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Answer:
Explanation: Henry Louis Vivian Derozio was an Indian poet and
assistant headmaster of Hindu College, Kolkata, a radical
thinker and one of the first Indian educators to
disseminate Western learning and science among the
young men of Bengal. In 1828, Raja Ram Mohan Roy
established the Brahmo Samaj, which kept Hindu ideals
but denied idolatry. This resulted in a backlash within
orthodox Hindu society. It is in the perspective of these
changes that Derozio was appointed at Hindu college,
where he helped released the ideas for social change
already in the air. At 17 years of age,he was considered a
great scholar and a thinker. Within a short period of
time, he drew around him a group of intelligent boys in
college. He constantly encouraged them to think freely,
to question and not to accept anything blindly. His
teachings inspired the development of the spirit of
liberty, equality and freedom. His activities brought
about intellectual revolution in Bengal. It was called the
Young Bengal Movement and his students, also known as
Derozians, were fiery patriots. (From Wikipedia)
Answer:
Explanation: Directive Principles:
Article 51 (Directive Principles of State Policy): The State
shall endeavour to— (a) promote international peace and
security; (b) maintain just and honourable relations
between nations; (c) foster respect for international law
and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized
peoples with one another; and (d) encourage settlement
of international disputes by arbitration
Part XI:
253. Legislation for giving effect to international
agreements.—
Notwithstanding anything in the foregoing provisions of
this Chapter, Parliament has power to make any law for
the whole or any part of the territory of India for
implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with
any other country or countries or any decision made at
any international conference, association or other body.
Seventh Schedule:
The International relations as a Union Subject.
Answer:
Explanation: Forest and Tree Cover of the country as per the latest
assessment is 78.29 m ha, which is 23.81% of the
geographical area. Th is includes 2.76% of tree cover.
There is a decrease of 367 km2 in the forest cover in
comparison to 2009 assessment. In hill and tribal districts
of the country, a decrease in forest cover of 548 km2 and
679 km2 respectively has been reported as compared to
the previous assessment. There is a net decline of 549
km2 in forest cover as compared to the previous
assessment. Mangrove cover has increased by 23.34 km
during the same period. The total bamboo bearing area
in the country is estimated to be 13.96 m ha. The total
carbon stock in the country's forests is estimated to be
6663 m tonnes. (State of Forest Report 2011)
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2
Answer:
Explanation: Adaptations in Mangroves
Mangroves are salt tolerant plant communities which are
circumtropical in distribution and are found along the
tropical and sub-tropical intertidal regions of the world
between 24° N to 38° S. These areas, on an average,
receive 1,000 mm - 3,000 mm rainfall and have
temperatures ranging between 26°c and 35°c. They
exhibit a number of morphological and physiological
adaptations in order to survive in such a harsh physical
environment on account of lack of oxygen, high salinity
and frequent tidal inundation. These adaptations include
presence of fleshy leaves, breathing roots called as
'pneumatophores', buttress formation, stilt roots,
'vivipary', sunken stomata, and increased concentration
of salt in the cells etc.
Answer:
Explanation: SPS Agreement
The Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and
Phytosanitary Measures - also known as the SPS
Agreement is an international treaty of the World Trade
Organization. It was negotiated during the Uruguay
Round of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade,
and entered into force with the establishment of the
WTO at the beginning of 1995. Under the SPS agreement,
the WTO sets constraints on member-states' policies
relating to food safety (bacterial contaminants,
pesticides, inspection and labelling) as well as animal and
plant health (phytosanitation) with respect to imported
pests and diseases. The SPS agreement is closely linked to
the Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade, which was
signed in the same year and has similar goals.
Answer:
Explanation: The concept of “residence” is central to BoP compilation
as it is a statistical statement showing all economic
transactions between residents of one economy and
those of the rest of the world (non-residents). In
compiling BoP, it is, therefore, necessary to determine
the economic entities which are residents of an economy
and those which are non-residents
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: Kindly note that the Inland Waterways Authority of India
(IWAI) was created by Indian Government on 27 October
1986 for development and regulation of Inland
Waterways for shipping and navigation. The Authority
primarily undertakes projects for development and
maintenance of Inland Waterway Terminal infrastructure
on National Waterways through grant received from
Ministry of Shipping, Road Transport and Highways. The
head office is at Noida. The National waterways are
created by legislation and currently a legislation is
pending which you can read about at the following link:
http://www.prsindia.org/uploads/media/National%20Wa
terway/National%20Waterway%20(Lakhipur-
Banga%20Stretch)%20bill.pdf
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3
Answer:
Explanation: Kindly read the following document:
http://bit.ly/10tdT9V
Answer:
Explanation: The thickness of the ozone layer—that is, the total
amount of ozone in a column overhead—varies by a large
factor worldwide, being in general smaller near the
equator and larger towards the poles. It also varies with
season, being in general thicker during the spring and
thinner during the autumn in the northern hemisphere.
The reasons for this latitude and seasonal dependence
are complicated, involving atmospheric circulation
patterns as well as solar intensity.
Answer:
Explanation: First statement is basic and incorrect. Oceans have a
lower albedo than deserts, this is a correct statement.
The tropical Rainforests have a low Albedo and as such,
more solar radiation is absorbed. A percentage in the
region of 5-15% is estimated as the albedo for tropical
forests. With deforestation, the albedo decreases further
and studies have shown that the temperature of a
deforested area actually increases by 5°F over a year. An
increase in surface temperature will lead to warm air
which will rise, leading to low, cooler pressure areas.
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: UNESCO Kalinga Prize is given for the popularization of
science. Both India and Brazil have the honour of making
this international distinction five times since its
inception in 1952. Ever since its inception till date, the
Kalinga Prize has been conferred to 65 personalities
(including seven Nobelists) from 24 countries. Just three
countries, viz. UK (10 awardees), USA (8) and France (6)
have won more number of times than India and Brazil.
The list of five Indians in the coveted list includes Jagjit
Singh (1963), Narender K. Sehgal (1991 with Radu Iftimovici
of Romania), Jayant V. Narlikar (1996 with Jirí Grygar of
Czech Republic), Dorairajan Balasubramanian (1997) and
Yash Pal (2009 with Trinh Xuan Thuan of Vietnam).
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4Answer:
Explanation: Kindly read about Global System of Trade Preferences
(GSTP) at wikipedia.
Answer:
Explanation: All the statements are correct in this question.
Answer:
Explanation: Baratang contains the only known examples of mud
volcanoes in India. These mud volcanoes have erupted
sporadically, with recent eruptions in 2005 believed to
have been associated with the 2004 Indian Ocean
earthquake. The previous major eruption recorded was
on 18 February 2003. The locals call this mud volcano
jalki.
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: In India, Nitrogen applications tend to be too high in
relation to the amount of potassium and phosphate used.
This is partly the result of price differentials, and partly
due to lack of knowledge among farmers about
the need for balanced fertilizer use. The consequence is
soil nutrient depletion, which is a major cause of the
stagnation of rice yields. A related serious problem
emerging out of the use of fertilizers is nitrate
contamination of groundwater from heavy nitrogen
applications in rice and wheat crops. Nitrate cannot be
removed once it has entered the underground water
system. Other problems include deficiency of trace
elements because of intensive cultivation. All these
factors have combined together to reduce soil fertility.
Proper crop rotation, judicious combination of organic
and chemical fertilizers and suitable agronomic practices
will be helpful in this regard.
Answer:
Explanation:
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5Financial Transaction Plan
It was previously known as Operating Budget of IMF and
refers to the mechanism through which the Fund
finances its lending and repayment operations in the
General Resources Account. Please note that India
participates in Financial Transaction Plan since 2002.
Technical Assistance Special Fund:
Its related to Asian Development Bank and fulfils the
objective of providing technical assistance for the
preparation and execution of development projects and
programs and advisory services.
Financial Stability Board:
FSB has been established to coordinate at the
international level the work of national financial
authorities and international standard setting bodies and
to develop and promote the implementation of effective
regulatory, supervisory and other financial sector
policies. It brings together national authorities
responsible for financial stability in significant
international financial centers, international financial
institutions, sector-specific international groupings of
regulators and supervisors, and committees of central
bank experts. IMF has its representatives in FSB.
Answer:
Explanation: The FSLRC has recommended that the Securities and
Exchange Board of India ( Sebi), the Forward Markets
Commission (FMC), the Insurance Regulatory and
Development Authority ( Irda) and the Pension Fund
Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) should
be merged into a new unified agency UFRA.
Answer:
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: 1. Genetic engineering when used on micro-organisms
help in the creation of new pharmaceuticals which
cannot be made in any other way.
2. Genetic engineering helps in the process of
bioremediation which is the process of cleaning up
waste and pollution with the help of living
organisms.
3. Genetic engineering has helped lower the overall
usage of herbicide and pesticide.
4. Genetic engineering has helped with the production
of vaccines and other drugs in plants.
5. Genetic engineering has helped produce quicker and
more predictable way of generating new cultivars.
Further, the cultivar properties are better known
today than it was ever known before. Today, genetic
engineering can produce sustainable agriculture.
6. Genetic engineering is meant to make food crops
more resistant to disease, but the mere act of
modification of the naturally selected food crops
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6actually disturbs the delicate balance of biodiversity
which exists in nature. The production of GMOs has
negative impacts on the natural ecosystem which are
not apparent now but will be apparent in the future.
For example, genetic changes in a particular plant or
animal might render it harmful to another organism
higher up in the food chain and ultimately this effect
may build up to destroy the entire food chain in
which that plant plays a role.
7. GMOs have been known to retain some of the
genetically modified DNA in the final product made
for human consumption. Such remnants of genetic
material are harmful to human health and can cause
production of previously unknown allergens.
Answer:
Explanation: Algae are primitive eukaryotic organisms that do not
have true stems, roots and leaves. They are primary
producers in aquatic ecosystems and marine organisms.
Most of these are edible and have been consumed in
different forms since ancient times. Most edible
seaweeds are marine algae as most freshwater algae are
toxic. While marine algae are not toxic, some do contain
acids that irritate the digestion canal, while some others
can have a laxative and electrolyte-balancing effect
Answer:
Explanation: Functions of Insulin
Insulin activates the absorption of glucose from the
blood by the cells of the muscle, liver and fat tissues. It
also facilitates the storing of glucose as glycogen in the
liver and muscle. Besides this, it prevents the use of fat
for deriving energy. Insulin is released in the body in two
phases. The first phase involves the rapid release of a
large amount of insulin in response to an increased level
of glucose in the blood produced from the digestion of
food. These high levels of insulin in the body induce the
cells of the liver and muscles to absorb glucose from the
blood. This results in a reduction in the blood glucose
level. With the reduction of blood glucose level, insulin
secretion also decreases. The second phase refers to the
small amount of insulin continuously secreted by the
beta cells, which is not dependent on the level of sugar.
The body needs this small amount of insulin, as the liver
keeps on releasing the stored sugar even when we are
not eating. This ensures a constant supply of energy.
Insulin secreted in these ways enters the blood plasma
and bind with beta globulin (a protein). Globulins are of
two types, alpha and beta globulins, and are concerned
with the circulation of lipids, vitamins and hormones
throughout the body. When the blood plasma comes into
contact with the liver and muscle cells, the insulin
bounded to the beta globulins interact with the receptors
(protein molecules) embedded in plasma membrane or
cytoplasm of the cells. This in turn helps the passage of
glucose into the cells. In the absence of insulin, the
absorption of glucose gets impaired due to which the
body tends to use the stored fats to get energy. But, in
the process the harmful byproducts, ketones are
generated. On the other hand, since the body cannot
absorb and utilize glucose in the absence of insulin, the
blood glucose level increases.
Answer:
Explanation: Article 45 says - The State shall endeavour to provide
early childhood care and education for all children until
they complete the age of six years. The Eighty-sixth
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7Constitutional Amendment Act has split the age group 0-
14 years into two clear categories and these separate ages
cover their interests under separate Articles in the
Constitution. Article 21A as a fundamental right for age
group 6-14 years and Article 45 a Directive Principle of
State Policy for age of 0-6 years. Further, the amended
Article 51A also says that "who is a parent or guardian to
provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the
case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen
years.". So only DPSP enshrines these provisions.
Answer:
Explanation: This bill was introduced in 1883 by Viceroy Ripon, who
actually desired to abolish the racial prejudice from the
Indian Penal Code. Ripon had proposed an amendment
for existing laws in the country and to allow Indian
judges and magistrates the jurisdiction to try British
offenders in criminal cases at the District level. It was
never allowed before. The bill was later passed in
severally compromised state and that is why, opened the
eyes of Indians , who could understand that they were
nowhere equal to the Europeans.
Answer:
Explanation: Number of images = (360÷angle) - 1
Here please note:
1. If the mirrors are placed at parallel to each other ,
the images will be infinite in numbers
2. If the mirrors are placed at an angle of 90° with each
other , 3 images will be produced.
3. The more we decrease the angle between the two
mirrors from 90°, the more will be number of images.
4. At 60° the number of images is 5'
5. At 30°, the number of images will be 11.
This concept is the principle of working of the
Kaleidoscopes that operate on multiple reflection,
several mirrors are attached together. The three mirrors
if set at 45° from each other, creates eight duplicate
images of the objects, six at 60°, and four at 90°.
Answer:
Explanation: The first statement is correct. The wavelength of X-Rays
is from 0 Å to 250Å. The Hard X-rays have a wavelength
of less than 10Å while the soft X-Rays have the
wavelength of more than 10Å. The second statement is
incorrect because Both Electric and Magnetic fields don't
affect X-Rays. The Third statement is incorrect because
X-Rays show most properties of light.
Answer:
Explanation:
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8NF3 is a greenhouse gas, with a global warming potential
(GWP) 17,200 times greater than that of CO2 when
compared over a 100 year period. It is used in the etching
in making of the LCD thin films.
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: Kindly note that all states of India don't come under the
RTI act. The second statement is correct. Third statement
is also incorrect because one can ask for more than one
information in a single application.
Answer:
Explanation: The information under the RTI can be sought by an
Indian Citizen only. NRI are also Indian Citizens so they
can seek information. PIO does not confirm citizenship so
we need to eliminate third choice.
Answer:
Explanation: Please note that SC and HC are also covered under RTI
along with subordinate judiciary.
1. Central Chief Information Commissioner under the
Right to Education Act is appointed by President
2. Under the RTI Act, the RTI Request Fee can be paid by
Cash, Cheque, Postal Order or Demand Draft
Answer:
Answer: Only 3 (discrepancy)
Explanation: 1. The first statement is incorrect because data can be
transferred much faster on LAN.
2. Second statement is incorrect because now a days, a
printer can be shared both over LAN and WAN.
3. Third statement is correct.
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9
Answer:
Explanation: 1. Both the Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity) and the Bluetooth
standards are based on separate protocols and work
on different standards.
2. Wi-Fi has been a favourite for making LANs (Local
Area Networks) at homes and offices. The range of
Wi-Fi is hence quite high, around 300 feet from the
wireless networking node.
3. Bluetooth, on the other hand has a short range of
around 30 feet. As already mentioned,
4. Bluetooth and Wi-Fi work on different standards.
5. Recent Wi-Fi installations are based on 802.11n
standard. Bluetooth devices currently follow the
Bluetooth 4.0 standard.
6. Bluetooth devices do not need any installation or
configuration. The working of Bluetooth devices is
very simple and hence they do not require to be
configured. However, Wi-Fi requires some
configuration.
7. For a Wi-Fi enabled network, we need to install
routers and modems. Wi-Fi is used for the formation
of a wireless LAN (Local Area Network). A large
number of desktop computers and laptop computers
can be connected using Wi-Fi, whereas, you cannot
form a Local Area Network (LAN), in the case of
Bluetooth. Bluetooth allows you to form a PAN
(Personal Area Network). Another difference between
Wi-Fi and Bluetooth is that, the data transfer rate for
Bluetooth is much higher than that of Wi-Fi. Using
Bluetooth, you can transfer data at the rate of 800
kbps, whereas, Wi-Fi is susceptible to data losses and
hence has lower speeds. If you are connected to the
Internet using Wi-Fi, your downloading speed will be
less than what you would get when you are
connected using broadband internet.
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: What 'Fascism' employs is prioritizing the benefit of the
state above anything else. The State will incorporate all
values relevant to making it the superior power, be it
nationalism or militarism. This means using all the
people within the State, regardless of their race. The
thought that seeds is, 'if you're in this state, then you're
better than anyone outside it and therefore have a right
to rule them'. In a way, Fascism is considered as the more
aggressive form of nationalism. Even so, it is not
considered as brutal or savage as Nazism. While the
militaristic laws of Fascism that were enforced ended a
lot of liberties for most people, they rarely used brute
force to get what they wanted. Literally, Fascism means
'a bundle' in Italian. 'Nazism', on the other hand,
emphasizes on race. More specifically, the Aryan race.
Nazism still was about the state, but they would not
accept anyone from other races to exist with their own.
While pure Fascism would accept people from other
religions as long as they were useful for the state, Nazism
vehemently declined any such steps. They conditioned
the Aryan race as the banner under which they would
unite. The word Nazi is actually an abbreviation of the
word 'Nationalsozialistische' from
'Nationalsozialistische Deutsche Arbeiterpartei', which
means National Social German Workers' Party in English.
Historically, Nazism was considered very extreme. The
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10way they enforced Aryan superiority was cruel and
destructive. Yes, the primary element of control was still
fear, just like regular Fascism. But the degree to which
they went to affirm absolute authority as the Masters
was inexplicable.
Answer:
Explanation: The 'R' after the plus or minus indicates 'recordable',
which means that the disc can be written upon, but only
once. If you have an 'RW' after the plus or minus sign, it
indicates a 'rewritable' disc, which means that the disc
can be rewritten up to 1,000 times. There is no difference
between DVD-R and DVD+R in terms of the storage
capacity they provide. A single layer DVD of both formats
has a capacity of 4.7 GB, and a dual layer DVD has a
storage capacity of 8.5 GB. DVD-R and DVD+R are two
contending technologies which employ different
formats. Each of these formats is formally sanctioned and
backed up by their individual forums. These licensing
forums comprise a particular number of companies. A
company named 'Pioneer' was responsible for the advent
of the DVD-R format which is based on the same
technology as a CD-R. The DVD-R format is backed up by
the 'DVD Forum' which was established by companies
such as Mitsubishi, Sony, Hitachi, and Time Warner. It is
believed that Sony Corporation took the initiative of
developing the DVD+R format. This format is also no
different from the CD-R. The DVD+R format is backed up
by the 'DVD+RW Alliance'. This authorizing entity
comprises member companies which include Sony
Corporation, Yamaha Corporation, Philips, Dell, and some
others. The primary divergence amongst these two
optical data storage discs is the inherent technology
which is normally unobtrusive to the user. DVD-R
employs the Land Pre Pit (LPP) technology for tracking
and controlling the speed, whereas DVD+R utilizes an
advanced ADdress In Pregroove (ADIP) functionality
which makes the operation more precise at higher
speeds. When it comes to the technology in DVD-R and
DVD+R formats, the latter one uses a more robust error
management technology than that employed in the
former. The DVD+R format also employs more precise
session linking methods which contribute to fewer
damaged discs than the DVD-R format.
Answer:
Explanation: Sodium reacts with hydrocarbon compounds with double
bonds to make them saturated (single bonded). This type
of reaction is often referred to as addition reaction. In
this manner, a type of synthetic rubber is formed which
is called buna. It has derived its name from butadiene (a
type of hydrocarbon) and sodium (Na).
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: The question checks whether you have read the UNCLOS
(United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea) and its
specifications or not. Exclusive Economic Zones refers to
the area from the edge of the territorial sea out to 200
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11nautical miles from the baseline. In this area, the country
has sole exploitation rights over all natural resources.
The most important reason to introduce EEZ was to halt
the clashes over the Fishing Rights and Oil Rights. In the
EEZ, the foreign vessels have freedom of navigation and
over flight, subject to the regulation of the coastal states.
Foreign states are allowed to lay submarine pipes and
cables. Thus statement 2 is incorrect. As far as statement
3 is concerned please note that a country can enforce
laws only in 4 areas viz. pollution, taxation, customs, and
immigration of the Contiguous Zone i.e. 24 Nautical miles
from the baseline.
Answer:
Explanation: World Conference on Disaster Reduction is a United
Nations conference bringing together government
officials, non-governmental experts and other specialists
from around the world to discuss the growing trend of
people affected by natural disasters.
The first WCDR conference was held in Kobe, Japan
January 18–22, 2005. The outcome of this conference was
Hyogo Framework for Action. The HFA suggests five
specific priorities for action:
1. Making disaster risk reduction a priority;
2. Improving risk information and early warning;
3. Building a culture of safety and resilience;
4. Reducing the risks in key sectors;
5. Strengthening preparedness for response.
Answer:
Explanation: Directly, Iron and Molybdenum play important role in
BNF. The enzyme used is called nitrogenase. The
nitrogenase enzyme has two kinds of proteins viz. Iron
Protein, and Iron-Molybdenum protein. At the same time,
Mg nutrition treatment has shown to have increased the
number of Rhizobium nodules and their Mg-content,
resulting in increased N2-fixation and yield. Magnesium
also plays an important role in the metabolism of
Azotobacter. Nitrogenase complex needs Mg 2+ ions to be
active (Sylvia et al., 1999), so magnesium requirement for
nitrogen fixation is considerable.
Answer:
Explanation: Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the
Protection of Industrial Property, geographical
indications are covered as an element of IPRs. They are
also covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade Related
Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)
Agreement, which was part of the Agreements
concluding the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations. In
India, they are covered under Goods (Registration &
Protection) Act, 1999 which has come into force with
effect from 15th September 2003. However, as per the
Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999, Controller
General of the Patents, Designs and Trade Marks is the
Registrar of Geographical Indications and this
appointment is as per Trade Marks Act 1999.
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12
Answer:
Explanation: Please note that NOT all biosphere reserves are in the
UNESCO Framework. As of now only Seven viz. Nilgiri
(2000), Gulf of Mannar (2001), Sunderban (2001), Nanda
Devi(2004), Nokrek (2009), Pachmarhi(2009), Similipal
(2009) are in the UNESCO’s MAB world network limited
economic activity (sand and stone mining) is permitted.
Answer:
Explanation: With increase in severity of skeletal fluorosis, acute pain
is associated with rigidity and restricted movement of
cervical and lumber spine, knee and pelvic joints as well
as shoulder joints. In severe cases of fluorosis, there Is
complete rigidity of the joints resulting in stiff spine
described as "bamboo spine", and immobile knee, pelvic
and shoulder joints. Crippling deformity is associated
with rigidity of joints and includes kyphosis, scoliosis,
and flexion deformity of knee joints, paraplegia and
quadriplegia.
In patients with paralysis, it begins with vague pain in
the back. Symptoms develop due to pressure caused by
osteophytess (bony outgrowth) narrowing of
intervertebral foreman and Increase in size of the
vertebrae or narrowing of the spinal canal, can lead to
paralysis.
Answer:
Explanation: We know that exact timing of the Rabi crop varies with
the latitude and is influenced by the withdrawal of the
monsoon, therefore it can be anywhere from September
to April. So, the first three options hint towards a Kharif
Season. Here are some points:
Early indicators of Droughts…
The following constitute ‘early warning indicators’:
For Kharif (sowing June to August)
1. Delay in onset of South-West Monsoon.
2. Long ‘break’ activity of South-West Monsoon.
3. Insufficient rains during the month of July.
4. Rise in Price of fodder.
5. Absence of rising trend in Reservoir Levels.
6. Drying up of sources of Rural Drinking Water Supply.
7. Declining trend in the progress of sowing over
successive weeks compared to corresponding figures
for “normal years”.
For Rabi (sowing November to January)
1. Deficiency in closing figures for South-West
Monsoon (30th September).
2. Serious depletion in level of Ground Water compared
to figures for normal years’.
3. Fall in the level of Reservoirs compared to figures of
the corresponding period in the ‘normal years’ –
indication of poor recharge following SW Monsoon.
4. Indication of marked soil moisture stress.
5. Rise in price of fodder.
6. Increased deployment of water through tankers
(For Tamil Nadu & Pondicherry the crucial period is
North East Monsoon – October to December)
Answer:
Explanation: The five diseases covered by the Pentavalent Vaccine are
diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus, hepatitis B and Hib. The
trivalent DPT vaccine will be gradually replaced by this
pentavalent vaccine.
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13
Answer:
Explanation: Oral mucosal transudate draws HIV antibodies out of the
tissues of the cheek and gum. The virus itself is rarely
ever found in oral fluid. Oral mucosal transudate has high
concentrations of IgG; saliva has practically none. Oral
mucosal transudate comes from the tissues of the cheek
and gum; saliva comes from the salivary glands. The
special pad is placed between the lower gum and inner
cheek and left there for two minutes.
Answer:
Explanation: Hoisting and use (including misuse and insult) of the
National Flag is regulated by the Emblems and Names
(Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950; the Prevention of
Insults to National Honour Act, 1971; and Flag Code –
India. But still right to fly an Indian Flag is not a
statutory right. Flag Code-India’ is neither a statute nor a
statutory rule or regulation. It is, in reality, a mere
consolidation of executive instructions issued by the
Government of India from time to time and contains
detailed instruction in regard to the shape, size and
colour of the National Flag, the correct display, instances
of misuse and display on National Days or special
occasions.As far as fundamental rights is concerned,
Delhi High Court had held that the right to fly the
National Flag is a fundamental right within the meaning
of Article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution and reasonable
restrictions can be imposed by law. The High Court also
held that the restrictions imposed by the Flag Code –
India had not been authorised by any law within the
meaning of clause (2) of Article 19 of the Constitution and
could not, therefore, stand in view of the earlier
decisions of the Supreme Court holding that no curbs
could be imposed on the rights of the citizens through
executive instructions. And now we discuss Fundamental
duties. In the case of Union of India v. Yashwant Sharma
it was held that though the Flag Code is not a statute,
restrictions under the Code need to be followed to
preserve the dignity of the National Flag. The right to fly
the National Flag is not an absolute right but a qualified
right and should be read having regard to Article 51A of
the Constitution. Thus statements 2 & 3 are correct
Answer:
Explanation: Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA)
authorizes the States give the Gram Sabhas power to
regulate and restrict sale/consumption of liquor;
ownership of minor forest produce; power to prevent
alienation of land and restore alienated land; power to
manage village markets, control money lending to STs
and power to manage village markets, control money
lending to STs and Mandatory executive functions to
approve plans of the Village Panchayats, identify
beneficiaries for schemes, issue certificates of utilization
of funds.
Answer:
Explanation: Kindly refer to Article 19(5)
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14
Answer:
Explanation: Reverse Mortgage Loan (RML) enables a Senior Citizen
above 60 years age in India. The idea is to avail of
periodical payments/ lump sum amount from a lender
against the mortgage of his/her house. Such a loan allows
the borrower to continue to occupy his house as long as
he lives. Unlike other loans, reverse mortgage need not
be repaid by the borrower. The maximum period of the
loan (over which the payments can be made to the
reverse mortgage borrower) is 20 years. The lender on
the other hand has to value the property periodically at
least once in five years and the quantum of loan may be
revised based on such re-valuation of property at the
discretion of the lender. On the borrower’s death or on
the borrower leaving the house property permanently,
the loan is repaid along with accumulated interest,
through sale of the house property. The borrowers or
their heirs also have the option of prepaying the loan at
any time during the loan tenor or later, without any
prepayment levy. In the usual mortgage, as the regular
mortgage payments are made the outstanding loan
decreases and the house equity increases. Reverse is the
case in reverse mortgage, the loan amount increases with
time and the home equity decreases with time.
Assertion:
Reason:
Answer:
Explanation: The first statement is correct because some sugarcane
varieties are known to be capable of fixing atmospheric
nitrogen in association with a bacterium called
Glucoacetobacter diazotrophicus. But, second statement
is incorrect because, in contrary to legumes and other
nitrogen fixing plants which form root nodules in the soil
in association with bacteria, G. diazotrophicus lives
within the intercellular spaces of the sugarcane's stem.
Please note that if you are given some options such as
Potato, Wheat, Barley and Sugarcane and asked which of
them would requires maximum amount of N, the answer
would be Sugarcane.
Answer:
Explanation: There is around 46-55% Castor Oil in Castor seeds by
weight. It is viscous, pale yellow, non-volatile liquid and
its main component is the ricinoleic acid as main fatty
acid. The high content of this acid make it suitable for
chemical reactions and that is one of the reasons that it is
used in the pharma industry. Castor cake is not edible
because of presence of toxins in Castor Cake such as
ricin, ricinine etc. and they are allergens. There have
been some studies to detoxify the Castor Cake, but
commercially, it has not been used as animal feed so far.
Thus, the first statement is incorrect. It is true that the
oil has biodiesel qualities, but below 50°C, it's viscosity is
so much that it is not as use ful as other sources. The
other problem is the Hygroscopy of this oil, and relatively
higher water content is a problem in uses as biodiesel.
Thus, second statement is also incorrect.
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15
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: When moon is at closest point to Earth during its
revolution around earth it is called Perigee. The high
tides are higher than usual and low tides are lower than
usual at this point. When moon is farthest , it is called
apogee and the high tides are lower than usual and low
tides are higher than usual at this point of time.
Answer:
Explanation: "Swadeshi Samaj" was actually an essay / lecture of
Gurudev, which came out of his frustration over the
Governments decision to split Bengal in two pieces. In
this lecture he had proposed that there should be a self
help based reorganization of Rural Bengal , than the
proposed partition. The idea was not sold to the British,
but in 1905, along with Byomkesh Mustafi, an attempt
was made to bring out a detailed blue print of this
programme which apart from other things such as
promotion of Swadeshi Arts and crafts, Gyms,
Dispensaries etc. the plan was to launch Bangla Medium
schools.
Answer:
Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak never became president of Congress.
"Democracy in India is only a top dressing on an
Indian soil which is essentially undemocratic".
Answer:
Explanation: “Democracy in India,” said Ambedkar, “is only a top
dressing on an Indian soil which is essentially
undemocratic.” Constitutional morality, he added, is to
be cultivated, since Indians have yet to learn it. Decades
after that statement, it would seem that the process of
learning is, at best, still a work in progress or, at worst,
an impossible task. And when the highest court in the
land, meant to uphold and protect the democratic spirit,
censures an academic for his utterances, it only
buttresses that pessimistic outlook.
Answer:
Explanation: 1. The first statement is incorrect because such a bill
can be introduced in any house of the parliament.
2. The second statement is correct because the bill
must have the recommendation of the President.
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163. The Third statement is also correct, however the
language is bit ambiguous. The bill is first referred to
the state in question which can express its view
within a time stipulated by the President. However,
if the state does not express its view within that time
period, the parliament has the power to enact such
legislation.
Answer:
Explanation: Bills that are not deemed as Constitution Amendment
Bills
Bills for amendment of the following provisions of the
Constitution are passed by both Houses of Parliament by
a simple majority of members present and voting
1. Admission or establishment of new States, formation
of new States, and alteration of areas, boundaries or
names of existing States (articles 2, 3 and 4)
2. Creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in the
States (article 169);
3. Administration and control of Scheduled Areas and
Scheduled Tribes (para 7 of the Fifth Schedule); and
4. Administration of Tribal Areas in the States of
Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram (para 21 of
the Sixth Schedule).
These Bills are not deemed as Constitution Amendment
Bills under article 368 of the Constitution and, therefore,
these are not called by the title ‘Constitution Amendment
Bills’. Though normal legislative procedure holds good in
respect of these Bills, Bills providing for matters in sub
paras (a) and (b) above, in addition, require respectively
the recommendation of the President for introduction
and the prior adoption of necessary resolution by the
State Legislative Assembly concerned. Such Bills are
presented to the President for his assent under article 111
of the Constitution.
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: Article 86 (1) of the Constitution provides that the
President may address either House of Parliament or
both Houses assembled together, and for that purpose
require the attendance of members. However, since the
commencement of the Constitution, the President has
not so far addressed either House or both Houses
assembled together under the provision of this article.
Article 87 (1) of the Constitution provides that at the
commencement of the first session after each general
election to the House of the People and at the
commencement of the first session of each year the
President shall address both Houses of Parliament
assembled together and inform Parliament of the causes
of its summons.
Contents of the Address
Being a statement of Policy of the Government, the
Address is drafted by the Government who are
responsible for its contents. It contains a review of the
activities and achievements of the Government during
the previous year and sets out the policies which it
wishes to pursue with regard to important internal and
international problems. It also indicates the main items
of legislative business which are proposed to be brought
during the session to be held in that year.
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17
Answer:
Explanation: The West Bengal government’s demand for a three year
moratorium on interest payment of loans has been kept
pending by the central government. The question is
based upon facts around that.
Answer:
Explanation: 1. Gilt funds are mutual funds that predominantly
invest in government securities (G-Secs).
2. G-Secs are securities issued by the Reserve Bank of
India on behalf of the Government of India.
3. Being sovereign paper, they do not expose investors
to credit risk. But it does not mean that there is no
risk at all. Investments in gilt funds are vulnerable to
interest rate risks. When interest rates rise, prices of
government securities fall; this in turn has an
adverse impact on the performance of gilt funds
4. Since the market for G-Secs is largely dominated by
institutional investors, gilt funds offer retail
investors a convenient means to invest in G-Secs.
Answer:
Explanation: This is a bit tricky question. In simple words, creation of
money means expansion of money supply in the system.
Government may ask RBI to issue new money into the
economy and follow the expansionary monetary stance
to create money. Thus options 2 & 3 are correct. The new
money by RBI can be used by other commercial banks in
the saving/ or credit creation. This means there is
expansion of the broad money (cash + demand deposits)
in the economy.
Answer:
Explanation: Primary deficit is the gross deficit which is obtained by
subtracting interest payments from budget deficit of any
country of a particular year. We need to know the value
of primary deficit, while calculating the fiscal deficit.
Alternative Definition of Primary Deficit
Primary deficit corresponds to the net borrowing, which
is required to meet the expenditure excluding the
interest payment.
Primary Deficit = (Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment)
Answer:
Explanation: In his presidential address at the 51st Sessions of the
Indian National Congress held at Haripura in February
1938, Subhas Chandra Bose spelt out his ideas about
economic planning and industrialisation of Free India,
"The very first thing which our future National
Government will have to do, would be to set up a
Commission for drawing up a comprehensive plan of
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18reconstruction." Bose wanted that on the advise of the
National Planning Commission, State would adopt a
comprehensive scheme for gradually socializing our
entire agricultural and industrial system in the spheres
of both production and distribution. He also spoke about
abolition of landlordism and liquidation of agricultural
indebtedness. Subhas Chandra Bose constituted a
Planning Committee under the Chairmanship of
Jawaharlal Nehru for rapid industrialisation of India on
modern lines in consideration of the latter's close
relationship with Mahatma Gandhi, who was not in
favour of Industrialisation Programme
Answer:
Explanation: Apart from Surya, Aditi , Savitri, one more name of the
sun it is necessarily to mention. Vishnu, which in later
Hindu mythology has become a name of the Supreme
Preserver of all beings, was a name of the sun in the
Vedic age. The rising sun, the sun at zenith, and the
setting sun were considered the three steps of Vishnu
striding across limitless space. (R C Datt)
Answer:
Explanation: There was an essential difference between the Hindu
gods of the Vedic age and the Greek gods of the Homeric
age. The Hindu conceptions go nearer to the original
Nature-worship of the primitive Aryans, even as the
Sanskrit language is nearer and closer than the Greek to
the original Aryan tongue. Among the Greeks of the
Homeric age, the gods and goddesses have already
attained a marked individuality ; their history, their
character, their deeds, engage our attention ; their
connection with the powers and manifestations of
Nature almost escapes us. The Hindu gods of the Vedic
age, on the contrary, are obviously still Nature's powers
and manifestations ; they have scarcely any other
character or history. We can more clearly identify Dyu
with the sky than Zeus, and Ahand and Dahand are more
obviously and manifestly the Dawn than Athena and
Daphne. The Hindu conceptions are more ancient, more
archaic, more true to their original sources. The Greek
conceptions are more developed, and have passed farther
from the domain of Nature-worship to that of
Polytheism. (RC Datta)
Answer:
Explanation: The idea of a Universal Soul, of an All-pervading Breath,
is the keystone of the philosophy and thought of the
Upanishads. This idea is somewhat different from
monotheism, as it has been generally understood by
other nations. The monotheism of other nations
recognizes a God and Creator as distinct from the created
beings, but the monotheism of the Upanishads, which has
been the monotheism of the Hindus ever since,
recognizes God as the Universal Being;— all things have
emanated from him, are a part of him, and will resolve
themselves into him.
Answer:
Explanation: In 1787, Warren Hastings was impeached in the
Parliament by Edmund Burke and the Whigs for his
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19administrative excess. Burke brought forward 22 charges
against him. The most important of them were related to
the Rohilla War, the Case of Nanda Kumar, the treatment
of Raja Chait Singh of Benares and the pressures on the
Begums of Oudh. After a long trail which lasted till 1795,
Warren Hastings was completely acquitted. He received
pension from the Company and lived till 1818. Nanda
Kumar was an influential official in Bengal. He was
hanged to death by the verdict of the Supreme Court at
Calcutta for a petty offence of forgery. The English law
was applied in this judgement. It was contended that
Warren Hastings and Sir Elija Impey, the judge of the
Supreme Court conspired against Nanda Kumar. Warren
Hastings imposed heavy penalty on the Raja Chait Singh
of Benares for his delay in payment of tribute and
deposed him in an unjust manner.
Answer:
Explanation: The biggest disadvantage is that the mapping is
carried out on a few individual's genome, and is not
representative of all humans. It doesn't answer
questions about where the coding of a gene starts
and ends, nor does it answer questions about
regulation of that gene.
The Advantages of Human Genome Project are:
1. Provide new avenues for advances in medicine and
biotechnology, mainly by offering easy ways to
administer genetic tests that can show
predisposition to a variety of illnesses, including
breast cancer, hemostasis disorders, cystic fibrosis,
liver diseases and many others.
2. Providing reference data for biological scientists.
3. Better understanding of molecular biology
4. Knowledge of the effects of variation of DNA among
individuals can revolutionize the ways to diagnose,
treat and even prevent a number of diseases that
affects the human beings.
5. It provides clues to the understanding of human
evolution.
Answer:
Explanation: Kindly note that the Representation of the People Act
1951 provided that in order to be elected as a member of
Rajya Sabha from a state, the candidate must be
ordinarily a resident of the state. But this qualification
was deleted in 2003. Prior to this, the election of the
Rajya Sabha member was by a secret ballot, but now it
was made open ballot. The act was challenged in the
Supreme Court and Supreme Court upheld the act. The
grounds on which honourable SC upheld the case are as
follows:
1. It is NO part of the federal principle that the
representatives of the state must belong to states.
2. The residence was not a constitutional requirement.
3. Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of
the states. Rajya Sabha is a national Institution.
4. Members of Rajya Sabha don't vote at the dictates of
the State concerned.
5. The principle of secrecy is not an absolute principle.
Members sit for six-year terms, with one third of the
members retiring every two years
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20
Answer:
Explanation: Idolatry was nowhere among Aryans as well as Dasyus.
The second statement is correct, here is a snippet from
RC Datt. It will be seen from hymns like these that the
natural feeling of hostility between the A'rya or Aryan
conquerors and the Dasyu aborigines was further
embittered by difference in religion and religious rites.
The Aryan believed in the "bright gods" of Nature,
in the sky, the sun, the fire, and the storms ; he sacrificed
to them daily, and wherever he conquered, he carried
with him his worship of Nature's deities and his cherished
sacrificial rites. The dark-skinned Dasyu of the Punjab
believed in no such gods, and performed no sacrifices,
and this impiety and irreligion brought death and
destruction on him, according to the belief of the
sacrificing Hindu. Again and again the Hindu appealed to
his martial deity, and confidently invoked his aid against
men who were without faith and without rites.
Answer:
Explanation: Aplastic anaemia is a condition where bone marrow does
not produce sufficient new cells to replenish blood cells.
The condition, per its name, involves both aplasia and
anaemia. Typically, anaemia refers to low red blood cell
counts, but aplastic anaemia patients have lower counts
of all three blood cell types: red blood cells, white blood
cells, and platelets, termed pancytopenia. Sickle-cell
disease (SCD), or sickle-cell anaemia (or anaemia, SCA) or
drepanocytosis, is an autosomal recessive genetic blood
disorder with overdominance, characterized by red blood
cells that assume an abnormal, rigid, sickle shape.
Sickling decreases the cells' flexibility and results in a
risk of various complications. The sickling occurs because
of a mutation in the haemoglobin gene.
Answer:
Explanation:
Answer:
Explanation: The second statement is not correct. India’s total fertility
rate (TFR) — the average number of children expected to
be born per woman during her reproductive years — has
fallen by19% over the past decade. Among bigger states,
the percentage decline in TFR during this period the last
decade varied from as high as 28% in Punjab to 5.6%in
Kerala. Maharashtra saw the second highest dip in TFR
between 2000-2010 at 26.9%, followed by Haryana and
Andhra Pradesh (25%), Uttar Pradesh (23%), Rajasthan
(22%), Himachal Pradesh and West Bengal (21%).
The TFR is a synthetic rate, not based on the fertility of
any real group of women since this would involve
waiting until they had completed childbearing. Nor is it
based on counting up the total number of children
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21actually born over their lifetime. Instead, the TFR is
based on the age-specific fertility rates of women in their
"child-bearing years," which in conventional
international statistical usage is ages 15–44 or 15-49. The
TFR is, therefore, a measure of the fertility of an
imaginary woman who passes through her reproductive
life subject to all the age-specific fertility rates for ages
15–49 that were recorded for a given population in a
given year. The TFR represents the average number of
children a woman would have were she to fast-forward
through all her childbearing years in a single year, under
all the age-specific fertility rates for that year. In other
words, this rate is the number of children a woman would
have if she was subject to prevailing fertility rates at all
ages from a single given year, and survives throughout
all her childbearing years.
The third statement is also correct. According to the
National Population Policy 2000, India should have
reached there placement-level fertility rate of 2.1 by 2010,
and ought to attain population stabilization at 145 crore
by 2045. Population stabilization is when the size of the
population remains unchanged. It is also called the stage
of zeropopulation growth. However, India now expects to
reach the population stabilization TFR of 2.1 at 165 crore
by 2060.
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: The second statement is not correct. In 2011-12, the
productivity of Bt cotton is 485 kg lint per ha; it was 560
kg lint per ha in 2007.
Answer:
Explanation: 1. The committee found that indigenous Bikaneri
Nerma (BN) Bt cotton variety was contaminated by a
gene patented by Monsanto.
2. The committee found lapse in the “BNLA106 event”,
and said that the material contained Monsanto’s
“MON531 event” (contamination)
Answer:
Explanation: An increase in wages pushes up input costs for industry,
and also the demand for products and services by
increasing disposable incomes. As a result, prices rise.
This, in turn, triggers demand for further increase in
wages. This cycle of higher wages, higher prices is
referred to as wage-price spiral. The cycle is one possible
result of inflation. It can start either due to high
aggregate demand combined with near full employment
or due to supply shocks, such as an oil price hike.
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22
Answer:
Explanation: East India Company’s rule came to an end and the Indian
administration came under the direct control of the
Crown. In England, the Court of Directors and Board of
Control were abolished. In their place came the Secretary
of State for India and India Council were established. The
Secretary of State would be a member of the British
cabinet. Sir Charles Wood was made the first Secretary of
State for India. India Council consisting of 15 members
would assist him. The Governor General of India was also
made the Viceroy of India. The first Viceroy of India was
Lord Canning. All the previous treaties were accepted
and honoured by the Act.
Answer:
Explanation: There were no unhealthy restrictions upon Hindu women
in those days, no rules to keep them secluded or debarred
from their legitimate place in society. A girl generally
selected her own husband, but her parents'
wishes were for the most part respected. We have
frequent allusions to careful and industrious wives who
superintended the arrangements of the house, and, like
the dawn, roused every one in the morning and sent him
to his work. Girls who remained unmarried obtained a
share in the paternal property. Widows could re-marry
after the death of their husbands. (RC Datt)
Answer:
Explanation: Burial was probably the first form of funeral ceremony
among ancient Hindus ; but this was soon followed by
cremation, and the ashes were then buried in the earth. It
is remarkable that there is no mention of a hell and its
tortures in the Rig Veda.
Answer:
Explanation: Both NFC and Bluetooth are short-range high frequency
wireless technologies but Bluetooth allows interaction
between communication devices as much as 10 meters
apart.
Answer:
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23Explanation: 1. The orbit of the Moon is distinctly elliptical with an
average eccentricity of 0.0549.
2. The non-circular form of the lunar orbit causes
variations in the Moon's angular speed and apparent
size as it moves towards and away from an observer
on Earth.
3. The Moon's orbit is indeed getting larger, at a rate of
about 3.8 centimetres per year. (The Moon's orbit has
a radius of 384,000 km.)
Answer:
Explanation: 1. The first statement is incorrect because its an
instrument of legislative control.
2. The second statement is incorrect because the
committee makes sure that the government fulfils
the promises made in the house itself.
Answer:
Explanation: Though, both these reptiles belong to same order
Crocodilia, alligators are classified under Alligatoridae
family, whereas crocodiles are members of the
Crocodylidae family. In regards to the habitat
comparison of alligators and crocodiles, both spend their
life in and near water bodies and lay their eggs on land.
But the difference is alligators prefer a freshwater
habitat, while crocodiles prefer to live in brackish water
or saltwater. Alligators have a broader 'U' shaped snout,
whereas the snout shape of crocodiles is narrow and form
a V towards the end.The tooth placement is also a
distinguishing feature to demarcate alligators and
crocodiles. The jaw placement of an alligator is such that
the upper jaw is wider and covers the lower jaw
completely. In case of a crocodile, the width of the upper
and lower jaw are the same, hence, the teeth in the lower
jaw become apparent after the mouth is closed.Dermal
Pressure Receptors (DPRs) are small, black, sensory pits
that help in detecting changes in the water pressure.
Both in alligators and crocodiles, DPRs serve as an
important organ for locating their prey. In alligators,
DPRs are present only around the jaw, whereas in
crocodiles, these sensory organs are present in nearly
every scale of the body. Both alligators and crocodiles
have structurally modified salivary glands (salt glands) in
the tongue. The crocodiles use these salt glands for
excreting excess salt from the body, whereas in
alligators, these salt glands are non functional. This is the
reason as to why, a crocodile can tolerate saline water,
whereas an alligator cannot.
Answer:
Explanation: SDSL (Symmetric Digital Subscriber Line) and ADSL. The
difference comes when we use the word ADSL, which
means that data is sent and received at different speeds.
It means that your modem sends data to your service
provider at one speed and the downstream data, the data
that you receive from the service provider is at a
different speed. Hence, the word asymmetric has its
significance in ADSL. The service in general is tiered,
hence you pay different rates for different speeds.
MMoocckk TTeesstt SSeerriieess 22001133 Mock Test 7/15
Civil Services Examination 2013
TTaarrggeett 22001133 www.gktoday.in
GKToday’s Reader Supported Email Assistance Programme for General Studies Papers of Civil Services Examinations | [email protected] | © 2013 Suresh Soni | All Rights Reserved
24So basically, there is no real difference between DSL and
ADSL, one is a type of the other. Most of the time when
we use the word DSL, we generally refer to ADSL
modems, but in certain cases, it can refer to SDSL
modems. The difference between the two is that an ADSL
modem can send and receive data at different speeds
while a SDSL modem can send and receive data using one
speed only.
The second statement is not correct.
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: 1. Washing Soda Na2CO3, Baking Soda NaHCO3, so
first statement is correct
2. Primarily, washing soda is a stronger base than
baking soda and it has been found that in several
cases it is even caustic. That's why baker's don't
prefer washing soda for baking, instead their normal
choice is baking soda. The pH level of washing soda is
11 which is much more inclined towards the alkaline
side of pH scale. It is to be noted that a pH level of 7
is considered neutral and any pH level above 7 is
regarded as basic. A pH level below 7 highlights the
acidic nature of the substance. So second statement
is correct.
3. However, while baking soda easily dissolves in water,
sometimes even before its molecules are able to
remove the stains, the same is not at all true for
washing soda. The high alkalinity of washing soda
makes it an ideal stain remover for tough fabrics and
clothes. Any soft fabric or clothes coming in direct
contact with washing soda may cause it to cause
some harm to the clothes, like discoloration, etc.
Third statement is incorrect
Answer:
Explanation: Chemical fertilizers kill the micro-organisms in the soil. It
is one of the advantages of organic fertilizers that they
boost microbial activity in the soil. These microbes help
in degenerating the complex compounds present in the
organic fertilizers. Overuse of fertilizers is often a
problem as excess nutrients are neither good for the
overall composition of soil nor are they good for the
plant. Organic fertilizers would also have a problem of
overuse, but it is a slow nutrient releasing material, so
the nutrients will anyway take some time to get
absorbed. The statement mentioned in the question
stands incorrect. Organic fertilizers may take more time
to release the nutrients as they need some microbial
activity to get them working. Chemical fertilizers get
cracking instantly and release the essential nutrients
into the soil. So statement 3 also stands incorrect.
MMoocckk TTeesstt SSeerriieess 22001133 Mock Test 7/15
Civil Services Examination 2013
TTaarrggeett 22001133 www.gktoday.in
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25
Answer:
Answer:
Explanation: RFID tags are very simple to install/inject inside the body
of animals, thus helping to keep a track on them. This is
useful in animal husbandry and on poultry farms. The
installed RFID tags give information about the age,
vaccinations and health of the animals. So statement 1 is
correct. Statement 2 & 3 are incorrect. It is difficult for an
RFID reader to read the information in case of RFID tags
installed in liquids and metal products. The problem is
that the liquid and metal surfaces tend to reflect the
radio waves, which makes the tags unreadable. The tags
have to be placed in various alignments and angles for
taking proper reading. This is a tedious task when the
work involves big firms. Interference has been observed
if devices such as forklifts and walkie-talkies are in the
vicinity of the distribution centers. The presence of
mobile phone towers has been found to interfere with
RFID radio waves. Wal-Mart, the retail sector giant, has
installed billions of RFID tags in their products
throughout the world and they have encountered such
problems.
Answer:
Explanation: The initial cost is very high. Means the installing costs
can get costly, usually due to the high-cost
semiconductor materials, which are used to build a solar
energy system. Solar electricity is presently costlier than
the electricity given by other sources. Naturally as
energy shortages are becoming common day-by-day,
solar energy is thus becoming more price-competitive.
Kindly also note that a Considerable amount of energy is
lost when DC (direct current) has to be converted to AC
(alternating current). The solar cells can only produce DC,
thus the conversion by help of Grid-Tie Inverters incurs a
loss of about 4-12%.
Answer:
Explanation: Expropriation is motivated and forceful confiscation and
redistribution of private property, where government
can take control of a firm's property and assets, if it feels
that the enterprise is a threat to national security