does he weigh when he is 67 years old?

A. 60 B. 65 C. 63 D. 66

17. A is two years older than B who is twice as old as C. If the total of

the ages of A, B and C be 27, the how old is B? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

18. If a person walks at 14 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, he would have

walked 20 km more. The actual distance travelled by him is: A. 50 km B. 56 km C. 70 km D. 80 km

19. There are two examinations rooms A and B. If 10 students are sent

from A to B, then the number of students in each room is the same.

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If 20 candidates are sent from B to A, then the number of students in A is double the number of students in B. The number of students in room A is:

A. 20 B. 80 C. 100 D. 200

Study the following information to answer the next two questions: L, M, N, O, P, Q and R are sitting around a circle facing the center. O is sitting between L and R. Q is second to the right of R and P is second to the right of Q. N is not an immediate neighbor of R.

20. Who is to the immediate left of P?

A. L B. N C. M D. O

21. How many persons are seated between L and Q if we count anticlockwise from L to Q?

A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four

Study the following information to answer the next two questions:

“There are three ON-OFF switches on a control panel A, B, and C. They have to be changed from an initial setting to a second setting according to the following conditions: In case only switch A is ON in the initial setting, then turn ON switch B. In case switches A and B are the only switches ON in the initial setting, then turn ON switch C. In case all the three switches are ON initially setting, then turn OFF the switch C. For any other initial setting, turn ON all switches that are OFF and turn OFF all switches, if any, that are ON.”

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22. In case all the three switches are ON in the second setting, which among the following could have been the initial setting?

A. A ON, B ON, C ON. B. A ON, B ON, C OFF. C. A ON, B OFF, C ON. D. A ON, B OFF, C OFF.

23. In case switch A is OFF in the second setting, which among the following could have been the initial setting?

A. A ON, B ON, C ON. B. A ON, B ON, C OFF. C. A ON, B OFF, C ON. D. A ON, B OFF, C OFF.

Read the following argument to answer the next two questions: “We will have to take more interest in hydroelectric projects. As the prices of oil have increased, it has become vital that such renewable sources of energy are tapped.”

24. Which of the following are the assumptions of the argument?

I. Hydroelectric power is a renewable source of energy. II. Hydroelectric power is comparatively cheaper.

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

25. Which of the following will weaken the argument?

A. Generation of hydroelectric power is costlier than oil. B. OPEC increased oil prices. C. Without energy we cannot manage. D. None of the above.

26. In a digital communication system employing Frequency Shift Keying, the 0 and 1 bit are represented by sine waves of 10 kHz and 25 kHz, respectively. These waveforms will be orthogonal for a bit interval of

A. 45 µsec B. 50 µsec

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C. 200 µsec D. 250 µsec

27. The frequency range for satellite communication is

A. 1 kHz to 100 kHz B. 10 MHz to 30 MHz C. 100 kHz to 10 kHz D. 1 GHz to 30 GHz

28. In commercial TV transmission in India, picture and image are

modulated using A. FM and VSB respectively B. FSK and AM respectively C. VSB and FM respectively D. AM and VSB respectively

29. Which of the following analog modulation scheme requires the

minimum transmitted power and minimum channel bandwidth? A. VSB B. DSB-SC C. SSB D. AM

30. The advent of the ___________ has given trans-oceanic optical

fiber communications the biggest boost. A. high power laser diodes B. photonic crystal fiber C. erbium doped fiber amplifier D. neodymium-doped glass

31. The trademark SMF-28 refers to fiber with the following

characteristics – A. Core radius 125 micron; cladding radius 250 micron B. Core radius 9 micron; cladding radius 125 micron C. Core radius 12 micron; cladding radius 125 micron D. Core radius 28 micron; cladding radius 250 micron

32. Inter-symbol interference (ISI) can be reduced by using _______. In optical fiber communications, this is achieved by a _______ fiber.

A. an equalizer; photonic crystal B. a gain flattening fiber; graded-ind C. an equalizer; dispersion compensating D. gain flattening fiber; step-index

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33. The modulation format that is used for the highest capacity transmission is

A. phase shift keying B. on-off keying C. quadrature amplitude modulation D. frequency shift keying

34. The main use of an optical time domain reflectometer is to _____.

A. measure loss in a fiber B. locate faults in a fiber-optic link C. measure the total length of a fiber cable D. None of the above

35. The spatial resolution of an OTDR is determined by –

A. pulse power B. pulse width C. pulse repetition rate D. speed of light in the fiber

36. Which is the correct order of sequential steps for an electric arc

fusion technique? I. Pressing of fiber ends for fusion II. Application of heat for smoothening of end-surfaces III. Alignment of broken fiber edges

A. I, II, III B. II, I, III C. III, II, I D. III, I, II

37. Fiber-to-the-Home technology has highest penetration in –

A. Japan B. United States of America C. South Korea D. United Kingdom

38. Four messages band limited to W, W, 2W and 3 W respectively are

to be multiplexed using TDM. The minimum bandwidth required for transmission of this TDM signal is

A. W B. 3W C. 6W D. 7W

39. Which factor adds phase noise to the signal?

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A. jitter B. phase fluctuations C. jitter & phase fluctuations D. None of the above

40. The probability of error of DPSK is ______________ than that of

BPSK. A. higher than B. lower than C. same as D. Not predictable

41. The default connection type used by HTTP is _________

A. Persistent B. Non-persistent C. Either of a. or b. D. None of the above

42. What does HTTP Error 407 Stand for?

A. Not found B. Proxy Authentication Required C. Conflict D. Bad Request

43. Which protocol is used by WhatsApp to provide end to end

encryption for messages? A. Signal B. OpenSSL C. Nettle D. Botan

44. Increasing the memory capacity of a server improves performance

because of which of the following reasons? A. Increasing DRAM capacity leads to reduced DRAM device

latency B. Increasing DRAM capacity increases the size of virtual

memory of each program C. Increasing DRAM capacity leads to fewer page faults D. Increasing DRAM capacity leads to fewer precise exceptions

45. Which of the following commands on a Linux shell is most likely to

provide the system administrator the number of pages (OS page frames) being used?

A. top B. cat /proc/meminfo C. cat /proc/cpuinfo D. ps -ef | grep pages

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46. Which one of the following is the odd man out?

A. Zigbee B. WiFi C. Bluetooth D. Ethernet

47. Which of the following commands can be used to change default

permissions for files and directories at the time of creation A. Chmod B. Chown C. Umask D. Chgrp

48. Which of these statements is not correct regarding HTTP cookies?

A. A cookie is a piece of code that has the potential to compromise the security of an Internet user

B. A cookie gains entry into a user’s area using an HTTP header C. A cookie has an expiry date and time D. A cookie can be used to track the browsing patterns of a user

on a website

49. In which of the following pairs of protocols can both the protocols, maintain multiple connections between the same client and server?

A. HTTP, FTP B. TELNET, FTP C. SMTP, FTP D. HTTP, SMTP

50. Consider the different types of latencies that are incurred while

carrying out an I/O request from a hard disk drive with mechanical moving parts. Which one of the following latencies dominates the overall I/O latency?

A. Settle latency B. Seek latency C. Rotational latency D. FTL latency

51. Consider the following statements regarding National Optical Fiber

Network (NOFN)

I. It is to provide broadband connectivity to over two lakh Gram Panchayats through optimal fiber network. II. Bharat Broadband Network Limited (BBNL) is the special purpose vehicle created as a PSU for execution of NOFN.

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III. It is funded by Universal Service Obligation Fund.

IV. It is under the Digital India program.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only I, II and III B. Only II and IV C. All are correct D. None of the Above

52. Consider the following statements regarding e-Pragati

I. e-Pragati is a comprehensive framework for implementing e-governance and provides e-services to citizens of Karnataka. II. It is developed in association with Infosys.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only I B. Only II C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

53. National Optical Fiber Network will be providing broadband

connectivity to which among the following? A. Municipalities B. Gram Panchayats C. Panchayat Samitis D. Nagarpalikas

54. The National Optical Fiber Network (NOFN) is being executed by

A. BSNL B. MTNL C. BBNL D. Bharti Airtel

55. Which of the following citizen service can’t be availed through

Digital Gujarat Portal? A. New Ration Card B. Senior Citizen Certificate

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C. Cinema License D. Passport Renewal

56. Which year did RTI Act came into force?

A. 2004 B. 2005 C. 2003 D. 2006

57. What do you understand by DigiLocker initiative under e-

Governance? A. DigiLocker is a government provided locker facility to store

valuable items. B. DigiLocker allows citizens to track their bank locker on mobile

phones. C. DigiLocker allows citizens to store their money in the digital

form. D. None of the above

58. What is e-Kranti?

A. It is a program initiated by Indian software firms to exchange information.

B. It is synonym for the mobile and internet revolution. C. It is a program aimed towards digital empowerment of Indian

citizens. D. It is a new technology by which 2019 elections would be

conducted.

59. Which framework was developed by IIM Ahmedabad for assessing e-governance projects?

A. eGEP B. VAN-DAM C. EAF D. eGOV

60. What does the term CSC expands to under NeGP?

A. Central Services Centers B. Common Services Centers C. Certified Services Centers D. Commercial Services Centers

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