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DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

SANIKA KNOWLEDGE FOUNDATION EXPERT WAS A BEGINNER………

Test Booklet

Series

Test ID: AI01-2018122301

TEST BOOKLET

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

AITS MOCK TEST A

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

SANIKA KNOWLEDGE FOUNDATION

1. Curie is the UNIT of for

(a) Exposure

(b) Absorbed Dose

(c) Degree of potential DANGER

(d) Quality of Radionuclide disintegrating

per second

2. “ONION PEEL” appearance on radiograph is

seen in

(a) Giant Cell Tumor

(b) Ewing’s Sarcoma

(c) Osteogenic Sarcoma

(d) Multiple Myeloma

3. Which of the following contrast media is

used for IV

(a) LIPOIDIL

(b) DIANOSIL

(c) HYPAQUE

(d) CONRAY 420

4. “SOAP BUBBLE APPEARANCE ” is seen in

(a) Osteiod osteoma

(b) Osteochondroma

(c) Osteoclastoma

(d) Osteogenic Sarcoma

5. Best Radiographic view for fracture in

scaphoid

(a) AP

(b) LAT

(c) Oblique

(d) None

6. Which of the following tumour is least sensitive to radiation (a) Bronchogenic Carcinoma

(b) Adenocarcinoma Colon

(c) Malignant Melanoma

(d) Osteogenic Sarcoma

7. Cobalt 60 is

(a) Natural Isotope

(b) Artificial Isotope

(c) By product of Plutonium

(d) By product of Uranium

8. Rat Tail appearance is seen in

(a) Achlasia Cardia

(b) Reflux Esophagitis

(c) Carcinoma Esophagus

(d) Hiatus Hernia

9. Best diagnosis of pancreatic cancer is by

(a) USG

(b) MRI

(c) CT SCAN

(d) ANGIOGRAPHY

10. X-Ray discovered by Roentgen in

(a) 1886

(b) 1895

(c) 1905

(d) 1876

11. In Pyelography dye is injected into

(a) Anterior Tibial Vein

(b) Great Sephanous Vein

(c) Dorsal Metatarsal Vein

(d) Short Sephanous Vein

12. Absolute Contraindication for IVP is

(a) Idiosyncrasy to iodine

(b) Multiple Myeloma

(c) Raised Blood Urea

(d) All

13. Investigation of choice for assessing a

child with vesico-ureteric reflux

(a) Antegrade IVP

TEST CENTRE SAIFAI, CHANDIGARH, DELHI, LUCKNOW, KANPUR, PATNA, MEERUT, DEHRADUN, MORADABAD, BAREILLY


(b) Retrograde IVP

(c) MCU

(d) Cystoscopy

14. Best diagnosis of Tracheo-oesophagial

fistula is by

(a) Barium

(b) Conray 240

(c) Dianosil

(d) Urograffin

15. Radium Paint cause

(a) Squamus Carcinoma

(b) Osteogenic Sarcoma

(c) Rodent Ulcer

(d) Adenocarcinoma Lung

16. X-Rays are

(a) Electrons

(b) Protons

(c) Neutrons

(d) Electromagnetic Waves

17. Nucleus of an atom contains

(a) Electron

(b) Protons

(c) Electron and Protons

(d) Protons and Neutrons

18. Isotopes have same atomic

(a) Number

(b) Weight

(c) Density

(d) None

19. Atomic Weight is equal to (a) Protons (b) Protons and Neutrons (c) Protons and electrons (d) Proton, Neutrons and Electron

20. Nephrogram phase of IVPis because of dye in (a) PCT (b) Renal Pelvis (c) Nephron (d) Collecting Tubules

21. Double bubble sign is a radiological feature of

(a) Pyloric Stenosis

(b) Duodenal Atresia

(c) Hirschpruns Disease

(d) Enteroclitis

22. The half life of Co60 is

(a) 2.6 years

(b) 5.2 years

(c) 8 years

(d) 4 years

23. For small pneumothorax X-ray is done in

(a) Inspiration PA View

(b) Expiration PA

(c) Lateral Decubitus

(d) Supine

24. Source of Gamma Rays is

(a) Radium

(b) Cobalt

(c) Cesium

(d) Xenon

25. Barium meal picture of carcinoma stomach

shows

(a) Filling Defects

(b) Loss of rugosity

(c) Small capacity of stomach

(d) All

26. Judet view is for

(a) Hip

(b) Ankle

(c) Shoulder

(d) Wrist



27. X-rays are formed when electrons hit (a) Water (b) Heat (c) Anode (d) None

28. Which of the following is not an artificial Radioisotopes (a) Co-60 (b) Co-59 (c) Rn-226 (d) I-125

29. Right side pleural effusion is best viewed in which position (a) Left lateral decubitus (b) Right lat decubitus (c) PA view (d) Lordotic view

30. Co-60 Units (a) Gamma Rays (b) Alpha particles (c) Beta radiations (d) All of the above

31. Acute pancreatisis is best diagnosed by (a) MRI (b) CECT (c) NCCT (d) USG

32. Modality of choice in patients with breast implants (a) Mammography (b) MRI (c) CT Scan (d) None

33. Frequency of sound waves used for transabdominal USG is (a) 2.5-3.5 MHz (b) 3.5 -5 MHz (c) 5-7 MHz (d) 7.7 – 10 MHz

34. Which of the following is gold standard for diagnosis of minimal bronchitis (a) Bronchography (b) CT Scan (c) CR (d) ERCP

35. Speed of X-rays is equal to (a) Speed of light (b) Speed of electrons

(c) Tube Voltage

(d) None

36. Most Radiosensitive phase of cell cycle

(a) G1

(b) G2

(c) S

(d) M

37. The atom which scatter x-ray more is

(a) Lead

(b) Hydrogen

(c) Sodium

(d) Tin

38. Contrast in X-rays is depends upon

(a) kV

(b) mA

(c) Second

(d) Duration of exposure

39. Radiation is not used in

(a) USG

(b) CT Scan

(c) MRI

(d) Both A & C

40. Radiation mediates its effect by

(a) Denaturation of DNA

(b) Ionization of Molecules

(c) Protein Coagulation

(d) All of the above

41. Investigation of choice for pregnant lady with

upper abdominal mass

(a) Barium meal

(b) MRI

(c) CT SCAN



(d) Ultrasound 42. The element used for intracavitary RT in

carcinoma cervix (a) Caesium (b) Co-60 (c) Strontium (d) Radio Iodine

43. In x-ray, Jejunum has a pattern of (a) Valvulae connivantes (b) Taenia Coli (c) Reverse 3 sign (d) None of the above

44. Term line calcification seen in skull x-ray are characteristics of (a) Congenital cytomegalovirus infection (b) Congenitaltoxoplasmosis (c) Carcinopharyngioma (d) Sturge weber Syndrome

45. Investigation of choice for acute SAH (a) Enhanced MRI (b) MRI (c) CT Scan (d) Angiography

46. Ultrasonogram is not useful (a) CBD stones at the distal end of the

CBD (b) Breast Cyst (c) Ascites (d) Full bladder

47. Extradural hematoma, CT scan finding is (a) Hypodense biconvex lesion (b) Hyperdense biconvex lesion (c) Concavo convex hyperdense lesion (d) Low attenuated biconvex lesion

48. Half life of Rn222 is (a) 3 days (b) 3-6 days (c) 4 days (d) 5 days

49. In colour Doppler the color depends upon (a) Strength of retuning echo (b) Relation of transducer to blood flow (c) Frequency of Doppler used (d) Type of Doppler machine used

50. Radioactivity was discovered in (a) 1796 (b) 1896

(c) 1901

(d) 1946

51. 1st investigation of choice for spinal cord

TUMOUR

(a) Myelography

(b) CT

(c) MRI

(d) Plain X-ray

52. One Gray of radiation is equal to

(a) 1 RAD

(b) 10 RAD

(c) 100 RAD

(d) 1000 RAD

53. Gradual decrease in x-ray beam intensity as it

passes through material is called

(a) Attenuation

(b) Decay

(c) Radioactivity

(d) Imaging

54. For protons, gyromagnetic ratio has value

(a) 3 × 108 rads-1 T-1

(b) 2.68 × 108 rads-1 T-1

(c) 4 × 108 rads-1 T-1

(d) 5 × 108 rads-1 T-1

55. Energy passing through unit area is

(a) Intensity of x-ray

(b) Frequency of x-ray

(c) Wavelength of x-ray

(d) Amplitude of x-ray

56. Speed of ultrasound depends upon

(a) Medium

(b) Amplitude



(c) Material (d) Wavelength

57. Bones look white in x-ray photograph because (a) They are bad absorbers of x-rays (b) They reflect x-rays (c) They are good absorbers of x-rays (d) They are bad absorbers of ultraviolet

rays 58. Larmor frequency depends upon the

(a) Individual nucleus (b) Magnetic flux density (c) Both A and B (d) Energetic flux unit

59. Acoustic impedance of human skin is (a) 1.65 × 106 kg m² s-1 (b) 1.71 × 106 kg m² s-1 (c) 2 × 106 kg m-² s-1 (d) 2 × 107 kg m-3 s-2

60. In best piezo-electric substances, maximum value of strain is about (a) 0.5 % (b) 0.4 % (c) 0.3 % (d) 0.1 %

61. With gel between skin and transducer percentage of reflected intensity of ultrasonic is (a) 0.03 % (b) 0.05 % (c) 0.06 % (d) 0.08 %

62. Attenuation coefficient depends on (a) Frequency of x-ray photons (b) Wavelength of x-ray photons (c) Energy of x-ray photons (d) Amplitude of x-ray photons

63. X-rays are filtered out of human body by using (a) Cadmium absorbers (b) Carbon absorbers (c) Coppper absorbers (d) Aluminium Absorbers

64. Wave length of X-rays is in range

(a) 10-8 to 10-13 m

(b) 10-7 to 10-14 m

(c) 10-10 to 10-15 m

(d) 102 to 10

9 m

65. If fast moving electrons rapidly decelerate,

then rays produced are

(a) Alpha rays

(b) Beta rays

(c) Gamma rays

(d) X-rays

66. As x-rays pass through matter, it's intensity

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(c) Remains constant

(d) May increase or decrease depending on the

object

67. X-rays have

(a) Short wavelength

(b) High frequency

(c) Both A and B

(d) Longest wavelength

68. Acoustic impedance is defined as

(a) ρ⁄c

(b) ρc

(c) c⁄ρ

(d) ρ + c

69. A sound wave which has frequency higher than

upper limit of human hearing is

(a) Infra sonic

(b) Ultra sonic

(c) Super sonic

(d) Mega sonic

70. Fatty tissues have

(a) Relaxation time of several seconds

(b) Relaxation time of several hundred ns.



(c) Intermediate relaxation times (d) Relaxation times of several hundred

milliseconds. 71. Angular frequency of precision is called

(a) Lower frequency (b) Higher frequency (c) Larmor frequency (d) Linear frequency

72. Scattered x-rays beams approach detector screen (a) Perpendicularly (b) Parallel (c) Anti-parallel (d) At an angle

73. Maximum energy an x-ray photon can have is (a) e/V (b) e (c) eV (d) V

74. Soft x-rays have (a) High energies (b) Low energies (c) Lowest frequency (d) Longest wavelength

75. Intensity of x-rays can be increased by increasing (a) Frequency (b) Current (c) Voltage (d) Resistance

76. Bone thickness is equal to (a) cΔt/2 (b) cΔt (c) c/t (d) t/2

77. Hardness of x-ray beam can be increased by increasing (a) Voltage (b) Current (c) Frequency (d) Wavelenth

78. In x-ray production, kinetic energy of an electron arriving at anode is (a) 100 keV (b) 200 keV (c) 300 keV (d) 400 keV

79. Change in speed of ultrasound causes

(a) reflection

(b) Diffraction

(c) Refraction

(d) image

80. Type of x-rays used to detect break in bone is

(a) Hard

(b) Soft

(c) Both A and B

(d) moderate

81. Wavelength of 2.0 MHz ultrasound waves in

tissue is

(a) 7.5 × 10-4 m

(b) 8 × 10-5 m

(c) 8.5 × 10-6 m

(d) 9.2 × 10-3 m

82. Intensifier screens reduces patient’s exposure

to x-rays by a factor of

(a) 500-600

(b) 1000-2000

(c) 100-500

(d) 10-100

83. Contrast media consists of elements with

(a) Lower atomic number

(b) Higher atomic number

(c) Metalloids

(d) Inert gases

84. Thickness of material which decreases intensity of x-ray material to half of original value is

(a) Quarter thickness (b) Half thickess (c) Half life (d) 2 times of thickness



85. A good x-ray source should produce x-rays of narrow beam and (a) Parallel x-rays (b) Perpendicular x-rays (c) Anti parallel x-rays (d) Anti perpendicular x-rays

86. Neutrinos have electric charge of (a) Zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

87. β- radiations are simply (a) Protons (b) Neutrons (c) Electrons (d) muons

88. In a nuclear process, quantity conserved is (a) Mass-energy (b) Momentum (c) Mass only (d) Energy only

89. A specific combination of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called (a) Nucleons (b) Nuclide (c) Neutrino (d) nucleolus

90. Radiation emitted by radioactive substances is (a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Gamma (d) All of above

91. Elements undergo radioactive decay when proton number becomes greater than (a) 50 (b) 40 (c) 83 (d) 73

92. Process in which α and β rays pass close to atoms and knock electrons out is called (a) Atomization (b) Ionization (c) Decay (d) hydroxylation

93. Alpha particles have relatively

(a) Low kinetic energies

(b) High potential energy

(c) High mechanical energy

(d) High kinetic energy

94. Strongest ionizing radiation is

(a) Alpha

(b) Beta

(c) Gamma

(d) X-ray

95. Nucleon number consists of

(a) Number of electrons

(b) Number of protons

(c) Number of electrons and protons

(d) Number of protons and neutrons

96. Gamma radiation is emitted in order to

(a) Excite the atom

(b) Release excess energy from atom

(c) Destabilize the atom

(d) Stabilize the atom

97. Electrons move around nucleus in form of

(a) Clouds

(b) Dust particles

(c) Steam

(d) Charge

98. Particles like kaons and muons etc, were found

out by

(a) Looking at cosmic rays

(b) Looking at particles in accelerators

(c) Looking closely at atom

(d) Both A and B

99. Types of rays that affects nucleus are



(a) Alpha (b) Beta (c) Gamma (d) EM

100. Force that acts on both quarks and leptons is (a) Strong nuclear force (b) Weak interaction (c) Intermediate interaction (d) Nuclear force

101. Particles that experience strong force are (a) Leptons (b) Hadrons (c) Both A and B (d) softons

102. Heavy nuclei have (a) More protons than neutrons (b) More electrons than neutrons (c) More neutrons than electrons (d) More neutrons than electrons

103. Strong nuclear force acts over distance (a) 10-13 m (b) 10-14 m (c) 10-15 m (d) 10-16 m

104. A decay in which a proton decays in to neutron and an electron neutrino is

(a) β+ decay (b) β- (c) γ decay (d) α decay

105. Photon of electromagnetic radiation is (a) α ray (b) β ray (c) γ ray (d) x-ray

106. Mass of alpha particle is (a) 50 times the mass of electron (b) 100 times the mass of electron (c) 500 times the mass of electron (d) 1000 times the mass of electron

107. Particle which explains about mass of

matter is called

(a) Higgs boson

(b) Protons

(c) Leptons

(d) Neutrons

108. Plum pudding model describes atom as

(a) Negative pudding with positive plums

(b) Negative pudding

(c) Positive pudding with negative plums

(d) Positive pudding only

109. Lepton among them are

(a) Electrons

(b) Neutrinos

(c) Protons

(d) Both A and B

110. Density of proton is equal to density of

(a) Electron

(b) Atom

(c) Neutron

(d) neutrino

111. Radioactivity was discovered by

(a) Marie Curie

(b) Rutherford

(c) Fermi

(d) Henri Becquerel

112. Half life of I-131 is

(a) 8 hrs

(b) 2 days

(c) 8 days

(d) 12 days

113. CT scan is invented by



(a) Hounsfield (b) Storz (c) Koba (d) Purcell

114. Deltrious effect of USG is (a) Ionization (b) Vacoulation (c) Cavitation (d) Disintegration

115. Cell most sensitive to radiation (a) Lymphocyte (b) Neutrophills (c) Basophill (d) Platelets

116. Investigation of choice for multiple sclerosis (a) MRI (b) CT (c) EEG (d) X-Ray

117. Radiation Protection shields are made up of (a) Copper (b) Silver (c) Lead (d) Tin

118. Xeroradiography is used in (a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Breast (d) All

119. The least radiosensitive tissue is (a) Nervous (b) Bone (c) Kidney (d) Thyroid

120. Use of filters result (a) Softer beam radiation (b) Wider beam coverage (c) Less penetrating beam (d) Beam of greater intensity

121. Use of cone results (a) Higher contrast (b) Low contrast (c) Less Motion (d) None

122. Target material in diagnostic x-ray tube is

(a) Lead

(b) Tungsten

(c) Cobalt

(d) Copper

123. The overall heart size in tetralogy of

fallot is usually

(a) Markedly enlarged

(b) Normal or relatively small

(c) Slightly enlarged

(d) Moderately enlarged

124. Diagnosis of aortic calcification is done

by fluoroscopy by seeing

(a) Side to side movement

(b) Up and down movement

(c) Combined movement

(d) None

125. In urinary tract tuberculosis, frequent

finding on plain film of abdomen is

(a) Mass

(b) Ileus

(c) Calcification

(d) Psoas abscess

126. Pericardial calcification is caused by all

except

(a) Radiotherapy to the mediastinum

(b) Methysergide therapy

(c) Anticoagulant therapy

(d) Benign pericarditis

127. Cystic dilation of collecting tubules are

seen in

(a) Adult polycystic kidney

(b) Medullary sponge kiney



(c) Horse shoe shaped kidney (d) Nephroblastoma

128. During angiography the mitral valve is best visualized in the (a) Frontal view (b) Lateral view (c) Right anterior oblique view (d) None of the above

129. The x-ray finding of small intestinal malabsorption syndrome are all except (a) Increased transit time (b) Mucosal trophy (c) Dilatation of bowel (d) Flocculation of Barium

130. Right side of mediastinal shadow is not formed by (a) SVC (b) Right innominate (c) RA (d) RV

131. Best mode of imaging for suspected uric acid calculi is (a) Plain film of abdomen (b) Ultrasonography (c) Intravenous pyelography (d) Radionuclides.

132. Solitary nodule lung cannot be (a) Tuberculoma (b) Neurofibroma (c) Bronchogenic carcinoma (d) Lymphoma

133. Angle of trachea is increased in which chamber of heart enlargement (a) Left atrium (b) Right atrium (c) Left ventricle (d) Right ventricle

134. Medusa lock appearance in X- ray seen in (a) Ascariasis (b) Tapeworm (c) Hookworm (d) Ascaris and tapeworm

135. Signs of increased intracranial tension in a child in a skull X-ray (a) Separation of the sutures (b) Tense anterior fontanelles

(c) Silver beaten appearance of the bones


136.

137. Echoenecpahalography is most useful

for detecting

(a) Ventricular dilatation

(b) Midline shift

(c) Epilepsy

(d) Vascular lesions

138. X-rays are modified

(a) Protons

(b) Electrons

(c) Neutrons

(d) Positrons

139. “Sentinel loop” appearance on X-ray is

seen

(a) Acute pancreatitis

(b) Chronic pancreatitis

(c) Intestinal obstruction

(d) Acute appendicitis

140. The “Target Sign” sonographically

means

(a) Ovarian carcinoma

(b) Ectopic kidney

(c) Intussusception

(d) Liver metastasis

141. Osteosclerotic bone secondaries are

seen in

(a) Carcinoma thyroid

(b) Carcinoma prostate

(c) Carcinoma stomach

(d) Carcinoma lung



142. Water soluble contrast media used for myelography is (a) Metrizamide (b) Dianosil (c) Conray (d) Iohexol

143. Most sensitive test for metastatic deposit is (a) Isotope scan (b) CT Scan (c) Skeletal survey (d) Tomography

144. Best imaging modality to diagnose liver mass is (a) Plain film (b) Angiography (c) C. T. Scan (d) Nuclear Scan

145. Characteristics of Benign tumour of lung in X -ray is (a) Size > 5 cms diameter (b) Cavitation (c) Peripheral location (d) Concentric dense calcification.

146. Scalloping of the edges of sigmoid colon on barium enema is seen in (a) Diverticulitis (b) Crohn’s disease (c) Pneumatosis intestinalis (d) Ulcerative colitis

147. Widening of the C loop in X-ray is diagnostic of (a) Chronic pancreatitis (b) Carcinoma head of pancreas (c) Periampullary carcinoma (d) Calculi in the ampulla of vater

148. AH are features of Medulloblas toma except (a) Radio resistant (b) Highly radio sensitive (c) Occurs in first decade (d) Coarctation of aorta d)TDT

149. Notching of ribs on X- ray is seen in (a) PDA (b) ASD (c) Ebsteins anomaly

d) Coarctation of aorta

150. Contrast used for MRI

(a) GDPA

(b) Radium

(c) Iridium

(d) TDT

151. Saw tooth appearance on abdominal X-

ray is seen in

(a) Prediverticular state

(b) Multiple polyposis

(c) Spastic colon

(d) Ischemic enteritis

152. Increased radiolucency of one sided

hemithorax may be caused by all except

(a) Obstructive emphysema

(b) Pneumothorax

(c) Expiratory film

(d) Patient rotation

153. Gas in biliary tract is not due to

(a) Perforated gastric ulcer

(b) Necrotizing enterocolitis

(c) Biliary surgery

(d) Post-gastrectomy

154. Egg shell calcification in hilar region is

seen in

(a) Penumoconiosis

(b) T. B.

(c) Sarcoidosis

(d) Aneurysms

155. Basal ganglia calcification is not seen in

(a) Wilson’s disease

(b) Berry anerurysm



(c) Cysticercosis (d) Hemangioma

156. Calcification of meniscal cartilage is a feature of (a) Acromegaly (b) Hyperparathyroidism (c) Reiter’s syndrome (d) Pseudo gout

157. Sun ray appearance is seen in (a) Osteoclastoma (b) Fibrous dysplasia (c) Osteosarcoma (d) Chondrosarcoma

158. Investigation of choice in Traumatic paraplegia is (a) MRI (b) CT Scan (c) Myelography (d) Spine X – ray

159. Interosseous skeletal tumour is best diagnosed by (a) Plain X-ray (b) NMR (c) CT scan (d) CT with scintiscan

160. Notching of Ribs is seen in (a) Tuberculosis (b) VSD (c) Coarctation of aorta (d) Bronchiectasis

161. Laminated appearance of X-ray is suggestive of (a) Ewing’s sarcoma (b) Osteoid osteoma (c) Osteoclastoma (d) Multiple myeloma

162. Full colonic preparation of Barium Enema is contra indicated in all except (a) Acute exacerbation of ulcerative

colitis (b) Irritable bowel syndrome (c) Hirschsprung’s disease (d) Colonic obstruction

163. Right border of the heart in a chest X-ray, is not formed by (a) fVC (b) SVC

(c) Right Atrium

(d) Aorta

164. Pulmonary embolism is best diagnosed

by

(a) X-ray chest

(b) Enzyme estimation

(c) Radionucleus

(d) Blood gas analysis

165. Right lung is seen to best advantage on

the following view

(a) Right posterior oblique

(b) Right anterior oblique

(c) Left anterior oblique

(d) Lateral

166. Early change of pulmonary edema in

CXR

(a) Batswing appearance

(b) Pleural effusion

(c) Kerley B lines

(d) Ground glass lung field

167. Investigation to differentiate between

pericardial effusion and heart dialation includes

(a) X-ray

(b) Fluoroscopy

(c) Echocardiogram

(d) CT scan

168. Multiple translucent cysts on X- ray are

found in the chest. Differential diagnosis

includes all except

(a) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia

(b) Congential adenomatoid bronchogenic

diseases



(c) Lobar agenesis (d) Bilateral multiple cysts

169. Multiple translucent cysts on X- ray are found in the chest. Differential diagnosis includes all except (a) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (b) Congential adenomatoid

bronchogenic diseases (c) Lobar agenesis (d) Bilateral multiple cysts

170. Onion peel appearance is seen in a) Citeoclastoma b) Chondrosarcoma c) Osteosarcoma d) Ewings sarcoma

171. IVU is not done in (a) Multiple myeloma (b) Secondaries in bone (c) Leukaemia (d) Renal tumour

172. When bones show a ‘Bone within bone’ appearance this is indicative of

(a) Sickle cell anemia (b) Bone infarction (c) Osteopetrosis (d) Chronic myelogenous leukaemia

173. The best view to visualize minimum pneumoperitoneum is (a) AP view of abdomen (b) Erect film of abdomen (c) Right lateral decubitus with

horizontal beam (d) Left lateral decubitus with horizontal

team 174. In fluoresce in angiography, dye

is injected in (a) Anterior cubital vein (b) Femoral artery (c) Femoral vein (d) Aorta

175. All of the following are true about iodinated intravascular contrast media except (a) They are used in digital subtraction

angiography

(b) They are radio opaque

(c) They can cause anaphylactic reactions

(d) They are used in magnetic resonance

imaging

176. Rib notching is produced by

(a) Coarctation of Aorta

(b) Neurofibromatosis

(c) Superior vena caval obstruction


177. Widening of the C loop in X- ray is

diagnostic of

(a) Chronic pancreatitis

(b) Carcinoma head of pancreas

(c) Periampullary carcinoma

(d) Calculi in the ampulla of vater

178. Which of the following is not a contra

indication for I VP?

(a) Renal infection

(b) Hyperpyrexia

(c) Multiple myeloma

(d) Skeletal metastases

179. Perihilar fluffy opacities on chest x-ray

is seen in

(a) Pulmonary embolism

(b) Pericardial effusion

(c) Pulmonary arterial hypertension

(d) Pulmonary venous hypertension

180. An aneurysm of the sinus of Valsalva

usually arise from

(a) Right aortic sinus

(b) Left aortic sinus

(c) Posterior aortic sinus



(d) pulmonary outflow tract 181. Sequestration lung is best

diagnosed by (a) C.T Scan (b) M.R.I. (c) Barium swallow (d) Angiography

182. Superior Orbital fissure best view is (a) Plain AP view (b) Caldwell (c) Townes (d) Basal view

183. Which imaging method is ideal in evaluating hypertension ?

(a) Angiography (b) Colour flow Doppler (c) M. R. angio (d) C. T scan

184. Commonest cause of intracranial calcification is (a) Pineal calcification (b) Intracranial aneurysm (c) Meningioma (d) Tuberculoma

185. Isotope used in myocardial perfusion scan is (a) Technetium (b) Thallium (c) Stannous pyrophosphate (d) Gallium

186. Best diagnostic procedure in acute pancreatitis is (a) CT Scan (b) Ultrasound (c) M. R. I. (d) Pipida scan

187. The most common cause of spontaneous pneumothorax is (a) Rupture of subpleural blebs (b) Pulmonary tuberculosis (c) Bronchial adenoma (d) Bronchogenic carcinoma

188. Bull’s eye lesion in ultrasonography is

seen in

(a) Candidiasis

(b) Aspergillosis

(c) Sporotrichosis

(d) Cryptococcosis

189. Newborn Chest x-ray with Respiratory

distress shows multiple air containing lesions in

Left Hemithorax and mediastinal shift is

suggestive of

(a) Neonatal emphysema

(b) Diaphragmatic hernia

(c) Pneumatocele

(d) congential lung fcysts

190. Radiologically appreciable earliest sign

of osteomyelitis is

(a) Loss of muscle and fat planes

(b) Periosteal reaction

(c) Callus formation

(d) Presence of sequestrum

191. Hilar dance on fluoroscopy is seen in

(a) ASD

(b) TOF

(c) VSD

(d) TGV

192. Obliteration of Left heart border in PA

chest X-ray is suggestive of

(a) Lingular pathology

(b) Left upper lobe lesion

(c) Left hilar lymph nodes

(d) Left lower lobe lesion



193. Which of the following is the best test for screening a case of proximal internal carotid artery Stenosis (a) Digital subtraction angiography (b) Magnetic resonance angiography (c) Colour Doppler Ultrasonography (d) CT angiogram

194. In a case of renal failure with total anuria, ultrasound was found to be normal. Next line of investigation is (a) Retrograde pyelography (b) IVP (c) Anterograde pyelography (d) DTPA renogram

195. In the plain film of the abdomen small bowel obstruction can be diagnosed by (a) Central location (b) Volvulae connivantes can be made

out (c) In the erect film, air fluid levels (d) All of the above

196. The following is not true of MRI (a) Imaging perfusion of brain (b) Superior to CT scan for bone

scanning (c) Blood vessels visualized without

contrast (d) presence of Hydrogen ions

197. Hydrocephalus in children, first seen is (a) Sutural diastesis (b) Post clinoid erosion (c) Large head (d) Thinned out vault

198. The characteristic X-ray feature of Pancoast tumour is (a) Coin shadow (b) Apical consolidation (c) Apical mass lesion with erosion of

neck of 1 & 2 ribs (d) Hilar mass

199. In nephrogram, one sees (a) Renal capillaries (b) Renal pelvis (c) Only renal cortex (d) Collecting tubules

200. Ultrasonogram is not useful in

(a) CBD stones at the distal end of the CBD

(b) Breast cyst

(c) Ascites

(d) Full Bladder


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