Download - KPSC Mining Geology Test 2009 Answers
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158/2009
QuestionBooklet~ AAlpha Code ~Question Booklet
(Serial Number
J1.70205
Total No. of questions: 100 Time: 75 Minutes
Maximum: 100 Marks
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[INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES]The question paper will be given in the form of a Question Booklet. There will be four versions ofquestion booklets with question booklet alpha code viz. A, B, C & D.
The Question Booklet Alpha Code will be printed on the top left margin of the facing sheet of thequestion booklet.
The Question Booklet Alpha Code allotted to you will be noted in the address list intended forobtaining your signature and also in the seat allotted to you in the Examination Hall.
If you get a question booklet where the alpha code does not match to the allotted alpha code in theaddress list/seating position,please draw the attention ofthe Invigilator IMMEDIATELY. .
The Question Booklet Serial Number is printed on the top right margin of the facing sheet. If yourquestion booklet is unnumbered, please get it replaced by new question booklet with same alphacode.
Write the question booklet alpha code in the space provided in Part B of the answersheet and darken the appropriate bubble.
The question booklet will be sealed at the middle of the right margin. Candidate should not openthe question booklet, until the indication is given to start answering.
Immediately after the commencement of the examination, the candidate should check that thequestion booklet supplied to him contains all the 100 questions in serial order. The question bookletdoes not have unprinted or torn or missing pages and if so he/she should bring it to the notice ofthe Invigilator and get it replaced by a complete booklet with same alpha code. This is mostimportant.
A blank sheet of paper is attached to the question booklet. This may be used for rough work.
Please read carefully all the instructions on the reverse of the Answer Sheet before marking youranswers.
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11. Each question is provided with four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) having one correct answer. Choosethe correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using Blue orBlack Ball-Point Pen in the OMR answer sheet.
Each correct answer carries 1 mark and for each wrong answer 1/3 mark will be deducted.
No negative mark for unattended questions.
No candidate will be allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of the session and without
handing over hislher Answer Sheet to the Invigilator. Candidates should ensure that the Invigilatorhas verified all the entries in the Register Number Coding Sheet and that the Invigilator hasaffIXedhislher signature in the space provided.
Strict compliance of instructions is essential. Any malpractice or attempt to commit any kind ofmalpractice in the Examination will result in the summary disqualification of the candidate.
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f~[)J ~~~Mi 111.1- R. ~ L. MP1 Iii': A.P. l'raJeep Kumllt'
a ~ Mf'V"'A1 beetu,.er ill GeologyG t (,':)/'" o--'p KottaYQm
,OF '.~,.,.~, 1:Ft".,. " J.::{i!::J, .~, ,158/2009
Maximum: 100 marks
Time: 1 hour and 15 minutes
1. Erosional ridges characteristic of terrains having gently dipping sedimentary rocks arecalled:
(A) Hog's back ridges
v1C) Buttes
(B) Mesas
(D) Cuestas
2. Drainage pattern characteristic of braided rivers:
(A) Dichotomous v(13) Anastomosing
(C) Parallel (D) Trellis
3. The removal of rock debris by wind action is called:
(A) Abrasion
(C) Attrition
(B) Saltation
v6 Ablation
4. The velocityofP waves in Sial is approximately:
..A..A) 6.5 Km/sec (B) 3.36Km/sec~
(C) 3.74 Kmlsec (D) 5.57 Km/sec
5. A lacustrine environment affected by marine conditions is called:
(A) Deltaic
v&) Paralic
(B) Paludal
(D) Limnic
6. The visible light ranges in wave length from:
v(A) 0.38 to 0.76 Jlm
(C) 0.40 to 0.7 Jlm
(B) 0.43 to 0.65 Jlm
(D) 0.41 to 0.72 Jlm
7. Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is not used in aerial thermography?
(A) 3.5 to 5.5 Jlm v(B) 5.5 to 8.0 Jl m
(C) 8.0 to 10.0 Jl m (D) 10 to 14 Jl m
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8. Which portion of the electromagnetic spectrum is useful in the discrimination of geologicalstructures?
(A) 0.6 to 0.7 11m
v(C) 0.5 to 0.6 11m
(B) 0.7 to 0.8 11m
(D) 0.8 to 1.111m
9. Which portion of the electromagnetic portion is useful in land use studies?
~A) 0.7 to 0.8 11m (B) 0.8 to 1.1 11m
(C) 0.6 to 0.7 11m (D) 0.5 to 0.6 11m
10. Which band of Thematic Mapper is known as Thermal Band?
(A) 4th
vfc) 6th
(B) 5th
(D) 7th
11. The Push broom Scanner was first introduced in:
(A) LANDSAT
(C) IRS
(B) SPOT
A JERS
12. Which one of the following satellites was launched by India for ocean application alone?
(A) IRS P3 v(B) IRS P4
(C) IRS P5 (D) IRS P6
13. The spat~al resolution of LISS-III sensor is :
(A) 60m
,/C) 23.5 m
(B) 120 m
(D) 70.5 m
14. The content of most geographic information system is :
(A) Location
(C) Time
(B) Attribute"
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16. The rarest of all the garnets is:
(A) Pyrope
(C) Grossularite
~ Uvarovite(D) Almandine
17. Which is the most common mica?
(A) Zinnwaldite
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25. An isotropic mineral has:
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34. The difference between a Reclined and a Recumbent fold is that, in the former:
(A) Axial plane is horizontal (B) Fold axis is horizontal
(C) Both limbs dip in the same direction ~ Plunging fold axis35. Linear structures developed by the compression of competent beds are termed as :
(~ Lineations (B) FoliationsAC) Mullions (D) Drag folds
36. The most common type of coiling in Cephalopoda is :
(A) Discoidal (B) Plane spiral
(C) Helicoid spiral ~ Sinistral
37. The earliest fossil evidence of elephant was reported from:
(A) North America 4) South Mrica
(C) Egypt (D) India
38. Identify the coral which is phacelloid :
(~ Montlivaltia.v1C) Lithostrotion
(B) Favosites
(D) Isastraea
39. Which one is an extinct coral? )
(A) Favosites
vfc) Thecosmilia
.i (B) Dendrophyllia
(D) Calceola
40. A typical graptolite of Tremadocian age:
ytA) Dictyonema
(C) Tetragraptus
(B) Rastrites
(D) Dimorphograptus
41. In Vindhyan supergroup, well-preserved Stromatolites are found in:
(A) Bhander Limestone (B) Suket Shales
~) Fawn Limestone (D) Kajrahat Limestone)
42. The most commonrocks ofVindhyan Supergroup are:
(A) Gneisses (B) Shales
(C) Limestones v(D) Sandstones
A 7 158/2009[P.T.O.]
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43. Which of the following formation is the richest in fossils?
,
(A) Chinji
(C) Pinjor
(B) Nagri
v(n) DhokPathan
44. The first Pleistocene glacial advance has been termed as :
AA) Gunz (B) Wurm
(C) Mindel (D) Riss
45. The Cenomanian marine transgression was during:
(A) Early tertiary ~) Cretaceous
(C) Jurassic (D) Triassic
46. Syenites in which alkali feldspar become approximately equal in amount to plagioclase are
called:
(A) Shonkinites
(0) Nordmarkites
(B) Pulaskites
v/6D) Monzonites
47. With increasing ferromagnesian minerals, gabbros grade into :
(A) Anorthosites
V{0) Picrites
(B) Olivine monzonites
- (D) Alkali gabbros
48. Perthite is a mineral with following composition:
(A) Albite in Orthoclase
(C) Orthoclase in Albite
(B) Microcline in Orthoclase
.~) Orthoclase in Microcline
49. Primary occurrence of diamonds is not reported from which of the following?
AA) Kimberlite (B) Eclogite
(C) Lamproite (D) Peridotite
50. Plutonic counterpart of Aplite is :
(A) Pegmatite
(0) Quartzite
~) Granite
(D) Rhyolite
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51. Among the following rock types, which one becomes plastic when wet?
(A) Shale
(C) Siltstone
(B) Mudstone ~'-=~ . - ....L ~P. PradeepKuma.,.
V(D) Claystone .~ Lecturer in GeologyGOyt"College. KottayamKerala, India52. Which type of Mudstone is called Marl?
A) Calcareous(C) Ferruginous
(B) Siliceous
(D) Phosphatic
53. Which of the following is not a metamorphic mineral?
(A) Glaucophane ~ Glauconite(C) Sillimanite (D) Lawsonite
54. The metamorphic conditions existing in near surface region in subduction zones: .
v1A) Blueschist facies (B) Greenschist facies
(C) Sanidinite facies (D) Eclogite facies
55. The Garnet found in Eclogite is :
(A) Almandine
(C) Grossularite
(B) Spessartite
~) Pyrope
56. Who amon~ the following, is considered as the 'Father of Economic Geology'?
. v1B) Georgius Agricola
(D) Descartes
(A) James Hutton
(C) Nicolaus Steno
57. Placer gold deposits are mostly:
(A) Coll~vial
Ac) Alluvial
(B) Illuvial
(D) Eluvial
58. Of the following evaporate minerals, which one crystallizes last?
(A) Anhydrite
(C) Halite
(B) Dolomite
va;) Sylvite
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59. The last four minerals in Van Kobell's scale are arranged in the order:
(~ Orthoclase, Actinolite, Bronzite, AlmandineJB) Almandine, Actinolite, Orthoclase, Bronzite
(C) Almandine, Orthoclase, Actinolite, Bronzite
(D) Actinolite, Bronzite, Almandine, Orthoclase
60. Skarn deposits are generally characterized by the mineral:
~) Axinite . (B) Actinolite(C) Calcite (D) Aragonite
61. Name the mineral deposits associated with Sakoli series:
(A) Iron
(C) Diamonds
(B) Lead and Zinc
vfu) Manganese
62. Gold deposits of India are associated with:
AA) Early Precambrian
(C) Early Palaeozoic
(B) Late Precambrian J
(D) Late Palaeozoic
63. The placer deposits of Monazite and Ilmenite found in Kerala are of :
(A) Alluvial placer
(C) lliuvial placer
(B) Colluvial placer
h) None of the above
64. Which of the following is not a structural trap for oil?
v(A) Unconformity (B) Fault
(C) Anticline (D) - Syncline"
65. The manganese mineral having highest metal content is :
(A) PyrOlusite
AC) Hausmannite
(B) Psilomelane
(D) Manganite
66. The chromite deposits of Sitampundi Complex are found associated with:
(A) Syenites ~) Anorthosites
(C) Norites (D) Peridotites
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67. DetailJd survey for oil and gas is generally done by :v' (A) Seismic reflection (B) Magnetic methods
(C) Gravimetric (D) Seismic refraction
68. The difference between the observed and predicted gravity values after applying all thecorrections is described as :
(A) Bouguer correction
(C) Free air correction
vtB) Bouguer anomaly
(D) Free air anomaly
69. 'Ocimum homblei' is a universal indicator plant for:
(A) U
(C) Zn
(B) Fe
v(D) Cu
70. Of the given minerals, which one is prospected by ultraviolet light?
(A) Monazite (B) Ilmenite
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76. In general, water pollution is caused by :
(A) Decay of dead aquatic organisms
(C) Insecticides
77. In big cities, the major air pollutants are :
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85. The ore reserves based on limited number of samples are described as :
(A) Proved reserves
/'0) Probable reserves
(B) Possible reserves
(D) None of the above1/,/
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86. The 'Brazilian test' is used to determine:
(A) Modulus of elasticity
(C) Compressive strength
(B) Crushing strength
viD) Tensile strength
87. The strength of.stratified rocks is always greater when the stresses are acting:
(A) Parallel to the strike
Ac) Normal to the bedding
(B) Perpendicular to the strike
(D) Parallel to the bedding
88. The most important factor in the geological investigation in reservoir sites is :
(~ LithologyvfC) Water table
(B) Topography
(D) Elevation
89. Name the rock type which has least Compressive strength?
A) Limestone (B) Granite(C) Gneiss (D) Marble
90. While assessing the engineering properties of rocks, which of the following density is takeninto account:
(A) True density
(C) Saturated density
y{13) Bulk density
(D) Dry density
91. The Caliper logging technique is employed to measure:
(A) Resistivity
(C) Conductivity
(B) Temperature
/(D) Well diameter
92. In drinking water the total dissolved solids should not exceed:
/fA) 500 mglL (B) 125 mglL
(C) 250 mglL (D) 1000 mg/L
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93. Groundwater for agricultural use, the permissible ~purity limit is :
(A) 10000 ppm V(B) 7000 ppm
(C) 5000 ppm (D) 9000 ppm
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94. For drilling large diameter bore wells which method is advisable?
(~ Diamond drillingv1C) Calyx drilling
(B) Cable Tool drilling
(D) Rotary drilling
95. The quantity of water transmitted through 1 sq.cm area in one second under a standard
hydraulic gradient is the measure of the:
(A) Porosity
(C) Specific yield
~) Permeability
(D) Storativity
96. Residence time of groundwater can be determined by using the isotope of :
/(A) Tritium (B) Sulphur
(C) Oxygen (D) Helium
97. Which of the following materials has more porosi~(A) Loess V (B) Peat
(C) Clay (D) Limestone
98. The law which explains the flow of ground water in porous media is :
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