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We all know that Civil Services is one of the most prestigious career option today. Only a few out of lakhs are able to come on the Successful candidates list. UPSC has changed the Pre Exam pattern from 2011 if you will see the last two years questions papers of prelims you can analyze the nature of questions come in the exam. General Studies is one of the Subject which has major contribution in the whole Civil Services Examination. In the prelims there is one whole paper of General Studies & in the Main it has its Contribution. Therefore General Studies cant be under estimated, however it is seen among aspirants that they do not have right kind of materials for General Studies Paper, the materials which is exam oriented, the materials which is easy to understand, the materials which is exclusively designed & developed on the basis of present trend, the materials which cover 100% syllabus of the upsc and most importantly of very low cost's in hard copy.

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GS Paper 1

Categorised ANCIENT HISTORY

1. In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

(a) One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck (b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic

characters (c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story (d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings

of love or eroticism. 2. Consider the following Bhakti Saints : 1. Dadu Dayal2. Guru Nanak 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over? (a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 3. Consider the following historical places : 1. Ajanta Caves 2. Lepakshi Temple 3. Sanchi Stupa Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None 4. With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements

regarding Sankhya school : 1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul. 2. Sankhya holds that it is the self- knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or

agent. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER 2013



(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is

the difference between the two? (a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks (b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks (c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while vihara is the hall axial to it (d) There is no material difference between the two 6. Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism? (a) The extinction of the flame of desire (b) The complete annihilation of self (c) A state of bliss and rest (d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension 7. Which of the following characterizes / characterize the people of Indus Civilization? 1. They possessed great palaces and temples. 2. They worshipped both male and female deities. 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare. Select the correct statement / statements using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of the statements given above is correct 8. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine? 1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance. 2. Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul. 3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 9. With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements: 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India. 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths. Which of the statements given above is/ are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3



10. The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following Statements is/are correct?

1. The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery. 2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for

determining the innocence or guilt of a person. 3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

MODERN HISTORY

11. Annie Besant was 1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement 2. The founder of the Theosophical Society 3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress Select the correct statement / statements using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 12. The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the (a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians (b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages (c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the

Europeans (d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth. 13. The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because (a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919 (b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces (c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission (d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country 14. Quit India Movement was launched in response to (a) Cabinet Mission Plan (b) Cripps Proposals



(c) Simon Commission Report (d) Wavell Plan 15. With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces

were (a) Directly elected by the people of those Provinces (b) Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League (c) Elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies (d) Selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters 16. Consider the following Statements: Attorney General of India can 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 3. speak in the Lok Sabha 4. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) only (b) and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only 17. The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third (b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land (c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom (d) writing off all peasant debts

INDIAN GEOGRAPHY

18. Consider the following pairs : Tribe State 1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim 2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh 3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha 4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched? (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4



19. Consider the following pairs : National Park River flowing through the Park 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga 2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas 3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) None 20. The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east.

Why? 1. It occupies a linear rift valley. 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras. 3. The land slopes to the west from Central India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) only (b) and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) None 21. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of Indian coal? 1. High ash content 2. Low sulphur content 3. Low ash fusion temperature Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 22. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct? 1. They are generally red in colour. 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash. 3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP. 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 only



23. Consider the following statements: 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma 3. Charwars are famous for petroleum Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) None 24. Consider the following crops : 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. Wheat Which of these are Kharif crops? (a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 2, and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 25. Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders. The above statement best describes which of the following regions? (a) African Savannah (b) Central Asian Steppe (c) North American Prairie (d) Siberian Tundra

WORLD GEOGRAPHY

26.Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil ? 1. Execretion of urea by animals 2. Burning of coal by man 3. Death of vegetation Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 27. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? Geographical Feature Region (a) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia (b) Atlas, Mountains : North-Western Africa (c) Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa (d) Okavango Basin : Patagonia



28. Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to (a) The earths rotation on its axis (b) The earths revolution round the sun in an elliptical manner (c) Latitudinal position of the place (d) Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis 29. On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining

freshwater, the largest proportion (a) is found in atmosphere as moisture and clouds (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers (c) exists as groundwater (d) exists as soil moisture 30. Consider the following : 1. Electromagnetic radiation 2. Geothermal energy 3. Gravitational force 4. Plate movements 5. Rotation of the earth 6. Revolution of the earth Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth? (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 31. The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where (a) warm and cold atmospheric currents meet (b) rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea (c) warm and cold oceanic currents meet (d) continental shelf is undulating 32. Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/ characteristics of equatorial forests? 1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy. 2. Coexistence of a large number of species. 3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3



33. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?

1. Thermal difference between land and water. 2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans. 3. Presence of strong winds in the interior. 4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts. Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY

34. The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the

recent past. What is/are the importance/importances of discovering this particle? 1. It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass. 2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point

to another without traversing the physical space between them. 3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

BIOLOGY

35. Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because (a) Exposure to sunlight is prevented (b) Concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased (c) Rate of respiration is decreased (d) There is an increase in humidity 36. Which of the following statements is/are correct 1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy 2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium 3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only. Select the correct answer using the code given below codes (a) 1only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3



37. Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to

1. Resist drought and increase absorptive area 2. Tolerate extremes of pH 3. Resist disease infestation Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 38. Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through

tattooing? 1. Chikungunya 2. Hepatitis B 3. HIV AIDS Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 39. Consider the following minerals: 1. Calcium 2. Iron 3. Sodium Which of the minerals given above is / are required by human body for the contraction of muscles? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 40. Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred 1. across different species of plants 2. from animals to plants 3. from microorganisms to higher organisms Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

PHYSICS

41. Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because (a) the actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased (b) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased (c) the effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced



(d) None of the above statements is correct. 42. Consider the following phenomena: 1. Size of the sun at dusk 2. Colour of the sun at dawn 3. Moon being visible at dawn 4. Twinkle of stars in the sky 5. Polestar being visible in the sky Which of the above are optical illusions? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3, 4 and 5 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 5 43. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical

phenomena are responsible for this? 1. Dispersion 2. Refraction 3. Internal reflection Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 44. The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak

nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Gravity is the strongest of the four (b) Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an eclectic charge (c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity (d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom

CHEMISTRY

45. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlinght (b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature (d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening 46. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol 3. Fluoride



4. Formaldehyde 5. Uranium Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only (c) 1,3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

ECONOMY

47. A rise in general level of prices may be caused by 1. an increase in the money supply 2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output 3. an increase in the effective demand Select the correct answer using the codes given below. (a) 1only (b) 1and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 48. Which one of the following groups of items is included in Indias foreign exchange reserves? (a) Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries (b) Foreign currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs (c) Foreign currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs (d) Foreign currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank 49. Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect? (a) Repayment of public debt (b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit (c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit (d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit 50. Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will

be (a) a fall in the level of prices (b) an increase in the rate of interest (c) a decrease in the rate of interest (d) an increase in the level of income and employment 51. Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if (a) there is technical progress in the world economy (b) there is population growth in X (c) there is capital formation in X (d) the volume of trade grows in the world economy



52. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the (a) Total value of goods and services produced by the nationals. (b) Sum of total consumption and investment expenditure. (c) Sum of personal income of all individuals. (d) Money value of final goods and services produced. 53. Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households? 1. Regional Rural Banks 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development. 3. Land Development Banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 54. Which of the following constitute Capital Account 1. Foreign Loans 2. Foreign Direct Investment 3. Private Remittances 4. Portfolio Investment Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 55. Consider the following statements: 1. Inflation benefits the debtors. 2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 56. Disguised unemployment generally means (a) large number of people remain unemployed (b) alternative employment is not available (c) marginal productivity of labour is zero (d) productivity of workers is low 57. Consider the following liquid assets : 1. Demand deposits with the banks 2. Time deposits with the banks



3. Savings deposits with the banks 4. Currency The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is (a) 1-4-3-2 (b) 4-3-2-1 (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 4-1-3-2 58. In the context of Indian economy, Open Market Operations refers to (a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI (b) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade (c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI (d) None of the above 59. Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest

Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

(a) State Forest Department (b) District Collector / Deputy Commissioner (c) Tahsildar / Block Development Officer / Mandal Revenue Officer (d) Gram Sabha 60. The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of (a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year (b) goods exported from a country during a year (c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another (d) capital movements from one country to another 61. The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of 1. liquidity of assets 2. branch expansion 3. merger of banks 4. winding-up of banks Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 62. An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the (a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks



(c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy (d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy 63. In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for (a) economic development (b) redemption of public debt (c) adjusting the balance of payments (d) reducing the foreign debt 64. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the

Rajya Sabha (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration (d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill 65. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to (a) agriculture (b) micro and small enterprises (c) weaker sections (d) All of the above 66. Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India? (a) Engineering (b) Paper and pulp (c) Textiles (d) Thermal power 67. To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do? (a) Promoting skill development (b) Introducing more social security schemes (c) Reducing infant mortality rate (d) Privatization of higher education

POLITY

68. Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? 1. The Prime Minister 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet 4. Chief Ministers of the States Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4



69. Consider the following statements : The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts 1. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha. 2. scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government. 3. examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 70. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the

parliamentary government? 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 71. Consider the following statements : 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 72. Consider the following statements : 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of

plans for economic development and social justice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 73. Consider the following statements : 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the

presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 74. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements: 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on

the basis of equal opportunity. 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and

schemes throughout the country Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 75. Economic Justice as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in (a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights (b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy (c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy (d) None of the above 76. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the

governance of the country? (a) Fundamental Rights (b) Fundamental Duties (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties 77. Which one of the following statements is correct? (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just

as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from

his/her post (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt.

Governor on the basis of majority support 78. Consider the following Statements: 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok

Sabha only 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the

amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?



(a) only (b) only (c) Both 2 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 79. Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1. National Development Council 2. Planning Commission 3. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 80. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international

treaties (a) with the consent of all the States (b) with the consent of the majority of States (c) with the consent of the States concerned (d) without the consent of any State 81. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.

Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (a) To provide self-governance (b) To recognize traditional rights (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas (d) To free tribal people from exploitation

ECOLOGY 82. Consider the following fauna of India: 1. Gharial 2. Leatherback turtle 3. Swamp deer Which of the above is/are endangered? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None 83. Many transplanted seedling do not grow because (a) the new soil does not contain favourable minerals (b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard (c) most of the root hair are lost during transplantation (d) leaves get damaged during transplantation



84. Which of the following leaf modification occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss? 1. Hard and waxy leaves 2. Tiny leaves or no leaves 3. Thorns instead of leaves Select the correct answer using the codes given below: (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 85. With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are

known as decomposer organism/organisms? 1. Virus 2. Fungi 3. Bacteria Select the correct answer using the code given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 86. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the 1. meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky. 2. lightning that separates the nimbus clouds. 3. violent upward movement of air and water particles. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) None 87. Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins

known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by

(a) bacteria (b) protozoa (c) moulds (d) viruses (e) None of the above produces the thunder 88. Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the

following are released into the environment as e-waste ? 1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor 5. Mercury 6. Lead 7. Plutonimum Select the correct answer using the codes given below.



(a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only (c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 89. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by (a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen (b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide (c) ozone and carbon dioxide (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide 90. With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements : 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other. 2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species. 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? (a) 1 only (doubt)(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None (Doubt) 91. Consider the following organisms : 1. Agaricus 2. Nostoc 3. Spirogyra Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers ? (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only 92. In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat ? 1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala 3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer using the codes given below: codes (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 93. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism,

but also its functional role in the community of organisms? (a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche (c) Habitat (d) Home range



94. Consider the following: 1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey Which of the above are naturally found in India? (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 3 and 4 95. Consider the following Animals 1. Sea cow 2. Sea horse 3. Sea lion Which of the above is / are mammal/mammals? (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3 96. With Reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following

statements is/are correct? 1. Begasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy 2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers. 3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol. Select the correct answer using the codes given below (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 97. Consider the following pairs : 1. Nokrek Bio- sphere Reserve : Garo Hills 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range 3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None 98. In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of (a) Insects and fungi (b) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients (c) Water limits and fire (d) None of the above



99. Which of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves (b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans (d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands. 100. Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in (a) Desert margins, liable to strong wind action (b) Low flat plains, close to stream course, liable to flooding (c) Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth (d) None of the above

Online Coaching for IAS PRE GS 2014 (at just 100 Rs per month)

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HISTORY

ANCIENT

THE PREHISTORIC PERIOD HARAPPAN CIVILISATION THE VEDIC CIVILISATION RELIGIOUS MOVEMENTS (6TH CENTURY B.C.) THE RISE OF THE MAGADHA KINGDOM (600 TO 300 BC) THE MAURYAN EMPIRE (325 BC -183 BC) POST-MAURYAN (200 BC 300 AD) THE SANGAM AGE GUPTA EMPIRE (320-550 AD) POST-GUPTA PERIOD (550-750 AD) INDIA DURING 300 700 A. D.

MEDIEVAL

EARLY MEDIEVAL INDIA DELHI SULTANATE VIJAYANAGAR & BAHAMANI EMPIRE ADMINISTRATION & ECONOMY (1200 1526) SOCIETY, CULTURE & RELIGION (1200 1526) REGIONAL CENTRES OF POWER MUGHAL EMPIRE MUGHAL ADMINISTRATION & ECONOMY MUGHAL SOCIETY, CULTURE & RELIGION THE MARATHA AGE

MODERN

EIGHTEENTH CENTURYS INDIA ADVENT OF THE EUROPEANS & ASCENDANCE OF THE BRITISH ADMINISTRATION & ECONOMY UNDER THE COMPANY RULE (1757-1857) EARLY UPRISING, REVOLT OF 1857 & BRITISH POLICIES AFTER 1857 THE INDIAN RENAISSANCE INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS RISE OF INDIAN NATIONALISM PEASANT & TRADE UNION MOVEMENTS DEVELOPMENT OF EDUCATION & THE INDIAN PRESS GANDHIAN ERA (1917-1947) TOWARDS FREEDOM GOVERNOR GENERALS AND VICEROYS SOME IMPORTANT INFORMATIONS

CONTENT OF STUDY KIT



ECONOMY

ECONOMICS : AN INTRODUCTION ECONOMIC PLANNING IN INDIA FISCAL SYSTEM MONETARY AND CREDIT POLICY MONEY MARKET AND CAPITAL MARKET IN INDIA STOCK MARKETS IN INDIA TAXATION SYSTEM IN INDIA: CONCEPTS AND POLICIES INFLATION : CONCEPTS, FACTS AND POLICY PUBLIC SECTOR BANKING SYSTEM IN INDIA POVERTY AND INEQUALITY CONCEPTS, DATA POLICY AND ANALYSIS UMEMPLOYMENT AGRICULTURE IMPORTANT INDICES BRETTON WOODS INSTITUTIONS AND OTHERS GATT AND WTO FOREIGN TRADE EXTERNAL SECTOR ECONOMY UPDATES SOME IMPORTANT FACTS

A. SECTORS OF THE INDIAN ECONOMY B. LIBERALIZATION C. HUMAN CAPITAL AND HUMAN DEVELOPMENT D. GROWTH AND CHANGING STRUCTURE OF EMPLOYMENT E. INDIAS ECONOMIC INTERACTION WITH THE WORLD

ENVIRONMENT STUDYING ENVIRONMENT THE MULTIDISCIPLINARY NATURAL RESOURCES ECOSYSTEMS BIODIVERSITY AND ITS CONSERVATION POLLUTION ENVIRONMENT & HUMAN HEALTH DISASTERS & THEIR MANAGEMENT POPULATION & ENVIRONMENT GLOBAL ENVIRONMENTAL PROBLEM DEVELOPMENT & ENVIRONMENTAL CONCERNS SOME IMPORTANT FACTS TO DIGEST SOME IMPORTANT POINTS FOR P.T. CLIMATES OF INDIA OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

GEOGRAPHY

PART I (INDIAN GEOGRAPHY)



PHYSIOGRAPHY POPULATION 2011 PHYSICAL FEATURES OF INDIA RIVER SYSTEMS OF INDIA CLIMATE OF INDIA SOILS NATURAL VEGETATION AGRICULTURE IN INDIA IRRIGATION IN INDIA MINERALS IN INDIA INDUSTRIES IN INDIA SOURCES OF ENERGY IN INDIA TRANSPORT SYSTEM QUESTIONS

PART II (WORLD GEOGRAPHY)

SPACE LITHOSPHERE ATMOSPHERE HYDROSPHERE BIOSPHERE THE BIOMES FOREST TYPES OF SOIL WORLD AGRICULTURE FISHERIES ENERGY MINERALS WORLD TRIBAL GROUPS SOME IMPORTANT FACTS QUESTIONS

INDIAN POLITY NATIONAL SYMBOLS INDIAN CONSTITUTION: AT A GLANCE SOURCES OF INDIAN CONSTITUTION FRAMING OF THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA FEATURES OF CONSTITUTION PREAMBLE THE UNION AND ITS TERRITORY CITIZENSHIP FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY UNION EXECUTIVE PARLIAMENT JUDICIARY STATE EXECUTIVE LOCAL GOVERNMENT PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION



ELECTORAL SYSTEM CENTER STATE RELATION EMERGENCY PROVISIONS AMENDMENT OF CONSTITUTION SEVENTH SCHEDULE (ARTICLE 246) POLITICAL SYSTEM ADMINISTRATIVE TRIBUNALS ANTI DEFECTION LAW ANTI CORRUPTION INSTITUTIONS POLITICAL DEBATE INTERNAL SECURITY PLANNING HUMAN RIGHTS NATIONAL COMMISSIONS DICTIONARY OF POLITY OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

GENERAL SCIENCE UNIVERSE PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY

I. THE CELL II. TISSUE

III. MUSCULAR AND SKELETAL SYSTEM IV. THE NERVOUS SYSTEM V. THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM

VI. LYMPHATIC SYSTEM AND IMMUNITY VII. THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

VIII. THE CIRCULATORY SYSTEM IX. THE INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM X. THE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

XI. PLANT REPRODUCTION XII. THE DIGESTIVE SYSTEM

XIII. THE EXCRETORY SYSTEM XIV. PHOTOSYNTHESIS XV. DIGESTION IN PLANTS

XVI. DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS XVII. THE ANIMAL KINGDOM

SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

I. INDIAS NUCLEAR PROGRAMME II. DEFENCE

III. SPACE IV. SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGICAL DEVELOPMENT IN INDIA

WHAT, WHY & HOW



History

1. The Prehistoric Period

The prehistoric period in the history of mankind can roughly be dated from 200000 BC to about 3500-2500 BC, when the first civilisations began to take shape. The first modern human beings or the Homo sapiens set foot on the Indian subcontinent anywhere between 200000 BC and 40000 BC and they soon spread throughout a large part of the subcontinent, including peninsular India.

Man is said to have appeared on the earth in the early Pleistocene i.e. between 2,000,000 and 10,000 years before the present.

It is now well established that the earliest human fossils found in Africa dates back to about 42 lakhs years. These specimens show that the earliest human beings were shorter in height and had a smaller brain. The humans evolved over a period of these 42 lakhs years and the present form reached about 50,000 years ago.

The regular use of tools, beginning 26 lakhs years ago in east Africa is well attested and accompanies many earlier and later hominid fossils.

Except the solitary find of a hominid fossil from Hathnaura in the Narmada Valley, no early human fossils have been found in India, due to the climatic conditions. According to the estimation of experts cranial capacity of this fossil is equal to that of homo erectus.

The various strata of the Shivalik hills containing stone tools have been dated between 20 lakhs years and 12 lakhs years. Another scientific date for the early stone tools came from the archaeological site of Bori in Pune district of Maharashtra which is 13 lakhs and 80000 years old.

Stone Age

The age when the prehistoric man began to use stones for utilitarian purpose is termed as the Stone Age. On the basis of the specialization of the stone tools, which were made during that time the Stone Age is divided intog three broad divisions

1. Paleolithic Age or the Old Stone Age (from unknown till 8000 BC), 2. Mesolithic Age or the Middle Stone Age (8000 BC-4000 BC) and 3. Neolithic Age or the New Stone Age (4000 BC-2500 BC) 1. Paleolithic Age

Paleolithic Culture of India developed in the Pleistocene period of the ice-age. Animal remains found in the Belan Valley in Mirzapur district in Uttar Pradesh show that goats,

sheep and cattle were exploited in Paleolithic age. The human beings living in the Paleolithic Age were essentially food gatherers and depended on

nature for food. The art of hunting and stalking wild animals individually and later in groups led to these people making stone weapons and tools.

Sample Material of Study Kit



Crudely carved out stones were used in hunting, but as the size of the groups began to increase and there was need for more food, these people began to make specialized tools by flaking stones, which were pointed on one end. These kind of tools were generally used to kill small animals and for tearing flesh from the carcass of the hunted animals.

The basic technique of making these crude tools was by taking a stone and flaking its sides with a heavier stone. These tools were characteristic of the Paleolithic Age and were very rough.

Human beings had come to make and use fire by this time. Based on tool technology the Palaeolithic Age in India is divided into three phases.These phases

are: (i) Lower Palaeolithic Culture

Dates available from various sites indicat that the Lower Palaeolithic culture or the early Stone Age was quite widespread phenomenon between 5,00,000 and 50,000 B.C.Its characteristic features - use of hand axes, cleavers and choppers.

The raw materials used for making these stone tools are of various kinds of stone, like quartzite, chert and sometimes even quartz and besalt, etc.

The Lower Palaeolithic tools have been found over a large area, virtually from all over India, except the plains of the Indus, Saraswati. Brahmputra and Ganga where raw material in the form of stone is not available.

Lower Palaeolithic sites are of several types: habitation sites (either under rock-shelters or in the open) factory sites associated with sources of raw materials; sites that combine elements of both these functions; and open air sites in any of these categories subsequently.

Some of the important sites of Lower Palaeolithic culture are Pahalgam in Kashmir, Belan valley in Allahabad district (Uttar Pradesh) Bhimbetka and Adamgarh in Hoshangabad district, (Madhya Pradesh), 16 R and Sinsgi Talav in Nagaur district (Rajasthan), Nevasa in Ahmadnagar district (Maharashtra),Hunsgi in Gulburga district (in Karnataka) and the famous site of Attirampakkam (Tamil Nadu).

(ii) Middle Palaeolithic Culture

The Middle Palaeolithic Culture can be dated between 50,000 B.C. and 40,000 B.C. or even slightly later on the basis of scientific dates. Its characteristic features are industries mainly based on flakes.

The Middle Palaeolithic tools technology is characterized basically by the flake tool industry. The tools are made on flakes obtained by striking them out from pebbles or cobbles.

The tool types include small and medium-sized handaxes, cleavers and various kinds of scrapers, borers, and knives. The tools show regional variations both in terms of available raw materials as well as shapes and sizes.

Some of the most important sites of Middle Palaeolithic period are Bhimbetka, Nevasa, Pushkar, Rohiri hills of upper Sind, and Samnapur on Narmada.

(iii) Upper Palaeolithic Culture

The Middle Palaeolithic Culture slowly evolved into the Upper Palaeolithic Culture. From the scientific dates available from the various sites one may safely say that Upper Palaeolithic Culture lasted from about 40,000 B.C to 10,000 B.C.



Upper Palaeolithic Culture is characterised by use of blades and burins. It appears that the concept of composite tools start developing during this cultural period.

One of the most remarkable discovery of the Upper Palaeolithic period is that of a rubble built, roughly circular platform of about 85 cm in diameter.

The Upper Palaeolithic tools have been found in Rajasthan, parts of the Ganga and Belan valleys, Central and Western India, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka. The main tool types are scrapers, points, awls, burins, borers, knives, etc.

2. Mesolithic Age

Paleolithic age came to an end with the end of the Ice Age around 9000 B.C.An intermediate stage in Stone Age culture began in 9000 B.C, called Mesolithic Age or Middle Stone Age.

The simple handheld stone tools were now attached to thick branches from trees with rope made from animal skin and sinew. These tools are known as hand axes, which could be flung at fast-moving animals from a distance. Apart from hand axes, they also produced crude stone-tipped wooden spears, borers, and burins.

The characteristic tools of Mesolithic Age are Microliths. The microlithic tools are characterised by parallel-sided blades taken out from prepared cores of such fine material as chert, chalcedony, crystal, jasper, carnelian, agate, etc. Bagor in Rajasthan is the type site of Microlith excavations.

These Microlithic tools are generally 1 to 5 cm. long and the types include smaller verision of upper Palaeolithic types such as points, scrapers, burins, awls, etc., besides some new tool-types like lunates, trapezes, triangles, arrowheads, of various shapes and sizes.

Bhimbetka near Bhopal presents the art of painting practiced by Paleolithic and Mesolithic people. It contains more than 500 painted rock shelters, distributed in an area of 10 sq. km.The exact date of these paintings is not certain, but some of the paintings are as old as 12,000 years. The prehistoric artist used natural white and red pigments in depicting the various themes, which were close to his heart and sustenance.

Some of the most important and extensively studied sites of Mesolithic culutre are Bagor in Rajasthan, Langhnaj in Gujarat, Sarai Nahar Rai, Chopani Mando, Mahdaha and Damdama in Uttar Pradesh and Bhimbetka and Adamgarh in Madhya Pradesh.

We get the evidence of the association of sheep and goat with the Mesolithic people from Bagor and Adamgarh, around sixth millennium B.C. This suggests that they may have partly adopted the settled way of life. We come to know that these communities were essentially hunters, food-gatherers and fishermen, but also practised some form of agriculture.

3. Neolithic Age

Approximately 10,000 years ago at the end of the Pleistocene Age, climatic conditions more or less similar to those of today were established in western and southern Asia. The most fundamental advance that has affected the course of human life was the domestication of a large number of animals and plants. The present evidence suggests that in west Asia, wheat and barely were domesticated by 7000 B.C.

The Neolithic Age (9000 BC-2500 BC) or the New Stone Age was the last phase of the Stone Age and is characterised by very finely flaked, small stone tools, also known as blades and burins.

Neolithic (New Stone) Age began in 9000 B.C. in the world context. The only Neolithic settlement in the Indian subcontinent attributed to 7000 B.C. lies in Mehrgarh, which is situated in Baluchistan, a province of Pakistan.



The archaeological sites of Kili Ghul Mohammad, Gumla, Rana Ghundai, Anjira, Mundigak, and Mehrgarh in the Kacchi plain give evidence of a date between 7000-5000 B.C. Of these Mehrgarh has been most extensively examined. The evidence shows that the habitation here began in about 7000 B.C. but in the early period no use of ceramic is seen. However, in about a 1000 years time i.e. around 6000 B.C. earthen pots and pans come in use : first handmade and then wheel-made.

The beads found with burial remains show that people used beads made of lapis lazuli, carnelian, banded agate and white marine shell. A single copper bead has also been found. The occurrence of shell bangles and pendants made of mother-of-pearl indicates long-distance trade.

Some of the most important Neolithic sites are Gufkaral and Burzahom in Kashmir, Mahgara, Chqpani Mando and Koldihwa in Belan valley in Uttar Pradesh and Chirand in Bihar.Besides rice, evidence for barley cultivation is attested at Mahgarah. They built houses of wattle-and daub, with rammed floor. tended cow, bull, goat, sheep, and cultivated horse gram, millet and ragi.

The early Neolithic settlers in the north-west in Burzahom lived in pit dwellings, rather than building houses over the ground settlement at Chirand in Bihar is relatively late.

The Neolithic Age also saw the domestication of cattle, horses, and other farm animals. which were used for dairy and meat products. An important invention of this time was the making of the wheel.

The people of Gufkaral, a Neolithic site 41 km south-west of Srinagar, practised both agriculture and domestication of animals.

It is interesting that the Burzahom domestic dogs and were buried with their masters in their graves. The placing of domestic dogs in the graves of the masters do not seem to be the practice with Neolithic people in any other part of India.

We have the most decisive evidence of new patterns of subsistence in south India, almost contemporary with the Harappan culture. Some of the most important sites in southern India are Kodekal, Utnur, and Andhra Pradesh: Tekkalkolta, Maski. T. Narsipur. Sangankullu, Hallur and Brahmagiri in Karnataka and Paiyampalli in Tamil Nadu.

Prehistoric Rock Art Some of the important rock-painting sites are Murhana Pahar in Uttar Pradesh. Bhimbetka,

Adamgarh, Lakha Juar in Madhya Pradesh and Kupagallu in Karnataka. The colours used in making these drawings are deep red, green, white and, yellow. The distribution of these rock-paintings is very wide. They have been found in Chargul in north-

west Pakistan to Orissa in the east, and from the Kumaon hills is in the north to Kerala in the south. Depiction of human figures in rock paintings is quite common. The humans are shown in various

activities, such as dancing, running, hunting, playing games and engaged in battle. Animals are the most frequently depicted subjects either alone or in large and small groups and shown in various poses. There are also some hunting scenes, of which the rhinoceros hunt from the Adamgarh group of rockshelters is indicative of the joining of large number of people for the hunt of bigger animals.



OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1. Earliest human fossils were found from which of the following places ?

(a) Africa (b) North America (c) Asia (d) Europe

2. (The fossils of various periods and stages of human development have been found from which parts of the world ?

(a) Africa (b) China, Java, Sumatra (c) Southern Europe (d) All of the above

3. Early human fossils have been found in India from where ?

(a) Langhnaj (b) Bagor (c) Rojadi (d) Hathnaura

4. According to the experts the estimated cranial capacity of Hathnaura fossil is equal to that of which of these ?

(a) Homoerectus (b) Ramapithecus (c) Australopithecus (d) None of the above

5. It is well attested that the regular use of tools in East Africa began from-

(a) 1300000 years ago (b) 10000000 years ago (c) 5000000 years ago (d) 26000000 years ago

6. In case of Indonesia several hominid remains have recently been dated between

(a) 1800000 and 1000000 years (b) 2500000 and 1500000 years (c) 1800000 and 1600000 years (d) 3300000 and 1300000 years



7. Which of the following is assessed age of earth ?

(a) 1250000000 years (b) 4600000000 years (c) 3600000000 years (d) 1700000000 years

8. In China the early stone tools are associated with human fossils dated between

(a) 1300000 - 1100000 years (b) 1900000 - 1700000 years (c) 2100000 - 1100000 years (d) 2700000 - 1900000 years

9. The various strata of the Shivalik hills containing stone tools have been dated between which of the following ?

(a) 5000000 - 4000000 years (b) 2000000 - 1200000 years (c) 3000000 - 2700000 years (d) None of the above

10. In India 1300000 years old early stone tools found from which of the following archaeological site ?

(a) Bori in Maharashtra (b) Birbhanpur in Orissa (c) Hunsgi in Karnataka (d) All Palaeolithic above



ANSWERS 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)



Economy 1. Economics : An Introduction Ques. 1 : What are the definitions of economics?

Ans. Economics as a word comes from the Greek: oikos means family, household, or estate, and nomos stands for custom, law etc. Thus, household management or manage-ment of scarce resources is the essential meaning of economics. Economics encom-passes production, distribution, trade and consumption of goods and services. Economic logic is applied to any problem that involves choice under scarcity.

Ques. 2 : Evolution of the subject.

Ans. Initially, economics focused on wealth and later welfare. Still later, in recent years, it has given sufficient attention to the study of trade offs- giving up one to gain another. The focus on tradeoffs arises from the traditional assumption that resources are scarce and that it is necessary to choose between competing alternatives. Choosing one benefit implies forgoing another alternative the opportunity cost (cost of foregoing an Opportunity).

Ques. 3 : Who is known as the father of Economics? Ans. Adam Smith, generally regarded as the Father of Economics, author of An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations (generally known as The Wealth of Nations) defines economics as The science of wealth. Smith offered another definition, The Science relating to the laws of production, distribution and exchange.

Definitions in terms of wealth emphasize production and consumption, and do not deal with the economic activities of those not significantly involved in these two processes, for example, children and old people.

The belief is that non-productive activity is a cost on society. It meant that man was relegated to the secondary position and wealth was placed above life. Thus arose the shift in the focus to welfare economics study of man and of human welfare, not of money alone. Economics involves social action connected with the attainment of human well being. Ques. 4: Discuss the different branches of economics. Ans. Economics is usually divided into two main branches: Microeconomics which examines the economic behavior of individual actors such as consumers, businesses households etc to understand how decisions are made in the face of scarcity and what effects they have. Macroeconomics, which studies the economy as a whole and its features like national income, employment, poverty, balance of payments and inflation. The two are linked closely as the behavoir or a firm or consumer or household depends upon the state of the national and global economy.



Ques. 5 : What is Mesoeconomics? Ans. Mesoeconomics studies the intermediate level of economic organization in between the micro and the macro economics like institutional arrangements etc. DIVISION OF FOCUS ECONOMICS Microeconomics Production/output in individual industries and businesses and consumer and behaviour How much steel How much office space How many cars Consumer behaviour Macroeconomics National production/output Gross domestic product Employment Poverty Inflation BOP There are broadly the following approaches in the mainstream economics. The basis of all the streams is the same: resources are scarce while wants are unlimited (often mentioned as the economic problem). Ques. 6 : What is Keynesian theory of macro economics?

Ans. Keynesian macroeconomics based on the theories of twentieth-century British economist John

Maynard Keynes. It says that the state can stimulate economic growth and restore stability in the economy through expansionary policies. For example through massive programme of spending on infrastructure when the demand is low and growth is negative.

In the recessionary phase that the economies of the western world in particular and rest of the world in

general, went through (some are still undergoing the recession) due to 2008 financial crisis, the relevance of Keynes is growing.

The intervention by State is only when the economic cycle turns down and growth slows down or is

negative. In normal times, it is the market the drives growth through the force of supply and demand. Indian government stepped up expenditure with three fiscal stimuli in since December 2008 to revive

growth. With growth spurting, the gradual and calibrated exit from the stimulus was begun in the 2010-11 Union Budget.

The theories of Keynesian economics were first presented in The General Theory of Employment,

Interest and Money (1936).



Ques. 7 : Define Neoliberalism. Ans. Neoliberalism refers to advocacy of policies such as individual liberty, free markets, and free trade.

Neoliberalism proposes that human well being can best be advanced by liberating individual entrepreneurial freedoms and skills within an institutional framework characterized by strong private property rights, free markets and free trade.

Ques. 8 : What is socialist theory of economics? Ans. In distinction to the above, there is the school of socialist economics based on public (State) ownership

of means of production to achieve greater equality and give the workers greater control of the means of production. It establishes fully centrally planned economy which is also called command economy - economy is at the command of the State. Private ownership of assets is not allowed. For example, erstwhile USSR, Cuba etc.

Ques. 9: What is development economics? Ans. Development economics is a branch of economics which deals with economic aspects of the

development process, mainly in low-income countries. Its focus is not only promoting economic growth and structural change but also improving the well being of the population as a whole through health and education and workplace Conditions, whether through public or private channels. The most prominent contemporary development economists are Nobel laureates Amartya Sen and Joseph Stiglitz.

Ques. 10: What is structural change? Give an example. Ans.

Structural change of an economy refers to a long-term widespread change of a fundamental structure, rather than microscale or short-term change. For example a subsistence economy is transformed into a manufacturing economy, or a regulated mixed economy is liberalized.

An nsulated and protectionist economy becomes open and globalized. A current structural change in the world economy is globalization.



OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

1. Consider the following statements.

1) Macro economics examines the economic behavior of individual. 2) Microeconomics studies national income, poverty employment etc.

Which of the above statements is / are true.

a) Both 1 & 2 b) 1 only c) 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2


1) Keynesian theory says that state cant stimulate economic growth. 2) Keynesian theory were first published in the General theory of Employment. 3) Keynesian theory can work only in developed country.


a) 2 only b) 1 & 3 only c) 1 & 2 only d) 1, 2 & 3 only


1) Development economics mainly works in low-income countries. 2) The most prominent development economists are Nobel laureates Amartya Sen & Joseph Stiglitz. Which of the above statements is / are true. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2


1) Green economics supports the interaction between humans & nature. 2) Economic growth can be measure from GNP & GDP. 3) GNP is defined as the total market value of all final goods & services produced within the country

in a given period of time. Which of the above statements is / are true. a) 2 & 3 b) 1 & 2 c) 1, 2 & 3 d) 1 & 3




1) Nominal GDP refers to the current year production of final goods & services valued at current year. 2) Real GDP refers to the current year production of goods & service valued at base year prices. 3) In estimating GDP, only final marketable goods & services are considered.


a) 1 & 2 only b) 2 & 3 only c) 1 & 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3



ANSWERS 1. d.

2. a.

3. c.

4. b.

5. d.



Environment & Ecology

1. Nature of Environmental Studies There are several reasons for studying the state of environment. The need for information that clarifies modern environmental concepts such as: the need to conserve biodiversity, the need to lead more sustainable lifestyles, and the need to use resources more equitably. There is a need to change the way in which we view our own environment, using a practical approach based on observation and self-learning. There is also a need to create a concern for our environment that will trigger pro-environmental action, including simple activities we can do in our daily life to protect it.

Anybody can ask a question-What is environment? Einstein once defined environment as everything that is not me. In other words we can say that final analysis of everything present outside an individual is called as environment. This outside world in which we all live, being a part of it, is cosmos. This cosmos has air, water, soil, sun, moon and other planets. It has plants, animals, rivers, mountains, deserts and oceans. Collectively they make nature. This nature to which we belong is our environment.

Another way of understanding environment is to classify it further as physical, chemical and biological environment. Physical environment includes, radiation (light), temperature (heat), humidity and rain. Chemical environment has water, gases, acids, bases, inorganic elements and organic substances. Whereas, biological environment covers all living organisms found on the Earth. These can be bacteria, viruses, microbes, algae, fungi, herbs, shrubs, crops, large trees, worms, insects, fish, snakes and mammals. This living world on the planet earth is supported by complex but interdependent physical, chemical and biological processes. These processes collectively result into evolution. Thus we find that in environment every thing is related with everything.

Definition of Environmental

Environmental science deals with every issue that affects a living organism. It is essentially a multidisciplinary approach that brings about an appreciation of our natural world and human impact on its integrity.

It is an applied science, as it seeks practical answers to the increasingly important question of how to make human civilization sustainable on the Earths finite resources. Its components include biology, geology, chemistry, physics, engineering, sociology, health, anthropology, economics, statistics, computers and philosophy.

Environmental science is a collective study of many subjects. It includes elements of agronomy (soil science), biology, botany, chemistry, climatology, ecology, entomology, geography, geology, hydrology, limnology, meteorology, oceanography, political science, psychology, zoology, medicine and human and animal health.

It also draws upon some specialized subjects such as biogeography, demography, economics, and toxicology. Thus, environmental studies constitute a multidisciplinary subject (Fig. 1).



Fig. Scope of environmental sciences

The environment has four realms i.e. atmosphere, biosphere, lithosphere and hydrosphere (Fig. 2). Atmosphere is the gaseous envelope held by the gravitational force around the earth. Biosphere is concentrated mainly on the surface of earth.

It includes all living species (individuals). Hydrosphere is the water domain. It includes all lakes, ponds, rivers, streams, estuaries, bays, oceans and sea. Earths outer crust is lithosphere.

These four realms are so closely related with each other that they can not be separated absolutely. They interact with each other and make a life supporting system.

Fig. Four realms of environmet

Over the past 200 years, however, modern societies began to believe that easy answers to the question of producing more resources could be provided by the indiscriminate application of technological innovations.

Some examples are: growing more food by using fertilizers and pesticides, developing better strains of domestic animals and crops, irrigating farmland through mega-dams, and developing industry.

All this has led to rapid economic growth; and this type of ill-considered development has inevitably led to environmental degradation.The industrial development and intensive agriculture that provides the goods for our increasingly consumer-oriented society uses up large amounts of natural resources like water, minerals, petroleum products, wood, etc.

Non-renewable resources, such as minerals and oil, are those which will be exhausted in the future if we continue to use them forest is faster than nature can replace them. Our natural resources can be compared with money in a bank.

If we use it rapidly, the capital will be reduced to zero. On the other hand, if we use only the interest, it can sustain us over the longer term. This is called sustainable utilization or development.

In recent years, consciousness towards environmental issues has increased. Laws for environmental protection have been enacted in several countries. The credit for creating awareness goes to the conference on Human Environment, held at Stockholm in 1972.

Earth summit, another conference on environment was held in Rio-De-Janeiro in Brazil in 1992. The important issues like human population explosion, conservation of biodiversity, protection of ozone umbrella and restoration of climate change were discussed.

Efforts are being made to educate people on environmental problems and their management. Man has started to realize that environmental protection is his moral responsibility. Ethics thus developed are called as environmental ethics.



Environmental ethics teach us how to treat nature. They put moral questions before man. They seek a balance between human activities and natural processes. They consider not only philosophy but natural history, human ecology, cultural anthropology, psychology, animal rights theory, political ecology, science, technology and law. Environmental ethics are both theoretical and applied.

The subject matter includes culture and traditions that have influenced human relationship with nature, the place of man in nature, rights and duties of individuals, the moral standings of non humans and duties of future generations. The concept of environmental ethics leads us to a broader concept of environmentalism.

Environmentalism

Environmentalism is an activity that comprises many approaches. It may include environmental education, wild life protection, conservation of natural resources & sustainable development. It suggests that economic development should be socially tolerable and environmentally sustainable. Environmentalism is governed by following laws:

(1) Man can engineer nature and modify its benefits.

(2) Man is to create final order, harmony and balance in nature.

(3) Man has a moral obligation to protect and preserve the environment.

(4) Environment is beautiful, magnificent, powerful and unpredictable.

(5) A life supporting system is necessary for the survival of human being.

Importance of Environmental Study

We should know that Environment is not a single subject; it is an integration of several subjects that include both Science and Social Studies. Thus, the scope of environmental studies is extremely wide and covers some aspects of nearly every major discipline.

We live in a world wherein natural resources are limited. Water, air, soil, minerals, oil, the products we get from forests, grasslands, oceans and from agriculture and livestock, are all a part of our life support systems. Without them, life itself would be impossible. As we keep increasing in numbers and the quantity of resources each of us uses also increases, the Earths resource base must inevitably shrink.

The Earth cannot be expected to indefinitely sustain this expanding level of utilization of resources. Added to this is the misuse of resources. We waste or pollute large amounts of natures clean water; we create more and more material like plastic that we discard after a single use; and we waste colossal amounts of food, which is discarded as garbage.

Manufacturing processes create solid waste byproducts that are discarded, as well as chemicals that flow out as liquid waste and pollute water, and gases that pollute the air. Increasing amounts of waste cannot be managed by natural processes.

Environmental Education



It is generally held that poor and powerless cause environmental problems. Poor countries adopt discarded technologies. There is a conflict between traditional wisdom derived from rich experience and collective intelligence and the scientifically derived knowledge of the developed world.

Poor is more reliable and environmental friendly whereas the later offers technological advantages. A sustainable society can not be attained without joining traditional wisdom and modern knowledge. Global solutions need to consider regional realities and regional actions must reflect global implications.

Therefore, environmental education has now appeared in the top agenda of education planning in developing countries. The UNESCO and the UNDP, launched the international programme in Environmental education in January 1975 to

o facilitate the coordination, joint planning, pre-programming activities essential to teach development of an international programme of environmental education.

o promote the international exchange of ideas and information, pertaining to environmental education

o coordinate research to understand better the various phenomena involved in teaching and learning

o formulate and evaluate new methods, materials and programmes (both in school and out-of-school, youth and adult) in environmental education

o train and retrain personnel to adequately staff environmental education programmes o prepare advisory services to Member-States relating to environmental education.

The subsequent inter-governmental conference on environmental education in Tbilisi, USSR (1977) listed six objectives as:

1. Awareness: To help people acquire an awareness of and a sensitivity to the total environment and its allied problems

2. Knowledge: To help people acquire basic understanding of the total environment and associated problems and humanitys critically responsible presence and role in it

3. Attitudes: To help people acquire social values, strong feelings of concern for the environment and the motivation to act in protecting and improving it.

4. Skills: To help people acquire the skills for solving such problems.

5. Evaluation ability: To help people evaluate environmental measures and education programmes in terms of ecological, political, economical, social, aesthetic and educational factors; and

6. Participation: To help people develop a sense of responsibility and urgency regarding environmental problems and solutions.



This conference also stressed that environmental education should consider the environment in its totality natural and manmade; audit should be a life-long process and be interdisciplinary in the approach. The principal audience of environmental education is the general public, constituting the two major categories, viz;

I. The formal education sector: including pre-school, primary, secondary and higher education students as well as tea

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