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DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
SANIKA KNOWLEDGE FOUNDATION EXPERT WAS A BEGINNER………
Test Booklet
Series
Test ID: AI01-2018122301
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200
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AITS MOCK TEST A
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
SANIKA KNOWLEDGE FOUNDATION
1. Curie is the UNIT of for
(a) Exposure
(b) Absorbed Dose
(c) Degree of potential DANGER
(d) Quality of Radionuclide disintegrating
per second
2. “ONION PEEL” appearance on radiograph is
seen in
(a) Giant Cell Tumor
(b) Ewing’s Sarcoma
(c) Osteogenic Sarcoma
(d) Multiple Myeloma
3. Which of the following contrast media is
used for IV
(a) LIPOIDIL
(b) DIANOSIL
(c) HYPAQUE
(d) CONRAY 420
4. “SOAP BUBBLE APPEARANCE ” is seen in
(a) Osteiod osteoma
(b) Osteochondroma
(c) Osteoclastoma
(d) Osteogenic Sarcoma
5. Best Radiographic view for fracture in
scaphoid
(a) AP
(b) LAT
(c) Oblique
(d) None
6. Which of the following tumour is least sensitive to radiation (a) Bronchogenic Carcinoma
(b) Adenocarcinoma Colon
(c) Malignant Melanoma
(d) Osteogenic Sarcoma
7. Cobalt 60 is
(a) Natural Isotope
(b) Artificial Isotope
(c) By product of Plutonium
(d) By product of Uranium
8. Rat Tail appearance is seen in
(a) Achlasia Cardia
(b) Reflux Esophagitis
(c) Carcinoma Esophagus
(d) Hiatus Hernia
9. Best diagnosis of pancreatic cancer is by
(a) USG
(b) MRI
(c) CT SCAN
(d) ANGIOGRAPHY
10. X-Ray discovered by Roentgen in
(a) 1886
(b) 1895
(c) 1905
(d) 1876
11. In Pyelography dye is injected into
(a) Anterior Tibial Vein
(b) Great Sephanous Vein
(c) Dorsal Metatarsal Vein
(d) Short Sephanous Vein
12. Absolute Contraindication for IVP is
(a) Idiosyncrasy to iodine
(b) Multiple Myeloma
(c) Raised Blood Urea
(d) All
13. Investigation of choice for assessing a
child with vesico-ureteric reflux
(a) Antegrade IVP
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(b) Retrograde IVP
(c) MCU
(d) Cystoscopy
14. Best diagnosis of Tracheo-oesophagial
fistula is by
(a) Barium
(b) Conray 240
(c) Dianosil
(d) Urograffin
15. Radium Paint cause
(a) Squamus Carcinoma
(b) Osteogenic Sarcoma
(c) Rodent Ulcer
(d) Adenocarcinoma Lung
16. X-Rays are
(a) Electrons
(b) Protons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Electromagnetic Waves
17. Nucleus of an atom contains
(a) Electron
(b) Protons
(c) Electron and Protons
(d) Protons and Neutrons
18. Isotopes have same atomic
(a) Number
(b) Weight
(c) Density
(d) None
19. Atomic Weight is equal to (a) Protons (b) Protons and Neutrons (c) Protons and electrons (d) Proton, Neutrons and Electron
20. Nephrogram phase of IVPis because of dye in (a) PCT (b) Renal Pelvis (c) Nephron (d) Collecting Tubules
21. Double bubble sign is a radiological feature of
(a) Pyloric Stenosis
(b) Duodenal Atresia
(c) Hirschpruns Disease
(d) Enteroclitis
22. The half life of Co60 is
(a) 2.6 years
(b) 5.2 years
(c) 8 years
(d) 4 years
23. For small pneumothorax X-ray is done in
(a) Inspiration PA View
(b) Expiration PA
(c) Lateral Decubitus
(d) Supine
24. Source of Gamma Rays is
(a) Radium
(b) Cobalt
(c) Cesium
(d) Xenon
25. Barium meal picture of carcinoma stomach
shows
(a) Filling Defects
(b) Loss of rugosity
(c) Small capacity of stomach
(d) All
26. Judet view is for
(a) Hip
(b) Ankle
(c) Shoulder
(d) Wrist
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27. X-rays are formed when electrons hit (a) Water (b) Heat (c) Anode (d) None
28. Which of the following is not an artificial Radioisotopes (a) Co-60 (b) Co-59 (c) Rn-226 (d) I-125
29. Right side pleural effusion is best viewed in which position (a) Left lateral decubitus (b) Right lat decubitus (c) PA view (d) Lordotic view
30. Co-60 Units (a) Gamma Rays (b) Alpha particles (c) Beta radiations (d) All of the above
31. Acute pancreatisis is best diagnosed by (a) MRI (b) CECT (c) NCCT (d) USG
32. Modality of choice in patients with breast implants (a) Mammography (b) MRI (c) CT Scan (d) None
33. Frequency of sound waves used for transabdominal USG is (a) 2.5-3.5 MHz (b) 3.5 -5 MHz (c) 5-7 MHz (d) 7.7 – 10 MHz
34. Which of the following is gold standard for diagnosis of minimal bronchitis (a) Bronchography (b) CT Scan (c) CR (d) ERCP
35. Speed of X-rays is equal to (a) Speed of light (b) Speed of electrons
(c) Tube Voltage
(d) None
36. Most Radiosensitive phase of cell cycle
(a) G1
(b) G2
(c) S
(d) M
37. The atom which scatter x-ray more is
(a) Lead
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Sodium
(d) Tin
38. Contrast in X-rays is depends upon
(a) kV
(b) mA
(c) Second
(d) Duration of exposure
39. Radiation is not used in
(a) USG
(b) CT Scan
(c) MRI
(d) Both A & C
40. Radiation mediates its effect by
(a) Denaturation of DNA
(b) Ionization of Molecules
(c) Protein Coagulation
(d) All of the above
41. Investigation of choice for pregnant lady with
upper abdominal mass
(a) Barium meal
(b) MRI
(c) CT SCAN
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SANIKA KNOWLEDGE FOUNDATION
(d) Ultrasound 42. The element used for intracavitary RT in
carcinoma cervix (a) Caesium (b) Co-60 (c) Strontium (d) Radio Iodine
43. In x-ray, Jejunum has a pattern of (a) Valvulae connivantes (b) Taenia Coli (c) Reverse 3 sign (d) None of the above
44. Term line calcification seen in skull x-ray are characteristics of (a) Congenital cytomegalovirus infection (b) Congenitaltoxoplasmosis (c) Carcinopharyngioma (d) Sturge weber Syndrome
45. Investigation of choice for acute SAH (a) Enhanced MRI (b) MRI (c) CT Scan (d) Angiography
46. Ultrasonogram is not useful (a) CBD stones at the distal end of the
CBD (b) Breast Cyst (c) Ascites (d) Full bladder
47. Extradural hematoma, CT scan finding is (a) Hypodense biconvex lesion (b) Hyperdense biconvex lesion (c) Concavo convex hyperdense lesion (d) Low attenuated biconvex lesion
48. Half life of Rn222 is (a) 3 days (b) 3-6 days (c) 4 days (d) 5 days
49. In colour Doppler the color depends upon (a) Strength of retuning echo (b) Relation of transducer to blood flow (c) Frequency of Doppler used (d) Type of Doppler machine used
50. Radioactivity was discovered in (a) 1796 (b) 1896
(c) 1901
(d) 1946
51. 1st investigation of choice for spinal cord
TUMOUR
(a) Myelography
(b) CT
(c) MRI
(d) Plain X-ray
52. One Gray of radiation is equal to
(a) 1 RAD
(b) 10 RAD
(c) 100 RAD
(d) 1000 RAD
53. Gradual decrease in x-ray beam intensity as it
passes through material is called
(a) Attenuation
(b) Decay
(c) Radioactivity
(d) Imaging
54. For protons, gyromagnetic ratio has value
(a) 3 × 108 rads-1 T-1
(b) 2.68 × 108 rads-1 T-1
(c) 4 × 108 rads-1 T-1
(d) 5 × 108 rads-1 T-1
55. Energy passing through unit area is
(a) Intensity of x-ray
(b) Frequency of x-ray
(c) Wavelength of x-ray
(d) Amplitude of x-ray
56. Speed of ultrasound depends upon
(a) Medium
(b) Amplitude
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(c) Material (d) Wavelength
57. Bones look white in x-ray photograph because (a) They are bad absorbers of x-rays (b) They reflect x-rays (c) They are good absorbers of x-rays (d) They are bad absorbers of ultraviolet
rays 58. Larmor frequency depends upon the
(a) Individual nucleus (b) Magnetic flux density (c) Both A and B (d) Energetic flux unit
59. Acoustic impedance of human skin is (a) 1.65 × 106 kg m² s-1 (b) 1.71 × 106 kg m² s-1 (c) 2 × 106 kg m-² s-1 (d) 2 × 107 kg m-3 s-2
60. In best piezo-electric substances, maximum value of strain is about (a) 0.5 % (b) 0.4 % (c) 0.3 % (d) 0.1 %
61. With gel between skin and transducer percentage of reflected intensity of ultrasonic is (a) 0.03 % (b) 0.05 % (c) 0.06 % (d) 0.08 %
62. Attenuation coefficient depends on (a) Frequency of x-ray photons (b) Wavelength of x-ray photons (c) Energy of x-ray photons (d) Amplitude of x-ray photons
63. X-rays are filtered out of human body by using (a) Cadmium absorbers (b) Carbon absorbers (c) Coppper absorbers (d) Aluminium Absorbers
64. Wave length of X-rays is in range
(a) 10-8 to 10-13 m
(b) 10-7 to 10-14 m
(c) 10-10 to 10-15 m
(d) 102 to 10
9 m
65. If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate,
then rays produced are
(a) Alpha rays
(b) Beta rays
(c) Gamma rays
(d) X-rays
66. As x-rays pass through matter, it's intensity
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains constant
(d) May increase or decrease depending on the
object
67. X-rays have
(a) Short wavelength
(b) High frequency
(c) Both A and B
(d) Longest wavelength
68. Acoustic impedance is defined as
(a) ρ⁄c
(b) ρc
(c) c⁄ρ
(d) ρ + c
69. A sound wave which has frequency higher than
upper limit of human hearing is
(a) Infra sonic
(b) Ultra sonic
(c) Super sonic
(d) Mega sonic
70. Fatty tissues have
(a) Relaxation time of several seconds
(b) Relaxation time of several hundred ns.
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(c) Intermediate relaxation times (d) Relaxation times of several hundred
milliseconds. 71. Angular frequency of precision is called
(a) Lower frequency (b) Higher frequency (c) Larmor frequency (d) Linear frequency
72. Scattered x-rays beams approach detector screen (a) Perpendicularly (b) Parallel (c) Anti-parallel (d) At an angle
73. Maximum energy an x-ray photon can have is (a) e/V (b) e (c) eV (d) V
74. Soft x-rays have (a) High energies (b) Low energies (c) Lowest frequency (d) Longest wavelength
75. Intensity of x-rays can be increased by increasing (a) Frequency (b) Current (c) Voltage (d) Resistance
76. Bone thickness is equal to (a) cΔt/2 (b) cΔt (c) c/t (d) t/2
77. Hardness of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing (a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Frequency (d) Wavelenth
78. In x-ray production, kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is (a) 100 keV (b) 200 keV (c) 300 keV (d) 400 keV
79. Change in speed of ultrasound causes
(a) reflection
(b) Diffraction
(c) Refraction
(d) image
80. Type of x-rays used to detect break in bone is
(a) Hard
(b) Soft
(c) Both A and B
(d) moderate
81. Wavelength of 2.0 MHz ultrasound waves in
tissue is
(a) 7.5 × 10-4 m
(b) 8 × 10-5 m
(c) 8.5 × 10-6 m
(d) 9.2 × 10-3 m
82. Intensifier screens reduces patient’s exposure
to x-rays by a factor of
(a) 500-600
(b) 1000-2000
(c) 100-500
(d) 10-100
83. Contrast media consists of elements with
(a) Lower atomic number
(b) Higher atomic number
(c) Metalloids
(d) Inert gases
84. Thickness of material which decreases intensity of x-ray material to half of original value is
(a) Quarter thickness (b) Half thickess (c) Half life (d) 2 times of thickness
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SANIKA KNOWLEDGE FOUNDATION
85. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and (a) Parallel x-rays (b) Perpendicular x-rays (c) Anti parallel x-rays (d) Anti perpendicular x-rays
86. Neutrinos have electric charge of (a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3
87. β- radiations are simply (a) Protons (b) Neutrons (c) Electrons (d) muons
88. In a nuclear process, quantity conserved is (a) Mass-energy (b) Momentum (c) Mass only (d) Energy only
89. A specific combination of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called (a) Nucleons (b) Nuclide (c) Neutrino (d) nucleolus
90. Radiation emitted by radioactive substances is (a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Gamma (d) All of above
91. Elements undergo radioactive decay when proton number becomes greater than (a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 83 (d) 73
92. Process in which α and β rays pass close to atoms and knock electrons out is called (a) Atomization (b) Ionization (c) Decay (d) hydroxylation
93. Alpha particles have relatively
(a) Low kinetic energies
(b) High potential energy
(c) High mechanical energy
(d) High kinetic energy
94. Strongest ionizing radiation is
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) X-ray
95. Nucleon number consists of
(a) Number of electrons
(b) Number of protons
(c) Number of electrons and protons
(d) Number of protons and neutrons
96. Gamma radiation is emitted in order to
(a) Excite the atom
(b) Release excess energy from atom
(c) Destabilize the atom
(d) Stabilize the atom
97. Electrons move around nucleus in form of
(a) Clouds
(b) Dust particles
(c) Steam
(d) Charge
98. Particles like kaons and muons etc, were found
out by
(a) Looking at cosmic rays
(b) Looking at particles in accelerators
(c) Looking closely at atom
(d) Both A and B
99. Types of rays that affects nucleus are
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(a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Gamma (d) EM
100. Force that acts on both quarks and leptons is (a) Strong nuclear force (b) Weak interaction (c) Intermediate interaction (d) Nuclear force
101. Particles that experience strong force are (a) Leptons (b) Hadrons (c) Both A and B (d) softons
102. Heavy nuclei have (a) More protons than neutrons (b) More electrons than neutrons (c) More neutrons than electrons (d) More neutrons than electrons
103. Strong nuclear force acts over distance (a) 10-13 m (b) 10-14 m (c) 10-15 m (d) 10-16 m
104. A decay in which a proton decays in to neutron and an electron neutrino is
(a) β+ decay (b) β- (c) γ decay (d) α decay
105. Photon of electromagnetic radiation is (a) α ray (b) β ray (c) γ ray (d) x-ray
106. Mass of alpha particle is (a) 50 times the mass of electron (b) 100 times the mass of electron (c) 500 times the mass of electron (d) 1000 times the mass of electron
107. Particle which explains about mass of
matter is called
(a) Higgs boson
(b) Protons
(c) Leptons
(d) Neutrons
108. Plum pudding model describes atom as
(a) Negative pudding with positive plums
(b) Negative pudding
(c) Positive pudding with negative plums
(d) Positive pudding only
109. Lepton among them are
(a) Electrons
(b) Neutrinos
(c) Protons
(d) Both A and B
110. Density of proton is equal to density of
(a) Electron
(b) Atom
(c) Neutron
(d) neutrino
111. Radioactivity was discovered by
(a) Marie Curie
(b) Rutherford
(c) Fermi
(d) Henri Becquerel
112. Half life of I-131 is
(a) 8 hrs
(b) 2 days
(c) 8 days
(d) 12 days
113. CT scan is invented by
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(a) Hounsfield (b) Storz (c) Koba (d) Purcell
114. Deltrious effect of USG is (a) Ionization (b) Vacoulation (c) Cavitation (d) Disintegration
115. Cell most sensitive to radiation (a) Lymphocyte (b) Neutrophills (c) Basophill (d) Platelets
116. Investigation of choice for multiple sclerosis (a) MRI (b) CT (c) EEG (d) X-Ray
117. Radiation Protection shields are made up of (a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Lead (d) Tin
118. Xeroradiography is used in (a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Breast (d) All
119. The least radiosensitive tissue is (a) Nervous (b) Bone (c) Kidney (d) Thyroid
120. Use of filters result (a) Softer beam radiation (b) Wider beam coverage (c) Less penetrating beam (d) Beam of greater intensity
121. Use of cone results (a) Higher contrast (b) Low contrast (c) Less Motion (d) None
122. Target material in diagnostic x-ray tube is
(a) Lead
(b) Tungsten
(c) Cobalt
(d) Copper
123. The overall heart size in tetralogy of
fallot is usually
(a) Markedly enlarged
(b) Normal or relatively small
(c) Slightly enlarged
(d) Moderately enlarged
124. Diagnosis of aortic calcification is done
by fluoroscopy by seeing
(a) Side to side movement
(b) Up and down movement
(c) Combined movement
(d) None
125. In urinary tract tuberculosis, frequent
finding on plain film of abdomen is
(a) Mass
(b) Ileus
(c) Calcification
(d) Psoas abscess
126. Pericardial calcification is caused by all
except
(a) Radiotherapy to the mediastinum
(b) Methysergide therapy
(c) Anticoagulant therapy
(d) Benign pericarditis
127. Cystic dilation of collecting tubules are
seen in
(a) Adult polycystic kidney
(b) Medullary sponge kiney
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(c) Horse shoe shaped kidney (d) Nephroblastoma
128. During angiography the mitral valve is best visualized in the (a) Frontal view (b) Lateral view (c) Right anterior oblique view (d) None of the above
129. The x-ray finding of small intestinal malabsorption syndrome are all except (a) Increased transit time (b) Mucosal trophy (c) Dilatation of bowel (d) Flocculation of Barium
130. Right side of mediastinal shadow is not formed by (a) SVC (b) Right innominate (c) RA (d) RV
131. Best mode of imaging for suspected uric acid calculi is (a) Plain film of abdomen (b) Ultrasonography (c) Intravenous pyelography (d) Radionuclides.
132. Solitary nodule lung cannot be (a) Tuberculoma (b) Neurofibroma (c) Bronchogenic carcinoma (d) Lymphoma
133. Angle of trachea is increased in which chamber of heart enlargement (a) Left atrium (b) Right atrium (c) Left ventricle (d) Right ventricle
134. Medusa lock appearance in X- ray seen in (a) Ascariasis (b) Tapeworm (c) Hookworm (d) Ascaris and tapeworm
135. Signs of increased intracranial tension in a child in a skull X-ray (a) Separation of the sutures (b) Tense anterior fontanelles
(c) Silver beaten appearance of the bones
(d) All of the above
136.
137. Echoenecpahalography is most useful
for detecting
(a) Ventricular dilatation
(b) Midline shift
(c) Epilepsy
(d) Vascular lesions
138. X-rays are modified
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons
(d) Positrons
139. “Sentinel loop” appearance on X-ray is
seen
(a) Acute pancreatitis
(b) Chronic pancreatitis
(c) Intestinal obstruction
(d) Acute appendicitis
140. The “Target Sign” sonographically
means
(a) Ovarian carcinoma
(b) Ectopic kidney
(c) Intussusception
(d) Liver metastasis
141. Osteosclerotic bone secondaries are
seen in
(a) Carcinoma thyroid
(b) Carcinoma prostate
(c) Carcinoma stomach
(d) Carcinoma lung
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142. Water soluble contrast media used for myelography is (a) Metrizamide (b) Dianosil (c) Conray (d) Iohexol
143. Most sensitive test for metastatic deposit is (a) Isotope scan (b) CT Scan (c) Skeletal survey (d) Tomography
144. Best imaging modality to diagnose liver mass is (a) Plain film (b) Angiography (c) C. T. Scan (d) Nuclear Scan
145. Characteristics of Benign tumour of lung in X -ray is (a) Size > 5 cms diameter (b) Cavitation (c) Peripheral location (d) Concentric dense calcification.
146. Scalloping of the edges of sigmoid colon on barium enema is seen in (a) Diverticulitis (b) Crohn’s disease (c) Pneumatosis intestinalis (d) Ulcerative colitis
147. Widening of the C loop in X-ray is diagnostic of (a) Chronic pancreatitis (b) Carcinoma head of pancreas (c) Periampullary carcinoma (d) Calculi in the ampulla of vater
148. AH are features of Medulloblas toma except (a) Radio resistant (b) Highly radio sensitive (c) Occurs in first decade (d) Coarctation of aorta d)TDT
149. Notching of ribs on X- ray is seen in (a) PDA (b) ASD (c) Ebsteins anomaly
d) Coarctation of aorta
150. Contrast used for MRI
(a) GDPA
(b) Radium
(c) Iridium
(d) TDT
151. Saw tooth appearance on abdominal X-
ray is seen in
(a) Prediverticular state
(b) Multiple polyposis
(c) Spastic colon
(d) Ischemic enteritis
152. Increased radiolucency of one sided
hemithorax may be caused by all except
(a) Obstructive emphysema
(b) Pneumothorax
(c) Expiratory film
(d) Patient rotation
153. Gas in biliary tract is not due to
(a) Perforated gastric ulcer
(b) Necrotizing enterocolitis
(c) Biliary surgery
(d) Post-gastrectomy
154. Egg shell calcification in hilar region is
seen in
(a) Penumoconiosis
(b) T. B.
(c) Sarcoidosis
(d) Aneurysms
155. Basal ganglia calcification is not seen in
(a) Wilson’s disease
(b) Berry anerurysm
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(c) Cysticercosis (d) Hemangioma
156. Calcification of meniscal cartilage is a feature of (a) Acromegaly (b) Hyperparathyroidism (c) Reiter’s syndrome (d) Pseudo gout
157. Sun ray appearance is seen in (a) Osteoclastoma (b) Fibrous dysplasia (c) Osteosarcoma (d) Chondrosarcoma
158. Investigation of choice in Traumatic paraplegia is (a) MRI (b) CT Scan (c) Myelography (d) Spine X – ray
159. Interosseous skeletal tumour is best diagnosed by (a) Plain X-ray (b) NMR (c) CT scan (d) CT with scintiscan
160. Notching of Ribs is seen in (a) Tuberculosis (b) VSD (c) Coarctation of aorta (d) Bronchiectasis
161. Laminated appearance of X-ray is suggestive of (a) Ewing’s sarcoma (b) Osteoid osteoma (c) Osteoclastoma (d) Multiple myeloma
162. Full colonic preparation of Barium Enema is contra indicated in all except (a) Acute exacerbation of ulcerative
colitis (b) Irritable bowel syndrome (c) Hirschsprung’s disease (d) Colonic obstruction
163. Right border of the heart in a chest X-ray, is not formed by (a) fVC (b) SVC
(c) Right Atrium
(d) Aorta
164. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed
by
(a) X-ray chest
(b) Enzyme estimation
(c) Radionucleus
(d) Blood gas analysis
165. Right lung is seen to best advantage on
the following view
(a) Right posterior oblique
(b) Right anterior oblique
(c) Left anterior oblique
(d) Lateral
166. Early change of pulmonary edema in
CXR
(a) Batswing appearance
(b) Pleural effusion
(c) Kerley B lines
(d) Ground glass lung field
167. Investigation to differentiate between
pericardial effusion and heart dialation includes
(a) X-ray
(b) Fluoroscopy
(c) Echocardiogram
(d) CT scan
168. Multiple translucent cysts on X- ray are
found in the chest. Differential diagnosis
includes all except
(a) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
(b) Congential adenomatoid bronchogenic
diseases
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(c) Lobar agenesis (d) Bilateral multiple cysts
169. Multiple translucent cysts on X- ray are found in the chest. Differential diagnosis includes all except (a) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (b) Congential adenomatoid
bronchogenic diseases (c) Lobar agenesis (d) Bilateral multiple cysts
170. Onion peel appearance is seen in a) Citeoclastoma b) Chondrosarcoma c) Osteosarcoma d) Ewings sarcoma
171. IVU is not done in (a) Multiple myeloma (b) Secondaries in bone (c) Leukaemia (d) Renal tumour
172. When bones show a ‘Bone within bone’ appearance this is indicative of
(a) Sickle cell anemia (b) Bone infarction (c) Osteopetrosis (d) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia
173. The best view to visualize minimum pneumoperitoneum is (a) AP view of abdomen (b) Erect film of abdomen (c) Right lateral decubitus with
horizontal beam (d) Left lateral decubitus with horizontal
team 174. In fluoresce in angiography, dye
is injected in (a) Anterior cubital vein (b) Femoral artery (c) Femoral vein (d) Aorta
175. All of the following are true about iodinated intravascular contrast media except (a) They are used in digital subtraction
angiography
(b) They are radio opaque
(c) They can cause anaphylactic reactions
(d) They are used in magnetic resonance
imaging
176. Rib notching is produced by
(a) Coarctation of Aorta
(b) Neurofibromatosis
(c) Superior vena caval obstruction
(d) All of the above
177. Widening of the C loop in X- ray is
diagnostic of
(a) Chronic pancreatitis
(b) Carcinoma head of pancreas
(c) Periampullary carcinoma
(d) Calculi in the ampulla of vater
178. Which of the following is not a contra
indication for I VP?
(a) Renal infection
(b) Hyperpyrexia
(c) Multiple myeloma
(d) Skeletal metastases
179. Perihilar fluffy opacities on chest x-ray
is seen in
(a) Pulmonary embolism
(b) Pericardial effusion
(c) Pulmonary arterial hypertension
(d) Pulmonary venous hypertension
180. An aneurysm of the sinus of Valsalva
usually arise from
(a) Right aortic sinus
(b) Left aortic sinus
(c) Posterior aortic sinus
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(d) pulmonary outflow tract 181. Sequestration lung is best
diagnosed by (a) C.T Scan (b) M.R.I. (c) Barium swallow (d) Angiography
182. Superior Orbital fissure best view is (a) Plain AP view (b) Caldwell (c) Townes (d) Basal view
183. Which imaging method is ideal in evaluating hypertension ?
(a) Angiography (b) Colour flow Doppler (c) M. R. angio (d) C. T scan
184. Commonest cause of intracranial calcification is (a) Pineal calcification (b) Intracranial aneurysm (c) Meningioma (d) Tuberculoma
185. Isotope used in myocardial perfusion scan is (a) Technetium (b) Thallium (c) Stannous pyrophosphate (d) Gallium
186. Best diagnostic procedure in acute pancreatitis is (a) CT Scan (b) Ultrasound (c) M. R. I. (d) Pipida scan
187. The most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax is (a) Rupture of subpleural blebs (b) Pulmonary tuberculosis (c) Bronchial adenoma (d) Bronchogenic carcinoma
188. Bull’s eye lesion in ultrasonography is
seen in
(a) Candidiasis
(b) Aspergillosis
(c) Sporotrichosis
(d) Cryptococcosis
189. Newborn Chest x-ray with Respiratory
distress shows multiple air containing lesions in
Left Hemithorax and mediastinal shift is
suggestive of
(a) Neonatal emphysema
(b) Diaphragmatic hernia
(c) Pneumatocele
(d) congential lung fcysts
190. Radiologically appreciable earliest sign
of osteomyelitis is
(a) Loss of muscle and fat planes
(b) Periosteal reaction
(c) Callus formation
(d) Presence of sequestrum
191. Hilar dance on fluoroscopy is seen in
(a) ASD
(b) TOF
(c) VSD
(d) TGV
192. Obliteration of Left heart border in PA
chest X-ray is suggestive of
(a) Lingular pathology
(b) Left upper lobe lesion
(c) Left hilar lymph nodes
(d) Left lower lobe lesion
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193. Which of the following is the best test for screening a case of proximal internal carotid artery Stenosis (a) Digital subtraction angiography (b) Magnetic resonance angiography (c) Colour Doppler Ultrasonography (d) CT angiogram
194. In a case of renal failure with total anuria, ultrasound was found to be normal. Next line of investigation is (a) Retrograde pyelography (b) IVP (c) Anterograde pyelography (d) DTPA renogram
195. In the plain film of the abdomen small bowel obstruction can be diagnosed by (a) Central location (b) Volvulae connivantes can be made
out (c) In the erect film, air fluid levels (d) All of the above
196. The following is not true of MRI (a) Imaging perfusion of brain (b) Superior to CT scan for bone
scanning (c) Blood vessels visualized without
contrast (d) presence of Hydrogen ions
197. Hydrocephalus in children, first seen is (a) Sutural diastesis (b) Post clinoid erosion (c) Large head (d) Thinned out vault
198. The characteristic X-ray feature of Pancoast tumour is (a) Coin shadow (b) Apical consolidation (c) Apical mass lesion with erosion of
neck of 1 & 2 ribs (d) Hilar mass
199. In nephrogram, one sees (a) Renal capillaries (b) Renal pelvis (c) Only renal cortex (d) Collecting tubules
200. Ultrasonogram is not useful in
(a) CBD stones at the distal end of the CBD
(b) Breast cyst
(c) Ascites
(d) Full Bladder
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Place Name of Contact Person Contact Number
SAIFAI Ms ABHILASHA SINHA 06398798498
LUCKNOW Mr. JITENDRA KUMAR SINGH 09455705580
MEERUT Md Faizan 09125893236
MORADABAD ------------------ ----------------
PATNA Mr. SANJEEV KUMAR 08051364659
DELHI Mr RAM SHARMA 07217861049
DEHRADUN Mr VIRENDRA KUMAR MAURYA 09105768775
CHANDIGARH Ms VEERA 07696033645, 06283439689
BAREILLY ------------------- ----------------
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