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[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. If taking Force, Length and Time to be the
fundamental quantities, then dimension of density is
(1) [ F–1 L–4 T2 ] (2) [ F L–4 T2 ]
(3) [ F2 L–4 T ] (4) [ F L3 T–2 ]
2. If the length and radius of cylindrical wire is
measured with vernier callipers are found to be
4.54 cm and 1.25 cm respectively, then the volume
of cylinder is
(1) 22.3 cm3 (2) 22.27 cm3
(3) 22 cm3 (4) 22.274 cm3
3. The momentum of a particle is given by
ˆ ˆ( sin cos )= ω + ω�
P a t i a t j then
(1) Momentum is perpendicular to force
(2) Momentum is parallel to force
(3) Angle between momentum and force is 60°
(4) Momentum is antiparallel to force
4. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with speed
100 m/s at a height of 2 km from ground. The
aeroplane when at point A drops a bomb to hit a
point B on the ground, the time taken by bomb to
reach from A to B is
(1) 10 s (2) 40 s
(3) 15 s (4) 20 s
5. L be the length of a chain, what is the maximum
length of the chain which can be held outside a
table without sliding? [where coefficient of friction
between chain and table is 1
2]
(1)3
L(2)
5
L
(3)2
3
L(4)
2
L
6. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle
of radius r, under a force equal to 2
k
r, where k is
constant, total energy of particle is
(1) –
k
r(2) –
2
k
r
(3)2
k
r(4)
k
r
7. If a light moving particle strikes a heavy target at
rest and sticks to it, then, which is true for particle?
(1) All the KE is lost (2) Half the KE is lost
(3) One third KE is lost (4) KE does not change
8. If two identical bodies move towards each other with
speeds 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively, then
distance travelled by their centre of mass in interval
of 4 s is
(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 20 m
Time : 3:30 Hrs. MM : 200CBT - 02
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9. A rod AB of mass M and length L is lying on a
smooth horizontal surface. A particle of mass m
strikes to end A elastically with speed v0 in a
direction perpendicular to AB. After collision if
particle comes to rest, then the distance of point
from B which is in rest just after the collision is
(1)3
L(2)
2
3
L
(3)4
L(4)
3
4
L
10. A disc is rotating with angular speed ω. If a child sits
gently on it, then angular momentum of system
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains constant
(4) Is zero
11. If a planet of mass m is revolving around Sun of
mass M in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a
then the total mechanical energy of planet is
(1) –GMm
a(2)
2–
GmM
a
(3) –2
GMm
a(4)
3–
GMm
a
12. A body is projected from surface of earth with speed
2gR where R is radius of Earth and g is
acceleration due to gravity then total energy of body
is
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) May be positive or negative
13. The pressure of water in a water pipe when the tap
is closed and opened are respectively
2.5 × 105 N/m2 and 2 × 105 N/m2. The velocity of
water flowing through the pipe when tap is opened is
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
14. A vessel contains oil of density ρ1 over mercury of
density ρ2. A homogeneous sphere floats with half
its volume immersed in mercury and other half in oil.
The density of material of sphere is
(1) (ρ1 + ρ
2)
(2) (ρ1 – ρ
2)
(3)1 2
( )
2
ρ + ρ
(4)1 2
( – )
2
ρ ρ
15. Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height
of 25 m. The ratio of the cross-section area of the
orifice and the beaker is 0.1. Speed of liquid coming
from orifice if it is at 5 m from bottom is
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 20 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 30 m/s
16. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between
x = –A and x = +A. The time taken for it to go from
0 to 2
A is T
1 and 0 to A is T
2, then
(1) T1 = 4T
2
(2) T1 = 3T
2
(3) T2 = 3T
1
(4) T2 = 4T
1
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17. If a metal object is heated to temperature T1 and
then allowed to cool in a room which is at T0, then
the variation between temperature (T) and time (t) is
(1)T
0
t
T
T1
(2)T
0
t
T
T1
(3)
T0
t
T
T1
(4)T
0
t
T
T1
18. Two moles of a monoatomic gas are mixed with two
moles of a diatomic gas, the value of p
v
C
C for the
mixture is
(1) 1.42 (2) 1.5
(3) 3.4 (4) 2.5
19.28
litre5
of argon gas at STP is adiabatically
compressed to 7
litre10
. Taking the initial
temperature T1, work done in this process is
(1) 1
9
8RT (2) 1
1
8RT
(3) 1
3
4RT (4) 1
9
2RT
20. P-V diagram for monoatomic gas is shown in
diagram. The amount of heat absorbed by the
source in a single cycle is
A
B C
DP0
2P0
V0 2V
0
V
P
(1) P0V
0(2) 0 0
11
2PV
(3) 0 0
13
2PV (4)
0 0
4
PV
21. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at
one end resonates with minimum frequency 80 Hz.
If end correction is neglected then length of pipe is
(1) 100 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 200 cm (4) 300 cm
22. A source of frequency f approaches to a stationary
observer at a speed of v. The frequency and
wavelength observed by observer respectively
(1) Increase, decrease
(2) Decrease, increase
(3) Increase, increase
(4) Increase, constant
23. If the sound level at a point 5 m away from a point
source is 40 dB. Then sound level at a point 50 m
away from the source is
(1) 20 dB
(2) 10 dB
(3) 80 dB
(4) 90 dB
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24. Three charges Q, 4e and 4e are placed at vertex of
a right angle isosceles triangle. If Q is placed at
vertex other than right angle, then value of Q for zero
electrostatic potential energy of system is
(1)–4 2
( 2 1)
e
+ (2)–4
(2 2)
e
+
(3)–4
1 2
e
+(4) –4e
25. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to V volt
battery, after full charging it is disconnected and
reconnected with battery in reverse polarity. Heat lost
in connecting wires is
(1) CV 2 (2) 2CV2
(3)21
2CV (4) 4CV2
26. In the following circuit, the potential drop across the
resistance R2, just after switch S is closed is
C
V
S
R1
R2
(1) 2
1
VR
R× (2) 1
2
VR
R×
(3) Zero (4) 2
1 2( )
VR
R R×
+
27. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a
current I, it is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0
such that B0 is perpendicular to the plane of the
loop. The tension produced in the loop is
(1) IrB0
(2) 2IrB0
(3)0
2
IrB(4) Zero
28. Coercivity of a ferromagnetic material in the core of
solenoid is 3 × 103 Am–1. The current required to be
passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and 100 number
of turns so that material gets demagnetised is
(1) 30 A (2) 3 A
(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.03 A
29. If semicircular conducting ring is entering in
perpendicular magnetic field then the direction of
induced current is
O
R
ω B
(1) First anticlockwise then clockwise
(2) Clockwise
(3) Zero current
(4) First clockwise then anticlockwise
30. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an
uniform magnetic field B directed along positive
z-axis. The direction of induced current as seen from
z-axis will be
(1) Clockwise of the positive z-axis
(2) Anticlockwise of the positive z-axis
(3) No current is induced
(4) Along magnetic field
31. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy required to
remove an electron from ground state of singly
ionized He atom is
(1) 1.51 eV (2) 54.4 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 6.8 eV
32. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron
emitted from a surface when photons of energy
8 eV falls on it is, 2 eV. The stopping potential is
(1) 6 V (2) 4 V
(3) 2 V (4) 8 V
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33. The electron is emitted from nucleus in beta radiation
when
(1) Proton is converted into neutron
(2) Neutron is converted into proton
(3) Neutrino is converted into antineutrino
(4) Antineutrino is converted into neutrino
34. During a nuclear fusion reaction
(1) A heavy nucleus breaks in two fragments by
itself
(2) A light nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons
breaks up
(3) Heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutron
breaks up
(4) Two light nuclei combine to give a heavier
nucleus and possibly other products
35. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV
and that for C13 is 7.5 MeV. The energy required to
remove a neutron from C13 is
(1) 0.28 MeV (2) 9.3 MeV
(3) 5.34 MeV (4) 6.32 MeV
36. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge
carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n
junctions are
(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse biasing
(4) Drift in both forward and reverse biasing
37. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The
magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 1.5.
Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their
individual focal length (in cm)?
(1) 90, –60 (2) 15, –10
(3) 50, –75 (4) 75, –50
38. In a compound microscope the focal length of two
lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm. An object is placed
at 2 cm from objective lens and final image is at
25 cm from eyepiece. The magnification is
(1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 12 (4) 7.5
39. The wavelength of light used in YDSE is λ. If
intensity of central maxima is I0, then intensity at
point where the path difference is 6
λ
(1)0
3
4
I(2)
0
2
I
(3) I0
(4) 2I0
40. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism
such that ray suffers minimum deviation and angle of
emergence is 3
4th of angle of prism. The angle of
deviation is
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 45° (4) 90°
In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are falsestatements, then mark (4).
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41. A : Angle and strain are dimensionless.
R : Angle has unit and strain has no unit.
42. A : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity
is zero at an instant.
R : A body is at momentary rest when it reverses
its direction of motion.
43. A : The shaft of motors are provided with ball
bearings.
R : The rolling friction is lesser than sliding friction.
44. A : Work done by a force may be different in
different frame of references.
R : Work is an invariant physical quantity.
45. A : A shell at rest explodes, the centre of mass of
fragments move along a straight line.
R : In explosion linear momentum of system is not
conserved.
46. A : Gravitational potential on a planet may be
negative, positive and zero.
R : Gravitational potential at a point may depend
upon reference point.
47. A : The velocity of water increases when it is flowing
in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe.
R : According to equation of continuity, product of
area and velocity is constant.
48. A : Blue star is at high temperature than red star.
R : According to Wein’s displacement law λm
T = constant, λm
= wavelength corresponding to
maximum intensity, T = temperature.
49. A : When the temperature of a black body is
doubled from T K to 2T K, the radial power
becomes 16 times.
R : The radiant power of a body is proportional to
fourth power of absolute temperature.
50. A : The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum in non
viscous medium remains same with time.
R : The frequency of oscillation decreases with time.
51. A : The potential of grounded conducting body is
taken to be zero.
R : Capacitance of Earth is very large.
52. A : When the plates of a charged capacitor are
connected to a resistor, a current starts flowing
in the resistor.
R : A charged capacitor acts as a battery of steady
emf.
53. A : Magnetic field will be tangential to magnetic field
line.
R : Magnitude of magnetic field is inversely
proportional to area by which field lines are
passing.
54. A : EM waves are transverse in nature.
R : EM waves exert radiation pressure.
55. A : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and
sunset during day.
R : The ray deviates after refraction by Earth’s
atmosphere.
56. A : A single lens cannot be free from chromatic
aberration.
R : When white light passes through lens,
dispersion must occur.
57. A : Polarisation of light is sure indication of
transverse nature of light.
R : Diffraction is a sure indication of wave nature.
58. A : A photoelectric effect can take place only with
an electron bound in the lattice.
R : Photoelectric effect confirms particle nature of
light.
59. A : Wavelength of Lyman series is less than that of
Balmer series.
R : In hydrogen spectrum Balmer series belongs to
visible spectrum.
60. A : A nucleus contains no electron, but can eject
them.
R : γ-rays are emitted by the excited nuclei.
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[ CHEMISTRY ]
61. Hybridisation of central atom in SF4 molecule is
(1) sp3d (2) dsp3
(3) sp3 (4) d2sp3
62. The oxidation number of oxygen in CsO2 molecule is
(1) –2 (2) –1
(3)1
–2
(4) +1
63. According to IUPAC nomenclature, ‘Alkoxycarbonyl’
is a prefix used for
(1) Ethers (2) Esters
(3) Acid halides (4) Amides
64. Which of the following sets of axial angles and edge
lengths represent minimum number in Bravais
lattices?
(1) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b = c
(2) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b ≠ c
(3) α = β = γ = 90° and a ≠ b ≠ c
(4) α = β = γ ≠ 90° and a = b = c
65. The physical process involved in chromatography is
(1) Distillation (2) Sublimation
(3) Adsorption (4) Liquation
66. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
(1) β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose
(2) α-D-galactose and α-D-glucose
(3) α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose
(4) β-D-galactose and α-D-glucose
67. The rate of reaction A ⎯→ B, is 5.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1.
The time in which the concentration of reactants changed
from 0.04 mol L–1 to 0.03 mol L–1 is
(1) 0.2 s (2) 2.0 s
(3) 0.8 s (4) 1.3 s
68. Which of the following reactions has Kp = K
c?
(1)5 3 2
PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g)+���⇀↽���
(2)3 2 2
2NH (g) N (g) 3H (g)+���⇀↽���
(3)2 2
H (g) CI (g) 2HCI(g)+ ���⇀↽���
(4) 2 2 2
1H (g) O (g) H O(l)
2+ ���⇀
↽���
69. The geometry around boron atom in boric acid is
(1) Trigonal planar
(2) Tetrahedral
(3) Pyramidal
(4) Linear
70. Total number of optically active compound(s) formed
in the given reaction is
CH3
HPh
HO
3
(i) HCN/OH
(ii) H O
−
+⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
71. For the estimation of nitrogen, 7 g of an organic
compound was digested by Kjeldhahl’s method and
the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 200 ml of M
20
sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 100 ml
of M
10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization.
The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(1) 2% (2) 6%
(3) 5% (4) 10%
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72. Relative percentage yields of (A) and (B),
respectively in the following reaction are expected to
be
H C – CH – CH3 3
CH3
+ Cl2
hνH C – C – CH
3 3
CH3
Cl
(A)
+
H C – CH – CH – Cl3 2
CH3
(B)
(1) 50%, 50% (2) 64.29%, 35.71%
(3) 35.71%, 64.29% (4) 40%, 60%
73. The E° value of cell reaction will be
2 2 3Fe (aq) Cu (aq) Fe (aq) Cu (aq)+ + + ++ ⎯⎯→ +
[Given, 2 3 2
o o
Cu |Cu Fe |FeE a volt, E b volt+ + + += = ]
(1) b – a (2) a – b
(3) a + b (4) –(a + b)
74. Which of the following elements has the least
tendency to form ionic compounds?
(1) Be (2) Ca
(3) K (4) Na
75. Identify the paramagnetic species among the
following
(1) K4[Fe(CN)
6] (2) [Ni(CO)
4]
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) [NiCl
4]2–
76. R3SiCl on hydrolysis followed by heating forms
(1) R3SiOH (2) R
3SiOSiR
3
(3) R2SiO (4) Si(OR)
4
77. Out of the following, which forms buffer on mixing?
(1) 20 ml of 0.5 M CH3COOH and 50 ml of 0.2 M
NaOH
(2) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH and 100 ml of 0.1 M
KOH
(3) 75 ml of 0.1 M NaOH and 150 ml of 0.1 M
CH3COOH
(4) 50 ml of 0.2 M KOH and 10 ml of 0.5 M
HCOOH
78. Number of electrons, protons and neutrons,
respectively in phosphate anion are
(1) 50, 47 & 48 (2) 47, 48 & 50
(3) 42, 41 & 40 (4) 40, 41 & 42
79. If the value of l indicates a subshell, then maximum
number of electrons that can be accommodated in
any subshell is given by
(1) 4l – 2 (2) 4l + 2
(3) 2l + 2 (4) 2l – 2
80. The correct stability order of the following carbanions is
CH – CH3 2
(I)
H C = CH – CH2 2
(II)
C H C6 5
H2
(III)
HC C≡(IV)
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) I < IV < II < III
(3) IV > III > II > I (4) II < I < III < IV
81. H C – CH – CH = CH3 2
CH3
H /H O+
2 A (major)
B H /THF2 3
H O /OH2 2
B
Hg(OCOCH )/H O3 2
NaBH4
C
The correct statement regarding above reactions is
(1) Products A and B are same
(2) Products B and C are same
(3) Products C and A are same
(4) Products A, B and C are isomers
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82. Most volatile substance among the following is
(1) CH3 – CH
2 – CH
2 – NH
2
(2) (CH3)3N
(3) (C2H
5)2NH
(4) CH3
– CH2 – CH
2 – OH
83.Sn/HCl
3(Major )
CH Cl AgCN A B+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Sn/HCl
3(Major )
CH Cl NaCN C D+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Sn/HCl
3 2 3CH NH CHCl KOH E F+ + ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Select the incorrect option regarding above reaction
sequences
(1) B & F are identical
(2) D and F are identical
(3) D & F are functional isomers
(4) B & D are functional isomers
84. Wavelength of second line in the Brackett series of
hydrogen spectrum is
(1)H
144 R
5(2)
H5 R
144
(3)H
11
15R(4)
H
144
5 R
85. Which of the following is the correct ratio of root
mean square speed to average speed of a gas
molecule at a particular temperature?
(1) 1.086 : 1
(2) 3.946 : 3
(3) 1 : 1.086
(4) 1.086 : 2
86. The number of dichlorobutane isomers (structural
only) which can be formed by the reaction of
CH3CH
2CH
2CH
3 with Cl
2/hν is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
87. An ester (A) with molecular formula C9H
10O
2 was
treated with excess of CH3MgBr and the complex
so formed was treated with H2SO
4 and heated to
give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone
with molecular formula C8H
8O which shows positive
iodoform test. The structure of (A) is
(1) C2H
5COOC
6H
5
(2) C6H
5COOC
2H
5
(3)
COCH3
OCH3
(4) H C – O – CH – C – C H3 2 6 5
O
88. In the given reaction sequence product ‘C’ is
OCH OH
2
5 6 5PCl C H OHMg
etherA B CΔ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(1)O
CH2
O
(2) C6H
5OCH
3
(3)
OOCH
3
(4)
OCH
3
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89. Match the complexes given in column I with the
hybridisation and primary valency in column II and
assign the correct code.
Column I Column II
a. [Cr(H2O)
6]Cl
3(i) sp3d2, 2
b. [Co(NH3)6]Br
3(ii) sp3d2, 3
c. [Ni(NH3)6]Cl
2(iii) d2sp3, 3
d. K3[FeF
6] (iv) d2sp3, 2
(1) a(iii), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
90. A black compound of manganese reacts with a
halogen acid (Y) to give greenish yellow gas (X).
When excess of (X) is reacted with NH3 gas then Y
and Z compounds are formed. The species X, Y and
Z respectively are
(1) MnCl2, HCl and Cl
2(2) Cl
2, HCl and NCl
3
(3) HCl, Cl2
and NCl3
(4) F2, HF and NF
3
91. In one solid substance A atoms are at corners, B
atoms are at face centres, C atoms are at
octahedral voids and D atoms are at tetrahedral
voids in a cube. If atoms touching one body diagonal
plane is removed then what is the formula of the
compound?
(1) AB3C
4D
8(2) AB
6C
5D
8
(3) AB4C
5D
8(4) AB
4C
6D
8
92. Metal rod M is dipped in 0.2 M solution of MSO4.
The salt is 80% dissociated at this dilution at
298 K. The reduction electrode potential of metal will
be 2
0
M | M(E –0.7 V)+ =
(1) –0.6765 V
(2) +0.6765 V
(3) +0.7235 V
(4) –0.7235 V
93. IUPAC name of the following compound is
H C–CH –CH –CH–CH–CH –3 2 2 2
CH –CH –CH 2 2 3
CH2
H C–C–CH3 3
CH3
CH3
H C–C–CH3 3
CH2
(1) Bis-4,5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)nonane
(2) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)-4-
propylnonane
(3) 4,5-Dineopentyldecane
(4) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(3′,3′-dimethylpropyl)nonane
94. In the given compound
H C – C – C = CH – CH – CH – CH3 3
H
H – CH2
H H
H(i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(v)
The correct order of reactivity of H atoms towards
free radical substitution is
(1) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (v) > (iii)
(2) (ii) > (i) > (v) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) (v) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)
(4) (ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)
95. Equal volumes of two strong acids having pH = 4
and pH = 6 are mixed. How much volume of this
mixture is required to neutralise the 100 ml 0.2 N
NaOH solution?
(1) 3.96 litre (2) 3.96 ml
(3) 3.96 × 105 ml (4) 3.96 × 106 ml
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96. Ammonium carbamate dissociates as
2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+���⇀
↽���
In a closed vessel containing ammonium carbamate
in equilibrium, ammonia is added such that the
partial pressure of ammonia at new equilibrium is 3
2
times to the original total pressure. The ratio of total
pressure now to the original pressure is
(1)761
486(2)
9
2
(3)16
81(4)
31
27
97. The equivalent mass of X2 in the following reaction
(molecular mass is M) is
NaOH
2 3 2X NaX NaXO H OΔ⎯⎯⎯→ + +
(1)M
5(2)
2M
5
(3)3M
5(4)
M
2
98. A list of species having the formula XY4 is given
below
XeF4, SF
4, SiF
4, BF
4, BrF
4, [Cu(NH
3)4]2+, [FeCl
4]2–,
[NiCl4]2– and [PdCl
4]2–
Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and
Y atoms, the total number of species having a
square planar shape is
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
99. If the molality of NaOH in D2O is 20 m, then
difference between mole fractions of D2O and NaOH
will be
(1)2
7(2)
5
7
(3)1
7(4)
3
7
100. 5 g impure NaOH is completely neutralised by one
litre 0.1 M HCl. The percentage purity of NaOH
sample is
(1) 80% (2) 60%
(3) 40% (4) 20%
In the following questions (101 to 120), a statement
of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are falsestatements, then mark (4).
101. A : Beryllium fluoride is highly soluble in water.
R : Beryllium forms [Be(H2O)
4]2+ due to its
hydration.
102. A : Physical adsorption takes place on the surface
only.
R : Chemical adsorption takes place on the surface
as well as in the bulk.
103. A : Zinc is not considered as transition element.
R : Zinc does not show variable oxidation state.
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104. A : The electron gain enthalpy of nitrogen is positive.
R : Nitrogen atom has very small size and half filled
p-subshell.
105. A : LiHCO3 cannot be obtained in solid state.
R : Carbonates and bicarbonates of Li are less
stable than rest of the alkali metals.
106. A : Energy is absorbed for the transition of e– from
4s to 3d level in hydrogen atom.
R : Energy of electron in all atoms depends on n + l
value.
107. A : Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is equal to that of
0.1 M glucose solution.
R : When molarity of two solutions is same then
their osmotic pressure are same.
108. A : Entropy of egg increases on boiling.
R : Generally randomness decreases on the
conversion of liquid to solid.
109. A : Ga has larger atomic radius than Al.
R : Generally on moving down the group atomic
radius decreases.
110. A : The dichromate ion is relatively stable in acidic
medium and converts into chromate ion in
alkaline medium.
R : The colour of dichromate ion is due to the charge
transfer spectrum
111. A : Non-metallic character increases and metallic
character decreases on moving from left to right
in periodic table.
R : Both ionisation enthalpy and electron gain
enthalpy decrease from left to right in periods.
112. A : Enzymes are naturally occurring simple or
conjugate proteins.
R : Enzymes are highly pH sensitive.
113. A : Aromatic aldehydes are more reactive than
aliphatic aldehydes towards nucleophillic addition
reactions.
R : Aromatic aldehyde on nucleophillic addition gives
product with one less carbon.
114. A : CFC’s are stable compounds.
R : CFC’s undergo decomposition in presence of UV
radiation in the stratosphere.
115. A : is an aromatic compound.
R : Out of 8π electrons, it has 6π electrons in one
ring following Huckel rule.
116. A : ΔH is one of the contributory factor in deciding
spontaneity.
R : ΔH = positive, means process is always
spontaneous.
117. A : The heat released in hydrogenation of benzene
is three times to the cyclohexene.
R : Benzene has degree of unsaturation three and
cyclohexene has degree of unsaturation one.
118. A : Cu+ ion is more stable than Cu2+ in aqueous
solution.
R : Cu2+ has [Ar]3d10 (fully filled configuration) where
as Cu+ is not having fully filled 3d configuration.
119. A : For a fixed amount of an ideal gas PV is always
constant at constant temperature where P is
pressure and V is volume.
R : PV value for ideal gas is directly proportional to
temperature even if mass is not constant.
120. A : Aqueous gold colloidal sol can be red in colour.
R : The colour arises due to scattering of light by
particles of gold in the gold sol.
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[ BIOLOGY ]
121. The ploidy level of rhizoids, protonema, leaf,
oosphere, androcyte mother cell, apophysis and
calyptra in Funaria are respectively
(1) N, 2N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N
(2) N, N, N, N, N, 2N and N
(3) N, N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N
(4) N, N, N, 2N, 2N, 2N and 2N
122. How many of the given plants belong to the family
with floral formula ⊕+
P A G(3+3) 3+3 (3)?
Petunia, Colchicum Atropa AlliumCapsicum Glycine Solanum AloeLycopersicum Gloriosa Nicotiana
, , ,
, , , ,
, ,
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 5 (4) 4
123. Find out the incorrect match.
(1) Steller’s sea cow – Russia
(2) Thylacine – Australia
(3) Quagga – America
(4) Dodo – Mauritius
124. Given below is the sequence of nucleotides on
m-RNA
5′ AUG UUU GUG UCA AGU UAA 3′
How many amino acid could be coded before and
after replacement of 11 th nucleotide by G,
respectively?
(1) 5, 5 (2) 5, 3
(3) 3, 3 (4) 3, 5
125. Relationship between sea anemone and hermit crab
is
(1) Commensalism (2) Mutualism
(3) Predation (4) Protocooperation
126. Cyclosporin-A is
(1) Produced by actinomycetes
(2) Cholesterol lowering agent
(3) Immunosuppressive agent
(4) Used for clearing of fruit juice
127. Oxidative decarboxylation occurs in Krebs cycle
when
(1) Oxalosuccinic acid ⎯→ α-ketoglutaric acid
(2) α-ketoglutaric acid ⎯→ Succinyl CoA
(3) Succinyl CoA ⎯→ Succinic acid
(4) Malic acid ⎯→ Oxaloacetic acid
128. Match the columns
Column I Column II
a. Soap box like cell wall (i) Chl a and Chl b
b. Mixotrophic nutrition (ii) Ciliated protozoans
c. Dimorphic nucleus (iii) Passive floating
d. Gonyaulax (iv) Red tide
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
129. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. fungi which
reproduce asexually by exogenous spores and
sexually by endogenous spores
(1) May be decomposers or parasites
(2) Do not possess delayed karyogamy
(3) Motile structures do not occur in the life cycle
(4) May not be symbiont in ectomycorrhiza
130. Which one is the feature of monocot stem?
(1) Presence of phloem parenchyma
(2) Larger vascular bundles are arranged towards the
periphery
(3) Sclerenchymatous sheath surrounds each
vascular bundle
(4) Absence of schizolysigenous cavity
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131. Four cells A, B, C and D have same osmotic
pressure but their turgor pressures are 10, 8, 6 and
4 respectively, if all four cells are interconnected
then movement of water will be
(1)A B
C D
(2)A B
C D
(3)A B
C D
(4)A B
C D
132. Match the columns
Column I Column II
(Mineral (Deficiency symptoms)
elements)
a. Fe (i) Grey speck in oats
b. Mo (ii) Loss of apical dominance
c. B (iii) Chlorosis in leaf
d. Mn (iv) Delayed flowering
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
133. Hormone Florigen is synthesised
(1) When photoperiod exceeds than the critical in
SDP
(2) If the plant is in juvenile phase
(3) In mature leaf if it gets appropriate photoperiodic
stimulus
(4) In senescent leaves
134. Choose the correct statement for meiosis
(1) Zygotene stage is longer than pachytene
(2) Leptotene stage is shorter than pachytene
(3) Diakinesis is marked by dissolution of the
synaptonemal complex
(4) Tetrad stage is not a result of synapsis of
homologous chromosomes
135. If a female plant is hexaploid (6n) and a male plant
is diploid then find out the ploidy of embryo and
endosperm in seeds of angiosperms and
gymnosperms respectively?
(1) 5n, 7n & 5n, 3n
(2) 4n, 7n & 4n, 7n
(3) 4n, 7n & 7n, 4n
(4) 4n, 7n & 4n, 3n
136. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. cell organelles and
their functions
(1) Mitochondria – ATP synthesis
(2) Chloroplast – Glucose synthesis
(3) Peroxisome – Photophosphorylation
(4) Nucleolus – Ribosome synthesis
137. A plant with genotype AABB is 20 cm tall, crossed
with 12 cm tall plant with genotype aabb. F1 of this
cross is 16 cm tall. If it is a polygenic trait then in
F2 generation, how many plants have height 16 cm
and 14 cm respectively?
(1) 4 & 6
(2) 6 & 4
(3) 4 & 2
(4) 4 & 4
138. Identify the correct statement regarding
photosynthesis.
(1) Oxygen in glucose comes from H2O
(2) RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for O2 than
CO2
(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation operates under high
light intensity and aerobic conditions
(4) H+ concentration is more in lumen than stroma
to produce proton motive force during ATP
synthesis through chemiosmosis
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139. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Brassica (i) Protein rich
b. Mung bean (ii) Hill bunt
c. Himgiri (iii) White rust
d. Atlas-66 (iv) Yellow mosaic virus
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
140. Read the following statements carefully.
a. Snow-blindness is caused by UV-C radiation.
b. Montreal protocol was signed at Canada to
control the emission of ozone depleting
substances.
c. Euro III norms stipulate that sulphur be
controlled at 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in
petrol.
d. Electrostatic precipitator can remove over
99 percent of particulate matter present in the
exhaust from a thermal power plant.
How many statements are correct?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
141. Arrival of an impulse at axon terminals stimulates the
movement of synaptic vesicles towards
A membrane in a/an B synapse.
Select the option filling both blanks correctly.
(1) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Electrical
(2) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Chemical
(3) A– Post-synaptic, B– Electrical
(4) A– Post-synaptic, B– Chemical
142. The cause of sudden increase of LH hormone in the
mid cycle is
(1) Negative feedback of estrogen on the anterior
pituitary
(2) Negative feedback of progestrone on the
hypothalamus
(3) Positive feedback of estrogen on the anterior
pituitary
(4) Positive feedback of FSH on the ovary
143. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t.
Myasthenia gravis?
(1) Antibodies inhibit the activity of acetylcholine-
sterase enzyme competitively
(2) Antibodies mask the acetylcholine receptors on
sarcolemma
(3) Antibodies destroy the acetylcholine receptors of
presynaptic membrane at neuromuscular
junction
(4) Antibodies bind to presynaptic membrane and
inhibit the release of acetylcholine
144. Choose the correct option w.r.t cardiac muscles.
(1) Communication junctions between cardiac
muscle fibres allow the cells of atria to contract
as a single unit
(2) Z-lines of cardiac muscles are composed of
actin proteins
(3) Molecular basis for contraction of heart muscles
is Ca2+ – calmodulin binding
(4) Multinucleated fibres are held together at
intercalated discs
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145. Which of the following will be incorrect w.r.t. joint
diastole stage of a cardiac cycle?
(1) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves remain open during
joint diastole
(2) The semilunar valves remain open throughout the
joint diastole to allow ventricles to receive blood
(3) Blood from vena cava flows into right ventricle
through right atrium
(4) Blood from pulmonary veins flows into left
ventricle through left atrium
146. The statements which are correct for the human
eye/vision are
a. In human eye, maximum refraction occurs when
light passes through lens.
b. The space between cornea and the lens is
called aqueous chamber
c. Vitreous humor is continuously renewed by
drainage and synthesis throughout life
d. Visual cortex area of the brain is located in
frontal lobe of cerebrum
(1) a & b (2) Only b
(3) a, c & d (4) a, b & d
147. The structure of human ear that lies immediately on
top of stereocilia of sensory hair cells of Organ of
Corti is
(1) Otolith (2) Basilar membrane
(3) Tectorial membrane (4) Reissner's membrane
148. The pair of hormones acting on pancreas to
stimulate secretion of water and bicarbonates from it
and to stimulate secretion of digestive enzymes from
it respectively, is
(1) GIP and CCK-PZ
(2) Secretin and GIP
(3) Secretin and Cholecystokinin-pancreozymin
(4) Cholecystokinin and Secretin
149. Injection of tetanus anti-toxin in a person for quick
recovery from possibly fatal symptoms will be called
(1) Passive immunisation
(2) Secondary/Anamnestic immune response
(3) Primary immune response
(4) Artificial active immunity
150. Which of the following is a successful product of
application of RNAi technique in plants?
(1) Fortified golden rice
(2) GM Bt cotton
(3) Nematode resistant tobacco plant
(4) Production of Hirudin from Brassica napus
151. In the initial rDNA experiments conducted by Eli-Lilly
to produce humulin in E.coli, the protein chains
obtained from bacteria
(1) Included an essential C-peptide chain
(2) Included separate A and B protein chains which
combined to form active human insulin
(3) Were joined by ionic bonds to form active
human insulin
(4) Could be administered orally to diabetics
152. Natural selection theory proposed by Charles Darwin
for explaining ‘organic evolution’ was based on which
of the following concepts?
(1) Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable
variations which led to survival of those having
the variations
(2) Inheritance of somatic characteristics acquired
through a life long use or disuse
(3) Differential reproduction rates, struggle for
existence and survival of the fittest
(4) Continuity of germplasm
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153. Which of the following statements will be incorrect
in the context of modern concept of evolution?
(1) Interbreeding among members of different
species is prevented by reproductive isolation
barriers
(2) A smaller gene pool will lead to significantly
large variations, helping the species to dominate
all competitors
(3) Ultimate source of all variations are mutations
(4) A multicellular body is divisible into somatoplasm
and germplasm and only changes in germplasm
are inheritable
154. Emergency contraceptives are most effective when
administered any time within ______ period following
unprotected coitus
(1) Seven day (2) Six day
(3) Three day (4) Four day
155. The formation of a second polar body and a haploid
ovum in humans occurs
(1) Within the ovary by completion of unequal
meiotic division of oocyte
(2) In the fallopian tube, induced by entry of sperm
into the oocyte
(3) In the fallopian tube by completion of second but
equal meiotic division
(4) Within the ovary; induced by LH surge
156. With respect to molecules present in a cell, the
incorrect statement will be
(1) Low temperature destroys the enzyme activity
while high temperature preserves the enzyme in
inactive state
(2) Biocatalysts in a cell can be both proteinaceous
and nucleic acid in nature
(3) Structure of glycogen is similar to amylopectin
part of starch
(4) Glucose is an aldo-hexose while fructose is a
keto-hexose
157. Selective destruction of zona fasciculata of adrenal
cortex would produce a deficiency of which
hormone?
(1) Aldosterone (2) Cortisol
(3) Androgenic steroids (4) DHEA
158. Presence of exoskeleton of thick cuticle, haemocoel;
metameric segmentation and tube within tube body
plan are features of
(1) Ancylostoma (2) Loligo
(3) Laccifer (4) Pheretima
159. Consider the following statements w.r.t. an animal
tissue.
(a) The intercellular material is solid and pliable,
resisting compression
(b) Cells are enclosed in small cavities called
lacunae within the matrix secreted by them
(c) The tissue interacts with smooth muscles to
bring about body movements
(d) It is the site of production of blood cells
The statements which are applicable to cartilage
include
(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a), (c) & (d)
(3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)
160. Select the correct statement w.r.t. internal ear of
humans
(1) The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear is a
series of channels inside which lies the bony
labyrinth
(2) The Reissner’s and Basilar membrane divide the
surrounding perilymph filled bony labyrinth into an
upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani
(3) The space within cochlea, called scala media, is
filled with perilymph
(4) The entire bony labyrinth is filled with a fluid
called endolymph
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In the following questions (161 to 180), a statement
of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are falsestatements, then mark (4).
161. A : Growth is not a defining feature of living
beings.
R : Snow mountains show intrinsic growth.
162. A : Archaebacteria survive in extreme harsh
environment.
R : Archaebacteria have different composition of cell
wall and cell membrane than other bacteria.
163. A : In racemose type inflorescence, the main axis
terminates into a flower.
R : Solitary terminal flower is found in china rose.
164. A : In date palm, autogamy and geitonogamy are
absent.
R : Date palm is a dioecious plant.
165. A : Primary succession is a very slow process.
R : Primary succession starts in abandoned
farmlands, generally.
166. A : Ions are absorbed from the soil by active means
only.
R : Suberin layer in root endodermis is able to
transport ions in both directions.
167. A : Excitation of chlorophyll molecules after
absorption of sunlight is the first step of
photosynthesis.
R : Shield pigments protect chl-a from
photooxidation.
168. A : Generally red algae are found at great depths in
ocean.
R : Red algae reproduce by isogamy and
accompanied by complex post fertilization
developments.
169. A : The mycelium of basidiomycetes is septate.
R : Rust and smut fungi have dolipore septa and
fruiting body.
170. A : Inside the mature seed, the embryo is the
progenitor of the next generation.
R : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of
species between organisms of one generation
and the next.
171. A : In porifers, external fertilization takes place
R : Most porifers are found in fresh water.
172. A : All copulations do not result in fertilisation and
pregnancy.
R : Oocyte and sperms must simultaneously reach
the ampulla part of fallopian tube to result in
successful fertilization.
173. A : Biological response modifiers like α-interferons
can be used to activate a person’s immune
system and help in destroying tumors.
R : Interferons increase MHC-I expression on tumour
cells thereby increasing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte
activity.
174. A : Evolution can be considered as a stochastic
process, based on chance events occurring in
nature.
R : Anthropogenic actions have resulted in selection
of antibiotic sensitive microbes and insects in a
time scale of years rather than centuries.
175. A : The compounds in the human eyes, composed
of retinal and opsin proteins, are photosensitive.
R : Light induces dissociation of retinal from opsins,
causing membrane permeability changes in
photo receptor cells.
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181. Which of the following was India's Flag-bearer at the
closing ceremony of the 21st Commonwealth Games
2018?
(1) Mary Kom (2) Abhinav Bindra
(3) Heena Sidhu (4) P. V. Sindhu
182. Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the
following state of India?
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Punjab (4) Odisha
183. India's first insect museum is situated which of the
following state of India?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Punjab
(3) Haryana (4) Odisha
184. Which state has highest number of fully covered
tribal habitations with the safe drinking water?
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Odisha (4) Assam
[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]
185. The joint military exercise "Desert Tiger-5" was held
between UAE and which country?
(1) Malaysia (2) Cambodia
(3) Thailand (4) USA
186. 105th session of Indian Science Congress (ISC) has
been hosted in which of the following state of India?
(1) Manipur (2) Punjab
(3) Sikkim (4) Kerala
187. Stephen Hawking who has recently passed away,
belongs to which of the following country?
(1) USA (2) UK
(3) Japan (4) France
188. "Gevora" which has been claimed as world's tallest
hotel is situated in which of the following city?
(1) Dubai (2) Britain
(3) France (4) India
176. A : Human heart is called myogenic.
R : Neural signals through sympathetic nervous
system can increase the strength of ventricular
muscle contraction.
177. A : Malthus’ essay on principles of population
growth and study of finches of Galapagos
islands had huge influence on Darwin while he
conceptualized his natural selection theory.
R : Darwin conducted many artificial selection
experiments to support the concept of selection
by nature
178. A : Force of contraction of white skeletal muscle
fibres is vigorous but they undergo fatigue
rapidly.
R : White skeletal muscle fibres have abundant
sarcoplasmic reticulum but possess very less
quantity of myoglobin.
179. A : Vaccination provides usually permanent, long
term immunity to a child against deadly
diseases.
R : Vaccines generate memory B and T cells which
recognise the actual pathogen on a subsequent
exposure; overwhelming it with a massive
production of antibodies.
180. A : At high altitudes availability of oxygen reduces,
so it becomes more difficult for a person to
breathe.
R : Rate of breathing increases at high altitudes
along with occurrence of polycythemia in blood.
Space for Rough Work
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code A)
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189. Which country will host 2018 Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO) summit?
(1) India
(2) Thailand
(3) China
(4) Afghanistan
191. Find the odd one, out of the following numbers.
11, 13, 15, 17, 18, 19,
(1) 13 (2) 17
(3) 18 (4) 19
Directions (Q.192 & Q.193) : Refer to the following Venn
diagram:
16
19
99
14 1213
13
2018 18
15 16
History
Science
Mathematics
Geography
192. The number of students who took only three of the
above subjects is
(1) 62
(2) 63
(3) 64
(4) 66
193. The number of students who took at least two
subjects is
(1) 139 (2) 158
(3) 119 (4) 137
[ APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING ]
194. An accurate clock shows 7 o'clock in the morning.
Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate
when the clock shows 1 o'clock in the afternoon?
(1) 168º
(2) 180º
(3) 188º
(4) 200º
195. How many days are there in m2 weeks n days?
(1) 7m2 + m
(2) m2 + n
(3) 7m2 + n
(4) 7n2 + m
196. The missing number is
60
5 4
25
54
20 1
17
?
2 9
14
(1) 66
(2) 72
(3) 71
(4) 60
190. ARIES i.e Aryabhatta Research Institute of
observational Science is located in which of the
following state?
(1) Uttarakhand
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Punjab
(4) Bihar
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197. Select the alternative, the box that can be formed by
folding the sheet shown in the given figure
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (C)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
� � �
198. Select the correct number that is missing in the
number series given below:
13, 195, 15, 17, 323, 19, 21, ?, 23
(1) 441 (2) 399
(3) 483 (4) 575
199. In a certain code language, if the word 'UNIVERSAL'
is coded as 'AEILNRSUV' and 'FOUNDATION' is
coded as 'ADFINNOOTU', then how the word
'MANAGER' is coded in that language?
(1) AAEGNMR (2) AAEMGNR
(3) AAEGMNR (4) ARMENAG
200. Soldier : Regiment :: ?
(1) Wheels : Bearings (2) Coil : Motor
(3) Book : Printer (4) CO2
: Gas
CBT - 02 (Code A) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
1/8
1. (2)
2. (1)
3. (1)
4. (4)
5. (1)
6. (2)
7. (1)
8. (2)
9. (1)
10. (3)
11. (3)
12. (3)
13. (1)
14. (3)
15. (1)
16. (3)
17. (1)
18. (2)
19. (1)
20. (3)
21. (1)
22. (1)
23. (1)
24. (1)
25. (2)
26. (3)
27. (1)
28. (2)
29. (1)
30. (3)
31. (2)
32. (3)
33. (2)
34. (4)
35. (3)
36. (2)
37. (2)
38. (2)
39. (1)
40. (1)
Test Date : 20/05/2018
CBT - 02 (CODE A)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2018
ANSWERS
41. (2)
42. (2)
43. (1)
44. (3)
45. (4)
46. (1)
47. (1)
48. (1)
49. (1)
50. (3)
51. (2)
52. (3)
53. (3)
54. (2)
55. (1)
56. (1)
57. (2)
58. (2)
59. (2)
60. (2)
61. (1)
62. (3)
63. (2)
64. (4)
65. (3)
66. (1)
67. (1)
68. (3)
69. (1)
70. (2)
71. (1)
72. (3)
73. (2)
74. (1)
75. (4)
76. (2)
77. (3)
78. (1)
79. (2)
80. (3)
81. (4)
82. (2)
83. (2)
84. (4)
85. (1)
86. (3)
87. (2)
88. (4)
89. (1)
90. (2)
91. (3)
92. (4)
93. (2)
94. (4)
95. (3)
96. (1)
97. (3)
98. (2)
99. (4)
100. (1)
101. (1)
102. (3)
103. (2)
104. (1)
105. (2)
106. (4)
107. (4)
108. (2)
109. (4)
110. (2)
111. (3)
112. (2)
113. (4)
114. (2)
115. (1)
116. (3)
117. (4)
118. (4)
119. (3)
120. (1)
121. (2)
122. (4)
123. (3)
124. (2)
125. (4)
126. (3)
127. (2)
128. (3)
129. (2)
130. (3)
131. (2)
132. (2)
133. (3)
134. (2)
135. (4)
136. (3)
137. (2)
138. (4)
139. (2)
140. (3)
141. (2)
142. (3)
143. (2)
144. (1)
145. (2)
146. (2)
147. (3)
148. (3)
149. (1)
150. (3)
151. (2)
152. (3)
153. (2)
154. (3)
155. (2)
156. (1)
157. (2)
158. (3)
159. (4)
160. (2)
161. (3)
162. (1)
163. (4)
164. (1)
165. (3)
166. (4)
167. (2)
168. (3)
169. (3)
170. (2)
171. (4)
172. (1)
173. (1)
174. (3)
175. (1)
176. (2)
177. (2)
178. (1)
179. (1)
180. (2)
181. (1)
182. (2)
183. (1)
184. (2)
185. (1)
186. (1)
187. (2)
188. (1)
189. (3)
190. (1)
191. (3)
192. (1)
193. (1)
194. (2)
195. (3)
196. (4)
197. (1)
198. (3)
199. (3)
200. (2)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints)
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PHYSICS
1. Answer (2)
ρ = Fa lb Tc
ML–3 = [MLT–2]a [L]b [T]c
So a = 1, b = –4, c = 2
2. Answer (1)
3. Answer (1)
. 0F P =� �
4. Answer (4)
2hT
g=
5. Answer (1)
. ( )M M
lg L l gL L
μ = −
3
Ll =
6. Answer (2)
2
2
k mv
rr=
KE = –E
7. Answer (1)
8. Answer (2)
1 1 2 2
cm
1 2
mv m v
v
m m
+=
+
� �
�
9. Answer (1)
10. Answer (3)
ConstantL =�
0τ =�
11. Answer (3)
–2
GmME
a=
12. Answer (3)
2gR is equal to escape so total energy will be
zero
13. Answer (1)
P1 – P
2 =
21
2vρ ⇒ v = 10 m/s
14. Answer (3)
V1ρ
1g + V
2ρ
2g = Vρg
1 2
2
VV V= =
HINTS
15. Answer (1)
( )
1/2
2
2 1
2
1– /
ghv
A A
⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥=⎢ ⎥⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦
16. Answer (3)
17. Answer (1)
loge(T – T
0) = –kt + c
18. Answer (2)
1 2
1 2
1 2
1 2
p pp
v v v
nC n CC
C nC n C
+=
+
19. Answer (1)
1
Δ=− γ
nR TW
20. Answer (3)
ΔQ1 = nC
vΔT + nC
pΔT
= 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
3 5[2 ] [4 2 ]
2 2− + −P V P V P V P V
= 0 0
13
2P V
21. Answer (1)
04
vf
l=
22. Answer (1)
23. Answer (1)
2
2 1 10
1
– 20logr
dB dBr
⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
24. Answer (1)
(4 ) 4 4 (4 )0
2
×+ + =kQ e k e e kQ e
a a a
25. Answer (2)
2 21 1
2 2+ Δ = +CV qv CV H
H = 2CV 2
26. Answer (3)
t = 0, R2 is short-circuited by capacitor
27. Answer (1)
θrTcosθT
θTcosθT
TsinθTsinθ
θ
CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
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2T sinθ = IdLB
2Tθ = I2rθB
T = IrB
28. Answer (2)
B = μnI
29. Answer (1)
30. Answer (3)
31. Answer (2)
2
2
13.6–
zE E
n∞=
E = 54.5 eV
32. Answer (3)
E = W + ev0
33. Answer (2)
34. Answer (4)
35. Answer (3)
E = Δmc2
= (13 × 7.3 – 12 × 7.68) = 5.34 eV
36. Answer (2)
37. Answer (2)
1
2
3
2
f
f=
1 2
1 1 1
f f f= +
38. Answer (2)
L = v0 + u
e
0 0 0
1 1 1–
f v u=
1 1 1–
e e ef v u
=
39. Answer (1)
2
04 cos
2I I
φ=
2x
πφ = × Δλ
40. Answer (1)
δ = (i + e) – A
3
4i e A= = ×
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (2)
43. Answer (1)
44. Answer (3)
45. Answer (4)
46. Answer (1)
47. Answer (1)
48. Answer (1)
49. Answer (1)
50. Answer (3)
51. Answer (2)
52. Answer (3)
53. Answer (3)
54. Answer (2)
55. Answer (1)
56. Answer (1)
57. Answer (2)
58. Answer (2)
59. Answer (2)
60. Answer (2)
CHEMISTRY
61. Answer (1)
For neutral molecule.
number of hybridised orbitals
(H) = 1
2 [Valence electron of central atom
+ number of monovalent surrounding atoms]
31H [6 4] 5
2= + = = sp d
62. Answer (3)
The oxidation number of oxygen in superoxides is1
–2
.
63. Answer (2)
Alkoxycarbonyl is a prefix used for esters.
64. Answer (4)
Option (1) is cubic, has 3 bravais lattices
Option (2) is tetragonal, has 2 bravais lattices
Option (3) is orthorhombic, has 4 bravais lattices
Option (4) is rhombohedral, has 1 bravais lattice
which is minimum.
65. Answer (3)
Fact
66. Answer (1)
Fact
67. Answer (1)
Rate (r) = Change in concentration ( C)
time (t)
Δ
–2
–2 –2
C 0.01 10 1t 0.2 s
r 55 10 5 10
Δ= = = = =× ×
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints)
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68. Answer (3)
gn
p cK K (RT)
Δ=If Δn
g = 0 then K
p = K
c
69. Answer (1)
B
HO
HO
OH( )sp
2
70. Answer (2)
71. Answer (1)
2 4 2 4H SO H SO NaOH NaOH
organic compound
(V N – V N )%N (1.4)
W=
1 1(200) – (100)
10 10(1.4) 2%
7
⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎢ ⎥= =
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
72. Answer (3)
(1) (5) 500%A 100 35.71%
(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =
+
(9) (1) 900%B 100 64.29%
(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =
+
73. Answer (2)
Fe 2+
Fe + e3+ –
; E° = –b V
Cu + e 2+ –
Cu+
; E° = a V
Fe + Cu2+ 2+
Fe + Cu3+ + ; E = (a – b) volt
o
74. Answer (1)
According to Fajan’s rule.
75. Answer (4)
Option (1), (2) & (3) have zero number of unpaired
electrons.
[NiCl4]2– has Ni2+ : [Ar]3d8 has two unpaired
electrons.
76. Answer (2)
2R SiCl3
HOHR Si OH
3
R SiO H3
ΔR Si – O –
3SiR
3
77. Answer (3)
For acidic buffer, equivalents of weak acid >
equivalents of strong base.
78. Answer (1)
Electrons = 15 + 4(8) + 3(1) = 50
Protons = 15 + 4 × 8 = 47
Neutrons = 16 + 32 = 48
79. Answer (2)
Number of electrons in s, p, d, f are
0 + 2, 4 + 2, 8 + 2, 12 + 2
⇒ 4(0) + 2, 4(1) + 2, 4(2) + 2, 4(3) + 2
⇒ 4l + 2
80. Answer (3)
Correct order is
6 5 2 2 2 3 2HC C C H CH CH CH CH CH CH
−≡ > > = − >
81. Answer (4)
A is 3° alcohol, B is 1°alcohol and C is 2° alcohol
with same number of carbon.
82. Answer (2)
83. Answer (2)
A = CH3NC, B = CH
3–NH–CH
3, C = CH
3CN,
D = CH3–CH
2–NH
2, E = CH
3NC, F = CH
3–NH–CH
3
84. Answer (4)
2
H 2 2
1 2
1 1 1R z –
n n
⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥λ ⎣ ⎦
2
H
1 1R (1) –
16 36
⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
H
144
5Rλ =
85. Answer (1)
3RT 8RT 8C : C : 3 :
22M M
7
= =π
563 :
22= 3 : 2.545= = 1.732 : 1.595
= 1.086 : 1
86. Answer (3)
CH3CH CH CH
2 2 3
Cl /h2
ν
Cl
CH2–CH–CH –CH
2 3
Cl
+
Cl
CH2–CH –CH–CH
2 3
Cl
Cl
CH2–CH –CH –CH
2 2 2
Cl
+
Cl
CH3–C–CH CH
2 3+
Cl
CH3 3–CH–CH–CH
Cl
+
Cl
+
Cl
CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 3
+
Cl
CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
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87. Answer (2)
RCOOR + Excess′ 3° alcoholH SO
2 4
Alkeneozonolysis
KetoneC H O
(+ve iodoform)8 8
CH – C – C H3 6 5
O
(a) RMgX
Then in the ester one must be aryl group.
(a) is
C H – C – OC H6 5 2 5
CH MgX3
C H – C – CH6 5 3
OH
CH3
H SO2 4
C = CH2
H C5 6
H C3
C H – C – CH6 5 3
O
+ HC – H
O
Ozonolysis
O
88. Answer (4)
OCH Cl
2
A =
O CH MgCl2
B =
OCH
3
C =
89. Answer (1)
According to VBT and Werner theory of complexes.
90. Answer (2)
X = Cl2, Y = HCl, Z = NCl
3
91. Answer (3)
(3–1) (8 4) 1 4 5 81 31 4
2 2
A B C D A B C D−⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞− −⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
=
92. Answer (4)
Salt is 80% dissociated 2 80
[M ] 0.2 0.16100
+ = × =
M2+ + 2e– ⎯→ M(s)
According to Nernst equation,
2 2
o
2M /M M /M
0.0591 1E E – log
n [M ]+ + +=
0.0591 1–0.7 – log
2 0.16= = –0.7235 volt
93. Answer (2)
IUPAC name of following compound is
H C–CH3 2
–CH –CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 2 2 2 3
H C–C–CH 3 3
CH3
CH2
5 6 7 8 9
H C–C–CH 3 3
CH2
CH3
3
2
1
2,2-dimethyl-5-(2,2 dimethylpropyl)-4-propylnonane′−
4
1′
2′
3′
94. Answer (4)
(ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓allyl 2° 1° vinyl
and 3°
allyl
and 2°
95. Answer (3)
–4 –6
mix
(V)(10 ) (V)(10 )N
V V
+=+
= 5.05 × 10–5
NaOH, Vb = 100 ml, N
b = 0.2 N
Vmix
Nmix
= VbN
b
5
mix 5
2(100)
2010V 10 ml
5.055.05 10−
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠= = ×
× = 3.96 × 105 ml
96. Answer (1)
2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+���⇀
↽���
2P + P = 3P (initial total pressure)
Initial, Kp = (2P)2 (P) = 4P3
After addition of NH3 ⇒
3NH
3 9P (3P) P
2 2= =
Let 2
COP x=
then
2
39P (x) 4P
2
⎛ ⎞ =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
2
381P(x) 4P
4
⎛ ⎞=⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
3
2
16P 16x P
8181P= =
9 16P P
Final total P 7612 81
3PInitial total P 486
1
+= =
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints)
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97. Answer (3)
Molar massE
n-factor=
5n-factor
3=
98. Answer (2)
XeF4 , BrF4 , [Cu(NH
3)4]2+ and [PdCl
4]2– are square
planar.
99. Answer (4)
2
NaOH
D O
n20m
1 W in kg= = , n
NaOH = 20,
2D OW 1 kg=
2D O
1000n 50
20= =
XNaOH
= 2
7,
2D O
5X
7=
∴ Difference is 3
7
100. Answer (1)
eq. NaOH = eq HCl
x(1) (0.1)
40= ⇒ x = 4g
% purity = 4
100 80%5
× =
101. Answer (1)
Compounds forming complex ions are highly soluble
in water.
102. Answer (3)
Adsorption is a surface phenomena.
103. Answer (2)
Zinc is not a transition element because it has
completely filled d-orbitals.
104. Answer (1)
Reason is correct explanation of (A) and both are
correct.
105. Answer (2)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct
explanation for (A).
106. Answer (4)
For hydrogen energy depends on only ‘n’ value. So
energy is released when electron comes from 4s to
3d.
107. Answer (4)
van’t Hoff factor for NaCl is 2 and for glucose is one.
108. Answer (2)
In the denaturation of protein (boiling of egg) entropy
increases.
109. Answer (4)
Al has more radius than Ga. This is due to poor
shielding in Ga.
110. Answer (2)
Both (A) & (R) are correct.
111. Answer (3)
IE and EA increases from left to right in periodic
table.
112. Answer (2)
Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
113. Answer (4)
R – CHO is more reactive than ArCHO.
114. Answer (2)
Fact
115. Answer (1)
One ring aromatic and other ring is non aromatic. So
total compound is aromatic.
116. Answer (3)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS, with ΔS < 0, the process will be
non-spontaneous, if ΔH > 0 at all temperatures.
117. Answer (4)
Resonance is present in benzene. So heat released
is not three times to cyclohexene.
118. Answer (4)
Cu+ is not stable in aqueous medium because it
disproportionate spontaneously in water.
119. Answer (3)
For a fixed amount (n must constant) only PV ∝ T.
120. Answer (1)
Fact
BIOLOGY
121. Answer (2)
122. Answer (4)
Members of liliaceae are Colchicum, Allium, Aloe,
Yucca.
123. Answer (3)
Quagga – Africa.
124. Answer (2)
125. Answer (4)
126. Answer (3)
127. Answer (2)
CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
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128. Answer (3)
a. Diatoms
b. Euglena
c. Paramoecium
d. Dinoflagellates
129. Answer (2)
Ascomycetes are not symbiont in mycorrhiza.
130. Answer (3)
131. Answer (2)
D.P.D. of A < B < C < D
132. Answer (2)
133. Answer (3)
134. Answer (2)
Leptotene and zygotene stages are short-lived as
compared to pachytene.
135. Answer (4)
In gymnosperm endosperm is haploid.
136. Answer (3)
Photophosphorylation is absent in peroxisome.
137. Answer (2)
AABB = 20 cm
A or B = 5 cm
aabb = 12 cm a or b = 3 cm
16 cm means = 2 dominant and 2 recessive genes
14 cm means = 1 dominant and 3 recessive genes
138. Answer (4)
139. Answer (2)
140. Answer (3)
Snow blindness is caused by UV-B. radiation.
141. Answer (2)
Synaptic vesicles fuse with pre-synaptic
membranes.
142. Answer (3)
In the mid cycle, estrogen surge exerts positive
feedback on anterior lobe for secretion of LH and
FSH.
143. Answer (2)
Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune neurological
disorder in which antibodies are produced which bind
with the receptors of acetylcholine on sarcolemma
and do not allow acetylcholine to bind to the
receptors. They also activate complement mediated
destruction of these receptors.
144. Answer (1)
Heart muscles are autorhythmic and the fibres are
uninucleated, having intercalated discs between them
145. Answer (2)
Semilunar valves remain closed in joint diastole.
146. Answer (2)
Maximum refraction occurs at cornea.
147. Answer (3)
Tectorial membrane lies on top of sensory hair cells
located on basilar membrane.
148. Answer (3)
Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas and
stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.
CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and
stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and
bile juice.
149. Answer (1)
Readymade antibodies provide passive immunity.
150. Answer (3)
Nematode (Meloidogyne) resistant tobacco and
Arabidopsis plants were produced by RNA i(RNA
interference).
151. Answer (2)
152. Answer (3)
Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable
changes (mutation) was the basis of Hugo de Vries
mutation theory. Inheritance of somatic
characteristics is the basis of Lamarck’s Theory of
evolution. Continuity of germplasm concept was
given by Weismann.
153. Answer (2)
A smaller gene pool has very few variations.
154. Answer (3)
Emergency contraceptives are administered within 72
hours of unwanted sex or rape case.
155. Answer (2)
Entry of sperm contents (head and proximal
centriole) triggers completion of unequal second
meiotic division of oocyte in fallopian tube.
156. Answer (1)
Low temperature preserves the enzyme while high
temperature causes denaturation.
157. Answer (2)
Zona fasciculata is middle layer of adrenal cortex
and produces glucocorticoids mainly cortisol.
158. Answer (3)
Features mentioned are present in arthropods.
159. Answer (4)
The site of production of red blood cells is red bone
marrow.
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code A) (Hints)
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160. Answer (2)
Fact
161. Answer (3)
Snow mountains show extrinsic growth.
162. Answer (1)
163. Answer (4)
164. Answer (1)
165. Answer (3)
166. Answer (4)
167. Answer (2)
168. Answer (3)
Reproduces by oogamy
169. Answer (3)
170. Answer (2)
171. Answer (4)
Porifers show internal fertilization. They are mostly
marine.
172. Answer (1)
Fertilization occurs when sperms and oocyte come
in contact with each other in viable form.
173. Answer (1)
174. Answer (3)
Chance events occurring in nature and chance
mutations in organisms affect evolution process,
telling us that evolution is not a direct process in the
sense of determinism.
175. Answer (1)
The compounds are photosensitive as light falling on
rod and cone cells induces the dissociation of
components of these compounds.
176. Answer (2)
177. Answer (2)
Human heart is called myogenic as the normal
activities of heart are regulated intrinsically by
pacemaker.
178. Answer (1)
White muscle fibres have more Ca2+ but lesser O2
availability.
179. Answer (1)
The principal of vaccination is memory; providing long
term immunity.
180. Answer (2)
Rate of breathing increases due to decreased pO2
and increased pCO2of blood while polycythemia
increases the O2 carrying capacity of blood.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
181. Answer (1)
182. Answer (2)
183. Answer (1)
184. Answer (2)
185. Answer (1)
186. Answer (1)
187. Answer (2)
188. Answer (1)
189. Answer (3)
190. Answer (1)
APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING
191. Answer (3)
All are odd numbers other than 18.
192. Answer (1)
193. Answer (1)
194. Answer (2)
195. Answer (3)
196. Answer (4)
E
a b
dc
E = (a + c) × (b + d)
197. Answer (1)
198. Answer (3)
13 × 15 = 195
17 × 19 = 323
21 × 23 = 483
199. Answer (3)
All the letters are arranged in alphabetical order.
200. Answer (2)
� � �
Space for Rough Work
CBT - 02 (Code B) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
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[ PHYSICS]
Choose the correct answer :
1. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism
such that ray suffers minimum deviation and angle of
emergence is 3
4th of angle of prism. The angle of
deviation is
(1) 30° (2) 60°
(3) 45° (4) 90°
2. The wavelength of light used in YDSE is λ. If
intensity of central maxima is I0, then intensity at
point where the path difference is 6
λ
(1)0
3
4
I(2)
0
2
I
(3) I0
(4) 2I0
3. In a compound microscope the focal length of two
lenses are 1.5 cm and 6.25 cm. An object is placed
at 2 cm from objective lens and final image is at
25 cm from eyepiece. The magnification is
(1) 5 (2) 15
(3) 12 (4) 7.5
4. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The
magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 1.5.
Their equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their
individual focal length (in cm)?
(1) 90, –60 (2) 15, –10
(3) 50, –75 (4) 75, –50
Time : 3:30 Hrs. MM : 200CBT - 02
5. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge
carriers in forward and reverse biased silicon p-n
junctions are
(1) Drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
(2) Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
(3) Diffusion in both forward and reverse biasing
(4) Drift in both forward and reverse biasing
6. The binding energy per nucleon for C12 is 7.68 MeV
and that for C13 is 7.5 MeV. The energy required to
remove a neutron from C13 is
(1) 0.28 MeV (2) 9.3 MeV
(3) 5.34 MeV (4) 6.32 MeV
7. During a nuclear fusion reaction
(1) A heavy nucleus breaks in two fragments by
itself
(2) A light nucleus bombarded by thermal neutrons
breaks up
(3) Heavy nucleus bombarded by thermal neutron
breaks up
(4) Two light nuclei combine to give a heavier
nucleus and possibly other products
8. The electron is emitted from nucleus in beta radiation
when
(1) Proton is converted into neutron
(2) Neutron is converted into proton
(3) Neutrino is converted into antineutrino
(4) Antineutrino is converted into neutrino
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9. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron
emitted from a surface when photons of energy
8 eV falls on it is, 2 eV. The stopping potential is
(1) 6 V (2) 4 V
(3) 2 V (4) 8 V
10. As per Bohr model, the minimum energy required to
remove an electron from ground state of singly
ionized He atom is
(1) 1.51 eV (2) 54.4 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 6.8 eV
11. An infinitely long cylinder is kept parallel to an
uniform magnetic field B directed along positive
z-axis. The direction of induced current as seen from
z-axis will be
(1) Clockwise of the positive z-axis
(2) Anticlockwise of the positive z-axis
(3) No current is induced
(4) Along magnetic field
12. If semicircular conducting ring is entering in
perpendicular magnetic field then the direction of
induced current is
O
R
ω B
(1) First anticlockwise then clockwise
(2) Clockwise
(3) Zero current
(4) First clockwise then anticlockwise
13. Coercivity of a ferromagnetic material in the core of
solenoid is 3 × 103 Am–1. The current required to be
passed in a solenoid of length 10 cm and 100 number
of turns so that material gets demagnetised is
(1) 30 A (2) 3 A
(3) 0.3 A (4) 0.03 A
14. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a
current I, it is placed in a uniform magnetic field B0
such that B0 is perpendicular to the plane of the
loop. The tension produced in the loop is
(1) IrB0
(2) 2IrB0
(3)0
2
IrB(4) Zero
15. In the following circuit, the potential drop across the
resistance R2, just after switch S is closed is
C
V
S
R1
R2
(1) 2
1
VR
R× (2) 1
2
VR
R×
(3) Zero (4) 2
1 2( )
VR
R R×
+
16. A capacitor of capacitance C is connected to V volt
battery, after full charging it is disconnected and
reconnected with battery in reverse polarity. Heat lost
in connecting wires is
(1) CV 2 (2) 2CV2
(3)21
2CV (4) 4CV2
17. Three charges Q, 4e and 4e are placed at vertex of
a right angle isosceles triangle. If Q is placed at
vertex other than right angle, then value of Q for zero
electrostatic potential energy of system is
(1)–4 2
( 2 1)
e
+ (2)–4
(2 2)
e
+
(3)–4
1 2
e
+(4) –4e
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18. If the sound level at a point 5 m away from a point
source is 40 dB. Then sound level at a point 50 m
away from the source is
(1) 20 dB
(2) 10 dB
(3) 80 dB
(4) 90 dB
19. A source of frequency f approaches to a stationary
observer at a speed of v. The frequency and
wavelength observed by observer respectively
(1) Increase, decrease
(2) Decrease, increase
(3) Increase, increase
(4) Increase, constant
20. Velocity of sound in air is 320 m/s. A pipe closed at
one end resonates with minimum frequency 80 Hz.
If end correction is neglected then length of pipe is
(1) 100 cm (2) 50 cm
(3) 200 cm (4) 300 cm
21. P-V diagram for monoatomic gas is shown in
diagram. The amount of heat absorbed by the
source in a single cycle is
A
B C
DP0
2P0
V0 2V
0
V
P
(1) P0V
0(2) 0 0
11
2PV
(3) 0 0
13
2PV (4)
0 0
4
PV
22.28
litre5
of argon gas at STP is adiabatically
compressed to 7
litre10
. Taking the initial
temperature T1, work done in this process is
(1) 1
9
8RT (2) 1
1
8RT
(3) 1
3
4RT (4) 1
9
2RT
23. Two moles of a monoatomic gas are mixed with two
moles of a diatomic gas, the value of p
v
C
C for the
mixture is
(1) 1.42 (2) 1.5
(3) 3.4 (4) 2.5
24. If a metal object is heated to temperature T1 and
then allowed to cool in a room which is at T0, then
the variation between temperature (T) and time (t) is
(1)T
0
t
T
T1
(2)T
0
t
T
T1
(3)
T0
t
T
T1
(4)T
0
t
T
T1
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25. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between
x = –A and x = +A. The time taken for it to go from
0 to 2
A is T
1 and 0 to A is T
2, then
(1) T1 = 4T
2
(2) T1 = 3T
2
(3) T2 = 3T
1
(4) T2 = 4T
1
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical container to a height
of 25 m. The ratio of the cross-section area of the
orifice and the beaker is 0.1. Speed of liquid coming
from orifice if it is at 5 m from bottom is
(g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 20 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 30 m/s
27. A vessel contains oil of density ρ1 over mercury of
density ρ2. A homogeneous sphere floats with half
its volume immersed in mercury and other half in oil.
The density of material of sphere is
(1) (ρ1 + ρ
2)
(2) (ρ1 – ρ
2)
(3)1 2
( )
2
ρ + ρ
(4)1 2
( – )
2
ρ ρ
28. The pressure of water in a water pipe when the tap
is closed and opened are respectively
2.5 × 105 N/m2 and 2 × 105 N/m2. The velocity of
water flowing through the pipe when tap is opened is
(1) 10 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) 15 m/s
29. A body is projected from surface of earth with speed
2gR where R is radius of Earth and g is
acceleration due to gravity then total energy of body
is
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) May be positive or negative
30. If a planet of mass m is revolving around Sun of
mass M in an elliptical orbit of semi-major axis a
then the total mechanical energy of planet is
(1) –GMm
a(2)
2–
GmM
a
(3) –2
GMm
a(4)
3–
GMm
a
31. A disc is rotating with angular speed ω. If a child sits
gently on it, then angular momentum of system
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains constant
(4) Is zero
32. A rod AB of mass M and length L is lying on a
smooth horizontal surface. A particle of mass m
strikes to end A elastically with speed v0 in a
direction perpendicular to AB. After collision if
particle comes to rest, then the distance of point
from B which is in rest just after the collision is
(1)3
L(2)
2
3
L
(3)4
L(4)
3
4
L
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33. If two identical bodies move towards each other with
speeds 10 m/s and 5 m/s respectively, then
distance travelled by their centre of mass in interval
of 4 s is
(1) 5 m
(2) 10 m
(3) 2.5 m
(4) 20 m
34. If a light moving particle strikes a heavy target at
rest and sticks to it, then, which is true for particle?
(1) All the KE is lost (2) Half the KE is lost
(3) One third KE is lost (4) KE does not change
35. A particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle
of radius r, under a force equal to 2
k
r, where k is
constant, total energy of particle is
(1) –
k
r(2) –
2
k
r
(3)2
k
r(4)
k
r
36. L be the length of a chain, what is the maximum
length of the chain which can be held outside a
table without sliding? [where coefficient of friction
between chain and table is 1
2]
(1)3
L(2)
5
L
(3)2
3
L(4)
2
L
37. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with speed
100 m/s at a height of 2 km from ground. The
aeroplane when at point A drops a bomb to hit a
point B on the ground, the time taken by bomb to
reach from A to B is
(1) 10 s (2) 40 s
(3) 15 s (4) 20 s
38. The momentum of a particle is given by
ˆ ˆ( sin cos )= ω + ω�
P a t i a t j then
(1) Momentum is perpendicular to force
(2) Momentum is parallel to force
(3) Angle between momentum and force is 60°
(4) Momentum is antiparallel to force
39. If the length and radius of cylindrical wire is
measured with vernier callipers are found to be
4.54 cm and 1.25 cm respectively, then the volume
of cylinder is
(1) 22.3 cm3 (2) 22.27 cm3
(3) 22 cm3 (4) 22.274 cm3
40. If taking Force, Length and Time to be the
fundamental quantities, then dimension of density is
(1) [ F–1 L–4 T2 ] (2) [ F L–4 T2 ]
(3) [ F2 L–4 T ] (4) [ F L3 T–2 ]
In the following questions (41 to 60), a statement of
assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason(R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
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41. A : A nucleus contains no electron, but can eject
them.
R : γ-rays are emitted by the excited nuclei.
42. A : Wavelength of Lyman series is less than that of
Balmer series.
R : In hydrogen spectrum Balmer series belongs to
visible spectrum.
43. A : A photoelectric effect can take place only with
an electron bound in the lattice.
R : Photoelectric effect confirms particle nature of
light.
44. A : Polarisation of light is sure indication of
transverse nature of light.
R : Diffraction is a sure indication of wave nature.
45. A : A single lens cannot be free from chromatic
aberration.
R : When white light passes through lens,
dispersion must occur.
46. A : The sun looks bigger in size at sunrise and
sunset during day.
R : The ray deviates after refraction by Earth’s
atmosphere.
47. A : EM waves are transverse in nature.
R : EM waves exert radiation pressure.
48. A : Magnetic field will be tangential to magnetic field
line.
R : Magnitude of magnetic field is inversely
proportional to area by which field lines are
passing.
49. A : When the plates of a charged capacitor are
connected to a resistor, a current starts flowing
in the resistor.
R : A charged capacitor acts as a battery of steady
emf.
50. A : The potential of grounded conducting body is
taken to be zero.
R : Capacitance of Earth is very large.
51. A : The amplitude of an oscillating pendulum in non
viscous medium remains same with time.
R : The frequency of oscillation decreases with time.
52. A : When the temperature of a black body is
doubled from T K to 2T K, the radial power
becomes 16 times.
R : The radiant power of a body is proportional to
fourth power of absolute temperature.
53. A : Blue star is at high temperature than red star.
R : According to Wein’s displacement law λm
T = constant, λm
= wavelength corresponding to
maximum intensity, T = temperature.
54. A : The velocity of water increases when it is flowing
in broader pipe enter a narrow pipe.
R : According to equation of continuity, product of
area and velocity is constant.
55. A : Gravitational potential on a planet may be
negative, positive and zero.
R : Gravitational potential at a point may depend
upon reference point.
56. A : A shell at rest explodes, the centre of mass of
fragments move along a straight line.
R : In explosion linear momentum of system is not
conserved.
57. A : Work done by a force may be different in
different frame of references.
R : Work is an invariant physical quantity.
58. A : The shaft of motors are provided with ball
bearings.
R : The rolling friction is lesser than sliding friction.
59. A : A body can have acceleration even if its velocity
is zero at an instant.
R : A body is at momentary rest when it reverses
its direction of motion.
60. A : Angle and strain are dimensionless.
R : Angle has unit and strain has no unit.
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[ CHEMISTRY ]
61. 5 g impure NaOH is completely neutralised by one
litre 0.1 M HCl. The percentage purity of NaOH
sample is
(1) 80% (2) 60%
(3) 40% (4) 20%
62. If the molality of NaOH in D2O is 20 m, then
difference between mole fractions of D2O and NaOH
will be
(1)2
7(2)
5
7
(3)1
7(4)
3
7
63. A list of species having the formula XY4 is given
below
XeF4, SF
4, SiF
4, BF
4, BrF
4, [Cu(NH
3)4]2+, [FeCl
4]2–,
[NiCl4]2– and [PdCl
4]2–
Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and
Y atoms, the total number of species having a
square planar shape is
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
64. The equivalent mass of X2 in the following reaction
(molecular mass is M) is
NaOH
2 3 2X NaX NaXO H OΔ⎯⎯⎯→ + +
(1)M
5(2)
2M
5
(3)3M
5(4)
M
2
65. Ammonium carbamate dissociates as
2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+���⇀
↽���
In a closed vessel containing ammonium carbamate
in equilibrium, ammonia is added such that the
partial pressure of ammonia at new equilibrium is 3
2
times to the original total pressure. The ratio of total
pressure now to the original pressure is
(1)761
486(2)
9
2
(3)16
81(4)
31
27
66. Equal volumes of two strong acids having pH = 4
and pH = 6 are mixed. How much volume of this
mixture is required to neutralise the 100 ml 0.2 N
NaOH solution?
(1) 3.96 litre (2) 3.96 ml
(3) 3.96 × 105 ml (4) 3.96 × 106 ml
67. In the given compound
H C – C – C = CH – CH – CH – CH3 3
H
H – CH2
H H
H(i)
(ii) (iii) (iv)
(v)
The correct order of reactivity of H atoms towards
free radical substitution is
(1) (ii) > (iv) > (i) > (v) > (iii)
(2) (ii) > (i) > (v) > (iii) > (iv)
(3) (v) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)
(4) (ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)
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68. IUPAC name of the following compound is
H C–CH –CH –CH–CH–CH –3 2 2 2
CH –CH –CH 2 2 3
CH2
H C–C–CH3 3
CH3
CH3
H C–C–CH3 3
CH2
(1) Bis-4,5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)nonane
(2) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(2′,2′-dimethylpropyl)-4-
propylnonane
(3) 4,5-Dineopentyldecane
(4) 2,2-Dimethyl-5-(3′,3′-dimethylpropyl)nonane
69. Metal rod M is dipped in 0.2 M solution of MSO4.
The salt is 80% dissociated at this dilution at
298 K. The reduction electrode potential of metal will
be 2
0
M | M(E –0.7 V)+ =
(1) –0.6765 V (2) +0.6765 V
(3) +0.7235 V (4) –0.7235 V
70. In one solid substance A atoms are at corners, B
atoms are at face centres, C atoms are at
octahedral voids and D atoms are at tetrahedral
voids in a cube. If atoms touching one body diagonal
plane is removed then what is the formula of the
compound?
(1) AB3C
4D
8(2) AB
6C
5D
8
(3) AB4C
5D
8(4) AB
4C
6D
8
71. A black compound of manganese reacts with a
halogen acid (Y) to give greenish yellow gas (X).
When excess of (X) is reacted with NH3 gas then Y
and Z compounds are formed. The species X, Y and
Z respectively are
(1) MnCl2, HCl and Cl
2(2) Cl
2, HCl and NCl
3
(3) HCl, Cl2
and NCl3
(4) F2, HF and NF
3
72. Match the complexes given in column I with the
hybridisation and primary valency in column II and
assign the correct code.
Column I Column II
a. [Cr(H2O)
6]Cl
3(i) sp3d2, 2
b. [Co(NH3)6]Br
3(ii) sp3d2, 3
c. [Ni(NH3)6]Cl
2(iii) d2sp3, 3
d. K3[FeF
6] (iv) d2sp3, 2
(1) a(iii), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
73. In the given reaction sequence product ‘C’ is
OCH OH
2
5 6 5PCl C H OHMg
etherA B CΔ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(1)O
CH2
O
(2) C6H
5OCH
3
(3)
OOCH
3
(4)
OCH
3
74. An ester (A) with molecular formula C9H
10O
2 was
treated with excess of CH3MgBr and the complex
so formed was treated with H2SO
4 and heated to
give an olefin (B). Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone
with molecular formula C8H
8O which shows positive
iodoform test. The structure of (A) is
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(1) C2H
5COOC
6H
5
(2) C6H
5COOC
2H
5
(3)
COCH3
OCH3
(4) H C – O – CH – C – C H3 2 6 5
O
75. The number of dichlorobutane isomers (structural
only) which can be formed by the reaction of
CH3CH
2CH
2CH
3 with Cl
2/hν is
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 8
76. Which of the following is the correct ratio of root
mean square speed to average speed of a gas
molecule at a particular temperature?
(1) 1.086 : 1 (2) 3.946 : 3
(3) 1 : 1.086 (4) 1.086 : 2
77. Wavelength of second line in the Brackett series of
hydrogen spectrum is
(1)H
144 R
5(2)
H5 R
144
(3)H
11
15R(4)
H
144
5 R
78.Sn/HCl
3(Major )
CH Cl AgCN A B+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Sn/HCl
3(Major )
CH Cl NaCN C D+ ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Sn/HCl
3 2 3CH NH CHCl KOH E F+ + ⎯⎯→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯→
Select the incorrect option regarding above reaction
sequences
(1) B & F are identical
(2) D and F are identical
(3) D & F are functional isomers
(4) B & D are functional isomers
79. Most volatile substance among the following is
(1) CH3 – CH
2 – CH
2 – NH
2
(2) (CH3)3N
(3) (C2H
5)2NH
(4) CH3
– CH2 – CH
2 – OH
80. H C – CH – CH = CH3 2
CH3
H /H O+
2 A (major)
B H /THF2 3
H O /OH2 2
B
Hg(OCOCH )/H O3 2
NaBH4
C
The correct statement regarding above reactions is
(1) Products A and B are same
(2) Products B and C are same
(3) Products C and A are same
(4) Products A, B and C are isomers
81. The correct stability order of the following carbanions is
CH – CH3 2
(I)
H C = CH – CH2 2
(II)
C H C6 5
H2
(III)
HC C≡(IV)
(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) I < IV < II < III
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) II < I < III < IV
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82. If the value of l indicates a subshell, then maximum
number of electrons that can be accommodated in
any subshell is given by
(1) 4l – 2 (2) 4l + 2
(3) 2l + 2 (4) 2l – 2
83. Number of electrons, protons and neutrons,
respectively in phosphate anion are
(1) 50, 47 & 48 (2) 47, 48 & 50
(3) 42, 41 & 40 (4) 40, 41 & 42
84. Out of the following, which forms buffer on mixing?
(1) 20 ml of 0.5 M CH3COOH and 50 ml of 0.2 M
NaOH
(2) 100 ml of 0.1 M HCOOH and 100 ml of 0.1 M
KOH
(3) 75 ml of 0.1 M NaOH and 150 ml of 0.1 M
CH3COOH
(4) 50 ml of 0.2 M KOH and 10 ml of 0.5 M
HCOOH
85. R3SiCl on hydrolysis followed by heating forms
(1) R3SiOH (2) R
3SiOSiR
3
(3) R2SiO (4) Si(OR)
4
86. Identify the paramagnetic species among the
following
(1) K4[Fe(CN)
6] (2) [Ni(CO)
4]
(3) [Ni(CN)4]2– (4) [NiCl
4]2–
87. Which of the following elements has the least
tendency to form ionic compounds?
(1) Be (2) Ca
(3) K (4) Na
88. The E° value of cell reaction will be
2 2 3Fe (aq) Cu (aq) Fe (aq) Cu (aq)+ + + ++ ⎯⎯→ +
[Given, 2 3 2
o o
Cu |Cu Fe |FeE a volt, E b volt+ + + += = ]
(1) b – a (2) a – b
(3) a + b (4) –(a + b)
89. Relative percentage yields of (A) and (B),
respectively in the following reaction are expected to
be
H C – CH – CH3 3
CH3
+ Cl2
hνH C – C – CH
3 3
CH3
Cl
(A)
+
H C – CH – CH – Cl3 2
CH3
(B)
(1) 50%, 50% (2) 64.29%, 35.71%
(3) 35.71%, 64.29% (4) 40%, 60%
90. For the estimation of nitrogen, 7 g of an organic
compound was digested by Kjeldhahl’s method and
the evolved ammonia was absorbed in 200 ml of M
20
sulphuric acid. The unreacted acid required 100 ml
of M
10 sodium hydroxide for complete neutralization.
The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is
(1) 2% (2) 6%
(3) 5% (4) 10%
91. Total number of optically active compound(s) formed
in the given reaction is
CH3
HPh
HO
3
(i) HCN/OH
(ii) H O
−
+⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 4
92. The geometry around boron atom in boric acid is
(1) Trigonal planar (2) Tetrahedral
(3) Pyramidal (4) Linear
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93. Which of the following reactions has Kp = K
c?
(1)5 3 2
PCl (g) PCl (g) Cl (g)+���⇀↽���
(2)3 2 2
2NH (g) N (g) 3H (g)+���⇀↽���
(3)2 2
H (g) CI (g) 2HCI(g)+ ���⇀↽���
(4) 2 2 2
1H (g) O (g) H O(l)
2+ ���⇀
↽���
94. The rate of reaction A ⎯→ B, is 5.0 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1.
The time in which the concentration of reactants changed
from 0.04 mol L–1 to 0.03 mol L–1 is
(1) 0.2 s (2) 2.0 s
(3) 0.8 s (4) 1.3 s
95. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
(1) β-D-galactose and β-D-glucose
(2) α-D-galactose and α-D-glucose
(3) α-D-galactose and β-D-glucose
(4) β-D-galactose and α-D-glucose
96. The physical process involved in chromatography is
(1) Distillation (2) Sublimation
(3) Adsorption (4) Liquation
97. Which of the following sets of axial angles and edge
lengths represent minimum number in Bravais
lattices?
(1) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b = c
(2) α = β = γ = 90° and a = b ≠ c
(3) α = β = γ = 90° and a ≠ b ≠ c
(4) α = β = γ ≠ 90° and a = b = c
98. According to IUPAC nomenclature, ‘Alkoxycarbonyl’
is a prefix used for
(1) Ethers (2) Esters
(3) Acid halides (4) Amides
99. The oxidation number of oxygen in CsO2 molecule is
(1) –2 (2) –1
(3)1
–2
(4) +1
100. Hybridisation of central atom in SF4 molecule is
(1) sp3d
(2) dsp3
(3) sp3
(4) d2sp3
In the following questions (101 to 120), a statement
of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
101. A : Aqueous gold colloidal sol can be red in colour.
R : The colour arises due to scattering of light by
particles of gold in the gold sol.
102. A : For a fixed amount of an ideal gas PV is always
constant at constant temperature where P is
pressure and V is volume.
R : PV value for ideal gas is directly proportional to
temperature even if mass is not constant.
103. A : Cu+ ion is more stable than Cu2+ in aqueous
solution.
R : Cu2+ has [Ar]3d10 (fully filled configuration) where
as Cu+ is not having fully filled 3d configuration.
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104. A : The heat released in hydrogenation of benzene
is three times to the cyclohexene.
R : Benzene has degree of unsaturation three and
cyclohexene has degree of unsaturation one.
105. A : ΔH is one of the contributory factor in deciding
spontaneity.
R : ΔH = positive, means process is always
spontaneous.
106. A : is an aromatic compound.
R : Out of 8π electrons, it has 6π electrons in one
ring following Huckel rule.
107. A : CFC’s are stable compounds.
R : CFC’s undergo decomposition in presence of UV
radiation in the stratosphere.
108. A : Aromatic aldehydes are more reactive than
aliphatic aldehydes towards nucleophillic addition
reactions.
R : Aromatic aldehyde on nucleophillic addition gives
product with one less carbon.
109. A : Enzymes are naturally occurring simple or
conjugate proteins.
R : Enzymes are highly pH sensitive.
110. A : Non-metallic character increases and metallic
character decreases on moving from left to right
in periodic table.
R : Both ionisation enthalpy and electron gain
enthalpy decrease from left to right in periods.
111. A : The dichromate ion is relatively stable in acidic
medium and converts into chromate ion in
alkaline medium.
R : The colour of dichromate ion is due to the charge
transfer spectrum
112. A : Ga has larger atomic radius than Al.
R : Generally on moving down the group atomic
radius decreases.
113. A : Entropy of egg increases on boiling.
R : Generally randomness decreases on the
conversion of liquid to solid.
114. A : Osmotic pressure of 0.1 M NaCl is equal to that of
0.1 M glucose solution.
R : When molarity of two solutions is same then
their osmotic pressure are same.
115. A : Energy is absorbed for the transition of e– from
4s to 3d level in hydrogen atom.
R : Energy of electron in all atoms depends on n + l
value.
116. A : LiHCO3 cannot be obtained in solid state.
R : Carbonates and bicarbonates of Li are less
stable than rest of the alkali metals.
117. A : The electron gain enthalpy of nitrogen is positive.
R : Nitrogen atom has very small size and half filled
p-subshell.
118. A : Zinc is not considered as transition element.
R : Zinc does not show variable oxidation state.
119. A : Physical adsorption takes place on the surface
only.
R : Chemical adsorption takes place on the surface
as well as in the bulk.
120. A : Beryllium fluoride is highly soluble in water.
R : Beryllium forms [Be(H2O)
4]2+ due to its
hydration.
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[ BIOLOGY ]
121. Read the following statements carefully.
a. Snow-blindness is caused by UV-C radiation.
b. Montreal protocol was signed at Canada to
control the emission of ozone depleting
substances.
c. Euro III norms stipulate that sulphur be
controlled at 350 ppm in diesel and 150 ppm in
petrol.
d. Electrostatic precipitator can remove over
99 percent of particulate matter present in the
exhaust from a thermal power plant.
How many statements are correct?
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
122. Match the following
Column I Column II
a. Brassica (i) Protein rich
b. Mung bean (ii) Hill bunt
c. Himgiri (iii) White rust
d. Atlas-66 (iv) Yellow mosaic virus
(1) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
123. Identify the correct statement regarding
photosynthesis.
(1) Oxygen in glucose comes from H2O
(2) RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for O2 than
CO2
(3) Cyclic photophosphorylation operates under high
light intensity and aerobic conditions
(4) H+ concentration is more in lumen than stroma
to produce proton motive force during ATP
synthesis through chemiosmosis
124. A plant with genotype AABB is 20 cm tall, crossed
with 12 cm tall plant with genotype aabb. F1 of this
cross is 16 cm tall. If it is a polygenic trait then in
F2 generation, how many plants have height 16 cm
and 14 cm respectively?
(1) 4 & 6
(2) 6 & 4
(3) 4 & 2
(4) 4 & 4
125. Mark the incorrect match w.r.t. cell organelles and
their functions
(1) Mitochondria – ATP synthesis
(2) Chloroplast – Glucose synthesis
(3) Peroxisome – Photophosphorylation
(4) Nucleolus – Ribosome synthesis
126. If a female plant is hexaploid (6n) and a male plant
is diploid then find out the ploidy of embryo and
endosperm in seeds of angiosperms and
gymnosperms respectively?
(1) 5n, 7n & 5n, 3n
(2) 4n, 7n & 4n, 7n
(3) 4n, 7n & 7n, 4n
(4) 4n, 7n & 4n, 3n
127. Choose the correct statement for meiosis
(1) Zygotene stage is longer than pachytene
(2) Leptotene stage is shorter than pachytene
(3) Diakinesis is marked by dissolution of the
synaptonemal complex
(4) Tetrad stage is not a result of synapsis of
homologous chromosomes
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128. Hormone Florigen is synthesised
(1) When photoperiod exceeds than the critical in
SDP
(2) If the plant is in juvenile phase
(3) In mature leaf if it gets appropriate photoperiodic
stimulus
(4) In senescent leaves
129. Match the columns
Column I Column II
(Mineral (Deficiency symptoms)
elements)
a. Fe (i) Grey speck in oats
b. Mo (ii) Loss of apical dominance
c. B (iii) Chlorosis in leaf
d. Mn (iv) Delayed flowering
(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
130. Four cells A, B, C and D have same osmotic
pressure but their turgor pressures are 10, 8, 6 and
4 respectively, if all four cells are interconnected
then movement of water will be
(1)A B
C D
(2)A B
C D
(3)A B
C D
(4)A B
C D
131. Which one is the feature of monocot stem?
(1) Presence of phloem parenchyma
(2) Larger vascular bundles are arranged towards the
periphery
(3) Sclerenchymatous sheath surrounds each
vascular bundle
(4) Absence of schizolysigenous cavity
132. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. fungi which
reproduce asexually by exogenous spores and
sexually by endogenous spores
(1) May be decomposers or parasites
(2) Do not possess delayed karyogamy
(3) Motile structures do not occur in the life cycle
(4) May not be symbiont in ectomycorrhiza
133. Match the columns
Column I Column II
a. Soap box like cell wall (i) Chl a and Chl b
b. Mixotrophic nutrition (ii) Ciliated protozoans
c. Dimorphic nucleus (iii) Passive floating
d. Gonyaulax (iv) Red tide
(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(ii)
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii)
134. Oxidative decarboxylation occurs in Krebs cycle
when
(1) Oxalosuccinic acid ⎯→ α-ketoglutaric acid
(2) α-ketoglutaric acid ⎯→ Succinyl CoA
(3) Succinyl CoA ⎯→ Succinic acid
(4) Malic acid ⎯→ Oxaloacetic acid
135. Cyclosporin-A is
(1) Produced by actinomycetes
(2) Cholesterol lowering agent
(3) Immunosuppressive agent
(4) Used for clearing of fruit juice
136. Relationship between sea anemone and hermit crab
is
(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Predation
(4) Protocooperation
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137. Given below is the sequence of nucleotides on
m-RNA
5′ AUG UUU GUG UCA AGU UAA 3′How many amino acid could be coded before and
after replacement of 11 th nucleotide by G,
respectively?
(1) 5, 5 (2) 5, 3
(3) 3, 3 (4) 3, 5
138. Find out the incorrect match.
(1) Steller’s sea cow – Russia
(2) Thylacine – Australia
(3) Quagga – America
(4) Dodo – Mauritius
139. How many of the given plants belong to the family
with floral formula ⊕+
P A G(3+3) 3+3 (3)?
Petunia, Colchicum Atropa AlliumCapsicum Glycine Solanum AloeLycopersicum Gloriosa Nicotiana
, , ,
, , , ,
, ,
(1) 6 (2) 8
(3) 5 (4) 4
140. The ploidy level of rhizoids, protonema, leaf,
oosphere, androcyte mother cell, apophysis and
calyptra in Funaria are respectively
(1) N, 2N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N
(2) N, N, N, N, N, 2N and N
(3) N, N, N, N, 2N, 2N and N
(4) N, N, N, 2N, 2N, 2N and 2N
141. Select the correct statement w.r.t. internal ear of
humans
(1) The membranous labyrinth of the inner ear is a
series of channels inside which lies the bony
labyrinth
(2) The Reissner’s and Basilar membrane divide the
surrounding perilymph filled bony labyrinth into an
upper scala vestibuli and lower scala tympani
(3) The space within cochlea, called scala media, is
filled with perilymph
(4) The entire bony labyrinth is filled with a fluid
called endolymph
142. Consider the following statements w.r.t. an animal
tissue.
(a) The intercellular material is solid and pliable,
resisting compression
(b) Cells are enclosed in small cavities called
lacunae within the matrix secreted by them
(c) The tissue interacts with smooth muscles to
bring about body movements
(d) It is the site of production of blood cells
The statements which are applicable to cartilage
include
(1) (a), (b) & (d) (2) (a), (c) & (d)
(3) (c) & (d) (4) (a) & (b)
143. Presence of exoskeleton of thick cuticle, haemocoel;
metameric segmentation and tube within tube body
plan are features of
(1) Ancylostoma (2) Loligo
(3) Laccifer (4) Pheretima
144. Selective destruction of zona fasciculata of adrenal
cortex would produce a deficiency of which
hormone?
(1) Aldosterone (2) Cortisol
(3) Androgenic steroids (4) DHEA
145. With respect to molecules present in a cell, the
incorrect statement will be
(1) Low temperature destroys the enzyme activity
while high temperature preserves the enzyme in
inactive state
(2) Biocatalysts in a cell can be both proteinaceous
and nucleic acid in nature
(3) Structure of glycogen is similar to amylopectin
part of starch
(4) Glucose is an aldo-hexose while fructose is a
keto-hexose
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146. The formation of a second polar body and a haploid
ovum in humans occurs
(1) Within the ovary by completion of unequal
meiotic division of oocyte
(2) In the fallopian tube, induced by entry of sperm
into the oocyte
(3) In the fallopian tube by completion of second but
equal meiotic division
(4) Within the ovary; induced by LH surge
147. Emergency contraceptives are most effective when
administered any time within ______ period following
unprotected coitus
(1) Seven day (2) Six day
(3) Three day (4) Four day
148. Which of the following statements will be incorrect
in the context of modern concept of evolution?
(1) Interbreeding among members of different
species is prevented by reproductive isolation
barriers
(2) A smaller gene pool will lead to significantly
large variations, helping the species to dominate
all competitors
(3) Ultimate source of all variations are mutations
(4) A multicellular body is divisible into somatoplasm
and germplasm and only changes in germplasm
are inheritable
149. Natural selection theory proposed by Charles Darwin
for explaining ‘organic evolution’ was based on which
of the following concepts?
(1) Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable
variations which led to survival of those having
the variations
(2) Inheritance of somatic characteristics acquired
through a life long use or disuse
(3) Differential reproduction rates, struggle for
existence and survival of the fittest
(4) Continuity of germplasm
150. In the initial rDNA experiments conducted by Eli-Lilly
to produce humulin in E.coli, the protein chains
obtained from bacteria
(1) Included an essential C-peptide chain
(2) Included separate A and B protein chains which
combined to form active human insulin
(3) Were joined by ionic bonds to form active
human insulin
(4) Could be administered orally to diabetics
151. Which of the following is a successful product of
application of RNAi technique in plants?
(1) Fortified golden rice
(2) GM Bt cotton
(3) Nematode resistant tobacco plant
(4) Production of Hirudin from Brassica napus
152. Injection of tetanus anti-toxin in a person for quick
recovery from possibly fatal symptoms will be called
(1) Passive immunisation
(2) Secondary/Anamnestic immune response
(3) Primary immune response
(4) Artificial active immunity
153. The pair of hormones acting on pancreas to
stimulate secretion of water and bicarbonates from it
and to stimulate secretion of digestive enzymes from
it respectively, is
(1) GIP and CCK-PZ
(2) Secretin and GIP
(3) Secretin and Cholecystokinin-pancreozymin
(4) Cholecystokinin and Secretin
154. The structure of human ear that lies immediately on
top of stereocilia of sensory hair cells of Organ of
Corti is
(1) Otolith (2) Basilar membrane
(3) Tectorial membrane (4) Reissner's membrane
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155. The statements which are correct for the human
eye/vision are
a. In human eye, maximum refraction occurs when
light passes through lens.
b. The space between cornea and the lens is
called aqueous chamber
c. Vitreous humor is continuously renewed by
drainage and synthesis throughout life
d. Visual cortex area of the brain is located in
frontal lobe of cerebrum
(1) a & b (2) Only b
(3) a, c & d (4) a, b & d
156. Which of the following will be incorrect w.r.t. joint
diastole stage of a cardiac cycle?
(1) Tricuspid and bicuspid valves remain open during
joint diastole
(2) The semilunar valves remain open throughout the
joint diastole to allow ventricles to receive blood
(3) Blood from vena cava flows into right ventricle
through right atrium
(4) Blood from pulmonary veins flows into left
ventricle through left atrium
157. Choose the correct option w.r.t cardiac muscles.
(1) Communication junctions between cardiac
muscle fibres allow the cells of atria to contract
as a single unit
(2) Z-lines of cardiac muscles are composed of
actin proteins
(3) Molecular basis for contraction of heart muscles
is Ca2+ – calmodulin binding
(4) Multinucleated fibres are held together at
intercalated discs
158. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t.
Myasthenia gravis?
(1) Antibodies inhibit the activity of acetylcholine-
sterase enzyme competitively
(2) Antibodies mask the acetylcholine receptors on
sarcolemma
(3) Antibodies destroy the acetylcholine receptors of
presynaptic membrane at neuromuscular
junction
(4) Antibodies bind to presynaptic membrane and
inhibit the release of acetylcholine
159. The cause of sudden increase of LH hormone in the
mid cycle is
(1) Negative feedback of estrogen on the anterior
pituitary
(2) Negative feedback of progestrone on the
hypothalamus
(3) Positive feedback of estrogen on the anterior
pituitary
(4) Positive feedback of FSH on the ovary
160. Arrival of an impulse at axon terminals stimulates the
movement of synaptic vesicles towards
A membrane in a/an B synapse.
Select the option filling both blanks correctly.
(1) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Electrical
(2) A– Pre-synaptic, B– Chemical
(3) A– Post-synaptic, B– Electrical
(4) A– Post-synaptic, B– Chemical
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In the following questions (161 to 180), a statement
of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R).
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and thereason is the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but thereason is not the correct explanation of theassertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason isfalse, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
statements, then mark (4).
161. A : Inside the mature seed, the embryo is the
progenitor of the next generation.
R : Zygote is the vital link that ensures continuity of
species between organisms of one generation
and the next.
162. A : The mycelium of basidiomycetes is septate.
R : Rust and smut fungi have dolipore septa and
fruiting body.
163. A : Generally red algae are found at great depths in
ocean.
R : Red algae reproduce by isogamy and
accompanied by complex post fertilization
developments.
164. A : Excitation of chlorophyll molecules after
absorption of sunlight is the first step of
photosynthesis.
R : Shield pigments protect chl-a from
photooxidation.
165. A : Ions are absorbed from the soil by active means
only.
R : Suberin layer in root endodermis is able to
transport ions in both directions.
166. A : Primary succession is a very slow process.
R : Primary succession starts in abandoned
farmlands, generally.
167. A : In date palm, autogamy and geitonogamy are
absent.
R : Date palm is a dioecious plant.
168. A : In racemose type inflorescence, the main axis
terminates into a flower.
R : Solitary terminal flower is found in china rose.
169. A : Archaebacteria survive in extreme harsh
environment.
R : Archaebacteria have different composition of cell
wall and cell membrane than other bacteria.
170. A : Growth is not a defining feature of living
beings.
R : Snow mountains show intrinsic growth.
171. A : At high altitudes availability of oxygen reduces,
so it becomes more difficult for a person to
breathe.
R : Rate of breathing increases at high altitudes
along with occurrence of polycythemia in blood.
172. A : Vaccination provides usually permanent, long
term immunity to a child against deadly
diseases.
R : Vaccines generate memory B and T cells which
recognise the actual pathogen on a subsequent
exposure; overwhelming it with a massive
production of antibodies.
173. A : Force of contraction of white skeletal muscle
fibres is vigorous but they undergo fatigue
rapidly.
R : White skeletal muscle fibres have abundant
sarcoplasmic reticulum but possess very less
quantity of myoglobin.
174. A : Malthus’ essay on principles of population
growth and study of finches of Galapagos
islands had huge influence on Darwin while he
conceptualized his natural selection theory.
R : Darwin conducted many artificial selection
experiments to support the concept of selection
by nature
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181. ARIES i.e. Aryabhatta Research Institute of
observational Science is located in which of the
following state?
(1) Uttarakhand
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Punjab
(4) Bihar
182. Which country will host 2018 Shanghai Cooperation
Organization (SCO) summit?
(1) India
(2) Thailand
(3) China
(4) Afghanistan
183. "Gevora" which has been claimed as world's tallest
hotel is situated in which of the following city?
(1) Dubai (2) Britain
(3) France (4) India
[ GENERAL KNOWLEDGE ]
184. Stephen Hawking who has recently passed away,
belongs to which of the following country?
(1) USA (2) UK
(3) Japan (4) France
185. 105th session of Indian Science Congress (ISC) has
been hosted in which of the following state of India?
(1) Manipur (2) Punjab
(3) Sikkim (4) Kerala
186. The joint military exercise "Desert Tiger-5" was held
between UAE and which country?
(1) Malaysia (2) Cambodia
(3) Thailand (4) USA
187. Which state has highest number of fully covered
tribal habitations with the safe drinking water?
(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Odisha (4) Assam
175. A : Human heart is called myogenic.
R : Neural signals through sympathetic nervous
system can increase the strength of ventricular
muscle contraction.
176. A : The compounds in the human eyes, composed
of retinal and opsin proteins, are photosensitive.
R : Light induces dissociation of retinal from opsins,
causing membrane permeability changes in
photo receptor cells.
177. A : Evolution can be considered as a stochastic
process, based on chance events occurring in
nature.
R : Anthropogenic actions have resulted in selection
of antibiotic sensitive microbes and insects in a
time scale of years rather than centuries.
178. A : Biological response modifiers like α-interferons
can be used to activate a person’s immune
system and help in destroying tumors.
R : Interferons increase MHC-I expression on tumour
cells thereby increasing cytotoxic T-lymphocyte
activity.
179. A : All copulations do not result in fertilisation and
pregnancy.
R : Oocyte and sperms must simultaneously reach
the ampulla part of fallopian tube to result in
successful fertilization.
180. A : In porifers, external fertilization takes place
R : Most porifers are found in fresh water.
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191. Soldier : Regiment :: ?
(1) Wheels : Bearings (2) Coil : Motor
(3) Book : Printer (4) CO2
: Gas
192. In a certain code language, if the word 'UNIVERSAL'
is coded as 'AEILNRSUV' and 'FOUNDATION' is
coded as 'ADFINNOOTU', then how the word
'MANAGER' is coded in that language?
(1) AAEGNMR (2) AAEMGNR
(3) AAEGMNR (4) ARMENAG
193. Select the correct number that is missing in the
number series given below:
13, 195, 15, 17, 323, 19, 21, ?, 23
(1) 441 (2) 399
(3) 483 (4) 575
194. Select the alternative, the box that can be formed by
folding the sheet shown in the given figure
(A) (B) (C) (D)
[ APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING ]
(1) Only (A) (2) Both (A) and (C)
(3) (A), (B) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
195. The missing number is
60
5 4
25
54
20 1
17
?
2 9
14
(1) 66
(2) 72
(3) 71
(4) 60
196. How many days are there in m2 weeks n days?
(1) 7m2 + m (2) m2 + n
(3) 7m2 + n (4) 7n2 + m
197. An accurate clock shows 7 o'clock in the morning.
Through how may degrees will the hour hand rotate
when the clock shows 1 o'clock in the afternoon?
(1) 168º
(2) 180º
(3) 188º
(4) 200º
188. India's first insect museum is situated which of the
following state of India?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Punjab
(3) Haryana (4) Odisha
189. Krishna Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in which of the
following state of India?
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Punjab (4) Odisha
190. Which of the following was India's Flag-bearer at the
closing ceremony of the 21st Commonwealth Games
2018?
(1) Mary Kom (2) Abhinav Bindra
(3) Heena Sidhu (4) P. V. Sindhu
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� � �
Directions (Q.198 & Q.199) : Refer to the following Venn
diagram:
16
19
99
14 1213
13
2018 18
15 16
History
Science
Mathematics
Geography
198. The number of students who took at least two
subjects is
(1) 139 (2) 158
(3) 119 (4) 137
199. The number of students who took only three of the
above subjects is
(1) 62
(2) 63
(3) 64
(4) 66
200. Find the odd one, out of the following numbers.
11, 13, 15, 17, 18, 19,
(1) 13
(2) 17
(3) 18
(4) 19
CBT - 02 (Code B) (Answers) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
1/8
1. (1)
2. (1)
3. (2)
4. (2)
5. (2)
6. (3)
7. (4)
8. (2)
9. (3)
10. (2)
11. (3)
12. (1)
13. (2)
14. (1)
15. (3)
16. (2)
17. (1)
18. (1)
19. (1)
20. (1)
21. (3)
22. (1)
23. (2)
24. (1)
25. (3)
26. (1)
27. (3)
28. (1)
29. (3)
30. (3)
31. (3)
32. (1)
33. (2)
34. (1)
35. (2)
36. (1)
37. (4)
38. (1)
39. (1)
40. (2)
Test Date : 20/05/2018
CBT - 02 (CODE B)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical - 2018
ANSWERS
41. (2)
42. (2)
43. (2)
44. (2)
45. (1)
46. (1)
47. (2)
48. (3)
49. (3)
50. (2)
51. (3)
52. (1)
53. (1)
54. (1)
55. (1)
56. (4)
57. (3)
58. (1)
59. (2)
60. (2)
61. (1)
62. (4)
63. (2)
64. (3)
65. (1)
66. (3)
67. (4)
68. (2)
69. (4)
70. (3)
71. (2)
72. (1)
73. (4)
74. (2)
75. (3)
76. (1)
77. (4)
78. (2)
79. (2)
80. (4)
81. (3)
82. (2)
83. (1)
84. (3)
85. (2)
86. (4)
87. (1)
88. (2)
89. (3)
90. (1)
91. (2)
92. (1)
93. (3)
94. (1)
95. (1)
96. (3)
97. (4)
98. (2)
99. (3)
100. (1)
101. (1)
102. (3)
103. (4)
104. (4)
105. (3)
106. (1)
107. (2)
108. (4)
109. (2)
110. (3)
111. (2)
112. (4)
113. (2)
114. (4)
115. (4)
116. (2)
117. (1)
118. (2)
119. (3)
120. (1)
121. (3)
122. (2)
123. (4)
124. (2)
125. (3)
126. (4)
127. (2)
128. (3)
129. (2)
130. (2)
131. (3)
132. (2)
133. (3)
134. (2)
135. (3)
136. (4)
137. (2)
138. (3)
139. (4)
140. (2)
141. (2)
142. (4)
143. (3)
144. (2)
145. (1)
146. (2)
147. (3)
148. (2)
149. (3)
150. (2)
151. (3)
152. (1)
153. (3)
154. (3)
155. (2)
156. (2)
157. (1)
158. (2)
159. (3)
160. (2)
161. (2)
162. (3)
163. (3)
164. (2)
165. (4)
166. (3)
167. (1)
168. (4)
169. (1)
170. (3)
171. (2)
172. (1)
173. (1)
174. (2)
175. (2)
176. (1)
177. (3)
178. (1)
179. (1)
180. (4)
181. (1)
182. (3)
183. (1)
184. (2)
185. (1)
186. (1)
187. (2)
188. (1)
189. (2)
190. (1)
191. (2)
192. (3)
193. (3)
194. (1)
195. (4)
196. (3)
197. (2)
198. (1)
199. (1)
200. (3)
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints)
2/8
PHYSICS
1. Answer (1)
δ = (i + e) – A
3
4i e A= = ×
2. Answer (1)
2
04 cos
2I I
φ=
2x
πφ = × Δλ
3. Answer (2)
L = v0 + u
e
0 0 0
1 1 1–
f v u=
1 1 1–
e e ef v u
=
4. Answer (2)
1
2
3
2
f
f=
1 2
1 1 1
f f f= +
5. Answer (2)
6. Answer (3)
E = Δmc2
= (13 × 7.3 – 12 × 7.68) = 5.34 eV
7. Answer (4)
8. Answer (2)
9. Answer (3)
E = W + ev0
10. Answer (2)
2
2
13.6–
zE E
n∞=
E = 54.5 eV
11. Answer (3)
12. Answer (1)
13. Answer (2)
B = μnI
HINTS
14. Answer (1)
θrTcosθT
θTcosθT
TsinθTsinθ
θ
2T sinθ = IdLB
2Tθ = I2rθB
T = IrB
15. Answer (3)
t = 0, R2 is short-circuited by capacitor
16. Answer (2)
2 21 1
2 2+ Δ = +CV qv CV H
H = 2CV 2
17. Answer (1)
(4 ) 4 4 (4 )0
2
×+ + =kQ e k e e kQ e
a a a
18. Answer (1)
2
2 1 10
1
– 20logr
dB dBr
⎛ ⎞= ⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
19. Answer (1)
20. Answer (1)
04
vf
l=
21. Answer (3)
ΔQ1 = nC
vΔT + nC
pΔT
= 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
3 5[2 ] [4 2 ]
2 2− + −P V P V P V P V
= 0 0
13
2P V
22. Answer (1)
1
Δ=− γ
nR TW
23. Answer (2)
1 2
1 2
1 2
1 2
p pp
v v v
nC n CC
C nC n C
+=
+
24. Answer (1)
loge(T – T
0) = –kt + c
CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
3/8
25. Answer (3)
26. Answer (1)
( )
1/2
2
2 1
2
1– /
ghv
A A
⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥=⎢ ⎥⎡ ⎤⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦⎣ ⎦
27. Answer (3)
V1ρ
1g + V
2ρ
2g = Vρg
1 2
2
VV V= =
28. Answer (1)
P1 – P
2 =
21
2vρ ⇒ v = 10 m/s
29. Answer (3)
2gR is equal to escape so total energy will be
zero
30. Answer (3)
–2
GmME
a=
31. Answer (3)
ConstantL =�
0τ =�
32. Answer (1)
33. Answer (2)
1 1 2 2
cm
1 2
mv m v
v
m m
+=
+
� �
�
34. Answer (1)
35. Answer (2)
2
2
k mv
rr=
KE = –E
36. Answer (1)
. ( )M M
lg L l gL L
μ = −
3
Ll =
37. Answer (4)
2hT
g=
38. Answer (1)
. 0F P =� �
39. Answer (1)
40. Answer (2)
ρ = Fa lb Tc
ML–3 = [MLT–2]a [L]b [T]c
So a = 1, b = –4, c = 2
41. Answer (2)
42. Answer (2)
43. Answer (2)
44. Answer (2)
45. Answer (1)
46. Answer (1)
47. Answer (2)
48. Answer (3)
49. Answer (3)
50. Answer (2)
51. Answer (3)
52. Answer (1)
53. Answer (1)
54. Answer (1)
55. Answer (1)
56. Answer (4)
57. Answer (3)
58. Answer (1)
59. Answer (2)
60. Answer (2)
CHEMISTRY
61. Answer (1)
eq. NaOH = eq HCl
x(1) (0.1)
40= ⇒ x = 4g
% purity = 4
100 80%5
× =
62. Answer (4)
2
NaOH
D O
n20m
1 W in kg= = , n
NaOH = 20,
2D OW 1 kg=
2D O
1000n 50
20= =
XNaOH
= 2
7,
2D O
5X
7=
∴ Difference is 3
7
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints)
4/8
63. Answer (2)
XeF4 , BrF4 , [Cu(NH
3)4]2+ and [PdCl
4]2– are square
planar.
64. Answer (3)
Molar massE
n-factor=
5n-factor
3=
65. Answer (1)
2 4 3 2NH COONH (s) 2NH (g) CO (g)+���⇀
↽���
2P + P = 3P (initial total pressure)
Initial, Kp = (2P)2 (P) = 4P3
After addition of NH3 ⇒
3NH
3 9P (3P) P
2 2= =
Let 2
COP x=
then
2
39P (x) 4P
2
⎛ ⎞ =⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
2
381P(x) 4P
4
⎛ ⎞=⎜ ⎟
⎝ ⎠
3
2
16P 16x P
8181P= =
9 16P P
Final total P 7612 81
3PInitial total P 486
1
+= =
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠
66. Answer (3)
–4 –6
mix
(V)(10 ) (V)(10 )N
V V
+=+
= 5.05 × 10–5
NaOH, Vb = 100 ml, N
b = 0.2 N
Vmix
Nmix
= VbN
b
5
mix 5
2(100)
2010V 10 ml
5.055.05 10−
⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠= = ×
× = 3.96 × 105 ml
67. Answer (4)
(ii) > (iv) > (v) > (i) > (iii)
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓allyl 2° 1° vinyl
and 3°
allyl
and 2°
68. Answer (2)
IUPAC name of following compound is
H C–CH3 2
–CH –CH –CH–CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 2 2 2 3
H C–C–CH 3 3
CH3
CH2
5 6 7 8 9
H C–C–CH 3 3
CH2
CH3
3
2
1
2,2-dimethyl-5-(2,2 dimethylpropyl)-4-propylnonane′−
4
1′
2′
3′
69. Answer (4)
Salt is 80% dissociated 2 80
[M ] 0.2 0.16100
+ = × =
M2+ + 2e– ⎯→ M(s)
According to Nernst equation,
2 2
o
2M /M M /M
0.0591 1E E – log
n [M ]+ + +=
0.0591 1–0.7 – log
2 0.16= = –0.7235 volt
70. Answer (3)
(3–1) (8 4) 1 4 5 81 31 4
2 2
A B C D A B C D−⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞− −⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠
=
71. Answer (2)
X = Cl2, Y = HCl, Z = NCl
3
72. Answer (1)
According to VBT and Werner theory of complexes.
73. Answer (4)
OCH Cl
2
A =
O CH MgCl2
B =
OCH
3
C =
74. Answer (2)
RCOOR + Excess′ 3° alcoholH SO
2 4
Alkeneozonolysis
KetoneC H O
(+ve iodoform)8 8
CH – C – C H3 6 5
O
(a) RMgX
CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
5/8
Then in the ester one must be aryl group.
(a) is
C H – C – OC H6 5 2 5
CH MgX3
C H – C – CH6 5 3
OH
CH3
H SO2 4
C = CH2
H C5 6
H C3
C H – C – CH6 5 3
O
+ HC – H
O
Ozonolysis
O
75. Answer (3)
CH3CH CH CH
2 2 3
Cl /h2
ν
Cl
CH2–CH–CH –CH
2 3
Cl
+
Cl
CH2–CH –CH–CH
2 3
Cl
Cl
CH2–CH –CH –CH
2 2 2
Cl
+
Cl
CH3–C–CH CH
2 3+
Cl
CH3 3–CH–CH–CH
Cl
+
Cl
+
Cl
CH –CH –CH –CH2 2 3
+
Cl
76. Answer (1)
3RT 8RT 8C : C : 3 :
22M M
7
= =π
563 :
22= 3 : 2.545= = 1.732 : 1.595
= 1.086 : 1
77. Answer (4)
2
H 2 2
1 2
1 1 1R z –
n n
⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥λ ⎣ ⎦
2
H
1 1R (1) –
16 36
⎡ ⎤= ⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
H
144
5Rλ =
78. Answer (2)
A = CH3NC, B = CH
3–NH–CH
3, C = CH
3CN,
D = CH3–CH
2–NH
2, E = CH
3NC, F = CH
3–NH–CH
3
79. Answer (2)
80. Answer (4)
A is 3° alcohol, B is 1°alcohol and C is 2° alcohol
with same number of carbon.
81. Answer (3)
Correct order is
6 5 2 2 2 3 2HC C C H CH CH CH CH CH CH
−≡ > > = − >
82. Answer (2)
Number of electrons in s, p, d, f are
0 + 2, 4 + 2, 8 + 2, 12 + 2
⇒ 4(0) + 2, 4(1) + 2, 4(2) + 2, 4(3) + 2
⇒ 4l + 2
83. Answer (1)
Electrons = 15 + 4(8) + 3(1) = 50
Protons = 15 + 4 × 8 = 47
Neutrons = 16 + 32 = 48
84. Answer (3)
For acidic buffer, equivalents of weak acid >
equivalents of strong base.
85. Answer (2)
2R SiCl3
HOHR Si OH
3
R SiO H3
ΔR Si – O –
3SiR
3
86. Answer (4)
Option (1), (2) & (3) have zero number of unpaired
electrons.
[NiCl4]2– has Ni2+ : [Ar]3d8 has two unpaired
electrons.
87. Answer (1)
According to Fajan’s rule.
88. Answer (2)
Fe 2+
Fe + e3+ –
; E° = –b V
Cu + e 2+ –
Cu+
; E° = a V
Fe + Cu2+ 2+
Fe + Cu3+ + ; E = (a – b) volt
o
89. Answer (3)
(1) (5) 500%A 100 35.71%
(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =
+
(9) (1) 900%B 100 64.29%
(1) (5) (9) (1) 14= × = =
+
90. Answer (1)
2 4 2 4H SO H SO NaOH NaOH
organic compound
(V N – V N )%N (1.4)
W=
1 1(200) – (100)
10 10(1.4) 2%
7
⎡ ⎤⎛ ⎞ ⎛ ⎞⎜ ⎟ ⎜ ⎟⎢ ⎥⎝ ⎠ ⎝ ⎠⎢ ⎥= =
⎢ ⎥⎢ ⎥⎣ ⎦
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints)
6/8
91. Answer (2)
92. Answer (1)
B
HO
HO
OH( )sp
2
93. Answer (3)
gn
p cK K (RT)
Δ=If Δn
g = 0 then K
p = K
c
94. Answer (1)
Rate (r) = Change in concentration ( C)
time (t)
Δ
–2
–2 –2
C 0.01 10 1t 0.2 s
r 55 10 5 10
Δ= = = = =× ×
95. Answer (1)
Fact
96. Answer (3)
Fact
97. Answer (4)
Option (1) is cubic, has 3 bravais lattices
Option (2) is tetragonal, has 2 bravais lattices
Option (3) is orthorhombic, has 4 bravais lattices
Option (4) is rhombohedral, has 1 bravais lattice
which is minimum.
98. Answer (2)
Alkoxycarbonyl is a prefix used for esters.
99. Answer (3)
The oxidation number of oxygen in superoxides is1
–2
.
100. Answer (1)
For neutral molecule.
number of hybridised orbitals
(H) = 1
2 [Valence electron of central atom
+ number of monovalent surrounding atoms]
31H [6 4] 5
2= + = = sp d
101. Answer (1)
Fact
102. Answer (3)
For a fixed amount (n must constant) only PV ∝ T.
103. Answer (4)
Cu+ is not stable in aqueous medium because it
disproportionate spontaneously in water.
104. Answer (4)
Resonance is present in benzene. So heat released
is not three times to cyclohexene.
105. Answer (3)
ΔG = ΔH – TΔS, with ΔS < 0, the process will be
non-spontaneous, if ΔH > 0 at all temperatures.
106. Answer (1)
One ring aromatic and other ring is non aromatic. So
total compound is aromatic.
107. Answer (2)
Fact
108. Answer (4)
R – CHO is more reactive than ArCHO.
109. Answer (2)
Both (A) & (R) are correct and (R) is not correct
explanation of (A).
110. Answer (3)
IE and EA increases from left to right in periodic
table.
111. Answer (2)
Both (A) & (R) are correct.
112. Answer (4)
Al has more radius than Ga. This is due to poor
shielding in Ga.
113. Answer (2)
In the denaturation of protein (boiling of egg) entropy
increases.
114. Answer (4)
van’t Hoff factor for NaCl is 2 and for glucose is one.
115. Answer (4)
For hydrogen energy depends on only ‘n’ value. So
energy is released when electron comes from 4s to
3d.
116. Answer (2)
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not correct
explanation for (A).
117. Answer (1)
Reason is correct explanation of (A) and both are
correct.
118. Answer (2)
Zinc is not a transition element because it has
completely filled d-orbitals.
119. Answer (3)
Adsorption is a surface phenomena.
120. Answer (1)
Compounds forming complex ions are highly soluble
in water.
CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints) All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018
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BIOLOGY
121. Answer (3)
Snow blindness is caused by UV-B. radiation.
122. Answer (2)
123. Answer (4)
124. Answer (2)
AABB = 20 cm
A or B = 5 cm
aabb = 12 cm a or b = 3 cm
16 cm means = 2 dominant and 2 recessive genes
14 cm means = 1 dominant and 3 recessive genes
125. Answer (3)
Photophosphorylation is absent in peroxisome.
126. Answer (4)
In gymnosperm endosperm is haploid.
127. Answer (2)
Leptotene and zygotene stages are short-lived as
compared to pachytene.
128. Answer (3)
129. Answer (2)
130. Answer (2)
D.P.D. of A < B < C < D
131. Answer (3)
132. Answer (2)
Ascomycetes are not symbiont in mycorrhiza.
133. Answer (3)
a. Diatoms
b. Euglena
c. Paramoecium
d. Dinoflagellates
134. Answer (2)
135. Answer (3)
136. Answer (4)
137. Answer (2)
138. Answer (3)
Quagga – Africa.
139. Answer (4)
Members of liliaceae are Colchicum, Allium, Aloe,
Yucca.
140. Answer (2)
141. Answer (2)
Fact
142. Answer (4)
The site of production of red blood cells is red bone
marrow.
143. Answer (3)
Features mentioned are present in arthropods.
144. Answer (2)
Zona fasciculata is middle layer of adrenal cortex
and produces glucocorticoids mainly cortisol.
145. Answer (1)
Low temperature preserves the enzyme while high
temperature causes denaturation.
146. Answer (2)
Entry of sperm contents (head and proximal
centriole) triggers completion of unequal second
meiotic division of oocyte in fallopian tube.
147. Answer (3)
Emergency contraceptives are administered within 72
hours of unwanted sex or rape case.
148. Answer (2)
A smaller gene pool has very few variations.
149. Answer (3)
Appearance of sudden large scale inheritable
changes (mutation) was the basis of Hugo de Vries
mutation theory. Inheritance of somatic
characteristics is the basis of Lamarck’s Theory of
evolution. Continuity of germplasm concept was
given by Weismann.
150. Answer (2)
151. Answer (3)
Nematode (Meloidogyne) resistant tobacco and
Arabidopsis plants were produced by RNA i(RNA
interference).
152. Answer (1)
Readymade antibodies provide passive immunity.
153. Answer (3)
Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas and
stimulates secretion of water and bicarbonate ions.
CCK acts on both pancreas and gall bladder and
stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes and
bile juice.
154. Answer (3)
Tectorial membrane lies on top of sensory hair cells
located on basilar membrane.
155. Answer (2)
Maximum refraction occurs at cornea.
156. Answer (2)
Semilunar valves remain closed in joint diastole.
157. Answer (1)
Heart muscles are autorhythmic and the fibres are
uninucleated, having intercalated discs between them
All India Aakash Test Series for Medical-2018 CBT - 02 (Code B) (Hints)
8/8
158. Answer (2)
Myasthenia gravis is autoimmune neurological
disorder in which antibodies are produced which bind
with the receptors of acetylcholine on sarcolemma
and do not allow acetylcholine to bind to the
receptors. They also activate complement mediated
destruction of these receptors.
159. Answer (3)
In the mid cycle, estrogen surge exerts positive
feedback on anterior lobe for secretion of LH and
FSH.
160. Answer (2)
Synaptic vesicles fuse with pre-synaptic
membranes.
161. Answer (2)
162. Answer (3)
163. Answer (3)
Reproduces by oogamy
164. Answer (2)
165. Answer (4)
166. Answer (3)
167. Answer (1)
168. Answer (4)
169. Answer (1)
170. Answer (3)
Snow mountains show extrinsic growth.
171. Answer (2)
Rate of breathing increases due to decreased pO2
and increased pCO2of blood while polycythemia
increases the O2 carrying capacity of blood.
172. Answer (1)
The principal of vaccination is memory; providing long
term immunity.
173. Answer (1)
White muscle fibres have more Ca2+ but lesser O2
availability.
174. Answer (2)
Human heart is called myogenic as the normal
activities of heart are regulated intrinsically by
pacemaker.
175. Answer (2)
176. Answer (1)
The compounds are photosensitive as light falling on
rod and cone cells induces the dissociation of
components of these compounds.
177. Answer (3)
Chance events occurring in nature and chance
mutations in organisms affect evolution process,
telling us that evolution is not a direct process in the
sense of determinism.
178. Answer (1)
179. Answer (1)
Fertilization occurs when sperms and oocyte come
in contact with each other in viable form.
180. Answer (4)
Porifers show internal fertilization. They are mostly
marine.
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
181. Answer (1)
182. Answer (3)
183. Answer (1)
184. Answer (2)
185. Answer (1)
186. Answer (1)
187. Answer (2)
188. Answer (1)
189. Answer (2)
190. Answer (1)
APTITUDE & LOGICAL THINKING
191. Answer (2)
192. Answer (3)
All the letters are arranged in alphabetical order.
193. Answer (3)
13 × 15 = 195
17 × 19 = 323
21 × 23 = 483
194. Answer (1)
195. Answer (4)
E
a b
dc
E = (a + c) × (b + d)
196. Answer (3)
197. Answer (2)
198. Answer (1)
199. Answer (1)
200. Answer (3)
All are odd numbers other than 18.
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