e/12/2019 test booklet code - focus saudi · 2019-10-23 · [space for rough work] page 5 29. what...

Important instructions:

1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen

provided in the examination hall.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet,

take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration.

4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and

Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4( four)

marks for correct response.

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each

question. ¼ ( one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question( i.e. 1 mark) will be

deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will

be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any

question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted

accordingly as per instructions 6 above.

8. For writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet use only Black Ball Point Pen.

9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,

mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/ hall.

10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This

space is given at the bottom of each page and in the last page of the booklet.

11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty

in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

12. The CODE for this Booklet is A1 . Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet

and also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this

booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator

for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet.

E/12/2019

Test Booklet Code:

Name of the candidate (in Capital letters):

Roll Number : in figures

: in words

Examination Centre Number

Name of the examination Centre (in capital letters):

Candidate’s Signature:

Invigilator’s Signature:

PAPER-1: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet.

[Space for rough work] Page 1

PART A –PHYSICS

ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE

SCHEMATIC AND NOT DRAWN TO SCALE

1. A body travels a distance of 10 0.2 m in

a time 12 seconds. Then the error in

velocity is

1) 0.36%

2) 3.6%

3) 36 %

4) 3%

2. A car starting from rest covers a certain

distance with a constant acceleration and

attains a velocity of 20m/s. The velocity at

the middle of the distance is nearly

1) 14m/s

2) 12m/s

3) 10m/s

4) 8m/s

3. Two stones of masses in the 3:4 fall

from heights in the ratio 4:9. The ratio of

their moments on reaching the ground is

1) 1:1

2) 1:2

3) 1:3

4) 1:4

4. At her maximum height a girl in a swing

is 3 m above the ground and at the lowest

point she is 2 m above the ground. What is

her maximum velocity

1) m/s

2) m/s

3) m/s

4) 9.8 m/s

5. The acceleration due to gravity increases

by 0.5% when we go from the equator to the

poles. What will be the time period of the

pendulum at the equator which beats

seconds at the poles?

1) 1.950s

2) 1.995s

3) 2.050s

4) 2.005s

6. A thick rope of rubber of density 1.5

103 kg/m

3 and Young’s modulus 5 10

6

N/m2, 8m in length is hung from the ceiling

of a room, the increase in its length due to

its own weight is

1) 9.6 102

m

2) 9.2 102

m

3) 9.6 103

m

4) 9.6 m

7. A cylindrical vessel is filled with equal

amounts of weight of mercury and water.

The overall height of the two layers is

29.2cm, specific gravity of mercury is 13.6.

Then the pressure of the liquid at the bottom

of the vessel is

1) 29.2cm of water

2) 29.2/13.6 cm of mercury

3) 4cm of mercury

4) 15.6cm of mercury


8. An air bubble is released from the

bottom of a pond and is found to expand to

thrice its original volume as it reached the

surface. If the atmospheric pressure is 100

kPa, the absolute pressure at the bottom of

lake in kPa is (assume no temperature

variation).

1) 33.3

2) 50.0

3) 100.0

4) 300.0

9. The coffee in a cup at 100C cools at the

rate of 0.02C/s. When the room

temperature was 20C. When the room

temperature is constant, coffee at 40C

would cool at the rate of

1) 0.005C/s

2) 0.008C/s

3) 0.012C/s

4) 0.015C/s

10. A particle starts S.H.M. from the mean

position. Its amplitude is A and time period

is T. At the time when its speed is half of the

maximum speed, its displacement y is

1) 2

A

2) 2

A

3) 2

3A

4) 3

A2

11.

In the given circuit the current supplied by

the battery is.

1) 0.1A

2) 1A

3) 0.2A

4) 2A

12. For a simple pendulum executing

S.H.M., the ratio if K.E. when it passes

through the equilibrium position and its P.E.

when it has maximum amplitude is

1) less than one

2) greater than one

3) equal to one

4) equal to half

13. In a common emitter transistor amplifier

β=60 ,R0 = 5000 ohm and internal resistance

of a transistor is 500 ohm .the voltage

amplification of amplifier will be

1) 500

2) 460

3) 600

4) 560

l

10Ω

20Ω

D1

D2

2V


14. A pipe closed at one end produces a

fundamental not of 412Hz. It is cut into two

pieces of equal length. The fundamental

frequencies produced in the two pieces are

1) 206 Hz, 41 Hz

2) 824 Hz, 1648 Hz

3) 412 Hz, 824 Hz

4) 206 Hz, 824 Hz

15. If 75% of the radioactive reaction is

completed in 2 hrs, what would be the half

life of the substance?

1) 1 hour

2) 1.5 hours

3) 2 hours

4) 3 hours.

16. A parallel plate condenser has a

capacitance 50µF in air and 110µF when

immersed in an oil. The dielectric constant

‘k’ of the oil is

1) 0.45

2) 0.55

3) 1.10

4) 2.20

17. The temperature coefficient of resistance

for a wire is 0.00125/C. At 300K its

resistance is 1ohm. The temperature at

which the resistance becomes 2ohm is

1) 1154K

2) 1100K

3) 1400K

4) 1127K

18. An electron (charge = 1.6 ×1019

coulomb) is moving in a circle of radius 5.1

× 1011

m at a frequency of 6.8 × 1015

revolutions / s. The equivalent current is

approximately

1) 5.1 × 103

amp

2) 6.8 × 103

amp

3) 1.1 × 103

amp

4) 2.2 × 103

amp

19. Resistance of 100cm long potentiometer

wire is 10, it is connected to a battery

(2volt) and a resistance R in series. A source

of 10mV gives null point at 40cm length,

then external resistance R is

1) 490

2) 790

3) 590

4) 990

20. A wire of length l m carrying a current I

A is bent into a circle. The magnitude of the

magnetic moment is

1)

2)

3)

4)


21. An AC voltage source of variable

angular frequency and fixed amplitude Vo

is connected in series with a capacitance C

and an electric bulb of resistance R. when

is increased,

1) The bulb glows dimmer

2) the bulb glows brighter

3) total impedance of the circuit is

unchanged

4) total impedance increases

22. A straight wire of length 0.5 m and

carrying a current of 1.2 A placed in a

uniform magnetic field of induction 2 tesla.

The magnetic field is perpendicular to the

length of the wire. The force on the wire is

1) 2.4 N

2) 1.2 N

3) 3 N

4) 2 N

23. In LCR circuit, the voltage across each

of the components is 50 V. the voltage

across the LC combination will be

1) 100 V

2) 50 V

3) 50 V

4) 0V

24. The voltage of an ac supply varies with

time (t) as V = 120 Sin100 t cos 100 t.

The maximum voltage and frequency

respectively are

1) 120 v, 100 Hz

2) 120/ V, 100 Hz

3) 60 V, 200 Hz

4) 60V, 100 Hz

25. A fish in water sees an object 24 cm

above the surface of water. The height of

object above the surface of water that will

appear to fish is : ( = 4/3)

1) 32 cm

2) 8 cm

3) 24 cm

4) 18 cm

26. For a glass prism ( = ), the angle of

minimum deviation is equal to the angle of

prism. The angle of prism is

1) 300

2) 450

3) 600

4) 900

27. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio

signal voltage across the collector resistance

of 2 kΩ is 2V. if the base resistance is 1 kΩ

and the current amplification of the

transistor is 100, the input signal voltage is :

1) 0.1 V

2) 1.0V

3) 1 mV

4) 10 mV

28. A photon of energy 4 eV incident on a

metal surface whose work function is 2 eV.

The minimum reverse potential to be applied

for stopping the emission of electron is

1) 8V

2) 6V

3) 4V

4) 2V


29. What will be the modulating index of a

FM signal in which the modulating

frequency is 5kHz and maximum deviation

is 25kHz.

1) 12

2) 7

3) 6

4) 5

30. A transmitting antenna of height 20m

and the receiving antenna of height h are

separated by a distance of 80 km for

satisfactory communication in line of sight

mode. Then the value of h is:

1) 320 m

2) 122m

3) 110m

4) 220 m

PART B – CHEMISTRY

31. Which of the following are the

CORRECT axial distances and axial angles

for rhombohedral system?

1) a = b = c, = = 90°

2) a = b c, = = = 90°

3) a b c, = = = 90°

4) a b c, 90

32. If the coordination number of Ca2+

in CaF2

is 8, then the coordination number of F

ion would be _______.

1) 3

2) 4

3) 6

4) 8

33. Which one of the following concentration

unit is independent on temperature?

1) Normality

2) Molarity

3) Formality

4) Molality

34. A solution containing 1.8 g of a compound

(empirical formula CH2O) in 40 g of water

is observed to freeze at –0.465° C. The

molecular formula of the compound is (Kf

of water = 1.86 kg K mol–1

)

1) C2H4O2

2) C3H6O3

3) C4H8O4

4) C6H12O6

35. In reaction A+B → products, the order w.r.t

A is 1 & w.r.t B is 2. What would be the

rate if concentration of both is doubled?

1) 4 times

2) 6times

3) 8 times

4) 2 times

36. Which of the following is less than zero

during adsorption?

1) ΔG.

2) ΔS

3) ΔH.

4) All the above.

37. Pyrolusite is a/an

1) oxide ore

2) sulphide ore

3) carbide ore

4) Not an ore


38. Which one of the following exhibit

maximum ionic conductivity?

1) K4[Fe(CN)6]

2) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3

3) [Cu(CN)4]Cl2

4) [Ni(CO)4]

39. Which of the following element will form

acidic oxides of type E2O3?

1) As

2) Sb

3) Bi

4) P

40. Conant Finkelstein reaction for the

preparation of alkyl iodide is based upon

the fact that

1) Sodium iodide is soluble in

methanol, while sodiumchloride is

insoluble in methanol

2) Sodium iodide is soluble in

methanol, while NaCl and NaBr are

insoluble in methanol

3) Sodium iodide is insoluble in

methanol, while NaCl and NaBr are

soluble

4) The three halogens differ

considerably in their

electronegativity

41. n-Propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can

be chemically distinguished by which

reagent?

1) PCl5

2) Reduction

3) Oxidation with potassium

dichromate

4) Ozonolysis

42. Which of the following pairs of compounds

are enantiomers?

1) .

2) .

3) .

4) .

43. Read the following statements and choose

the correct option

(i) The carbonyl carbon atom is sp2 -

hybridised

(ii) The carbonyl carbon is an

electrophilic (Lewis acid)centre

(iii) The carbonyl oxygen is a

nucleophilic (Lewis base)centre

(iv) Carbonyl compounds are non- polar

in nature.

1) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

2) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

4) (ii) and (iv) are correct


44. Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a

measure of organic material present in

water. BOD value less than 5 ppm indicates

a water sample to be __________.

1) Rich in dissolved oxygen.

2) Poor in dissolved oxygen.

3) Highly polluted.

4) Not suitable for aquatic life

45. Buna-S is a polymer of

1) Butadiene &styrene

2) Butadiene

3) styrene

4) Butadiene & chloroprene

46. Veronal, a barbiturate drug is used as?

1) Anesthetic

2) Sedative

3) Antiseptic

4) None of these

47. The increasing order of molarity with 25 gm

each of NaOH, LiOH, Al(OH)3, KOH,

B(OH)3 in same volume of water?

1) Al(OH)3 < B(OH)3 < KOH < NaOH

< LiOH

2) LiOH < NaOH < KOH < B(OH)3 <

Al(OH)3

3) LiOH < NaOH < B(OH)3 < KOH <

Al(OH)3

4) NaOH < LiOH < B(OH)3 < Al(OH)3

< KOH

48. The value of Planck's constant is 6.63 × 10–

34 Js. The velocity of light is 3.0 × 10

8 m s

–1.

Which value is closest to the wavelength in

nanometers of a quantum of light with

frequency of 8 × 1015

s1?

1) 3 × 107

2) 2 × 10–25

3) 5 × 10–18

4) 4 × 101

49. Uncertainty in the position of an electron

(mass = 9.1 × 10–31

kg) moving with a

velocity 300 ms–1

, accurate up to 0.001%

will be (h = 6.63 × 10–34

Js)

1) 1.92 × 10–2

m

2) 3.84 × 10–2

m

3) 19.2 × 10–2

m

4) 5.76 × 10–2

m

50. Read the following three statements and

choose the correct option. Here T stands for

true and F stands for false statement.

I) Boron has a smaller first ionization

enthalpy than beryllium.

II) Nitrogen has smaller first ionization

enthalpy thanoxygen.

III) The first ionization enthalpy increases

across a period.

1) FTT

2) TFT

3) TFF

4) FFT


51. Which of the correct increasing order of

lone pair of electrons on the central atom?

1) IF7 < IF5 < CIF3 < XeF2

2) IF7 < XeF2 < CIF2 < IF5

3) IF7 < CIF3 < XeF2 < IF5

4) IF7 < XeF2 < IF5 < CIF3

52. Dalton’s law of partial pressure will not

apply to which of the following mixture of

gases

1) H2 and SO2

2) H2 and Cl2

3) H2 and CO2

4) CO2 and Cl2

53. A reaction cannot take place spontaneously

at any temperature when

1) both ΔH and ΔS are positive

2) both ΔH and ΔS are negative

3) ΔH is negative and ΔS is positive

4) ΔH is positive and ΔS is negative

54. In which of the following compounds, iron

has lowest oxidation state?

1) K3[Fe(CN)6 ]

2) K4[Fe(CN)6 ]

3) FeSO4.(NH4 )2SO4.6H2O

4) Fe(CO)5

55. Which of the following statements do not

define the characteristic property of water

“Water is a universal solvent”

1) It can dissolve maximum number of

compounds

2) It has very low dielectric constant

3) It has high liquid range

4) None of these

56. The thermal dissociation of calcium

carbonate showing heterogeneous

equilibrium is

CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2 (g)

For this reactions which of the following

is/are true

(i) K´c = [CO2(g)]

(ii) Kp = pCO2

(iii) [CaCO3(s)] and [CaO(s)] are both

constant

(iv) [ CO2(g)] is constant

1) (i), (ii) and (iv)

2) (i), (ii) and (iii)

3) (ii) and (iv)

4) (i), (iii) and (iv)

57. What is the colour of solution of alkali

metals in liquid ammonia?

1) Bronze

2) Blue

3) Green

4) Violet

58. Which of the following hydroxide is

acidic ?

1) Al(OH)3

2) Ca(OH)3

3) Tl(OH)3

4) B(OH)3


59. 0.25 g of an organic compound on

Kjeldahl's analysis gave enough ammonia to

just neutralize 10cm3 of 0.5 M H2SO4.The

percentage of nitrogen in the compound is

1) 28

2) 56

3) 14

4) 112

60. The most stable carbanion among the

following is

1)

2)

3)

4)

PART C- MATHEMATICS

61. The ratio in which yz plane divides the

line joining (2,4,5) and (3,5,7)

1) -2:3

2) 2:3

3) 3:2

4) -3:2

62. The points (0,-1,-1),(-4,4,4) ,(4,5,1) and

(3,9,4) are

1) Collinear

2) Co planar

3) Forming a square

4) None o f these

63. The value of tan-1

+tan-2

+tan-3

is

1) 0

2) 1

3)

4) –

64. If f(x) =

, then

1) f-1

(x) = f(x)

2) f-1

(x) =- f(x)

3) f(f(x)) = -x

4) none of these

65. if y = acos(logx)+bsin(logx) , then

x2

+x

=

1) 0

2) Y

3) –y

4) None of these

66. If xexy

= y + sin2x, then

at x = 0 is

equal to

1) -1

2) 1

3) 0

4) None of these


67. The minimum value of the objective

function Z= 2x+10y for linear constraints

x , y , x-y , x-5y -5 , is

1) 10

2) 15

3) 12

4) 8

68. The value of

dx is equal to

1) Log sinx-sinx+c

2) log - sinx+c

3) log + c

4) none of these

69. if A = and B =

then A2+B

2 is equal to

1)

2)

3)

4) None of these

70. The derivative of f(x) = at x = 0 is

1) 1

2) 0

3) -1

4) Does not exist

71. If the rate of change of volume of a

sphere with respect to its surface area is

6 , then its radius at that instance is

1) 3

2) 2

3) 12

4) 18

72. If ex =

and

=

at x = p , ten p is

equal to

1) 3

2) 2

3) e2

4) e3

73. The solution of ln(

= 3x+4y, y(0) = 0

, is

1) 3.e3x

+4.e-4y

= 7

2) 3e4y

-4.e-3x

= 7

3) 4e3x

+3.e-4y

= 7

4) None of these

74. Area bounded by the curve y = x3 , the x

– axis and the lines x = -2 and x = 1 is

1) -9

2)

3)

4)

75. The area cut off from the parabola 4y =

3x2

by the straight line 2y = 3x+12 is

1) 25 sq.units

2) 27 sq.units

3) 36 sq.units

4) 16 sq.units

76. Let are two unit vectors such

that + is also a unit vector. Then the

angle between is

1) 300

2) 600

3) 900

4) 1200


77. if is any vector in the plane of unit

vectors and with , then the

magnitude of the vector x ( )

1)

2) 2

3) 0

4) none of these

78.

is equal to

1) ½

2)

3)

4)

79.

equals

1) 0

2) 1

3) E

4)

80. In a school of 125 pupil, 70 passed in

chemistry,55 in physics and 30 in both .

The probability that a student who has

been selected at random has passed in one

subject only is

1)

2)

3)

4)

81. The letters of the word ASSASIN are

written down at random in a row. The

probability that no two S occur together

is

1)

2)

3)

4) none of these

82. The value of the integral

is

1) 1

2)

3)

4) none of these

83. The area in the first quadrant bounded

by y = 4x2,x = 0 , y =1 and y = 4 is

1) 2 sq.units

2) 2.5 sq units

3)

sq units

4) 3 sq.units

84. if

, then the solution of the

differential equation is

1) y = xex+c

2) y = ex+c

3) y = Axex-y

4) y = x+A


85. Which of the terms is not used in a linear

programming problem

1) slack variables

2) objective function

3) Concave region

4) feasible region

86. if f(x) =

, then f’(x) is

1) -3x2

2) 3x2

3) -36x2

4) 36x2

87. If the angle between the line

and the plane 2x-y+ z+4 =

0 is such that sin

,then value of p is

1)

2)

3)

4)

88.

=

1)

2)

3)

4) none of these

89. The domain of the function f(x) =

log10log10(1+x3) is

1) (-1, )

2) (0,

3) [0,

4) (-1,

90. If f(x) =

,

then f’(

) is

1)

2)

3)

4)

e/12/2019 test booklet code - focus saudi · 2019-10-23 · [space for rough work] page 5 29. what...

Documents