(1)
PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
1. The physical quantity “Absorbed dose index” has the
SI unit of
(1) Becquerel (2) Henry
(3) Siemens (4) Gray
2. The acceleration-time (a-t) graph of a particle moving
in a straight line is as shown. Particle starts from
rest. Time ‘t’ when the velocity again becomes zero
is
t(s)
a(m/s )2
0 1 2
2
(1) 3 s
(2) 2 3 s
(3) 2 2 s
(4) 2 6 s
3. A rocket is fired vertically up with net acceleration of
5 m/s2. After 10 second the fuel got exhausted.
Maximum height from the ground upto which the
rocket goes is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 200 m (2) 325 m
(3) 375 m (4) 425 m
4. A boy is standing in a lift moving upwards with
constant acceleration. The boy throws a ball
vertically up with initial velocity u with respect to the
lift and it reaches his hand just after time t. The
upward acceleration of the lift is
(1)2u
gt (2)
ug
t
(3)2u
gt (4)
ug
t
5. A projectile is thrown up with initial speed u making
angle with the horizontal. It reaches the maximum
height H. If maximum height is to be doubled then
initial speed of throw for same angle is
(1) u (2) 2u
(3) 4u (4) 2u
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MM : 720 Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Time : 3 Hrs.
Home Assignment – 10
16/07/2020
(2)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
6. In the figure shown, the block of mass 10 kg is kept
on rough horizontal floor. Coefficient of friction
0.4 and acceleration due to gravity
g = 10 m/s2. A horizontal force of 70 N is applied
at one end of the block. Which of the following
values of force F on the other end will make the
block move?
10 kg70 N
F
= 0.4
(1) 20 N (2) 40 N
(3) 60 N (4) 100 N
7. A block of mass m = 5 kg is kept on rough
horizontal disc at a distance 2 m from the centre as
shown. The coefficient of friction between the block
and the disc is = 0.8. If the disc is under uniform
circular motion then its angular speed just above
which the block will start sliding is
2 m
(1) 0.25 rad/s (2) 0.5 rad/s
(3) 1 rad/s (4) 2 rad/s
8. In the arrangement shown, the coefficient of friction
between the block B(mass = 10 kg) and the
horizontal floor is = 0.4. If the mass of the hanging
block A is 10 kg then the acceleration of the blocks
is (pulley and string are ideal and g = 10 m/s2)
B
A
(1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2
9. A force moves a block of mass 4 kg on horizontal
smooth surface such that the position x of the block
as a function of time t is given as x = t3. Here x is
in metre and t is in second. Work done by the force
in first three second is
(1) 729 J (2) 162 J
(3) 486 J (4) 1458 J
10. Potential energy U of a body as a function of
position x is given as U = 3
27 6x x . Here U is
in joule and x is in meter.
The value of position x where the system is in
equilibrium is
(1) 3 m (2) –3 m
(3) 27 m (4) Both (1) & (2)
11. A block of mass m1 moving with speed u undergoes
head-on elastic collision with another mass m2 at
rest. The fraction of energy transferred by m1 to m
2
is
(1)
2
1 2
2
1 2
m m
m m
(2)
2
1 2
2
1 2
m m
m m
(3) 1 2
2
1 2
2mm
m m (4) 1 2
2
1 2
4mm
m m
12. A block of mass m falls vertically on a horizontal
floor of coefficient of restitution e = 0.8. The fraction
of energy lost during collision is
(1) 0.64 (2) 0.80
(3) 0.20 (4) 0.36
13. A boy of mass 40 kg is standing at one end of a
floating boat of mass 200 kg. The boat is 6 m long.
If the boy moves to the other end of the boat then
the distance moved by the boat with respect to the
fixed ground is
(1) 6 m (2) 5 m
(3) 2 m (4) 1 m
14. A uniform wooden plank of mass 30 kg is kept on
two supports X and Y as shown. The length of the
plank is L. Reaction force applied by Y as shown is
(g = 10 m/s2)
X Y
L
4
(1) 100 N (2) 150 N
(3) 200 N (4) 250 N
15. A block of mass 1 kg is moving along a line X + Y
= 5 at a speed 2 2 m/s. If x and y are in meter
then the angular momentum (in kg-m2/s) of the mass
about origin is
(1) 5 (2) 5 2
(3) 10 (4) 10 2
16. A hollow sphere of mass m and radius R is kept on
a rough horizontal surface. It is hit hard so that it
starts sliding with initial speed v. Its velocity of
centre of mass when it starts pure rolling is
(1)2
5
v
(2)3
5
v
(3)5
7v (4)
3
5v
(3)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10
17. Assume that a planet is rotating round the sun in an
elliptical orbit having the sun at one of the foci. If the
eccentricity e of the elliptical orbit is 0.5 then the
ratio of maximum to the minimum speed of the
planet around the sun is
(1) 1
(2) 0.5
(3) 2
(4) 3
18. If the atmospheric pressure is P and adiabatic
exponent is then isochoric bulk modulus of
elasticity of an ideal gas is
(1) P (2) P
(3) Zero (4) Infinity
19. Which of the following values of Reynold’s number
will make the liquid flow through a cylindrical tube
turbulent?
(1) 100 (2) 500
(3) 700 (4) 4000
20. Two cylindrical rods each of length L are joined in
parallel. Their thermal conductivity are k1 and k
2.
Their circular area of cross-section are A and 2A
respectively. The equivalent coefficient of thermal
conductivity is
(1)1 2
2
k k(2)
1 22k k
(3)1 2k k (4)
1 22
3
k k
21. An ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process
a b as shown on pressure-volume (p – v) diagram.
The work done by the gas during this process.
a b
p
v
(1) First decreases then increases
(2) First increases then decreases
(3) Continuously increases
(4) Continuously decreases
22. For a simple harmonic oscillator of mass m = 10 kg
and amplitude A = 2 m the variation of potential
energy U as a function of displacement x from mean
position is as shown. The time period of oscillation
in second, is
30 J
U
10 J
0–A A
x
(1) (2) 2
(3)2
(4) 4
23. It has been observed that velocity of longitudinal and
transverse mechanical waves in this earth are
8 km/s and 5 km/s respectively. If the time interval
between P-wave and S-wave as noted by a
seismograph is 1 minute then the distance of
epicentre of earthquake from the seismograph is
(1) 800 km (2) 400 km
(3) 200 km (4) 600 km
24. Choose the correct statement
(1) Two positively charged bodies always repel each
other
(2) Attraction between two bodies means they are
oppositely charged
(3) Point charged do not experience electrostatic
induction
(4) All of these
25. The capacitance of each capacitor C in the network
shown in 60 F. The equivalent capacitance between
points a and b is
C
C C
Ca b
(1) 45 F (2) 80 F
(3) 60 F (4) 240 F
(4)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
26. Two conducting spheres have radii R1 = 0.5 m and
R2 = 1 m. Each of them has 300 C charge on its
surface. If the spheres are joined by a conducting
wire then the amount of charge transferred from one
body to the other is
(1) 100 C (2) 50 C
(3) 150 C (4) 200 C
27. A cylindrical metal rod of length L and cross-sectional
area S is joined to an EMF source. The drift speed
of electrons in the rod is v. If this rod is replaced by
another rod of length 2L and cross-sectional area 2S
then drift speed of electrons in the new rod will be
(1)2
v
(2) v
(3) 2v (4) 4v
28. We prefer to make standard resistance of
(1) Tungsten (2) Nichrome
(3) Aluminium alloy (4) Manganin
29. In the network shown, the resistance between two
adjacent junctions is R. Equivalent resistance
between point a and b is
R
R
R
R R
R
R
RR
R
R
R
R
RR
a
b
(1)7
6
R(2)
5
6
R
(3)7
3
R(4)
5
3
R
30. Imagine that you are sitting in a room in which a
uniform magnetic field B exists. An electron comes
from your front in horizontal plane and gets deflected
to your left. The direction of B in this room is
(1) To your right (2) To your left
(3) Vertically upward (4) Vertically downwards
31. If e, m and h represent electronic charge, mass of
electron and Plank’s constant respectively then
Bohr’s magneton is represented as
(1)eh
m(2)
2
eh
m
(3)4
eh
m(4)
4eh
m
32. Magnetic susceptibility is small and negative for
(1) Diamagnetic substances
(2) Paramagnetic substances
(3) Ferromagnetic substances
(4) All of these
33. Two induction coils of coefficient of self induction 3 mH
and 6 mH are connected in series. Their mutual
induction is absent. The equivalent inductance is
(1) 2 mH (2) 9 mH
(3) 4 mH (4) 18 mH
34. In the circuit shown, resistance/reactance of R, L
and C are 40 , 80 and 50 respectively. The
supply emf is 250 V, 50 Hz AC. The RMS current
flowing in the circuit is
250 V, 50 Hz
R L C
(1) 5 2 A (2) 5 A
(3)5
A2
(4) 10 A
35. If A, B, C & D denote UV rays, microwaves, rays,
and X-rays respectively then the correct order of their
frequencies is
(1) A > B > C > D (2) C > D > A > B
(3) D > C > B > A (4) D > C > A > B
36. The refractive indices of glass prism for red, yellow
and violet colours are 1.79, 1.795 and 1.805
respectively. The dispersive power of this prism is
approximately
(1) 0.019 (2) 0.042
(3) 0.074 (4) 0.092
37. On a plane mirror a transparent beaker is kept
having water 4
3
upto depth of 8 cm. An object
is kept at a height of 10 cm above water surface.
How much distance behind the mirror is the image
of the object formed?
(1) 16 cm (2) 14 cm
(3) 12 cm (4) 18 cm
38. An astronomical telescope has an objective of focal
length 100 cm and eye piece of focal length 5 cm.
Maximum magnification of this telescope is
(1) 20 (2) 21
(3) 22 (4) 24
(5)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10
39. In a Young’s double slit experiment in front of one of
the slits a thin transparent sheet of thickness t and
refractive index is inserted. The entire fringe pattern
will be shifted by a distance (d – separation between
slits ; D - distance of screen from the slits and
– wavelength of light used)
(1) 1 tD
(2)
1 D
d
(3) 1 tD
d
(4)
1 td
D
40. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential
V is plotted against applied frequency f for three
different materials A, B and C as shown. Which of
the following materials has largest threshold
wavelength?
V
f
A B C
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) All have same
41. If potential energy of first excited state of hydrogen
atom is taken zero then kinetic energy of ground
state electron in the hydrogen atom is
(1) 13.6 eV
(2) 20.4 eV
(3) 3.4 eV
(4) 6.8 eV
42. A radioactive nuclei of mass M emits gamma ray of
wavelength . The recoil energy of the nuclei is
(symbols have usual meanings)
(1)hc
(2)
2
h
M
(3)2
22
h
M(4) Mc
43. Two radioactive substances X and Y have decay
constants 3 and respectively. Initially they have
same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of
nuclei of X to those of Y will be
3
1
e
after a time
interval
(1)3
2(2)
1
3
(3)2
3(4)
1
44. The input resistance of a CE amplifier is 5 k and
the load resistance is 20 k. If the current gain is
100 then mutual conductance of the transistor used
is
(1) 10–3 –1 (2) 2 × 10–3 –1
(3) 20 × 10–3 –1 (4) 50 –1
45. The truth table shown is the characteristic of
x
0
0
1
1
y
0
1
0
1
z
0
1
1
0
(1) NAND gate (2) NOR gate
(3) XOR gate (4) NOT gate
CHEMISTRY
46. Number of moles of carbon present in compound A
CH – COOH
CH – COOH
423 K
A
(1) 2 mol carbon (2) 3 mol carbon
(3) 4 mol carbon (4) 3.5 mol carbon
47. Total number of asymmetric centre in the following
compound will be
CH3
Cl
Cl
(1) One (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Zero
48. Total number of valence electrons present in 1 mol
of dry ice is (N0 = Avogadro number)
(1) 20 × N0
(2) 16 × N0
(3) 22 × N0
(4) 24 × N0
49. 280 ml of sulphur vapours at NTP weigh 3.2 g. The
molecular formula of the sulphur vapour is
(1) S (2) S2
(3) S4
(4) S8
50. Which shell would be the first to have g-subshell?
(1) 4th (2) 5th
(3) 6th (4) 7th
(6)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
51. Consider the following statements/formula.
a.
182
n 2
2.18 10E z
n
J atom–1
b.total
1E PE
2
c. Number of revolutions per second = 1
3
E 2
h n
Correct statement/formula is/are
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(3) a and c (4) All are correct
52. Which of the following have negative value?
(1) o
2Cr/Cr
E (2) o
2Mn/Mn
E
(3) o
2Cu/Cu
E (4) o
2Ni/Ni
E
53. Minimum density in group 2 elements will be of
(1) Ca (2) Be
(3) Ba (4) Sr
54. Correct statements is/are
(1) pi-bond can be formed by hybridized orbital
(2) pi-bond is stronger than sigma bond
(3) C – C bond in ethane have 45% s-character
(4) All are correct
55. If the four tyres of car are filled to the same pressure
with N2, O
2, H
2 and Ne separately, then which one
will be filled first?
(1) N2
(2) O2
(3) H2
(4) Ne
56. One mol of H3PO
4 (assuming strong acid) to mixed
with 3 moles of NaOH. The enthalpy of neutralization
will be
(1) –57.1 kJ (2) 2 × –57.1 kJ
(3) 3 × –57.1 kJ (4) All are correct
57. The value of equilibrium constant of a reactiondepends on
(1) Pressure
(2) Concentration of reactants
(3) Temperature
(4) All of these
58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct forMaxwell’s distribution of molecular speed curve?
(1) Total area under the curve represent totalnumber of molecules
(2) Fraction of molecules having most probablespeeds decreases with increase in temperature
(3) Fraction of molecules having energy greater thanthreshold energy increases with increase intemperature
(4) All of these
59. Which of the following is correct for ideal solution?
(1) Hmix
= 0 (2) STotal
= +ve
(3) Vmix
= 0 (4) All of these
60. Which one of the following electrolytes is leasteffective for coagulation of the sol formed by addingFeCl
3 to excess of hot water?
(1) K3[Fe(CN)
6] (2) K
2CrO
4
(3) KBr (4) K2SO
4
61. Ethreshold
can never be
(1) > Er
(2) > Ep
(3) < Ep
(4) > ER as well as > E
p
62. A B C D ���⇀↽���
. If initially the concentration of
both A and B are equal but at equilibrium,concentration of D will be twice that of A. Equilibriumconstant of the reaction will be
(1)4
9(2)
9
4
(3)1
9(4) 4
63. pH of 0.05 M (CH3COO)
2Ca (pK
a = 4.74) is
(1) 5.13 (2) 8.87
(3) 7 (4) 11.30
64. Oxidation state of carbon in HCOOH will be
(1) +1 (2) +2
(3) –4 (4) 0
65. The oxidation potential of hydrogen electrode atpH = 10 will be
(1) –0.59 V (2) 0.59 V
(3) 0.118 V (4) 0.059 V
66. Which is incorrect about silver plating?
(1) Anode - Pure Ag
(2) Cathode - Object to be electroplated
(3) Electrolyte - AgCN(aq)
(4) Electrolyte - AgNO3 solution
67. Which of the following is correct for K2Cr2O7?
(1) 6(Cr – O) bonds are equivalent
(2) Equivalent mass is M/6 in acidic medium
(3) Cr – O – Cr bond angle is more than O – Cr – O
(4) All are correct
68. Indicator used in iodometric titration is
(1) Phenolphthalein (2) Litmus
(3) Potassium iodide (4) Starch
69. Percentage strength of H2O2 sample having volume
strength 10 vol. will be approx.
(1) 3% (2) 6%
(3) 10% (4) 90%
(7)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10
70. Total number of position isomers of C3H6 will be
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) Zero
71. For the following conversion
C H2 2
S
Fe-pyrite
NH /3 Fe tube,
A
B
C
Correct option is
(1) B is pyrrole (2) C is toluene
(3) A, B, C are aromatic (4) Both (1) & (3)
72. In Kjeldahl’s method, the nitrogen is estimated byknowing the equivalent of
(1) N2 formed (2) NH
3 formed
(3) NO2 formed (4) N
2O3 formed
73. When phenol reacts with PCl5, major product formed is
(1) o-Chlorophenol (2) p-Chlorophenol
(3) Triphenyl phosphate (4) Picric acid
74. Benzyl alcohol is obtained from benzaldehyde by
(1) Fittig’s reaction (2) Cannizzaro’s reaction
(3) Kolbe’s reaction (4) Wurtz’s reaction
75. In glycerine
(1) One primary –OH group is present
(2) One tertiary –OH group is present
(3) Two secondary –OH groups are present
(4) One secondary –OH group is present
76. Which of the following alkyl halide is most reactivein Williamson’s synthesis for preparation of ether?
(1) Br (2) Br H
(3) Cl (4) Br
77. In the reaction
NaNH /liq. NH2 3
OCH3
Cl
A
(Major)
The major product A is
(1)
OCH3
NH2
(2)
OCH3
NH2
(3)
OCH3
Cl
(4)
OCH3
NH2
78. Which of the following have maximum boiling point?
(1) n-Butane (2) Propan-1-ol
(3) Propan-1-al (4) Propanone
79. Benzaldehyde reacts with NH3 to form
(1) Benzaldehyde ammonia
(2) Urotropine
(3) Hydrobenzamide
(4) Ammonium chloride
80. Reagent A will be
CCH
3
O
HO
Reagent 'A'CH – CH
2 3
HO
(1) Zn-Hg/HCl
(2) H2N – NH
2/OH(–), (CH
2OH)
2
(3) H2/Ni
(4) NaBH4
81. For the following reactions, the correct statement is
H C – CH – CH = CH3 2
CH3
(i) H SO2 4
(ii) H O2
(i) B H /THF2 6
(ii) H O2 2
(i) Hg(OOCCH )3 2
(ii) NaBH4
A
B
C
(1) B is rearranged product
(2) A is formed by carbocation intermediate
(3) A, B, C can be distinguished by Victor Meyer’s
test
(4) Both (2) & (3)
82. Aniline is insoluble in water and possesses low
vapour pressure. It can be purified by
(1) Vacuum distillation (2) Crystallisation
(3) Chromatography (4) Steam distillation
83. Reaction of R – CONH2 with Br
2/KOH gives R – NH
2
as the main product. The intermediate involved in
this reaction is
(1) R – N = C = O (2) R – NH – Br
O
(3) R – NH – Br (4) R – C – N – Br
O
Br
84. Which of the following cannot reduce Fehling
solution?
(1) HCOOH (2) H3C – COOH
(3) HCHO (4) H3C – CHO
(8)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
BOTANY
85. Benzene diazonium chloride forms orange red dye
with
(1) Phenol (2) Nitrobenzene
(3) Cyanobenzene (4) All of these
86. Maximum oxidising power will be of
(1) HClO (2) HClO2
(3) HClO3
(4) HClO4
87. The products when Mg react with SO2 is/are
(1) MgO (2) MgSO4
(3) Sulphur (4) Both (1) & (3)
88. Which of the following have maximum melting point?
(1) HF (2) HCl
(3) HBr (4) All have same m.p.
89. F3C – CH = CH
2 + HBr Product
For the above conversion, product follow
(1) Markovnikov’s rule (2) Anti Markovnikov’s rule
(3) Saytzeff’s rule (4) Hoffmann’s rule
90. Paramagnetic character is observed in
(1) (2) O2
(3) Na – liq. NH3
(4) All of these
91. A higher category with assemblage of sweet potato
and potato family and exhibiting a few similar
characters; is equivalent to
(1) Felidae and Canidae
(2) Poales and Muscidae
(3) Sapindales and Primata
(4) Insecta and Diptera
92. Find correct match w.r.t. taxonomical aids
Column I Column II
a. Serve as quick (i) Museum
referral system
b. Collection of (ii) NBRI
preserved plants &
animal specimens
c. Ex-situ conservation (iii) Herbaria
of plants
d. Information on (iv) Manuals
any one taxon
(v) Monographs
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (4) a(v), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
93. Select correct option w.r.t. the given organisms
Nitrosomonas Yeast Agaricus SpirogyraMethanococcus Chlorella Porphyra SelaginellaAnabaena
, , , ,
, , , ,
A – All are placed in two kingdoms in Linnaeus
system
B – All are accommodated into two kingdoms in
Haeckel’s system
C – They are placed into four kingdoms in
Whittaker’s system
D – All are unified into kingdom plantae in two
kingdom system
(1) B & C (2) B, C & D
(3) A, B & C (4) All are correct
94. Cellulose is present in the cell wall of
a. Euglena
b. Chrysophytes
c. Gymnodinium
d. Plasmodium
e. Albugo
f. Neurospora
(1) b, c & e
(2) a, c & f
(3) b, c, e & f
(4) All except a
95. Branched, septate and predominant dikaryotic
mycelium is present in
(1) Sac fungi
(2) Club fungi
(3) Algal fungi
(4) Imperfect fungi
96. Artificial system of classification was not acceptable
because
(1) It was based on vegetative characters only
(2) It was based on natural affinities among the
organisms
(3) It gave equal weightage to vegetative and sexual
characteristics
(4) It considered reproductive characters that were
more easily affected by environment
(9)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10
97. Select the correct statement for the given diagram
AB
(1) A – Chlorophyceae, non-jacketed sex organs,
motile male gamete
(2) B – Sulphated hydrocolloids, Fucoxanthin,
Diplontic life cycle
(3) A – Oogamous, Monoecious, Phycobilins
(4) B – Chlorophyll c, Laminarin, Two unequal
lateral flagella
98. Selaginella differs from conifers in
(1) Having sporophytic plant body
(2) Presence of heterospory and strobilus
(3) Life cycle pattern
(4) Absence of vessels and sieve tube
99. Inflorescence with basipetal arrangement of flowers is
characteristics of _______ family which is also
characterised by ______.
(1) Mustard, parietal placentation
(2) Pea, vexillary aestivation
(3) Brinjal, epipetalous stamens
(4) Petunia, zygomorphic flowers
100. Consider the following structures.
a. Tendril in pumpkin
b. Defensive organ in Citrus and Opuntia
c. Tendril in garden pea
d. Storage root in Asparagus
(1) a & c are modified stem
(2) b is modified leaf
(3) a & b are homologous structure
(4) d is modified adventious root
101. Fruit of mango
(1) Is simple and fleshy developed from inferior ovary
(2) Is aggregate and fleshy that developed from
superior ovary
(3) Is simple and fleshy that developed from
monocarpellary superior ovary
(4) Is drupe with outer hard and stony pericarp
102. Living flexible or elastic tissue
(1) Is always present as homogeneous layer below
epidermis
(2) Has thickened cell wall at corner due to
deposition of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin
(3) Constitutes hypodermis in dicots and monocots
(4) Provides mechanical support to the fruit walls of
nut
103. Consider the given statements
A – The ground tissue system mainly consists of
simple as well as complex tissue
B – In dicot root, the limiting layer of stele has thick
walled parenchymatous cells
C – A large number of scattered vascular bundles
are surrounded by sclerenchymatous bundle
sheath in monocot stem
(1) All are correct (2) A & C are correct
(3) Only A is incorrect (4) Only C is incorrect
104. Redifferentiated structure in stelar region with dark
brown colour due to deposition of organic
compounds is
(1) Secondary phloem (2) Phelloderm
(3) Sapwood (4) Heartwood
105. The total number of peripheral microtubules bundles
in the flagella of Chlamydomonas cell is
(1) 18 (2) 36
(3) 40 (4) 27
106. Select correct match w.r.t. cell organelles and their
function/enzymes activity.
Column I Column II
a. Glycolate oxidase (i) Mitochondria
b. Gluconeogenesis (ii) Peroxisome
c. -Oxidation of fats (iii) Glyoxysome
d. Proteases (iv) Ribosome
(v) Lysosome
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
107. Movement of chromosomes to spindle equator is
preceded by
(1) Separation of chromatids
(2) Clustering of chromosomes at opposite spindle
poles
(3) The complete disintegration of the nuclear
envelope
(4) Movement of centrioles towards opposite pole
(10)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
108. In which of the following stage of meiosis, bivalent
chromosomes first time clearly appears as tetrads?
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
109. Which of the following equation is correct for a turgid
cell?
(1)w s= (2) w s p
= – (– )
(3) s p= (4)
s w<
110. Deficiency symptoms like chlorosis, inhibition of cell
division and delayed flowering are commonly caused
by
(1) Mg, Mn, Zn (2) Cu, Ca, Mg
(3) N, S, Mo (4) Mo, Mn, Zn
111. Chemiosmosis does not require
(1) A membrane (2) A proton pump
(3) Oxysomes (4) ATPase
112. Total number of reduced coenzymes produced in
mitochondrial matrix from one glucose is
(1) 4 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2
(2) 8 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2
(3) 10 NADH + H+ & 2 FADH2
(4) 5 NADH + H+ & 1 FADH2
113. Select incorrect statement w.r.t. given diagram.
(1) It is shown by all cells, tissues and organs of a
plant
(2) Both division and differentiation occur
simultaneously
(3) It occurs at constant rate
(4) Gives linear curve when growth plotted against
time
114. A heterozygous pea plant for height, colour of flower
and shape of seed was hybridised with pure line
dwarf plant with violet and wrinkled seed. What is
the probability of getting plants with tall, violet and
wrinkled traits?
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 12.5% (4) 62.5%
115. Find odd one out w.r.t. quantitative inheritance
(1) Kernel colour in wheat
(2) Corolla length in tobacco
(3) Human skin colour
(4) Eye colour in Drosophila
116. Sickle cell anaemia is classical example of
(1) Point mutation by transition
(2) Point mutation by transversion
(3) Gene mutation by deletion of nucleotide
(4) Gene mutation by insertion of nitrogen base
117. Chromosomal constitution AA + XXY represents
(1) Female sex in fruitfly
(2) Male sex in fruit fly
(3) Klinefelter male with one barr body in humans
(4) More than one option is correct
118. Read the following statements and select correct
option
a. Dinucleotide are linked by 5 – 3 phosphodiester
linkage
b. The base pairing confers stability of DNA helix
c. A typical nucleosome has 68 nm long DNA helix
d. The replication is continuous on DNA template
with polarity 5 3
(1) a, b & c (2) b & c
(3) a & d (4) a & b
119. Which of the following process occurs in template
independent manner?
(1) HnRNA synthesis
(2) Capping
(3) Tailing
(4) More than one option is correct
120. Constitutive gene of lac operon is
(1) i-gene (2) z-gene
(3) Promotor (4) Operator
121. Select correct match.
Column I Column II
a. ESTs (i) Microsatellite
b. Split gene (ii) Minisatellite
c. VNTR (iii) Exons
d. SSR (iv) Sequence annotation
(1) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
(11)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10
122. Which one of the following is post-fertilisation event?
A - Megaspore Embryo sac
B - Pollination
C - Definitive nucleus PEN endosperm
D - Nucellus Perisperm
(1) A & C (2) B & D
(3) C & D (4) B & C
123. Development of zygote depends on the life cycle of
an organism. Zygote undergoes mitosis in
organisms with
A. Haplontic life cycle
B. Diplontic life cycle
C. Haplo-diplontic life cycle
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both B & C are correct
(4) Both A & C are correct
124. During microsporogenesis, each cell of the
sporogenous tissue is capable of giving rise to a
(1) Microspore mother cell
(2) Microspore tetrad
(3) Microsporocyte
(4) Archesporial cell
125. Select incorrect match.
(1) Pollen grains with –Entomophily
mucilage covering
(2) Genetically self but –Monoecious
functionally cross pollination
(3) Flowers often have –Anemophily
single ovule in each ovary
(4) Floral reward as providing –Amorphophallus
safe place to lay eggs
126. In the most common type of endosperm
development, the PEN undergoes
(1) Successive nuclear division
(2) Successive cellular division
(3) Free nuclear division followed by centripetal
cytokinesis
(4) More than one option is correct
127. A tetraploid male plant is crossed with a diploid
female plant which forms embryo sac aposporously.
What will be the ploidy of embryo [A] and
endosperm [B]?
(1) A – 3n, B – 4n (2) A – 4n, B – 6n
(3) A – 4n, B – 4n (4) A – 3n, B – 6n
128. The exotic collection of wheat and rice which
became the basis of green revolution in India are
respectively
(1) Sharbati Sonora & Atomita II
(2) Kalyan Sona & Jaya
(3) Sonora 64 & IR-8
(4) Sonalika & Taichung Native-1
129. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1) Pusa Gaurav is improved variety of rape seed
mustard for resistance to white rust
(2) Pusa Sawani is improved variety of okra for
resistance to aphids
(3) Maize is generally deficient in lysine and
tryptophan
(4) SCP production increases environmental pollution
130. In STPs, the soil and small pebbles are removed by
(1) Sequential filtration in primary settling tank
(2) Sedimentation during primary treatment
(3) Sedimentation in aeration tank
(4) The action of aerobic microbes in aeration tank
131. A biological control being developed for use in the
treatment of several plant diseases is
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
(2) Baculoviruses
(3) Chrysolina
(4) Trichoderma
132. The most spectacular and evolutionary fascinating
examples of mutualism are found in
(1) Plant-Plant relationship
(2) Rhizobium-Legume relationship
(3) Plant-animal relationship
(4) Animal-animal relationship
133. During ecological succession the successional
series progress from
(1) Hydric to xeric
(2) Mesic to hydric
(3) Xeric to hydric
(4) Xeric to mesic
(12)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
ZOOLOGY
134. Read the statements given below and select
appropriate option.
A. Species diversity decreases from equator
towards poles.
B. The relation between species richness and area
for a wide variety of taxa is always represented
by straight line
C. Extinction of more than 200 species of cichlid
fish in the lake Victoria was due to over
exploitation by man
(1) All are correct (2) A & C are correct
(3) B & C are incorrect (4) Only C is incorrect
135. Biomagnification of DDT leads to
(1) Its increased concentration in phytoplanktons
than fishes
(2) Increase in its concentration in birds
(3) Interferance with calcium metabolism which
causes thickening of egg shell
(4) More than one option is correct
136. The diagram below shows how mutations in certain
genes can lead to cancer. Use the diagram to
answer the questions that follows:
Cancer
Oncogenes
Mutations
X Y
What do X and Y represent?
a. Mutagens
b. Carcinogens
c. Proto-oncogenes
d. Tumor suppressor genes
Options
X Y
Mutagen
Proto-oncogenes
Carcinogen
Proto-oncogenes
Carcinogens
Tumor suppressor genes
Proto-oncogenes
Carcinogens
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
137. How is the bacterial plasmid described after donor
DNA is inserted into the bacterium’s DNA?
(1) Vector DNA (2) Cloned DNA
(3) Plasmid DNA (4) Recombinant DNA
138. A functional ADA c-DNA can be introduced into the
lymphocytes of the patient kept in culture by using
(1) Cosmid (2) Plasmid
(3) Adenovirus (4) Geminivirus
139. Given below are four statements A to D. Choose the
option which clearly states, whether they are true or
false.
A. Mutation is a source of genetic variation.
B. If the allele frequency of R is 0.80, then the
allele frequency of r is 0.10.
C. Hugo de Vries on the basis of his work on
evening primrose, brought forth the idea of
mutation.
D. Mutations are random and directional while
Darwinian variations are small and directionless.
Options
A B C D
(1) T F T F
(2) T T T T
(3) T F F F
(4) T F T T
140. Assume that 6 out of 24 students have attached
earlobes. Calculate the allele frequency within this
gene pool and what percentage of individuals are
heterozygous?
(1) 25% (2) 50%
(3) 75% (4) 20%
141. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. drug,
source and its use?
Source Use
Pacific yew
Latex of
Synthetic analogue of acetylcholine
Atropa belladona
Papaver somniferum
Treat ovarian cancer, breast cancer and some types of lung cancer
To test the refractive index of eyes
Sedative and painkiller
Stimulant
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Drug
Taxol
Atropine
Morphine
Amphetamine
(13)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10
142. Complete the following analogy
Ectotherm : Reptiles : : Endotherm:
(1) Fishes (2) Insects
(3) Mammals (4) Amphibians
143. In birds the skin is dry without glands except the
preen at the base of the tail. What is the function of
this gland?
(1) To produce digestive enzymes
(2) To release scents that help to attract the prey
(3) To produce an oily substance used to condition
the feathers
(4) To control salt balance in the body
144. Which of the following has no effect on the rate of
enzyme catalysed reactions?
(1) Temperature
(2) pH
(3) Concentration of substrate and products
(4) Activation energy
145. A person with defective otolith sensory receptors
(1) Is deaf
(2) Has a difficult time in maintaining balance
(3) Cannot detect external temperature changes
(4) Has faulty sense of smell
146. Second messengers are activated in response to
(1) Steroid hormones
(2) Thyroxine
(3) Protein hormones like FSH
(4) Aldosterone
147. Which of the following is a direct method of gene
transfer?
(1) Cosmid
(2) Chemical mediated gene transfer andelectroporation
(3) Plasmid
(4) YAC
148. Which type of cartilage is present at the tip of thenose and between the adjacent bones of thevertebral column respectively?
(1) Hyaline cartilage, white fibrous cartilage
(2) Hyaline cartilage, calcified cartilage
(3) Elastic cartilage, white firbrous cartilage
(4) Calcified cartilage, white fibrous cartilage
149. Ringworm disease is one of the most common
infectious diseases in man, caused by all, except
(1) Microsporum (2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton (4) Trichoderma polysporum
150. Find out the correct match
(1) Pancreas – Alpha cells of islets of
Langerhans secrete insulin
hormone
(2) Parathyroid – Secrete parathormone which
stimulates the movement of Ca2+
from the blood into bone
(3) Vasopressin – Stimulates diuresis
(4) Oxytocin – Acts on the smooth muscles of
the body and stimulates their
contraction
151. Tissue matching, blood group matching are essential
before undertaking any graft transport and even after
this the patient has to take immunosuppressant drugs
like A and B is responsible for the graft rejection.
One correct option for the blanks A and B is
(1) A – Histamine; B – Humoral response
(2) A – Cyclosporine; B – Humoral response
(3) A – Streptokinase; B – CMI
(4) A – Cyclosporine; B – CMI
152. Which of the following is a powerful technique to
identify genetic disorders? It is used to detect
mutations in suspected cancer patients too?
(1) ELISA
(2) PCR
(3) Radiography and MRI
(4) CT scanning
153. Virus infected cells secrete proteins called
interferons, which protect the non-infected cells from
further viral infection. Interferons are included in which
of the following barriers?
(1) Physical
(2) Cellular
(3) Cytokine
(4) Physiological
(14)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
154. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(1) Human protein (-1 antitrypsin) obtained from
transgenic animals is used to treat emphysema
(2) The first gene therapy was done for ADA
deficiency
(3) Toxoid vaccines provide us with passive immunity
(4) Golden rice is rich in vitamin A
155. Which of the following statement is correct aboutBt cotton often in news?
(1) The cry I Ac and cry II Ab is used to controlcotton bollworm, a coleopteran
(2) Bt toxin gene cry1Ab is used to control cottonbollworm
(3) It is high yielding resistant variety of cottonhaving resistance to the lepidopteran cottonbollworm developed by genetic engineering
(4) It is drought resistant variety of cotton developedby genetic engineering
156. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. differenthominid species, their brain size and characteristicfeatures?
Brain sizeCharacteristic
features
650–800 C.C
900 CC
1400 CC
1400 CC
They probably did not eat meat
Probably ate meat
Used hides to protect their body and buried their dead
They arose during ice age between 100,000 to 40,000 years back
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Hominid
Homo habilis
Homo erectus
Homo sapiens
Neanderthal man
Modern
157. In the table given below, are the methods of birthcontrol devices, along with their examples. Which ofthe following is incorrect match?
(1) Barrier method – Condoms, diaphragmscervical caps
(2) Copper releasing – Multiload 375, CuT, Cu7IUDs
(3) Steroid hormonal – Saheli, Mala N, Mala DPills
(4) Hormone releasing – LNG-20, ProgestasertIUDs
158. The control of bacterial pathogens by sulpha drugs,is an example of
(1) Competitive inhibition
(2) Non-competitive inhibition
(3) Allosteric inhibition
(4) Feedback inhibition
159. Which of the following events induce the completionof the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte?
(1) The contact of the sperm with zona pellucida
(2) Transport of the sperms to ampullary isthmicjunction
(3) The release of ovum from the ovary
(4) The secretions of acrosome which help thesperm to enter into the cytoplasm of the ovumthrough zona pellucida and plasma membrane.
160. What is the mechanism of action of estrogenhormone?
(1) It binds with ovarian, membrane bound receptorsand produces cyclic AMP or Ca2+ as the secondmessenger
(2) It binds with extra-cellular receptors andproduces cyclic GMP as the second messenger
(3) It regulates gene expression or chromosomefunction by the interaction of hormone receptorcomplex with genome
(4) Binds with extra-cellular receptors in ovarian cellmembrane and generates the second messengercyclic AMP
161. After successful in-vitro fertilization, the fertilised eggbegins to divide. Where is this egg transferred beforeit reaches the eight celled stage, and what is thistechnique called?
(1) Uterus, GIFT
(2) Fallopian tubes, ZIFT
(3) Fallopian tubes, GIFT
(4) Uterus, IUT
162. Which of the following plasma protein helps inosmotic balance?
(1) Fibrinogen (2) Globulins
(3) Albumin (4) Heparin
163. If the recombinant DNA is inserted within the codingsequence of lac Z gene, then the host cells whichcarry the recombinant DNA plasmid will form inthe presence of X-gal.
(1) Blue coloured colonies
(2) White colonies
(3) Do not grow
(4) Pink coloured colonies
164. Which of the following is incorrect match?
(1) Ammonotelic – Bony fishes, aquaticamphibians, crustaceans
(2) Ureotelic – Terrestrial amphibians
(3) Uricotelic – Reptiles, birds, landsnails and insects
(4) Nephridia – Amphioxus
(15)
Mock Test for NEET - 2020 Home Assignment-10
165. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t. the
following events and host which occurs in the life
cycle of Plasmodium vivax?
(1) Fertilisation – Stomach of mosquito/
vector
(2) Development of – RBCs of human beings
gametocytes
(3) Asexual reproduction – Liver cells/RBCs of
human beings
(4) Release of sporozoites– RBCs of human beings
166. Which one of the following statements is totally
wrong about the occurrence of notochord, while other
three are correct?
(1) In Ascidia the notochord is present only in larval
tail
(2) In Amphioxus notochord extends from head to
tail region and is persistent throughout the life
(3) Notochord is absent in non-chordates
(4) In Exocoetus, notochord is replaced by
cartilaginous vertebral column
167. Which of the following structures will help in
distinguishing male Periplaneta from female?
(1) Number of abdominal segments
(2) A pair of jointed filamentous structures called
anal cerci
(3) A pair of thread like anal styles
(4) Antennae
168. Tick the incorrect statement
(1) Zinc is a cofactor for the proteolytic enzyme
carboxypeptidase
(2) Coenzymes NAD and NADP are nucleotides
and contain vitamin niacin
(3) Haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part of
active site of catalase and peroxidase
(4) Collagen is the most abundant protein in the
biosphere
169. Which of the following is correct match of the joint
and example?
(1) Between atlas – Pivot
and axis
(2) Between the pubic – Slightly movable
bones in the pelvic cartilaginous joint
gridle
(3) Between – Ball and socket
humerus and joint
glenoid cavity
(4) Carpal and – Gliding joint
metacarpal of
thumb
170. Choose the false statement w.r.t. Henle’s loop.
(1) Reabsorption in this segment is maximum
(2) Its descending limb is permeable to water but
almost impermeable to electrolytes so it is the
concentrating segment
(3) The ascending limb is the diluting segment
(4) It plays a significant role in the maintenance of
high osmolarity of interstitial fluid
171. In a resting membrane Na+ will diffuse from
(1) Inside to outside
(2) Outside to inside
(3) Outside to inside through voltage gated Na+ ion
channels
(4) Inside to outside through diffusion ion channels
172. Following is a diagrammatic representation of the
anatomy of a muscle fibre showing a sarcomere.
A B
C D
Use the following terms to label the structures in the
figure
A – band
I – band
H – zone
Z – line
Choose the correct option.
A B C D
(1) M-line H-zone A-band I-band
(2) Z-line H-zone A-band I-band
(3) Z-line I-band A-band H-zone
(4) Z-line H-zone I-band A-band
173. The reflex action in which there is ejection of stomach
contents through mouth is regulated by A present
in B of brain.
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks A
and B.
(1) A – Vomit centre; B – Hypothalamus
(2) A – Satiety centre; B – Hypothalamus
(3) A – Hunger centre; B – Medulla
(4) A – Vomit centre; B – Medulla
(16)
Home Assignment-10 Mock Test for NEET - 2020
174. In which of the following conditions the neurons
become depolarised without usual stimulus,
consequently, nerve and muscle action potential
arise spontaneously leading to muscle twitches,
spasms and convulsions?
(1) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
(2) Hypothyroidism
(3) Hypocalcemic tetany
(4) Grave’s disease
175. All the following statements are correct but one is
wrong. Which one is wrong?
(1) Menstruation occurs if the released ovum is not
fertilised. Lack of menstruation may be indicative
of pregnancy
(2) Normally 30 to 50 ml of blood is discharged
during menstruation
(3) Menstrual flow results due to breakdown of the
endometrial lining which forms liquid and comes
out through vagina. It does not clot
(4) After menopause the blood gonadotropins
decline markedly
176. Which of the following is the incorrect description of
a certain part of a normal human skeleton?
(1) Acromion process – Slightly elevated ridge
of scapula
(2) Floating ribs – 11th and 12th pairs of
ribs, which are not
connected ventrally to
the sternum
(3) Appendicular skeleton – It is made up of skull,
vertebral column,
sternum and ribs
(4) False ribs – The 8th, 9th and 10th
pairs of ribs which do
not directly articulate
with sternum but join
7th rib with the help of
hyaline cartilage
177. Origin of mammal like reptiles therapsids/synapsids
occurred in A period and their extinction occurred
in B period
(1) A – Carboniferous B – Jurassic
(2) A – Permian B – Jurassic
(3) A – Carboniferous B – Cretaceous
(4) A – Triassic B – Cretaceous
178. Which of the following is not a matching pair?
(1) Systemic heart– Left atrium and left ventricle in
the higher vertebrates
(2) Dup – Opening of semilunar valves at
the beginning of ventricular
systole
(3) Lubb – First heart sound due to
closure of AV valves at the
beginning of ventricular systole
(4) Q-wave – Marks the beginning of the
ventricular systole
179. Tick the false statements.
(1) Although radially symmetrical animals are
common in the ocean, all land animals are
bilaterally symmetrical
(2) Choanocytes in sponges trap food by filter
feeding and then ingest it
(3) Ctenophores, such as comb jellies, move by
cilia and have nematocysts to capture their prey
(4) Teredo or shipworm is one of the few bivalves
that does not filter feed
180. Following diagram indicates gas exchange in the
blood capillaries of the lungs and systemic
circulation.
Body tissues
AB
Pulmonaryvein
Pulmonaryartery
CO2 O2
CO2 O
2
CO2 O
2
Alveolus
CAlveolar air
What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in
vessel marked as A, pO2 in vessel B, pCO
2 in
alveolus marked as C
Options
A B C
pCO2
pO2
pCO2
in mm Hg in mmHg in mmHg
(1) 40 45 40
(2) 40 40 40
(3) 100 45 40
(4) 100 40 40
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Edition: 2020-21