Download - Gs Prelims 2011 Key
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
1 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
TEST BOOKLET - A SERIES
GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER – I)
Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks : 200
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SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
2 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
1. In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption
from the basic customs duty was extended to the
bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the
importance of this material?
1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not
based on fossil fuels.
2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable
resources.
3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste
materials.
4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for
surfacing of the roads.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: (Answer : b)
It is based on renewable resources like
sugar, molasses, rice, corn and potato
starches.
It reduces urban heat islands.
2. Consider the following
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/
emissions from coal combustion at thermal
power plants?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation : (Answer : d)
By products of power thermal plant operation
need to be considered in both the design and
operation. Waste heat due to the finite
efficiency of the power cycle must be released
to the atmosphere, using a cooling tower, or
river or lake water as a cooling medium. The
flue gas from combustion of the fossil fuels is
discharged to the air; this contains carbon
dioxide and water vapour, as well as other
substances such as nitrogen, nitrogen oxides,
sulfur oxides, and (in the case of coal-fired
plants) fly ash, mercury and traces of other
metals. Solid waste ash from coal-fired boilers
must also be removed. Some coal ash can be
recycled for building materials.
3. Satellites used for telecommunication relay are
kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said
to be in such an orbit when:
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth‘s
equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22.236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation (Answer : d)
A geostationary orbit (or Geostationary
Earth Orbit - GEO) is a geosynchronous
orbit directly above the Earth's equator (0°
latitude), with a period equal to the Earth's
rotational period and an orbital eccentricity
of approximately zero.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
3 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
An object in a geostationary orbit appears
motionless, at a fixed position in the sky, to
ground observers. Communications satellites
and weather satellites are often given
geostationary orbits, so that the satellite
antennas that communicate with them do not
have to move to track them, but can be
pointed permanently at the position in the
sky where they stay. Due to the constant 0°
latitude and circularity of geostationary
orbits, satellites in GEO differ in location by
longitude only.
It is the part of space about 35,786 km
(22,000 mi) above sea level, in the plane of
the equator, where near-geostationary orbits
may be implemented.
Geostationary orbits are useful because they
cause a satellite to appear stationary with
respect to a fixed point on the rotating Earth,
allowing a fixed antenna to maintain a link
with the satellite. The satellite orbits in the
direction of the Earth's rotation, at an
altitude of 35,786 km (22,236 mi) above
ground, producing an orbital period equal to
the Earth's period of rotation, known as the
sidereal day.
4. India has experienced persistent and high food
inflation in the recent past. What could be the
reason?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the
cultivation of commercial crops, the area
under the cultivation of food grains has
steadily decreased in the last five years by
about 30%
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the
consumption patterns of the people have
undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural
constraints.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation (Answer : b)
Source : Economic Survey page no. 10, i.e. Our
production in the last 4 years has increased
except 2009 - 10.
5. At present, scientists can determine the
arrangement or relative positions of genes or
DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does
this knowledge benefit us?
1. It is possible to know the pedigree of
livestock.
2. It is possible to understand the causes of all
human diseases.
3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant
animal breeds.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
All human disease cannot be cured.
6. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign
nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth
Games in India amounted to
(a) Export
(b) Import
DOUBTFUL
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
4 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
(c) Production
(d) Consumption
Explanation: {Answer (a) or (d) }
Mostly it will be (a) because it brings foreign
exchange.
7. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of
sustainable energy. Why?
1. They use living organisms as catalysts to
generate electricity from certain substrates.
2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as
substrates.
3. They can be installed in waste water
treatment plants to cleanse water and
produce electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
The idea of using microbial cells in an
attempt to produce electricity was first
conceived at the turn of the nineteenth
century. M.C. Potter was the first to
perform work on the subject in 1911. A
microbial fuel cell is a device that converts
chemical energy to electrical energy by the
catalytic reaction of microorganisms.
A typical microbial fuel cell consists of
anode and cathode compartments separated
by a cation (positively charged ion) specific
membrane. In the anode compartment, fuel
is oxidized by microorganisms, generating
electrons and protons. Electrons are
transferred to the cathode compartment
through an external electric circuit, while
protons are transferred to the cathode
compartment through the membrane.
Electrons and protons are consumed in the
cathode compartment, combining with
oxygen to form water.
More broadly, there are two types of
microbial fuel cell: mediator and mediator-
less microbial fuel cells.
Since the current generated from a microbial
fuel cell is directly proportional to the
energy content of wastewater used as the
fuel, an MFC can be used to measure the
solute concentration of wastewater (i.e. as a
biosensor system).
The strength of wastewater is commonly
evaluated as biochemical oxygen demand
(BOD) values.
8. Which one of the following statements
appropriately describes the ―fiscal stimulus‖?
(a) It is a massive investment by the
Government in manufacturing sector to
ensure the supply of goods to meet the
demand surge caused by rapid economic
growth.
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the
Government to boost economic activity in
the country.
(c) It is Government‘s intensive action on
financial institutions to ensure disbursement
of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to
promote greater food production and contain
food inflation.
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the
Government to pursue its policy of financial
inclusion.
Explanation : (Answer : b)
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
5 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
Governments use fiscal policy to influence
the level of aggregate demand in the
economy, in an effort to achieve economic
objectives of price stability, full
employment, and economic growth.
Keynesian economics suggests that
increasing government spending and
decreasing tax rates are the best ways to
stimulate aggregate demand. This can be
used in times of recession or low economic
activity as an essential tool for building the
framework for strong economic growth and
working towards full employment. In
theory, the resulting deficits would be paid
for by an expanded economy during the
boom that would follow; this was the
reasoning behind the New Deal.
Governments can use a budget surplus to do
two things: to slow the pace of strong
economic growth, and to stabilize prices
when inflation is too high. Keynesian theory
posits that removing spending from the
economy will reduce levels of aggregate
demand and contract the economy, thus
stabilizing prices.
Economists debate the effectiveness of fiscal
stimulus. The argument mostly centers on
crowding out, a phenomenon where
government borrowing leads to higher
interest rates that offset the stimulative
impact of spending. When the government
runs a budget deficit, funds will need to
come from public borrowing (the issue of
government bonds), overseas borrowing, or
monetizing the debt. When governments
fund a deficit with the issuing of
government bonds, interest rates can
increase across the market, because
government borrowing creates higher
demand for credit in the financial markets.
This causes a lower aggregate demand for
goods and services, contrary to the objective
of a fiscal stimulus. Neoclassical economists
generally emphasize crowding out while
Keynesians argue that fiscal policy can still
be effective especially in a liquidity trap
where, they argue, crowding out is minimal.
9. The formation of ozone hold I the Antarctic
region has been a cause of concern. What could
be the reason for the formation of this hole?
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric
turbulence; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons.
(b) Presence of prominent polar front and
stratospheric clouds; and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons.
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric
clouds; and inflow of methane and
chlorofluorocarbons.
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to
global warming.
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Methane is not responsible for ozone hole,
its only responsible for Global Warming.
The chemistry of the Antarctic polar vortex
has created severe ozone depletion. The
nitric acid in polar stratospheric clouds
reacts with CFCs to form chlorine, which
catalyzes the photochemical destruction of
ozone. Chlorine concentrations build up
during the winter polar night, and the
consequent ozone destruction is greatest
when the sunlight returns in spring
(September/October). These clouds can only
form at temperatures below about -80°C.
Since these temperatures are rarely reached
in the Arctic, ozone depletion at the north
pole is much less severe than at the south.
Accordingly, the seasonal reduction of
ozone levels over the Arctic is characterized
as an "ozone dent," whereas the more severe
ozone depletion over the Antarctic is
considered an "ozone hole
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
6 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
10. Consider the following actions which the
Government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract
greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in
reducing the current account deficit?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
Explanation (Answer : d)
Enhancing the subsidy will be the right choice
rather than reducing it.
11. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment)
Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country,
provides for which of the following?
1. Constitution of District Planning
Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all
panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of State4 Finance
Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : Answer : c
District planning committee comes under 74th
Amendment not in 73rd
Amendment.
12. Two important rivers - one with its source in
Jharkhand (and known by a different name in
Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha
– merge at a place only a short distance from the
coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the
Sea. This is an important site of wildlife and
biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of
the following could be this?
(a) Bhitarkanika
(b) Chandipur-on-sea
(c) Gopalpur-on-sea
(d) Simlipal
Explanation : (Answer : a)
The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are a
mangrove wetland in India's Orissa state.
The Bhitarkanika Mangroves cover an area
of 650 km² in the river delta of the Brahmani
and Baitarani rivers.
The Bhitarkanika Mangroves are home to 55
of India's 58 known mangrove species. The
mangroves harbor one of India's largest
populations of saltwater crocodiles, and
Gahirmatha Beach, which separates the
mangroves from the Bay of Bengal, is the
world's most important nesting beach for
Olive Ridley Sea Turtles. Some wildlife
experts are of the opinion that the largest
saltwater crocodile ever was in
Bhitarkanika, measuring an estimated 23
feet (7.0 m) which could be traced from the
skull preserved by the Kanika Royal Family
13. A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is
sometimes attributed to the ―base effect‖. What
is ―base effect‖?
(a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in
supply due to failure of crops.
(b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due
to rapid economic growth
(c) It is the impact of the price levels of
previous year on the calculation of
inflation rate.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given
above is correct in this context.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
7 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
14. India is regarded as a country with
―Demographic Dividend‖. This is due to
(a) Its high population in the age group below
15 years.
(b) Its high population in the age group of 15-
64 years
(c) Its high population in the age group above
65 years.
(d) Its high total population
Explanation : (Answer : b)
The demographic dividend is a rise in the
rate of economic growth due to a rising
share of working age people in a
population. This usually occurs late in the
demographic transition when the fertility
rate falls and the youth dependency rate
declines
15. Regarding ―carbon credits‖, which one of the
following statements is not correct?
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in
conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or
groups that have reduced greenhouse gases
below their emission quota.
(c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to
limit the increase of carbon dioxide
emission.
(d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed
from time to time by the United nations
Environment Programme.
Explanation : (Answer : d)
Under the Kyoto Protocol, the 'caps' or
quotas for Greenhouse gases for the
developed Annex 1 countries are known as
Assigned Amounts and are listed in Annex
B. The quantity of the initial assigned
amount is denominated in individual units,
called Assigned amount units (AAUs), each
of which represents an allowance to emit
one metric tonne of carbon dioxide
equivalent, and these are entered into the
country's national registry
Developed country can 'sponsor' a
greenhouse gas reduction project in a
developing country where the cost of
greenhouse gas reduction project activities
is usually much lower, but the atmospheric
effect is globally equivalent. The developed
country would be given credits for meeting
its emission reduction targets, while the
developing country would receive the
capital investment and clean technology or
beneficial change in land use.
16. Which one of the following is not a feature of
―Value Added Tax‖?
(a) It is a multi-point destination-based system
of taxation.
(b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each
stage of transaction in the production-
distribution chain.
(c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods
or services and must ultimately be borne by
the consumer.
(d) It is basically a subject of the Central
Government and the State governments
are only a facilitator for its successful
implementation.
Explanation : (Answer : d)
VAT is the State Subject.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
8 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
17. A ―closed economy‖ is an economy in which
(a) The money supply is fully controlled
(b) Deficit financing takes place
(c) Only exports take place
(d) Neither exports nor imports take place
Explanation : (Answer : d)
Closed Economy Means :
An economy in which no activity is
conducted with outside economies. A closed
economy is elf-sufficient, meaning that no
imports are brought in and no exports are
sent out. The goal is to provide consumers
with everything that they need from within
the economy's borders.
18. When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular
fashion all around near its base, it gradually
dries up and dies because
(a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts.
(b) Roots are starved of energy.
(c) Tree is infected by soil microbes.
(d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration.
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Phloem layer of tissue just below the bark is
responsible for carrying food from leave to
roots.
19. The ―New START‖ treaty was in the news.
What is this treaty?
(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms
reduction treaty between the USA and the
Russian Federation.
(b) It is a multilateral energy security
cooperation treaty among the members of
the East Asia Summit.
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation
and the European Union for the energy
security cooperation.
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among
the BRICS countries for the promotion of
trade.
20. Three of the following criteria have contributed
to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka
and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of
biodiversity:
1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and
humid conditions.
Which three of the above are correct criteria in
this context?
(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6
Explanation : (Answer : c)
The total number of plants that are endemic
to an area is one of the two primary criteria
for determining biodiversity hotspot status.
To be designated as a hotspot, an area must
have at least 1,500 species of endemic
plants. Many hotspots exceed this number
by thousands. Sundaland and the Tropical
Andes, for example, each have 15,000
endemic plants. In total, hotspots hold at
least 150,000 plants as endemics,
representing a remarkable 50 percent of the
world‘s vascular plant species. This is an
absolute minimum, because it does not
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
9 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
include species that are endemic to the
combined area of two or more hotspots.
Another form of measurement, which is
perhaps a better indicator of the importance
of a particular hotspot, is the percentage of
endemic plants compared to a hotspot‘s total
plant diversity. For example, among the
13,000 plants species found in Madagascar
and the Indian Ocean Islands, 11,600 are
endemics, a remarkable 89 percent. These
data are given in each of the individual
hotspot sections
21. Human activities in the recent past have caused
the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere , but a lot of it does not remain
in the lower atmosphere because of
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
2. The photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the
oceans.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Since CO2 is heavier than Air, it sinks in ocean
than moving up. Also, during winter, it is
observed that CO2 is trapped in ice caps.
22. In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine
upwelling zones are important as they increase
the marine productivity by brining the
1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the surface.
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
23. If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not
regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical
deciduous forest. This is because
(a) The soil of rain forest is deficient in
nutrients.
(b) Propagules of the trees in a rain forest have
poor viability.
(c) The rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain
forest.
24. The Himalyan Range is very rich in species
diversity. Which h one among the following is
the most appropriate reason for this
phenomenon?
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant
vegetative growth.
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-
geographical zones.
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been
introduced in this region.
(d) It has less human interference.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
10 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
25. With reference to India, consider the following
Central Acts:
1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947.
2. Mining and Mineral Development
(Regulation), 1957
3. Customs Act, 1962
4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
Which of the above Acts have relevance
to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in
the country.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) None of the above Act
26. Karl Marx explained the process of class
struggle with the help of which one of the
following theories?
(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin‘s theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism
27. A layer in the Earth‘s atmosphere called
Ionosphere facilitates radio communication.
Why?
1. The presence of ozone caused the reflection
of radio waves to Earth.
2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: (Answer : d)
Presence of Ionized materials in Ionosphere
is the prime reason for radio wave
communication.
28. Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and
Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to
investment in a country. Which one of the
following statements best represents an
important difference between the two?
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and
technology, while FDI only brings in capital.
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability
in general, while FDI only targets specific
sectors.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market,
while FII targets primary market.
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.
29. A generally engineered form of brinjal, known
as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The
objective of this is
(a) To make it pest-resistant
(b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities.
(c) To make it drought-resistant
(d) To make its shelf-life longer
30. With reference to ―Aam Admi Bima Yojana‖.
Consider the following statements :
1. The member insured under the scheme must
be the head of the family or an earning
member of the family in a rural landless
house-hold.
2. The member insured must be in the age
group of 30 to 65 years.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
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3. There is a provision for free scholarship for
up to two children of the insured who are
studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Beneficiaries Age group is 19 – 59.
31. In the context of global oil prices, ―Brent crude
oil‖ is frequently referred to in the news. What
does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : b)
It contains sulphur which is even higher than
WTI crude oil.
32. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor
is to
(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor.
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction.
33. In India, if a religious sect/community is given
the status of a national minority, what special
advantages it is entitled to?
1. It can establish and administer exclusive
educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically
nominates a representative of the
community of Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime
Minister‘s 15-Point Programme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Minority education institution has the power to
reserve only upto 50% seats for students
belonging to its own community. (Supreme
Court Judgement on St.Stephens College case,
1992, S.C.C. 558).
34. India is a home to lakhs of person with
disabilities. What are the benefits available to
them under the law?
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in
government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up
business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
DOUBTFUL
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35. With what purpose is the Government of India
promoting the concept of ―Mega Food Parks‖?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for
the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable
items and reduce wastage.
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food
processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds
from the Consolidated Fund of India must come
from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
37. All revenues received by the Union Government
by way of taxes and other receipts for the
conduct of Government business are credited to
the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
38. Microfinance is the provision of financial
services to people of low-income groups. This
includes both the consumers and the serlf-
employed. The service/services rendered under
micro-finance is/are
1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
39. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of
global community over pace and time as a
geostrategically significant region. Which
among the following is the most convincing
explanation for this global perspective?
(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second
World War.
(b) Its location between the Asian Powers of
China and India.
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation
during the Cold War period.
(d) Its location between the Pacific and
Indian oceans and its pre-eminent
maritime character.
40. A company marketing food products advertises
that its items do not contain trans-fats. What
does this campaign signify to the customers?
1. The food products are not made out of
hydrogenated oils.
2. The food products are not made out of
animal fats/oils.
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3. The oils used are not likely to damage the
cardiovascular health of the consumers.
Which of the statements given above is/are
above?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : d)
No trans fats are essential fatty acids;
indeed, the consumption of trans fats
increases the risk of coronary heart
disease by raising levels of
"bad" LDL cholesterol and lowering levels
of "good" HDL cholesterol. Health
authorities worldwide recommend that
consumption of trans fat be reduced to trace
amounts. Trans fats from partially
hydrogenated oils are more harmful than
naturally occurring oils.
A type of trans fat occurs naturally in the
milk and body fat of ruminants (such
as cattle andsheep) at a level of 2–5% of
total fat. Natural trans fats, which
include conjugated linoleic acid(CLA)
and vaccenic acid, originate in the rumen of
these animals.
The primary health risk identified for trans
fat consumption is an elevated risk
of coronary heart disease (CHD). A
comprehensive review of studies of trans
fats was published in 2006 in the New
England Journal of Medicine reports a
strong and reliable connection between trans
fat consumption and CHD, concluding that
"On a per-calorie basis, trans fats appear to
increase the risk of CHD more than any
other macronutrient, conferring a
substantially increased risk at low levels of
consumption (1 to 3% of total energy
intake)"
Unsaturated fat is a fat molecule containing
one or more double bonds between the
carbon atoms. Since the carbons are double-
bonded to each other, there are fewer bonds
connected to hydrogen, so there are fewer
hydrogen atoms, hence
"unsaturated". Cis and trans are terms that
refer to the arrangement of chains of carbon
atoms across the double bond. The process
of hydrogenation adds hydrogen atoms to
unsaturated fats, eliminating double bonds
and making them into partially or
completely saturated fats. However, partial
hydrogenation, if it is chemical rather than
enzymatic, converts a part of cis-isomers
into trans-unsaturated fats instead of
hydrogenating them completely.
41. Among the following who are eligible to benefit
from the ―Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act‖?
(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste
and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL)
households
(c) Adult members of households of all
backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household
Explanation : (Answer : d)
ELIGIBILITY FOR MNREGA
The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Scheme is open to
all rural households in the areas notified by
the Government of India. The entitlement
of 100 days of guaranteed employment in a
financial year is in terms of a household.
This entitlement of 100 days per year can
be shared within the household.
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All adult members of the household who
registered can apply for work. To register,
they have to:-
Be local residents ―local― implies residing
within the gram panchayat.
Be willing to do un-skilled manual work.
Apply as a household at the local gram
panchayat.
SALIENT FEATURES OF THE ACT.
Adult members of a rural household, willing
to do unskilled manual work, may apply for
registration in writing or orally to the local
Gram Panchayat.
The Gram Panchayat after due verification
will issue a Job Card. The Job Card will bear
the photograph of all adult members of the
household willing to work under NREGA
and is free of cost.
42. With reference to ―Look East Policy‖ of India,
consider the following statements:
1. India wants to establish itself as an
important regional player in the East Asian
Affairs
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by
the termination of cold War
3. India wants to restore the historical and
cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast
and East Asia
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
43. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by
the Lok Sabha,
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha
for suggestions
(c) The union Finance Minister is asked to
resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the
resignation of Council of Ministers
44. Under the constitution of India, which one of
the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To Safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the constitution and respect its
ideals
45. With reference to the Finance Commission of
India, which of the following statements is
correct?
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital
for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of
finances among the Public sector
Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial
administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
given above is correct in this context
Explanation : (Answer d)
The Commission shall make recommendations
as to the following matters, namely :-
(i) the distribution between the Union and the
States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to
be, or may be, divided between them under
Chapter I Part XII of the Constitution and the
allocation between the States of the respective
shares of such proceeds;
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(ii) the principles which should govern the
grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of
the Consolidated Fund of India and the sums to
be paid to the States which are in need of
assistance by way of grants-in-aid of their
revenues under article 275 of the Constitution
for purposes other than those specified in the
provisos to clause (1) of that article; and
(iii) the measures needed to augment the
Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the
resources of the Panchayats and Municipalities
in the State on the basis of the recommendations
made by the Finance Commission of the State.
46. Consider the following:
1. Right to education
2. Right to equal access to public service
3. Right to food
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human
Rights under ―Universal Declaration of Human
Rights‖?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : d)
The Universal Declaration of Human
Rights (UDHR) is a declaration adopted by
the United Nations General Assembly (10
December 1948 at Palais de Chaillot, Paris).
The Declaration arose directly from the
experience of the Second World War and
represents the first global expression of
rights to which all human beings are
inherently entitled. It consists of 30 articles
which have been elaborated in subsequent
international treaties, regional human rights
instruments, national constitutions and laws.
The International Bill of Human
Rights consists of the Universal Declaration
of Human Rights, theInternational Covenant
on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights,
and the International Covenant on Civil and
Political Rights and its two Optional
Protocols.
Article 21
(1) Everyone has the right to take part in the
government of his country, directly or through
freely chosen representatives.
(2) Everyone has the right to equal access to public
service in his country.
(3) The will of the people shall be the basis of the
authority of government; this will shall be
expressed in periodic and genuine elections which
shall be by universal and equal suffrage and shall be
held by secret vote or by equivalent free voting
procedures
Article 25
(1) Everyone has the right to a standard of living
adequate for the health and wellbeing of himself
and of his family, including food, clothing, housing
and medical care and necessary social services, and
the right to security in the event of unemployment,
sickness, disability, widowhood, old age or other
lack of livelihood in circumstances beyond his
control.
Article 26
(1) Everyone has the right to education. Education
shall be free, at least in the elementary and
fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be
compulsory. Technical and professional education
shall be made generally available and higher
education shall be equally accessible to all on the
basis of merit.
(2) Education shall be directed to the full
development of the human personality and to the
strengthening of respect for human rights and
fundamental freedoms. It shall promote
understanding, tolerance and friendship among all
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nations, racial or religious groups, and shall further
the activities of the United Nations for the
maintenance of peace.
(3) Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of
education that shall be given to their children
47. There is a concern over the increase in harmful
algal blooms in the seawaters of India: What
could be the causative factors for this
phenomenon?
1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : d)
Like land plants, algae need certain things to
grow – water, carbon dioxide, sunlight and
nutrients. Carbon dioxide is plentiful in the
marine environment, but sunlight and
nutrients can be scarce. Sunlight is available
near the surface of the water, so algae grow
readily when they can remain near the
surface. Nutrients are abundant in areas
of run-off where water flows over land and
picks up minerals that are then carried to the
sea. Nutrients are also plentiful in areas
where cool, deep, nutrient-rich waters are
brought to the surface due to upwelling,
tides or wind-driven mixing. When the algal
cells get everything they need to grow, they
can divide very rapidly and potentially
create a bloom.
Surface runoff from farming, as well
as urban runoff and runoff from the
construction of roads, buildings, ports,
channels, and harbours, can carry soil
and particles laden with carbon, nitrogen,
phosphorus, and minerals. This nutrient-rich
water can cause fleshy algae and
phytoplankton to thrive in coastal areas;
known as algal blooms, which have the
potential to create hypoxic conditions by
using all available oxygen.
48. Consider the following
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Decay of organic matter
4. Volcanic action
Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the
carbon cycle on Earth?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Photosynthesis : Wrong - Photosynthesis
by plants removes about 120 billion tons of
carbon from the air per year, but plant
decomposition returns about the same
amount. Photosynthesis (synthesizing
starches and sugars using light) is a main
mechanism for cycling carbon by the
biosphere.
CH2O represents a unit of organic matter;
six of the CH2O unit would be
C6H1206 which makes the simple sugar
(glucose or fructose) and 11 of these units
make C11H22O11, a more complex sugar,
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sucrose, formed by the combination of one
glucose and one fructose. Thousands of
glucose molecules combine to form a
molecule of starch, or of cellulose.
(Molecule examples) Thus photosynthesis
takes the atmospheric carbon in CO2 and
"fixes" it into the biosphere. The subsequent
cycling of the carbon in the biomass is
created.
Respiration : When the organic matter is
oxidized through respiration, the reverse of
photosynthesis takes place.
Respiration releases CO2 into the
atmosphere. Respiration and photosynthesis
occur at nearly equal rates over one year.
The sediments including fossil fuels.
Volcanic Ash: Volcanic eruptions and
metamorphism release gases into the
atmosphere. Volcanic gases are primarily
water vapor, carbon dioxide and sulfur
dioxide. The carbon dioxide released is
roughly equal to the amount removed by
silicate weathering [citation needed]; so the
two processes, which are the chemical
reverse of each other, sum to roughly zero,
and do not affect the level of atmospheric
carbon dioxide on time scales of less than
about 100,000 years.
Carbon moves into the atmosphere from
decomposition of 1.organic matter,
2.respiration by living organisms,
3.combustion, 4.volcanic activity,5. burning
fossil fuels, 6.degassing of waterbodies, etc.
Carbon moves out of the atmosphere via
1.photosynthesis, 2.Rock weathering,
3.Dissolution in water, etc.
49. Recently, the USA decided to support India‘s
membership in multi-lateral export control
regimes called the ―Australia Group‖ and the
―Wassenaar Arrangement‖ What is the
difference between them?
1. The Australia Group is an imformal
arrangement which aims to allow exporting
countries to minimize the risk of assisting
chemical and biological weapons
proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar
Arrangement is a formal group under the
OECD holding indentical objectives
2. The Australia group Comprises
predominantly of Asian, African and North
American countries, whereas the members
countries of wassenaar Arrangement are
predominantly from the European Union
and American Continents
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
The principal objective of Australia Group
participants‘ is to use licensing measures to
ensure that exports of certain chemicals,
biological agents, and dual-use chemical and
biological manufacturing facilities and
equipment, do not contribute to the spread of
CBW. The Group achieves this by
harmonising participating countries‘
national export licensing measures. The
Wassenaar Arrangement was formally
approved by 33 countries,including 27 of
the 29 OECD Member countries, in July
1996. Prior to it‘s final adoption, the interim
agreement was provisionally called the
―New Forum‖. The Wassenaar
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Arrangement is a collaboration of countries
that defines a set of preliminary guidelines
covering both armaments and sensitive dual-
use goods and technologies which need to
be fully implemented at the national level.
It focuses on threats to international and
regional peace and security by providing for
greater openness through information
sharing about arms, dual-use goods and
technology transfers world-wide.
Australia Group Established in 1985
Membership: 41 Members — Argentina,
Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bulgaria,
Canada, Croatia, Cyprus, Czech Republic,
Denmark, Estonia, European Union,
Finland, France, Germany, Greece,
Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Japan,
Republic of Korea, Latvia, Lithuania,
Luxembourg, Malta, Netherlands, New
Zealand, Norway, Poland, Portugal,
Romania, Slovakia, Slovenia, Spain,
Sweden, Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine,
United Kingdom, and United States.
{Of 41 Members Predominant Members are
From Europe hence this part of statement is
wrong}
Wassenaar Arrangement As of March
2009, the 40 participating states
Argentina, Australia, Austria, Belgium, Bul
garia, Canada, Croatia, Czech Republic,
Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France,
Germany,Greece,Hungary, Ireland, Italy, Ja
pan, Latvia, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta,
Netherlands, New Zealand, Norway,
Poland, Portugal, Republic of Korea,
Romania, Russian Federation, Slovakia,
Slovenia, South Africa, Spain, Sweden,
Switzerland, Turkey, Ukraine, United
Kingdom and United States.
{ Of 40 members 33 are from American and
European Union Hence Predominantly is
correct)
50. The Surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter,
but the water art its bottom is still liquid. What
is the reason?
(a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
(b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same
temperature as the air, no heat is lost
(c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c)
given above is correct
Explanation : (Answer : d)
When temperature starts reducing in winter,
lake water cools upto 4degree centegrade by
convection as density increase with
reduction in temp.On futher cooling, due to
abnoamal expansion og water , density
reduces & cold water remains at top .Then
top layer frezees.Water being bad conductor
of heat ,lake water below ice remains at 4
degrees & thus fishes sruvive in winter aslo
51. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of
an Indian animal species. The animal has no
predators in that area but its existence is
threatened due to the destruction of its habitat.
Which one of the following could be that
animal?
(a) Indian wild buffalo
(b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar
(d) Indian gazelle
Explanation : (Answer : b)
The Indian wild ass also called khur, is
a subspecies of the Onagernative
to Southern Asia. The Indian wild ass, as
with most other Asian wild ass subspecies,
is quite different from theAfrican species.
The coat is usually sandy, but varies from
reddish grey, fawn, to pale chestnut. The
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Indian wild ass's range once extended from
western India, through Sindh and
Baluchistan, Afghanistan, and south-
eastern Iran. Today, its last refuge lies in
the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary, Little Rann
of Kutch and its surrounding areas of the
Greater Rann of Kutch in
the Gujarat province.
The animal, however, is also seen in the
districts of Surendranagar, Banaskantha,
Mehsana, and other Kutch districts. Saline
desert, grassland in arid zone and shrubland
are its preferred homeland. It is unknown
how the Indian wild ass disappeared from its
former haunts in parts of western India
and Pakistan, since the animal was never a
hunting target of Indian Maharajas and
colonial British officials of the British Raj.
From 1958-1960, the wild ass became a
victim of a disease known as surra, caused
by Trypanosoma evansi and transmitted by
flies, which caused a dramatic decline of its
population in India. Besides disease, the
ass's other threats include habitat
degradation due to salt activities, the
invasion of the Prosopis juliflora shrub, and
encroachment and grazing by the Maldhari.
52. La Nina is suspected to have caused recent
floods in Australia. How is LaNina different
from El Nino?
1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold
ocean temperature in equatorial Indian
Ocean whereas El Nino is characterized by
unusually warm ocean temperature in the
equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west
monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect
on monsoon climate
Which of the statement given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer :d)
La Niña is a coupled ocean-atmosphere
phenomenon that is the counterpart of El
Niño as part of the broader El Niño-
Southern Oscillation climate pattern. During
a period of La Niña, the sea surface
temperature across the equatorial Eastern
CentralPacific Ocean will be lower than
normal by 3–5 °C. In the United States.
A La Niña, on the other hand, is often
beneficial for the monsoon, especially in the
latter half. The La Niña that appeared in the
Pacific in 2010 probably helped last year's
south-west monsoon end on the favourable
note.
53. The tendency for increased litigation was visible
after the introduction of the land settlement
system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason
for this is normally traced to which of the
following provisions?
(a) Making Zamindar‘s position stronger vis-à-
vis the ryot
(b) Making East India Company an overlord of
Zamindars
(c) Making judicial system more efficient
(d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
54. Which one of the following observations is not
true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?
(a) It was a non-violent movement
(b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
(c) It was a spontaneous movement
(d) It did not attract the labour class in general
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Explanation : (Answer : b)
True -On August 8, 1942 the Quit India
Resolution was passed at
the Bombay session of the All India
Congress Committee (AICC). In a
speech at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, Gandhi
told Indians to follow non-violent civil
disobedience. He told the masses to act as an
independent nation.
Untrue - Gandhi launched the Quit India
Movement in 1942, demanding immediate
independence for India. The entire Congress
leadership, and not merely at the national
level, was put into confinement less than
twenty-four hours after Gandhi's speech, and
the greater number of the Congress leaders
were to spend the rest of the war in jail.
Source : Bipin Chandra Book (Page No. 468)
55. Which amongst the following provided a
common factor for tribal insurrection in India in
the 19th
century?
(a) Introduction of a new system of land
revenue and taxation of tribal products
(b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries
in tribal areas
(c) Rise of a large number of money lenders,
traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in
tribal areas
(d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian
order of the tribal communities
Source : Bipin Chandra Book (Page No.45)
56. India maintained its early cultural contacts and
trade links with southeast Asia across the Bay of
Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime
history of Bay of Bengal, which of the
following could be the most convincing
explanation/explanations?
(a) As compared to other countries, India had a
better ship-building technology in ancient
and medieval times
(b) The rulers of southern India always
patronized traders, Brahmin priests and
Buddhist monks in this context
(c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal
Facilitated sea voyages
(d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations
in this context
57. What is the difference between Bluetooth and
Wi-Fi Devices?
(a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency
band, whereas Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5
GHz frequency band
(b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area
Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is
used for Wireless Wide Area Networks
(WWAN) only
(c) When information is transmitted between
two devices using Bluetooth technology, the
devices have to be in the line of sight of
each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is
used the devices need not be in the line of
sight of each other
(d) The Statements (a) and (b) given above are
correct in this context
Explanation : (Answer : a )
Bluetooth networking transmits data via
low-power radio waves. It communicates on
a frequency of 2.45 gigahertz(actually
between 2.402 GHz and 2.480 GHz, to be
exact). Wi-Fi -IEEE 802.11 is a set of
standards for implementing wireless local
area network (WLAN) computer
communication in the 2.4, 3.6 and 5 GHz
frequency bands.
Bluetooth is used for WLAN - Wrong :
Wi-Fi is intended for resident equipment and
its applications. The category of applications
is outlined as WLAN, the wireless local area
networks. Wi-Fi is intended as a
replacement for cabling for general local
area network access in work areas.
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58. With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the
following statements is/are correct?
1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land
farming
3. In some areas of farming, receding of
ground water table can be checked
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : (a) or (c) , Most probably answer is
(a).
59. With reference to the period of colonial rule in
India, ―Home Charges‖ formed an important
part of drain of wealth from India. Which of the
following funds constituted ―Home Charges‖?
1. Funds used to support the India Office in
London
2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of
British personnel engaged in India
3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by
the British
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
60. What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to
organize a satyagraha on behalf on behalf of the
peasants of Kheda?
1. The Administration did not suspend the land
revenue collection in spite of a drought.
2. The Administration proposed to introduce
Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
However, a famine had struck the district
and a large part of Gujarat, and virtually
destroyed the agrarian economy. The poor
peasants had barely enough to feed
themselves, but the British government of
the Bombay Presidency insisted that the
farmers not only pay full taxes, but also pay
the 23% increase stated to take effect that
very year.
61. Biodiversity forms the basis for human
existence in the following ways:
1. Soil formation
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Recycling of waste
4. Pollination of crops
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
DOUBT FUL
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
22 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
Explanation : (Answer d)
Biological diversity helps in the formation
and maintenance of soil structure and the
retention of moisture and nutrient levels.
The loss of biological diversity through
clearing of vegetation has contributed to the
salinisation of soils, leaching of nutrients,
laterisation of minerals and accelerated
erosion of topsoil, reducing the land's
productivity. Trees, on the other hand, lower
the water table and remove deposited salt
from the upper soil horizons.
Soil protection by maintenance of biological
diversity can preserve the productive
capacity of the soil, prevent landslides,
safeguard coastlines and riverbanks, and
prevent the degradation of coral reefs and
coastal fisheries by siltation.
Trees and other vegetation also assist in soil
formation. A significant contribution is the
introduction of organic matter through litter
formation and the decay and regeneration of
tiny fibrous roots, both of which facilitate
microbial activity. Another contribution is
through the effects of root systems which
break up soil and rock leading to, amongst
other things, penetration of water. Root
systems also bring mineral nutrients to the
surface through root uptake. Organic matter
formed by the decay of tiny fibrous roots
can also bind with minerals, such as iron and
aluminium, which can reduce the potential
deleterious effects of these minerals on other
vegetation
Biodiversity supports ecosystem services
including air quality, climate
(e.g., CO2sequestration), water
purification, pollination, and prevention
of erosion
Biodiversity supports many ecosystem
services that are often not readily visible. It
plays a part in regulating the chemistry of
our atmosphere and water supply.
Biodiversity is directly involved inwater
purification, recycling nutrients and
providing fertile soils.
62. Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the
market. It consists of amino acids and provides
calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as
a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items.
What is the basis of this use ?
(a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but
unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized
in human body due to lack of requisite
enzymes
(b) When aspartame is used in food processing,
the sweet taste remains, but it becomes
resistant to oxidation
(c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after
ingestion into metabolites that yield no
calories
(d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than
table sugar, hence food items made with
small quantities of aspartame yield fewer
calories on oxidation
63. What was the purpose with which Sir William
Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the
Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893 ?
(a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the
House of Commons
(b) To campaign for the entry of Indians into the
Imperial Judiciary
(c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s
Independence in the British Parliament
(d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians
into the British Parliament
64. What is the difference between a CFL and an
LED lamp ?
1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury
vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp
uses semi-conductor material.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
23 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
2. The average life span of a CFL is much
longer than that of an LED lamp.
3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared
to an LED lamp.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Fluorescent lamps (light bulbs) work by
passing electricity through mercury vapor,
which in turn emits ultraviolet light. The
ultraviolet light is then absorbed by a
phosphor coating inside the lamp, causing it
to glow, or fluoresce.
CFLs typically have a rated lifespan of
between 6,000 and 15,000 hours, A LED
light bulb can be expected to last 25–30
years under normal use.
A single LED is a low-voltage solid state
device and cannot be directly operated on
standard AC current without some circuitry
to control the voltage applied and the current
flow through the lamp. A
series diode and resistor could be used to
control the voltage polarity and to limit the
current, but this is inefficient since most of
the applied voltage would be dropped as
wasted heat in the resistor. LEDs are small,
solid light bulbs which are extremely energy-
efficient. New LED bulbs are grouped in
clusters with diffuser lenses which have
broadened the applications for LED use in
the home.
65. Recently, ―oilzapper‖ was in the news. What is
it?
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the
remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
(b) It is the latest technology developed for
under-sea oil exploration
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-
yielding maize variety
(d) It is the latest technology to control the
accidentally caused flames from oil wells
Explanation : (Answer : a)
The Oilzapper feeds on hydrocarbon
compounds present in crude oil and oily
sludge (a hazardous hydrocarbon waste
generated by oil refineries) and converts
them into harmless CO2 and water. The
scientific term for the above-mentioned
process is bioremediation. oilzapper's
uniqueness lies in the bio-friendly manner in
which it detoxifies oily sludges and cleans
up oil slicks.
66. A married couple adopted a male child. A few
years later, twin boys were born to them. The
blood group of the couple is AB positive, and O
positive. The blood group of the three sons is A
positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood
group of the adopted son is
(a) O positive
(b) A positive
(c) B positive
(d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the
given data
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
24 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
67. Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest
convictions were reflected in a book titled,
―Unto this Last‖ and the book transformed his
life. What was the message from the book that
transformed Mahatma Gandhi ?
(a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the
moral responsibility of an educated man
(b) The good of individual is contained in the
good of all
(c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are
essential for a noble life
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct
in this context
68. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha
Mehta is well-known for
(a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the
wake of Quit India Movement
(b) Participating in the Second Round Table
Conference
(c) Leading a contingent of Indian National
Army
(d) Assisting in the formation of Interim
Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
Explanation : (Answer : a)
Usha Mehta (March 25, 1920 – August 11,
2000) was a
renowned Gandhian and freedom
fighter of India. She is also remembered for
operationalizing the Congress Radio, also
called the Secret Congress Radio, an
underground radio station, which functioned
for few months during the Quit India
Movement of 1942. In 1998,
the Government of India conferred on
her Padma Vibhushan, the second
highest civilian award of Republic of India.
69. A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray
Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is
it different from the traditional DVD ?
1. DVD supports Standard Definition video
while BD supports High Definition video.
2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has
several times more storage capacity.
3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm while that of
DVD is 1.2 mm.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Thickness BD is 1.1 mm while that of DVD is
1.2mm.
70. With reference to the period of Indian freedom
struggle, which of the following was/were
recommended by the Nehru report ?
1. Complete Independence for India.
2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for
minorities.
3. Provision of fundamental rights for the
people of India in the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
25 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
71. Among the following States, which one has the
most suitable climatic conditions for the
cultivation of a large variety of orchids with
minimum cost of production, and can develop
an export oriented industry in this field ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Around 800 species of orchids found in the
northeast region.
72. Which one of the following is not a site for in-
situ method of conservation of flora?
(a) Biosphere Reserve
(b) Botanical Garden
(c) National Park
(d) Wildlife Sanctuary
73. Consider the following statements :
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the
Constitution of India.
2. Prepares the draft development plans for
metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing
Government sponsored schemes in the
metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : a)
Article 243ZE – Committee on Metropolitan
Planning does not have a sole responsibility for
implementing Government‘s sponsor schemes
in metropolitan area.
74. What is the difference between ―vote-on-
account‖ and ―interim budget‖?
1. The provision of a ―vote-on-account‖ is used
by a regular Government, while an ―interim
budget‖ is a provision used by a caretaker
Government.
2. A ―vote-on-account‖ only deals with the
expenditure in Government‘s budget‖
includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Regarding the International Monetary Fund,
which one of the following statements is
correct?
(a) It can grant loans to any country
(b) It can grant loans to only developed
countries
(c) It grant loans to only member countries
(d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a
country
Explanation : (Answer : c)
IMF is an Inter-Governmental organization that
overseas the global financing system by
following macro-economic policies of its
member countries (187), in particular those with
an impact on exchange rate mechanism and
balance of payment.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
26 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
76. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that
mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge
against coastal calamities. How do mangroves
function as a safety hedge?
(a) The mangrove swamps separate the human
settlements from the sea by a wide zone in
which people neither live nor venture out
(b) The mangroves provide both food and
medicines which people are in need of after
any natural disaster
(c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense
canopies and serve as an excellent shelter
during a cyclone or tsunami
(d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted
by storms and tides because of their
extensive roots
77. The Jain philosophy holds that the world is
created and maintained by
(a) Universal law
(b) Universal Truth
(c) Universal Faith
(d) Universal Soul
78. Salinization occurs when the irrigation water
accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving
behind salts and minerals. What are the effects
of salinization on the irrigated land ?
(a) It greatly increases the crop production
(b) It makes some soils impermeable
(c) It raises the water table
(d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
79. The ―red Data Books‖ published by the
International Union for Conservation of Nature
and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in
the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature
and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Explanation : (Answer : b)
The red data book is contain only 8 lists of
threatened plant and animal species.
80. Why is the offering of ―teaser loans‖ by
commercial banks a cause of economic
concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an
aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may
be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to
inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up
manufacturing or export units
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
Teaser loans are designed to attract a Home
Loan borrower in seeking a new loan. These
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
27 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
loans are a relatively low, fixed interest rate
in initial 2 years, say around 8% - 8.5%.
However from the third year onwards, the
rates revert to a higher fixed or floating
interest rates which could be subject to the
then prevailing market rates.
SBI launched the Teaser Home Loan
Scheme in February 2009.
RBI feels ‗Floating rate Laons for a very
long tenure pose a risk because it is not
possible to predict interest for a very long
period.
81. An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth
does not fall down. This is so because the
attraction of Earth
(a) Does not exist at such distance
(b) Is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
(c) Provides the necessary speed for its steady
motion.
(d) Provides the necessary acceleration for its
motion.
82. In the context of Indian economy, consider the
following statements.
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily
increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has
steadily increased in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
Growth rate of GDP during recession years
(2007-09) has decreased.
Growth rate in per capita income has
steadily increased in the last 5 years. Viz..
2007 – 08 (Rs.33,131), 2008-09
(Rs.38,084), 2009-10 (Rs.44,345). 2010-
11(54,835).
83. In India, which of the following have the
highest share in the disbursement of credit to
agriculture and allied activities?
(a) Commercial Banks
(b) Cooperative Banks
(c) Regional Rural Banks
(d) Microfinance Institutions.
Explanation : (Answer a)
Source : Economic Survey page 107
Commercial Banks – 75%
Co-operative Banks – 15%
RRB - 10%
84. Which of the following can aid in furthering the
Government‘s objective of inclusive growth?
1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
2. Promoting Micro, small and Medium
Enterprises
3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
28 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
85. Why is the Government of India disinvesting its
equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises
(CPSEs)?
1. The Government intends to use the revenue
earned from the disinvestment mainly to pay
back the external debt.
2. The Government no longer intends to retain
the management control of the CPSEs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : 2)
Source : White paper on Disinvestment of
Central Public Sector Enterprises (31, July
2007)
86. What is the difference between asteroids and
comets?
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while
comets are formed of frozen gases held
together by rocky and metallic material.
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the
orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are
found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail,
while asteroids do not.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Comets found beyond Neptune (i.e) kupier belt.
87. Economic growth is usually coupled with
(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation
Explanation : (Answer : b)
During deflation there is no demand, no
growth)
During Stagflation (inflation with
unemployment), means there is no growth.
88. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve
Bank of India leads to
(a) More liquidity in the market
(b) Less liquidity in the market
(c) No change in the liquidity in the market
(d) Mobilization of more deposits by
commercial banks
89. Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger
and persistent than in northern hemisphere.
Why?
1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass are
compared to northern hemisphere.
2. Coriolis force is higher in southern
hemisphere as compared to northern
hemisphere
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
29 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
90. Between India and East Asia the navigation-
time and distance can be greatly reduced by
which of the following?
1. Deeping the Malacca straits between
Malaysia and Indonesia.
2. Opening a new canal across the Kraisthmus
between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman
Sea.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : b)
Deeping will not reduce the distance, it may
reduce the time.
91. Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is
recommended in the diet since they are a good
source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants
help a person maintain health and promote
longevity?
(a) They activate the enzymes necessary for
vitamin synthesis in the body and help
prevent vitamin deficiency
(b) They prevent excessive oxidation of
carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the body
and help avoid unnecessary wastage of
energy
(c) They neutralize the free radicals
produced in the body during metabolism
(d) They active certain genes in the cells of the
body and help delay the ageing process
Explanation : (Answer : c)
Oxidation reactions can produce free
radicals. In turn, these radicals can
start chain reactions. When the chain
reaction occurs in a cell, it can cause
damage or death. When the chain reaction
occurs in a purified monomer, it produces a
polymer resin, such as a plastic, a synthetic
fiber, or an oil paint film. Antioxidants
terminate these chain reactions by removing
free radical intermediates, and inhibit other
oxidation reactions. They do this by being
oxidized themselves, so antioxidants are
often reducing agents such as thiols,
ascorbic acid orpolyphenols.
92. Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization,
consider the following statements:
1. It was predominantly a secular civilization
and the religious element, though present,
did not dominate the scene.
2. During this period, cotton was used for
manufacturing textiles in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
93. The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by
humid climate with high temperature throughout
the year. Which one among the following pairs
of crops is most suitable for this region?
(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
30 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
94. What could be the main reason/reasons for the
formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure
cells.
2. It is under the influence of warm ocean
currents.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither a nor 2
Explanation : (Answer : a)
It is under the influence of Cold ocean current.
So given second statement is wrong.
95. The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in
the lower stratosphere. What could be the
appropriate explanation?
1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the
lower stratosphere.
2. There are no vertical winds in the lower
stratosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct in this context?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. Consider the following statements:
1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower
latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity
is normally greater in the lower altitudes as
compared to the higher altitudes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers
originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and
parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches.
Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a ―U‖ turn
in its course to flow into India. This ―U‖ turn is
due to
(a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
(b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young
Himalayas
(c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary
folded mountain chains
(d) Both (a) and (b) above
GS MAINS CRASH COURSE
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All India 4th Rank (First Attempt)
holder : Abhiram G. Shankar
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
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98. A state in India has the following
characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant
over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the
above characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
99. What is ―Virtual Private Network‖?
(a) It is a private computer network of an
organization where the remote users can
transmit encrypted information through the
server of the organization
(b) It is a computer network across a public
internet that provides users access to their
maintaining the security of the information
transmitted
(c) It is a computer network in which users can
access a shared pool of computing resources
through a service provider.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b), and (c)
given above is correct description of
Virtual Private Network
100. The ―dharma‖ and ―rita‖ depict a central idea of
ancient Vedic civilization of India. In this
context, consider the following statements:
1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and
of the discharge of one‘s duties to oneself
and to others.
2. Rita was the fundamental moral law
governing the functioning of the universe
and all it contained.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1nor 2
46 candidates
from our Institute have entered the Civil Services in
2010.
SHANKAR IAS ACADEMY
32 MAINS AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS BATCH ADMISSIONS STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS FROM JUNE 20th
MAINS 2010 AND PRELIMS CUM MAINS 2011 BATCH ADMISSION
STARTS ON JUNE 14th . CLASS STARTS ON 20th JUNE.
Subjects offered
Mains :
1. GEOGRAPHY
2. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
3. SOCIOLOGY
4. HISTORY
5. PSYCHOLOGY
6. POLITICAL SCIENCE
7. TAMIL LITERATURE
AND GENERAL STUDIES
Prelims cum Mains
1. GEOGRAPHY
2. PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
3. SOCIOLOGY
4. HISOTRY
AND GENERAL STUDIES