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CCNA Braindumps www.anhkhoi.com darth_cisco 640-507 These are some study questions. May the force be with you! Could you email me some questions and answers or submit them! [email protected] 1. What will happen to traffic flowing into E0, given the following standard access-list? access-list 1 deny 1.1.1.1 access-list 1 deny 2.2.2.2 int e0 ip access-group 1 in All IP packets will be stopped. 2. What command displays all SHOW parameters? Show ? 3. What Cisco command line matches the Ethernet_II encapsulation method? Arpa 4. What command will load the file ‘VERN’ from the Network File server at 1.2.3.4 during the next boot? boot system tftp VERN 1.2.3.4 5. What command displays IOS version? show version 6. What command is used to set the Secret password? enable secret [passwordname] 7. Within enable mode you type ‘R’ and hit enter. There are several commands beginning with ‘R.’ What message is returned? “Ambiguous Command.” 8. What is provided by the User Datagram Protocol? Connectionless datagram service. 9. What command views IPX RIP routing updates? debug ipx routing activity 10. What ISDN term refers to a native ISDN modem? TA. 11. What switching type reads only the address portion of frames before immediately forwarding them? Cut-Through. 12. What command displays the IPX SAP table? show ipx servers 13. What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN telephone? TE1. 14. What command begins a User mode session? Just press . 15. What user device connects to a DCE? DTE.

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CCNA Braindumps

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darth_cisco 640-507 These are some study questions. May the force be with you! Could you email me some questions and answers or submit them! [email protected] 1. What will happen to traffic flowing into E0, given the following standard access-list? access-list 1 deny 1.1.1.1 access-list 1 deny 2.2.2.2 int e0 ip access-group 1 in All IP packets will be stopped. 2. What command displays all SHOW parameters? Show ? 3. What Cisco command line matches the Ethernet_II encapsulation method? Arpa 4. What command will load the file VERN from the Network File server at 1.2.3.4 during the next boot? boot system tftp VERN 1.2.3.4 5. What command displays IOS version? show version 6. What command is used to set the Secret password? enable secret [passwordname] 7. Within enable mode you type R and hit enter. There are several commands beginning with R. What message is returned? Ambiguous Command. 8. What is provided by the User Datagram Protocol? Connectionless datagram service. 9. What command views IPX RIP routing updates? debug ipx routing activity 10. What ISDN term refers to a native ISDN modem? TA. 11. What switching type reads only the address portion of frames before immediately forwarding them? Cut-Through. 12. What command displays the IPX SAP table? show ipx servers 13. What is the standard ISDN term for a native ISDN telephone? TE1. 14. What command begins a User mode session? Just press . 15. What user device connects to a DCE? DTE. 16. What layer manages access to the Network layer? Datalink LLC Sublayer. 17. What command enables CHAP on a serial interface using PPP? ppp authentication chap 18. How does a router contact a device when its IP address, but not its MAC address is known? It uses ARP. 19. What command shows all Ethernet interfaces configured for IPX? Show ipx interface. 20. What command will view the ARP cache? show arp

21. What command allows you to see all access-lists on Serial1 for telnet? show ip int s1 22. Which of the following are examples of the Session layer? Netbios Names* SQL* NFS* XWindows* TCP 23. Which of the following are examples of the Physical Layer? FDDI* Token Ring* Ethernet* ARP LLC 24. Which of the following are classful routing protocols? EIGRP RIP* OSPF IP TCP IGRP* 25. What Channel is provided by ISDN and BRI? 2B + 1D Channel. 26. What are the five steps of data encapsulation? a. User information is converted into data b. Data is converted into segments c. Segments are converted into datagrams and packets d. Packets are put into logical frame e. Frames are put into bits 27. Of the devices available to segment a network running SNA and NetBIOS, what should never be used? A router. 28. What PPP feature binds multiple channels to form a single logical channel? multi-link ppp. 29. What switching technology reduces the size of a broadcast domain? VLAN. 30. What command within global configuration mode will change the console password? enable password [password] 31. Which of the following operate within the Datalink Layer? IPX MAC* LLC* SQL TCP 32. Which of the following operate within the Network Layer? RARP* DDP* LLC Token Ring SPX 33. How many K are ISDN BRI D and B channels? 16K and 64K, respectively. 34. What command displays the IPX network and node address on Serial 2 interface? show ipx int serial 2 35. What ranges are assigned to Class addresses A, B, and C? Class A: 1-126 Class B: 128-191 Class C: 192-223 36. What command Displays RIP routing updates? Debug IP Rip 37. You want to enable RIP on your router for interface E0. What command must be entered first? router rip 38. What command determines the number of seconds a dialup connection will wait without traffic until hanging up? dialer idle-timeout 39. What OSI layer integrates logical addressing? Network. 40. In what OSI layer do bridges operate? Datalink. 41. What solutions are available for Distance-Vector routing problems? a. Defining a Maximum b. Triggered Updates c. Split Horizon.

42. What command moves the cursor to the beginning of the line in CLI mode? Ctrl-A. 43. What advantage is offered by LAN segmentation? Decreased broadcasts. 44. What OSI layer supports optional reliability? Transport. 45. You want the text, You are connected to display when the command show interface serial 0 is entered. What command will enable this? description You are connected 46. Which command enables a display message when someone tries to log on to the router? banner motd 47. What is the most effective solution to the distance-vector count to infinity problem? Defining a Maximum. 48. Image files like GIF, PICT, and JPEG are contained in what OSI layer? Presentation. 49. What protocols are included in the OSI Network layer? a. IP b. IPX c. AppleTalk d. DECnet 50. What command displays the current time on a router? show clock 51. What command enables NetWare frame type Ethernet_802.2? sap 52. What command displays Cisco Discovery Protocol adjacencies? show cdp neighbors 53. What TCP/IP address class is used for multicast? D. 54. What command-line keywords are valid when choosing Frame-Relay LMI types? a. q933a b. cisco c. ansi 55. What command encrypts the enable password with strong encryption? enable secret [password] 56. What technologies prevent network loops in a switched environment? Spanning Tree Protocol and IEEE 802.ld. 57. How does flow control work? A station that is being overloaded with data tells the transmitting station to stop until its buffer is clear. 58. At what point between the customers site and the phone carrier is responsibility transferred? Demarc. 59. What command displays the encapsulation type of interface serial 0? show interface s0 60. What OSI layer controls end-to-end communication? Transport. 61. What are the five steps of data encapsulation? a. User information is converted into data b. The data is converted into segments c. The segments are converted into datagrams and packets d. The packers are put into logical frame e. The frames are put into bits 62. What protocol is the address 2b.0012.0c83.3879 originated from? IPX.

63. What command would enable full duplex on the first port of the card in slot 3 on a Cisco Catalyst 5000? set port duplex 3/1 full 64. What process uses LMI to resolve an IP address from a DLCI number? Inverse ARP. 65. Which of the following WAN components are not owned by the customer? LAN CO* T1 line* DTE 66. What command will display Ethernet 0s IP address? show ip interface e0 67. Which of the following are contained in the OSI Application layer? Internet Browser* Video Game* TCP LLC 68. What methods provide login access to a router? a. Aux b. Console c. Telnet d. HTTP 69. Given the IPX address 4adecn3n.0000.9a33.2643, what is the network portion of the address? 4adecn3n. 70. What command will permit SMTP mail to only host 1.2.3.4? access-list 102 permit tcp any host 1.2.3.4 eq smtp 71. Packets are a concept tied to which OSI layer? Network. 72. What acronym is assigned to equipment located on the customers site? CPE (Customer Premise Equipment). 73. What OSI layer allows Ethernet devices to identify one another at the Datalink layer? Datalink MAC Sublayer. 74. What command displays the IPX routing table? show ipx route 75. What global configuration command grants access to a serial interface on a 7500? int s 1/0/0 76. What features are common to ISDN BRI? a. Multiprotocol support b. SNMP MIB support c. Call waiting d. Compression 77. What Ethernet operation type allows only one device to transmit at a time? Half-duplex. 78. What command line option determines what traffic is interesting enough for a dialup connection? dialer-list 79. What global command loads an IOS file from FLASH memory on the next boot? boot system flash [iosfilename] 80. What function is served by Autosense? It allows the router to determine which LMI type a frame relay switch is using. 81. Which of the following operate in the OSI Physical layer? FDDI* Token Ring* SQL TCP FDDI* 82. When entering a command longer than one line, what character is used for delimiting? # 83. What command assigns and enables IPX on an interface? ipx network 4a

84. What command copies router configuration from NVRAM to a file server? copy startup-config tftp 85. How does TCP provide flow control and error checking? Acknowledgements and windowing. 86. Using Cisco IOS, what PPP data compression methods can be used? Stacker and Predictor. 87. What command can verify Application layer connectivity? Telnet. 88. What command switches from User to Privileged mode? enable 89. What command will deny all telnet traffic from subnet 2.1.3.0? deny all telnet traffic from 2.1.3.0 90. Which of the following exist at the Transport Layer? LLC IP SQL UDP* ARP 91. What command line keyword matches Ethernet_SNAP? snap 92. Among the five classes of TCP/IP addresses, how many are available to the public? 3. 93. After entering the command router igrp 50, what command enables IGRP on the router for interace E1, with an address of 155.88.3.5 and a mask of 255.255.255.0? network 157.89.0.0 94. In what OSI layer do EBCDIC and ASCII exist? Presentation. 95. What command sets the clock rate to 64K on interface serial 2 while in interface configuration mode? clock rate 64000 96. Describe the concept of Split Horizon. It is never useful to send the same routing update packet back out the same interface that it was learned. 97. Given the command ip route 1.1.1.1 255.255.255.255.0 1.2.1.2 12, what number accounts for the administrative distance? 12. 98. Which of the following are complications of Distance-Vector routing? Routing loops* Complexity of configuration Counting to infinity* Slow convergence* Periodic updates slow convergence* 99. For less CPU strain, how should Cisco routers be configured for logging? Syslog server routing. 100. What protocol uses connection-oriented updates? BGP uses TCP for reliable delivery. 101. Which of the following are Transport layer protocols? NBP* IP TCP* UDP* SPX* 102. When would the following day banner be displayed? banner motd # Howdy # Before login. 103. What command views router CPU utilization? show processes cpu 104. From a Windows 95 computer, what command will backup the IOS to the local drive using tftp (provided you have a connection between the router and tftp-server)? copy flash tftp

105. What command format is used for configuring a port on a 7xxx Cisco router with a VIP card? slot/port-adapter/port. 106. What command enables debugging of IPX RIP updates? debug ipx routing activity 107. What command enables frame relay on a routers interface? encapsulation frame-relay 108. What range of IP numbers are available for extended TCP/IP access-lists? 100-199. 109. What command verifies Network layer connectivity between two hosts? Ping 110. What does the parameter log do on IPX access lists? It logs IPX access violations when packets match particular access list entries. 111. What OSI layer controls conversation between applications? Session. 112. What function is served by the Datalink-LLC layer? It establishes media independence, provides SAPs, and provides flow control. 113. Bits are a concept essential to which OSI layer? Physical. 114. In what OSI layer does IP operate? Network. 115. Which TCP/IP class allows for the fewest valid Internet hosts? Class C. 116. What command sets encapsulation type to PPP? encapsulation ppp 117. What command starts a Cisco IOS file image upgrade? copy tftp flash 118. What command changes the CDP default interval? cdp timer 111 119. Which of the following are displayed by the command show cdp neighbor detail? Hostname* Hardware type* Subnet mask Flash memory available Incoming/outgoing port* 120. What OSI model provides services to the Application layer via a Session layer connection? Presentation. 121. What command loads the IOS from Read Only memory? boot system rom 122. How does Poison Reverse alert the network of an unavailable connected network? It sends a special routing update packet which informs all connected routers that the distance to the dead network is infinity. 123. Given the AppleTalk address 202.95 what part it the node portion of the address? 95. 124. What PPP authentication types are supported by the Cisco IOS? PAP and CHAP. 125. What switching type varies latency through a switch? Store and Forward. 126. What ISDN specification implements Setup and Teardown? Q-Series. 127. What command will deny the source address 1.2.1.2? access list 9 deny 1.2.1.2 0.0.0.0

128. What LAN segmentation rule is specified by Cisco? 70% local, 30% over the router. 129. Which of the following operate in the OSI Session layer? Netbios* SQL* NFS* X Windows* RPC* TCP 130. What command restarts a router? Reload 131. Which of the following are valid Cisco commands? down restart system exit shutdown system snap* 132. What command displays Data Link Connection Identifiers? show frame-relay pvc 133. What command enables round-robin style load balancing? IPX Maximum-paths 134. What affect do Store and Forward switches have on latency? They increase latency. 135. What encapsulation type should be used when configuring a frame-relay network between a Cisco router and a non-Cisco router? IETF. 136. What is the default Cisco Encapsulation on an Ethernet interface for IPX? novell-ether 137. Which of the following are true of SMTP? It sends email* It uses TCP* It uses port 25* It manages IP devices It receives mail 138. What commands display previous commands? a. Up arrow b. show history c. CTRL-P. 139. What device provides line clocking? DCE. 140. What OSI layer is FRAME-RELAY mapped to? Datalink. 141. What command should be used for turning off enhanced editing? terminal no editing 142. In what portion of an IP address is the network portion represented? Segment. 143. What command will configure Interface E0 with an IP address of 12.23.7.6 using a Subnet mask of 255.255.255.0? ip address 12.23.7.6 255.255.255.0 144. What command is used to set a routers network name? hostname [router_name] 145. Which of the following operate at the OSI Network layer? SPX LLC Token Ring SQL IPX* 146. What command enables load balancing over multiples paths on IPX? ipx maximum-paths 2 147. What command changes to global configuration mode from within interface configuration mode? Exit 148. At what telco office do customers local loops terminate? CO (Central Office). 149. At what OSI layer do MIDI and MPEG operate? Presentation. 150. Before changing your Telnet password, what command must first be executed from global configuration mode? line vty 0 4

151. What command will save a configuration stored in RAM to NVRAM? copy running-config startup-config 152. What term is given to the division of responsibility where the CPE ends and the local loop begins? Demarcation. 153. Which of the following are true of HDLC? Supports Stacker compression Supports point-topoint and multipoint* Default serial encapsulation* Open standard 154. What is the default bandwidth of a serial connection? 1.544 Mbps (T1). 155. Which of the following are IP applications? SMTP* ARP AURP Telnet* DNS* 156. What is the length of an IPX address? 80 bits: 32 bit network, 48 bit node. 157. Which of the following are IPX access-list functions? Block IPX traffic* Limit the number of Novell servers on a network Limit the number of workstations on a network Control SAP traffic* 158. What command will configure IP address 10.120.15.1 255.255.255.0? Router(config-if)# ip address 10.120.15.1 255.255.255.0 159. Which OSI layer performs end to end communication, segmentation, and re-assembly? Transport. 160. What command will connect access-list 101 inbound to interface e0? Router(config-if)# ip access-group 101 in 161. Where is the backup configuration file stored? In NVRAM. 162. Which of the following is performed by ICMP? Transporting routing updates Sending error and control messages* Avoiding routing loops Collision detection 163. What command will display all configured IP routing protocols? show ip protocols 164. Which of the following are required for two routers using IGRP to communicate their routes? Ethernet connection Configured for PPP Identical autonomous system number* Composite metric 165. What encapsulation type should be selected when configuring a Cisco router to connect to a non-Cisco router across a Frame Relay network? IETF. 166. What is the default IPX Ethernet encapsulation? Novell-Ether. 167. What command will display the SAP table? show ipx servers 168. What command displays all valid commands in the present mode? ? 169. Which of the following two items do TCP and UDP share in common? They operate at the Network layer They both use port numbers to identify upper level* Both are reliable Both are Transport protocols* 170. What is the maximum legal number of bits that can be borrowed from a Class C network? 6.

171. What command reloads a router? Router# reload 172. Which of the following are not LAN technologies? 802.5 HDLC* SDLC* FDDI HSSI* Frame Relay* 173. Which of the following is true of full duplex? It allows for transmission and reception of data simultaneously* It only works in a multipoint configuration It allows for transmission and reception of data but not simultaneously It does not affect bandwidth 174. Which of the following are key features of the Cisco Discovery Protocol? Verify connectivity* Does not require any layer 3 protocols to be configured* Open standard Disabled by default Will allow for the discovery of layer 3 addresses on neighbor routers* 175. What command will configure all default VTY ports? Router(config)# line vty 0 4 176. What command displays the IP routing table? show ip route 177. What is the access-list range for an extended IP access-list? 100-199. 178. What OSI layer supports the communication component of applications? Application. 179. Which OSI layer incorporates the MAC address and the LLC? Data Link. 180. What command shows ethernet0/1 interface status? show interface ethernet0/1 181. Which of the following are characteristics of IPX RIP? Distance vector* Does not support multiple paths Default encapsulation is SAP Uses ticks and hop count as a metric* 60 second updates* 182. Which of the following methods will prevent routing loops? Split horizon* Holddown timers* Poison reverse* SPF algorithm LSPs 183. What is the X.25 addressing standard? X.121. 184. What command will configure a router to boot from an IOS located on a TFTP server? boot system tftp IOS.exe 172.16.5.1 185. Which of the following is a layer 2 device? Hub Repeater Switch* Router 186. Which of the following are characteristics of IP RIP? Distance vector* 60 second updates Administrative distance of 120* Load balancing* Uses composite metric 187. What IP command tests the entire IP stack? Telnet. 188. Which of the following is true regarding the user exec and privileged exec mode? They are identical They both require the enable password The ? only works in priveleged exec mode User exec is a subset of priveleged exec mode* 189. What 2 hardware components are used to manage and/or configure a router? Console port and auxiliary port. 190. What command will display the IP host table? show hosts

191. In a wildcard mask consisting of 0s and 1s, what is indicated by the 0 and 1 setting? 1 = no match, 0 = match. 192. What keystroke terminates setup mode? Ctrl-C. 193. Which of the following are key features of IGRP? Flash updates* 60 periodic updates Poison reverse* New horizon Composite metric* 194. What switching method receives an entire frame before dispatching it? Store and forward. 195. What purpose is served by DLCI? It identifies the PVC in a Frame Relay network. 196. What is the default serial encapsulation? HDLC. 197. Which of the following are enabled by default in IGRPs composite metric? Bandwidth* Load Delay* MTU Reliability 198. What command configures the configuration-register? Router(config)# config-register 0x2102 199. What command will configure the clock rate for 56000 on a serial 0 interface? Router(configif)#clock rate 56000 200. What switching method examines the destination MAC address as the frame is being received and then begins forwarding the frame prior to receiving the entire frame? Cut-through.

Knock Out 640-507 89% Guy's, hats off to Reba, you are a saint. Thanks for your dilegence and hard work. I've been paying attention to previous comments. Here's how I feel. It is much appreciated to all others who share there resouces and anything they can give, questions or whatever. The test will trully test your knowledge. I have taken it. It is important that we all study and know our material indeptly, dump questions can take you over the edge when you are on the border passing. Remember, only job experience and hands on will give you the true 1000. By doing some patch work here is some material I have found from other dumps. Resources I used were Tom Lammle Book, Troy Systems study guide, brain buzz cramsession study guide, Certify Express sample questions. These are actual questions that are on the test below. Good Luck!! Passed 89% A few new questions from what I've seen here. Sorry I don't have a good memory for exact wording. These might be the ones I missed. Good luck. Required: Backup data for a company. Optional: Protect against vandalism and theft Optional: Protect against fire. Proposed Solution: Use a tape backup and verify it. Store the tapes onsite. a. meets all b. meets none c. meets required and first optional d. meets required and second optional e. only meets the required* What are the commonly used 802.X standards for PC based networking? Choose three a. 802.3* b. 802.4 c. 802.5* d. 802.2* I guessed 3, 5, and ...4 and I was wrong. When setting up a workstation, what do you need to access a DNS server? Choose three a. domain* b. NT Domain Server IP address c. host* d. DNS server IP* e. enable IP forwarding Which security model is easier to implement? a. user level b. share level* Identify the best documentation to consult when installing something. a. homepage of manufacturer b. cd that came with item c. readme file d. tech support line e. ??? I chose the CD and got this wrong. I don't know what is best, maybe website? What character do you start a HOSTS file with? a. ! b. # * c. & d. $ Which is a valid IP address for a class C network? a. 199.4.4.4* b. 224.4.4.4 c. 128.4.4.4 d. 191.4.4.4 What is RIP associated with? a. static routing* b. dynamic routing c. OSPF d. ???? 1. What are the valid Host ID's for 222.37.2.50 /24 ? A.) 222.37.2.48 - 222.37.2.66 B.) 222.37.2.49 222.37.2.62 C.) 222.37.2.0 - 222.37.2.255 D.) 222.37.0.0 - 222.37.255.254 E.) 222.37.2.1 222.37.2.254 D 2. Which commands listed below will move you from interface configuration mode back to global configuration mode? A.) CTL+Z B.) CTL+F C.) exit D.) global E.) config t

C CTRL-Z and CTRL-C will abort you back to the root. Exit goes back one level. 3. You have a Unix server running the TFTP Daemon. What is the command to load a configuration file from the TFTP server into the routers RAM? A.) copy tftp ram B.) copy tftp running-config C.) read tftp D.) copy tftp startup-config E.) copy tftp nvram B Remember RAM = RUNNING-CONFIG. All changes to RAM are immediate! 4. Given the following static route command, ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 4.4.4.4 125, which portion represents the next hop TCP/IP address? A.) 125 B.) 3.3.3.0 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) route E.) 4.4.4.4 E Router(config)#ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 ? A.B.C.D Forwarding router's address 5. In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control? A.) E B.) Q C.) D D.) I E.) B C B is Bearer for Data (2 channels at 64kb each). D is for Control (16kb). 6. Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence? A.) Inverse ARP. B.) Poison Reverse. C.) Triggered Updates. D.) Split Horizon. E.) Hold Down timers. C Instead of waiting on a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the routing table), DV routing protocols can send triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbor routers. Hold down timers, Poison Reverse, and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops. 7. What command would show the current configuration register settings? A.) show running-config B.) show startup-config C.) show nvram D.) show ram E.) show version F.) show ios E For most routers the configuration register settings are: 0x2102 normal operation (parse NVRAM at startup), or 0x2142 password recovery (ignore NVRAM during startup). 8. What would the following command do?: 'Show Frame-Relay PVC' A.) Display LMI Info. B.) The command is incomplete, and would be ignored. C.) Display all configured DLCI's. D.) Debug a Frame-Relay Problem. E.) Show Virtual Links. C The Permament Virtual Circuit (PVC) info is displayed along with the Data Link Connection Identifiers (DLCI)'s. 9. Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer? (3 answers) A.) SQL B.) NFS C.) IP D.) TCP E.) Netbios Names F.) Token Ring A B E Controls mechanisms such as checkpoints, terminations, and restarts to establish, maintain, and synchronize communications between applications. Examples: SQL, RFC, RPC, XWindows, NetBIOS Names Layer 5 of the OSI reference model. 10. When editing a line in the CLI mode, what does 'CTRL-P' do? A.) Moves you to the next word. B.) Moves you to the next command. C.) Moves you to the end of the line. D.) Moves you to the beginning of the line. E.) Moves you to the previous command. E

11. The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model? A.) Physical B.) Session C.) Datalink D.) Network E.) Presentation F.) Transport D ICMP is used for error handling and testing at layer 3. Ping and traceroute are examples of ICMP. Network LayerProvides path determination using a hierarchal logical address defined with a network portion and node portion, net.node.Examples: IP, IPX. 12. Which command listed below enables load balancing over two multiple paths for IPX on a Cisco router? A.) ipx routing 2 B.) ipx round-robin 2 C.) ipx maximum-paths 2 D.) ipx rip 2 E.) ipx sap 2 F.) ipx gns 2 C The default IPX routing protocol is IPX-RIP. By default, RIP selects the best path, and keeps only one route in its routing table. The 'IPX maximum-paths' command allows RIP to load balance over up to 6 paths. 13. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer? A.) IP B.) LLC C.) SQL D.) DDP E.) Ethernet E 14. What class address is 193.1.3.4 ? A.) C B.) B C.) multi-cast D.) broadcast E.) A F.) D A 15. Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_802.3. What is the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method? A.) arpa B.) snap C.) novell-ether D.) sap E.) dix F.) gns C Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers) Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare proprietary) Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard) snap = snap (field type set to 'AA') 16. What would be the first command from global configuration mode to perform the following: 1. Enable IGRP on the router for interface E0 2. Tell IGRP to use an address of 157.89.4.4 255.255.255.0 3. Tell IGRP to provide routing updates for AS number 200? A.) router igrp 157.89.4.4 B.) network 157.89.4.0 255.255.255.1 C.) router igrp int e1 D.) router igrp 157.89.0.0 E.) network 157.89.4.0 F.) router igrp 200 F. You have to specify which routing protocol first. For IGRP you must also specify the autonomous system number. Router(config)#router igrp ? Autonomous system number 17. From global configuration mode, which command will create subinterface #1 for serial 0? A.) int sub serial 0 B.) int serial 0 subinterface 1 C.) int ss 0 D.) int s0.1 point-to-point E.) int serial 0 subinterface 0 F.) int s0 D. Command syntax for creating sub-interfaces: 18. The command 'ip host Dallas 157.89.8.64' maps the host name Dallas with its IP address. What command would display all such mappings? A.) show dns B.) show dns entry dallas C.) show neighbors D.) show hosts E.) show ip table F.) show dns cache

D Router#show hosts Host Flags Age Type Address(es) www.eku.edu (temp, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.2 dallas (perm, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.64 Perm - permament static entries Temp - temporary usually resolved via DNS 19. The command 'show running-config' displays the configuration script in RAM, but what other command could you use to show information about objects stored in RAM? A.) show startupconfig B.) show all C.) show config D.) debug ram E.) show buffers F.) show start E Packets are stored in memory locations called buffers during periods when the router becomes over-loaded with other requests. 20. Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer? (2 answers) A.) SQL B.) IP C.) MAC D.) TCP E.) LLC C E MAC and LLC are the sublayers of the Datalink layer. 21. Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it? A.) Fast Forward B.) Tabling C.) Cut-Through D.) Store-and-Forward E.) Inverse ARP F.) Routing D Store-and-Forward is slower, but it checks the frame for errors before forwarding. This can actually help to improve overall network performance on noisy lines. 22. What is the standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone? A.) ET B.) LE C.) TE2 D.) TE1 E.) TA C Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital ISDN. The analog device will require an external analog to digital converter. 23. Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the application information between 2 different OS's? For example, converting ASCII to EBCIDIC. A.) Transport B.) Physical C.) Application D.) Network E.) Session F.) Presentation F. Presentation Layer Accepts data from application layer and negotiates data representation, syntax, compression and encryption. Examples: ASCII, EBCDIC, JPEG, GIF, PICT, MIDI, MPEG 24. How do you view all debugging that is currently enabled? A.) show running-config B.) show startup-config C.) show debug D.) debug update E.) show flash F.) show version C. 25. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer? A.) SQL B.) LLC C.) TCP D.) IP E.) Token Ring D Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them. At layer 3, IP is for TCP/IP. TCP is layer 4. IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4.DDP is for Appletalk 26. Which type of switching is considered to be 'wire speed?' A.) Inverted B.) Layer 4 C.) CutThrough D.) Multiplexed E.) Layer 3 F.) Store and Forward C 27. On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel. What is the rate of this channel? A.) 1.544 Mbps B.) 2.048 Mbps C.) 128 Kbps D.) 16 Kbps E.) 64 Kbps

D 28 Which commands are valid to turn off all debugging? ( 2 answers) A.) clear logging B.) no debug C.) no logging D.) clear debug E.) undebug all F.) no debug all EF 29. Which of the following are valid Host ID's for 157.89.9.50 /28 (12 bits of subnetting)? A.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.64 B.) 157.89.0.0 - 157.89.255.255 C.) 157.89.9.0 - 157.89.9.255 D.) 157.89.9.32 - 157.89.9.63 E.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.62 E Below is a very easy to use shortcut that requires no binary math: Figure out the mask: /28 = 255.255.255.240 Figure out the subnet multiple: 256-240=16 Subnets are 16,32,48,64,80, etc This is subnet 48, next subnet is 64, so the broadcast address is 63! Everything between the subnet (48) and broadcast (63) are the valid hosts. In this example, based on the given mask, the valid host ranges are 49-62. 30. What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches? A.) They decrease latency. B.) They forward the frame before it is completely read. C.) They are the same a Cut-Through switching. D.) They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding. E.) They work at wire speed. D 31. Given the following address: 157.89.8.64 255.255.0.0 which part represents the host portion of the address? A.) 0.89.8.64 B.) 0.0.8.64 C.) 157.89.0.0 D.) 157.0.0.0 E.) 0.0.0.64 B Using the subnet mask 255.255.0.0, the first 16 bits represent the network, the last 16 bits represent the host. 32. Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology? A.) F-Series B.) ISeries C.) World Series D.) 911-Series E.) Q-Series F.) J-Series B The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I: Q - Call setup and teardown. I - Concepts and terminology. 33. Which command would change the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) update to 90 second intervals? A.) cdp router 90 B.) router cdp 90 C.) cdp timer 1.5 D.) set timer cdp=1.5 E.) cdp timer 90 F.) timer cdp 1.5 E 34. Which command will copy the routers configuration script from RAM to NVRAM? A.) copy running-config startup-config B.) NVRAM is read-only, so this is not possible. C.) save ram nvram D.) save ram E.) copy all A 35. Which command listed below sets the banner message when someone connects to the router? A.) description # B.) login banner # C.) banner # D.) login description # E.) message # F.) banner motd # F

36 What should be the first command to create an access-list that prevents all users on subnetwork 10.10.128.0, using subnet mask 255.255.192.0, from being able to telnet anywhere? A.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.0.0 any eq telnet B.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.192.255 any eq telnet C.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.128.255 any eq telnet D.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.63.255 any eq telnet E.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.192.0 any eq telnet F.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.127.255 any eq telnet D Wildcard masks for an entire subnet are easy to figure out (shortcut): Local Broadcast - Subnet Mask = Inverted Wildcard Masks 255.255.255.255 -255.255.192. 0 ----------------- 0. 0. 63.255 37. What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay? A.) IETF B.) ARPA C.) SAP D.) Cisco E.) Gandalf5 F.) Q933A D Local Management Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A. 38. Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination? A.) Network B.) Physical C.) Transport D.) Session E.) Datalink A The Network layer is where routing occurs. (If you don't get this question right, there's always a job at McDonalds!!) 39. Your Ethernet interface currently has the IP address of 1.1.1.1/24. You would like it to have a second IP address of 2.2.2.2/24. Which command will do that? A.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 B.) ip address 1.1.1.1 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 C.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 secondary D.) This cannot be done, you can only have 1 IP address per physical interface. E.) ip address 2.2.2.2 /24 C 40. MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model? A.) Session B.) Transport C.) Presentation D.) Network E.) Application F.) Datalink C The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG. Encryption can also occur at this layer. 41. Which global configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS from ROM at next boot? A.) This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used. B.) boot system flash IOS_filename C.) config-register 0x2102 D.) boot system rom E.) boot system tftp IOS_filename tftp_address D 42. What is the default subnet mask for a TCP/IP Class B address? (2 answers) A.) 255.255.0.0 B.) /8 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) /24 E.) /16 F.) 255.0.0.0 AE 43. Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a route back out the direction from which the original packet came. This is an example of which routing technology? A.) Split Horizon B.) LMI C.) SYN, ACK D.) DLCI E.) Poison Reverse F.) Triggered Updates

A The golden rule of Split Horizon: Do not send any update packet back out the same interface that it was received or learned from. Poison Reverse is typically used on larger networks, where a more aggressive routing loop solution is required. 44. You want to set the telnet password to Boston. What would be the first command you need to execute from global configuration mode? A.) enable password boston B.) login boston C.) login password boston D.) set password=boston E.) password boston F.) line vty 0 4 F 45. Which command will start the process for creating a Cisco IOS file image backup to a network file server? A.) copy ios tftp B.) copy ios network C.) copy tftp flash D.) copy flash tftp E.) copy ios flash D The IOS is stored in flash. The command format is: copy [source] [destination] 46. How do you determine which standard IP access lists are applied to interface E0 ? A.) show ip access-list B.) show access-lists C.) show ip interface e0 D.) show interface e0 E.) show accesslist e0 C To see which specific protocol access-lists are bound to the interface, Show ip int e0 or Show ipx int e0 The command 'show access-lists' will display all access lists that exist, not just the ones bound to a certian interface. 47. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) uses advertisements and discoveries. How does it send this information? A.) Over a SNAP-capable link. B.) Layer 3 broadcast. C.) CDP does not use advertisements. D.) Layer 2 multicast. E.) Layer 4 TCP. F.) SAP. A D The Cisco proprietary protocol uses multicast, so that only other Cisco devices will listen to these packets. CDP requires a SNAP-capable link to transmit. 48. In the TCP/IP protocol stack, there are five classes of addresses. Which class is used for testing? A.) B B.) A C.) D D.) C E.) E E A,B,C are valid for use on the internet D is multicast E is for research 49. Which subnet is the host 200.1.1.67 /26 on? A.) 200.1.1.32 B.) 200.1.1.128 C.) 200.1.1.0 D.) 200.1.1.16 E.) 200.1.1.64 E Shorthand notation /26 = 2 bits in the last octet = decimal 255.255.255.192 Shortcut: 256 - 192 = 64. Valid subnets are multiples of 64. (64, 128, 192, 256). The closest value to 67 is between 64 (the network) and 127 (the broadcast). 50. The Datalink layer works with which of the following: A.) Bits B.) Packets C.) Frames D.) Globules E.) Segments

Kevin 640-507 1. What are the valid Host ID's for 222.37.2.50 /24 ? A.) 222.37.2.48 - 222.37.2.66 B.) 222.37.2.49 - 222.37.2.62 C.) 222.37.2.0 - 222.37.2.255 D.) 222.37.0.0 - 222.37.255.254 E.) 222.37.2.1 222.37.2.254 D 2. Which commands listed below will move you from interface configuration mode back to global configuration mode? A.) CTL+Z B.) CTL+F C.) exit D.) global E.) config t C CTRL-Z and CTRL-C will abort you back to the root. Exit goes back one level. 3. You have a Unix server running the TFTP Daemon. What is the command to load a configuration file from the TFTP server into the routers RAM? A.) copy tftp ram B.) copy tftp running-config C.) read tftp D.) copy tftp startup-config E.) copy tftp nvram B Remember RAM = RUNNING-CONFIG. All changes to RAM are immediate! 4. Given the following static route command, ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 4.4.4.4 125, which portion represents the next hop TCP/IP address? A.) 125 B.) 3.3.3.0 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) route E.) 4.4.4.4 E Router(config)#ip route 3.3.3.0 255.255.255.0 ? A.B.C.D Forwarding router's address 5. In regards to the ISDN BRI standard, which channel is used for control? A.) E B.) Q C.) D D.) I E.) B C B is Bearer for Data (2 channels at 64kb each). D is for Control (16kb). 6. Which Distance Vector characteristic can help to speed up convergence? A.) Inverse ARP. B.) Poison Reverse. C.) Triggered Updates. D.) Split Horizon. E.) Hold Down timers. C Instead of waiting on a pre-set periodic interval (before sending the routing table), DV routing protocols can send triggered updates to immediately notify the neighbor routers. Hold down timers, Poison Reverse, and Split Horizon are features that are used to avoid routing loops. 7. What command would show the current configuration register settings? A.) show running-config B.) show startup-config C.) show nvram D.) show ram E.) show version F.) show ios E For most routers the configuration register settings are: 0x2102 normal operation (parse NVRAM at startup), or 0x2142 password recovery (ignore NVRAM during startup). 8. What would the following command do?: 'Show Frame-Relay PVC' A.) Display LMI Info. B.) The command is incomplete, and would be ignored. C.) Display all configured DLCI's. D.) Debug a Frame-Relay Problem. E.) Show Virtual Links. C The Permament Virtual Circuit (PVC) info is displayed along with the Data Link Connection

Identifiers (DLCI)'s. 9. Which of the following are examples of the Session Layer? (3 answers) A.) SQL B.) NFS C.) IP D.) TCP E.) Netbios Names F.) Token Ring A B E Controls mechanisms such as checkpoints, terminations, and restarts to establish, maintain, and synchronize communications between applications. Examples: SQL, RFC, RPC, X-Windows, NetBIOS Names Layer 5 of the OSI reference model. 10. When editing a line in the CLI mode, what does 'CTRL-P' do? A.) Moves you to the next word. B.) Moves you to the next command. C.) Moves you to the end of the line. D.) Moves you to the beginning of the line. E.) Moves you to the previous command. E 11. The Internet Control Message Protocol occurs at what layer of the seven layer model? A.) Physical B.) Session C.) Datalink D.) Network E.) Presentation F.) Transport D ICMP is used for error handling and testing at layer 3. Ping and traceroute are examples of ICMP. Network LayerProvides path determination using a hierarchal logical address defined with a network portion and node portion, net.node.Examples: IP, IPX. 12. Which command listed below enables load balancing over two multiple paths for IPX on a Cisco router? A.) ipx routing 2 B.) ipx round-robin 2 C.) ipx maximum-paths 2 D.) ipx rip 2 E.) ipx sap 2 F.) ipx gns 2 C The default IPX routing protocol is IPX-RIP. By default, RIP selects the best path, and keeps only one route in its routing table. The 'IPX maximum-paths' command allows RIP to load balance over up to 6 paths. 13. Which of the following is an example of the Physical Layer? A.) IP B.) LLC C.) SQL D.) DDP E.) Ethernet E 14. What class address is 193.1.3.4 ? A.) C B.) B C.) multi-cast D.) broadcast E.) A F.) D A 15. Novell NetWare has an Ethernet frame type called Ethernet_802.3. What is the matching Cisco command line keyword for this encapsulation method? A.) arpa B.) snap C.) novell-ether D.) sap E.) dix F.) gns C Novell 802.2 = sap (contains 802.2 LLC headers) Novell 802.3 = novell-ether (NetWare proprietary) Ethernet_II = arpa (the Internet standard) snap = snap (field type set to 'AA') 16. What would be the first command from global configuration mode to perform the following: 1. Enable IGRP on the router for interface E0 2. Tell IGRP to use an address of 157.89.4.4 255.255.255.0 3. Tell IGRP to provide routing updates for AS number 200? A.) router igrp 157.89.4.4 B.) network 157.89.4.0 255.255.255.1 C.) router igrp int e1 D.) router igrp 157.89.0.0

E.) network 157.89.4.0 F.) router igrp 200 F. You have to specify which routing protocol first. For IGRP you must also specify the autonomous system number. Router(config)#router igrp ? Autonomous system number 17. From global configuration mode, which command will create subinterface #1 for serial 0? A.) int sub serial 0 B.) int serial 0 subinterface 1 C.) int ss 0 D.) int s0.1 point-to-point E.) int serial 0 subinterface 0 F.) int s0 D. Command syntax for creating sub-interfaces: 18. The command 'ip host Dallas 157.89.8.64' maps the host name Dallas with its IP address. What command would display all such mappings? A.) show dns B.) show dns entry dallas C.) show neighbors D.) show hosts E.) show ip table F.) show dns cache D Router#show hosts Host Flags Age Type Address(es) www.eku.edu (temp, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.2 dallas (perm, OK) 0 IP 157.89.8.64 Perm - permament static entries Temp - temporary usually resolved via DNS 19. The command 'show running-config' displays the configuration script in RAM, but what other command could you use to show information about objects stored in RAM? A.) show startupconfig B.) show all C.) show config D.) debug ram E.) show buffers F.) show start E Packets are stored in memory locations called buffers during periods when the router becomes over-loaded with other requests. 20. Which of the following are examples of the Datalink Layer? (2 answers) A.) SQL B.) IP C.) MAC D.) TCP E.) LLC C E MAC and LLC are the sublayers of the Datalink layer. 21. Which type of switching reads in the entire frame before forwarding it? A.) Fast Forward B.) Tabling C.) Cut-Through D.) Store-and-Forward E.) Inverse ARP F.) Routing D Store-and-Forward is slower, but it checks the frame for errors before forwarding. This can actually help to improve overall network performance on noisy lines. 22. What is the standard ISDN term for a non-native analog telephone? A.) ET B.) LE C.) TE2 D.) TE1 E.) TA C Terminal Equipment 2 (TE2) does not support native digital ISDN. The analog device will require an external analog to digital converter. 23. Which layer of the 7 layer model is responsible for representing the application information between 2 different OS's? For example, converting ASCII to EBCIDIC. A.) Transport B.) Physical C.) Application D.) Network E.) Session F.) Presentation F. Presentation Layer Accepts data from application layer and negotiates data representation, syntax, compression and encryption. Examples: ASCII, EBCDIC, JPEG, GIF, PICT, MIDI, MPEG 24. How do you view all debugging that is currently enabled? A.) show running-config B.) show startup-config C.) show debug D.) debug update E.) show flash F.) show version

C. 25. Which of the following is an example of the Network Layer? A.) SQL B.) LLC C.) TCP D.) IP E.) Token Ring D Most protocol suites have differnet OSI layer protocols within them. At layer 3, IP is for TCP/IP. TCP is layer 4. IPX is for IPX/SPX. SPX is layer 4.DDP is for Appletalk 26. Which type of switching is considered to be 'wire speed?' A.) Inverted B.) Layer 4 C.) CutThrough D.) Multiplexed E.) Layer 3 F.) Store and Forward C 27. On an ISDN BRI interface, the control channel is the 'D' channel. What is the rate of this channel? A.) 1.544 Mbps B.) 2.048 Mbps C.) 128 Kbps D.) 16 Kbps E.) 64 Kbps D 28 Which commands are valid to turn off all debugging? ( 2 answers) A.) clear logging B.) no debug C.) no logging D.) clear debug E.) undebug all F.) no debug all EF 29. Which of the following are valid Host ID's for 157.89.9.50 /28 (12 bits of subnetting)? A.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.64 B.) 157.89.0.0 - 157.89.255.255 C.) 157.89.9.0 - 157.89.9.255 D.) 157.89.9.32 - 157.89.9.63 E.) 157.89.9.49 - 157.89.9.62 E Below is a very easy to use shortcut that requires no binary math: Figure out the mask: /28 = 255.255.255.240 Figure out the subnet multiple: 256-240=16 Subnets are 16,32,48,64,80, etc This is subnet 48, next subnet is 64, so the broadcast address is 63! Everything between the subnet (48) and broadcast (63) are the valid hosts. In this example, based on the given mask, the valid host ranges are 49-62. 30. What is a characteristic of Store and Forward switches? A.) They decrease latency. B.) They forward the frame before it is completely read. C.) They are the same a Cut-Through switching. D.) They read the entire frame and check CRC before forwarding. E.) They work at wire speed. D 31. Given the following address: 157.89.8.64 255.255.0.0 which part represents the host portion of the address? A.) 0.89.8.64 B.) 0.0.8.64 C.) 157.89.0.0 D.) 157.0.0.0 E.) 0.0.0.64 B Using the subnet mask 255.255.0.0, the first 16 bits represent the network, the last 16 bits represent the host. 32. Which ISDN specification series deals with Concepts and Terminology? A.) F-Series B.) ISeries C.) World Series D.) 911-Series E.) Q-Series F.) J-Series B The 2 most important ISDN specifications are Q & I: Q - Call setup and teardown. I - Concepts and terminology.

33. Which command would change the Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) update to 90 second intervals? A.) cdp router 90 B.) router cdp 90 C.) cdp timer 1.5 D.) set timer cdp=1.5 E.) cdp timer 90 F.) timer cdp 1.5 E 34. Which command will copy the routers configuration script from RAM to NVRAM? A.) copy running-config startup-config B.) NVRAM is read-only, so this is not possible. C.) save ram nvram D.) save ram E.) copy all A 35. Which command listed below sets the banner message when someone connects to the router? A.) description # B.) login banner # C.) banner # D.) login description # E.) message # F.) banner motd # F 36 What should be the first command to create an access-list that prevents all users on subnetwork 10.10.128.0, using subnet mask 255.255.192.0, from being able to telnet anywhere? A.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.0.0 any eq telnet B.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.192.255 any eq telnet C.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.128.255 any eq telnet D.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.63.255 any eq telnet E.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 255.255.192.0 any eq telnet F.) access-list 101 deny tcp 10.10.128.0 0.0.127.255 any eq telnet D Wildcard masks for an entire subnet are easy to figure out (shortcut): Local Broadcast - Subnet Mask = Inverted Wildcard Masks 255.255.255.255 -255.255.192. 0 ----------------- 0. 0. 63.255 37. What is the default LMI type for Cisco Routers that are using Frame-Relay? A.) IETF B.) ARPA C.) SAP D.) Cisco E.) Gandalf5 F.) Q933A D Local Management Interface (LMI) types are Cisco, ANSI, and Q933A. 38. Which OSI Reference Layer is concerned with path determination? A.) Network B.) Physical C.) Transport D.) Session E.) Datalink A The Network layer is where routing occurs. (If you don't get this question right, there's always a job at McDonalds!!) 39. Your Ethernet interface currently has the IP address of 1.1.1.1/24. You would like it to have a second IP address of 2.2.2.2/24. Which command will do that? A.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 B.) ip address 1.1.1.1 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 C.) ip address 2.2.2.2 255.255.255.0 secondary D.) This cannot be done, you can only have 1 IP address per physical interface. E.) ip address 2.2.2.2 /24 C 40. MIDI and MPEG are examples of what layer of the OSI seven layer model? A.) Session B.) Transport C.) Presentation D.) Network E.) Application F.) Datalink

C The OSI Presentation layer includes EBCIDIC, ASCII, PICT, GIF, MIDI, and MPEG. Encryption can also occur at this layer. 41. Which global configuration command will tell the router to load the IOS from ROM at next boot? A.) This can not be done, only the first file in flash can be used. B.) boot system flash IOS_filename C.) config-register 0x2102 D.) boot system rom E.) boot system tftp IOS_filename tftp_address D 42. What is the default subnet mask for a TCP/IP Class B address? (2 answers) A.) 255.255.0.0 B.) /8 C.) 255.255.255.0 D.) /24 E.) /16 F.) 255.0.0.0 AE 43. Most routing protocols recognize that it is never useful to send information about a route back out the direction from which the original packet came. This is an example of which routing technology? A.) Split Horizon B.) LMI C.) SYN, ACK D.) DLCI E.) Poison Reverse F.) Triggered Updates A The golden rule of Split Horizon: Do not send any update packet back out the same interface that it was received or learned from. Poison Reverse is typically used on larger networks, where a more aggressive routing loop solution is required. 44. You want to set the telnet password to Boston. What would be the first command you need to execute from global configuration mode? A.) enable password boston B.) login boston C.) login password boston D.) set password=boston E.) password boston F.) line vty 0 4 F 45. Which command will start the process for creating a Cisco IOS file image backup to a network file server? A.) copy ios tftp B.) copy ios network C.) copy tftp flash D.) copy flash tftp E.) copy ios flash D The IOS is stored in flash. The command format is: copy [source] [destination] 46. How do you determine which standard IP access lists are applied to interface E0 ? A.) show ip access-list B.) show access-lists C.) show ip interface e0 D.) show interface e0 E.) show accesslist e0 C To see which specific protocol access-lists are bound to the interface, Show ip int e0 or Show ipx int e0 The command 'show access-lists' will display all access lists that exist, not just the ones bound to a certian interface. 47. The Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) uses advertisements and discoveries. How does it send this information? A.) Over a SNAP-capable link. B.) Layer 3 broadcast. C.) CDP does not use advertisements. D.) Layer 2 multicast. E.) Layer 4 TCP. F.) SAP. A D The Cisco proprietary protocol uses multicast, so that only other Cisco devices will listen to these packets. CDP requires a SNAP-capable link to transmit.

48. In the TCP/IP protocol stack, there are five classes of addresses. Which class is used for testing? A.) B B.) A C.) D D.) C E.) E E A,B,C are valid for use on the internet D is multicast E is for research 49. Which subnet is the host 200.1.1.67 /26 on? A.) 200.1.1.32 B.) 200.1.1.128 C.) 200.1.1.0 D.) 200.1.1.16 E.) 200.1.1.64 E Shorthand notation /26 = 2 bits in the last octet = decimal 255.255.255.192 Shortcut: 256 - 192 = 64. Valid subnets are multiples of 64. (64, 128, 192, 256). The closest value to 67 is between 64 (the network) and 127 (the broadcast). 50. The Datalink layer works with which of the following: A.) Bits B.) Packets C.) Frames D.) Globules E.) Segments C Physical - bits Datalink - frames Network - packe Kevin again 640-507 The CCNA 2.0 contains 65 question for 105 mintues.I face only one typing question. such like ~Configure RIP~ Ans : router rip The other is selectivity. I found the microsoft's MCSE test was 90% the same with this braindumps, but CCNA's test did not.Only the basic question about 20% was the same in test. Anyway, rfb's dumps worked. This is dumps which copy from another site. I wish you can understand all questions and take the CCNA 2.0 Licence. 1.What is the correct order for the OSI model? P=Presentation, S=Session, D=Datalink, Ph=Physical, T=Transport, A= Application, N=Network A. P S A PH D N T B. A P S T N D PH C. PH D N T A S P D. P S A T N D PH Answer B. It is crucial you not only memorize this and know what each layer does. 2. What is encapsulation? A. Putting the header on an incoming frame B. Putting a header on an incoming segment C. Putting a header on an outgoing frame D. Putting a header on an outgoing bit Answer C. This also includes trailers and can be put on segments, packets, and frames. 3. Which layer is most concerned with user applications? A. Application B. Presentation C. Network D. Physical Answer A. 4. Which of the following is de-encapsulation? A. Stripping the header from a frame B. Putting a header on a segment C. Putting a header on a

frame D. Stripping a frame from a link Answer A. This also includes trailers as in question 2. 5. What layer converts data into segments? A. Application B. Presentation C. Transport D. Physical Answer C. 6. What layer converts data into Packets? A. Network B. Application C. Physical D. Data Link Answer A. 7. What layer converts data into Frames? A. Application B. Physical C. Data Link D. Transport Answer C. 8. What layer converts data into bits? A. Application B. Session C. Data Link D. Physical Answer D. All of the layers need to convert data into something that they can pass down to the next level, with the exception of the Application layer which hands data to the Presentation layer. The Presentation layer encrypts, and compresses before sending it to the Session layer for it's first conversion. 9. Which layer is most concerned with getting data from the beginning to the final destination? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport Answer D. The transport layer is most concerned with reliable transportation from one end to the other. 10. Which of the following is not a part of the Session layer? A. Establishing a session B. Ensuring error free segments C. Ending a session D. Keeping the sender and receiver from sending a message at the same time Answer B. That is the job of the Transport layer. 11. Which of the following is not a job for the presentation layer? Choose 2 A. Data representation B. Compression C. Dialog management D. Transmission E. Encryption Answer C D. C is handled by the session layer, and D is handled by the Transport layer

12. What does Peer to Peer communication involve? A. Each layer communication with the layer below it B. Each layer communication with layer above it C. Each layer communicating with adjacent layer in another system D. Each layer communication with it's corresponding layer in another system Answer D. Answer C sounds correct also, but adjacent and corresponding are two different things. The session layer can only communicate with the session layer in another system for example. 13. Why does the industry use a layered model? Choose all correct A. When you enhance one layer it doesn't affect the other layers B. Design and development can be made in a modular fashion C. Network operations can be simplified D. Troubleshooting can be simplified. Answer A B C D. 14. Which two of the following are not from the physical layer? A. SDLC B. V.35 C. HSSI D. ISDN E. RS-232 Answer A D. SDLC and ISDN are WAN protocols that function at the data link layer 15. Which two answers are functions of the OSI model"s network layer? A. Sequencing of frames B. Path determination C. Packet switching D. Packet sequencing Answer B C. Sequencing is done at the data link layer. D is fictional. 16. What is an example of a MAC address? A. Az32:6362:2434 B. Sj:2817:8288 C. GGG:354:665 D. A625:cbdf:6525 Answer D. The address is a 48 bit address which requires 12 Hex digits. A hex digit can't be past the letter F. Hex stands for 16. 1-9 and A-F make up numbers that are valid. 17. Which of the following is not part of the data link layer? A. Transports data across the physical link B. Performs physical addressing C. Performs flow control D. Determines network topology E. Terminates a session Answer E. This is part of the session layer 18. Which of the following are data link protocols? A. HDLC B. FTP C. SQL D. ISDN E. Token Ring Answer A D E. FTP is an application and SQL is a session layer protocol. 19. Of the following address AA77:3827:EF54, which of the following is the vendor portion?

A. AA7738 B. 27EF54 C. AA77 D. EF54 Answer A. The vendor code is how you can tell who made the card. The last 6 digits are the physical address. 20. Which of the following are examples of layer 3 addressing? A. 165.33.4.34 B. AA77:3827:EF54 C. HHHH:hg:7654 D. 76 Answer A B. The first is a TCPIP address and the second is an IPX address 21. What is considered Layer 3 addressing? A. Data Link Layer B. Network Layer C. Application Layer D. None of these Answer B. Physical is Layer 1, then data link, and then Network. This is the same layer that routers are on. 22. What layer are Bridges on? A. Data Link B. Physical C. Application D. Transport Answer A. Bridges segment networks but are not able to determine addresses like the network layer does. 23. Repeaters are on what layer? A. Transport B. Session C. Physical D. Application Answer C. All repeaters can do is boost a signal. An active hub is a good example of a repeater. A switching hub is a good example of layer 3 addressing, since switches go by network addresses and IPX addresses rather than just boost signals. Bridges can only read mac addresses, and not the full IPX or TCPIP addresses. 24. Which of the following are considered routing protocols? A. OSPF B. IP C. IPX D. EIGRP E. Token Ring Answer A D. Answers B and C are routed protocols, whereas A and D are the protocols that do the routing. This is easily confused. You can remember it by thinking that the routing protocols that haul the routed protocols are like a tug ship pulling a barge. The barge is full of data. 25. Which two of the following are considered connection oriented communication? A. Setup and maintenance procedures are performed to ensure message delievery B. A physical circuit exists between two communicating devices C. It is a best effort type of communication D. A virtual connection exists between the two Answer A D. B is not a necessity, and C is not accurate. TCP is connection oriented and UDP is not.

26. Which of the following are not WAN protocols? Choose 2 A. Frame Relay B. ATM C. Ethernet D. FDDI E. ISDN Answer C D. Ethernet and FDDI are LAN protocols. 27. Which of the following will allow you to view NVRAM's contents? A. show configuration B. show protocols C. show version D. show running-config E. show startupconfig Answer A E. These show the backup configuration stored in NVRAM. The other anwsers allow youto view RAM. 28. Which of the following contains the OS image? A. Flash B. NVRAM C. RAM D. Interfaces Answer A. ROM will be used if Flash is unavailable. NVRAM is the backup configuration, and RAM is the active configuration 29. Which of the following indicates the router is in privilege mode? A. Router# B. Router> C. Router- D. Router* Answer A. Answer B shows the router in user mode. 30. What does "show cdp neighbors" not show? Neighbors_________ A. device id B. hardware platform C. ios version D. port type and number Answer C. 31. Which of the following will show you the clock? A. cl? B. Cl ? C. Clock? D. Clock ? Answer D. By typing this the router will finish the command and show the clock. 32. CDP operates at which layer? A. Transport B. Network C. Data link D. Physical Answer C. CDP allows a network device to exchange frames with other directly connected networked devices. 33. Which command does not show two devices are not routing packets between them successfully? A. ping B. show interface C. trace D. telnet

Answer A C D. With these commands you can tell whether or not you have communication. Show interface just verifies there is a connection 34. What keystrokes shows the possible commands in privilege mode? A. help B. h C. ctrl+h D. ? Answer D. Answers A and B will give a brief description when typed, and C is not valid. 35. Which two items contain versions of the router's configuration file? A. flash B. nvram C. ram D. rom Answer B C. A and D contain the OS. 36. Which of the following commands will allow youto review the contents of RAM? A. show configuration B. show protocol C. show version D. show running-config E. show startupconfig Answer B C D. A and E allow you to see NVRAM. 37. Which of the following will allow you to add, modify, or delete commands in the startup configuration file? A. show startup-config B. show running-config C. configure terminal D. configure memory Answer D. Answer C allows you to change items in the running configuration file 38. Which command would be used to restore a configuration file to RAM? ________TFTP running-config A. router#copy B. router>copy C. router*copy D. router^copy Answer A. You must be in privilege mode when executing this, which is why you see the # sign. 39. Which of the following commands will display the running configuration file to a terminal? A. show running-config B. show router-config C. router#show flash D. router>show version Answer A. It can only be shown in privilege mode. 40. If you need to copy the currently executing configuration file into NVRAM, which command would you use? A. router#copy startup-config running-config B. router#copy startup-config TFTP C. router#copy running-config startup-config D. router>copy startup-config running-config Answer C. Answers ABC show that the router is in privilege mode which is necessary to complete this action, but only C shows the correct syntax.

41 Which of the following commands would not set a password on a Cisco router? A. router(config)#enable secret B. router(config-line)#password test C. router(config)#service encryption password D. router(config)#enable password Answer C. This command is used to encrypt passwords in configuration files. 42. Which of the following would cause a router to boot into the initial configuration dialog after powering has cycled? A. Someone had copied the startup configuration file in a TFTP server B. The running configuration file was copied to the startup configuration file C. It is the first time router has ever been turned on D. The write erase command was executed immediately before powering down the router. Answer C and D. These two scenarios describe what will happen when the router needs to use NVRAM to boot if it cannot find the configuration file. 43. What would cause a router to boot from ROM? A. 0x3202 B. 0x2302 C. 0x2101 D. 0x2103 Answer C. A configuration register of 1 or 0 will cause the router to boot from ROM. 44. Where does the running config file exist? A. NVRAM B. ROM C. RAM D. Flash Answer C. This file is erased if the router is reloaded or rebooted. 45. How do you back up a router? A. router#copy running-config startup-configuration B. router(config)#copy TFTP flash C. router#copy flash TFTP D. router#copy flash NVRAM Answer C. You can copy the file to a TFTP server or other storage device. 46. Which of the following is not valid? A. router>show version B. router#show running-config C. router#show startup-config D. router#show RAM Answer D. 47. Which of the following are basic router functions? A. Packet switching B. Packet filtering C. Path determination D. Rapid convergence Answer A and C. Packets get switched once they are determined by the router where to go.

48. Which of the following is not an interior routing protocol? A. RIP B. IGRP C. OSPF D. BGP Answer D. BGP is an exterior routing protocol designed to communicate between autonomous systems. 49. Which of the following routing protocols communicate router information by sending the state of it's links to all routers in it's domain? A. BGP B. RIP C. IGRP D. OSPF Answer D. This is a "link state" routing protocol. RIP and IGRP are distance vector, and BGP communicates reachability between domains. 50. What is a problem caused by distance vector routing protocols? A. Split horizon B. Route Poison C. Counting to infinity D. Max hop count E. Hold down timers Answer C. Answers ABDE are counter measures to the counting to infinity problem caused by distance vector protocols. 51. What router command will display the routing protocol settings configured on a router? A. show protocol B. Show routing protocol C. Show ip protocol D. Show running-config Answer C. This also displays timers, neighbors, and next update info. 52. What helps mitigate the problems with link state protocols? Choose 2 A. Minimize router resource usage. B. Coordinate updates C. Minimum hop counts D. Distance vectoring Answer A B. 53. Which router commands will enable RIP for 176.18.0.0? Choose 2 A. router rip B. network 176.18.0.0 C. network rip D. network rip 176.18.0.0 Answer A B. Router rip enables rip. Answer B enable the router to advertise to other routers that it is available. You must be in the global configuration prompt. 54. Which of the following is a disadvantage with the link state protocol? Choose 3 A. hold down counters B. unsynchronized updates C. high network bandwidth usage D. high router resource usage Answer B C D. As link state packets flood the network, high network bandwidth can be a problem. 55. Which of the following exist at the application layer of the TCPIP model? Choose 3

A. SMTP B. FTP C. ICMP D. RIP E. IGRP Answer A B C. Answers D and E and routing protocols. 56. Which of the following translate Fully Qualified Domain Names into IP addresses? A. Wins B. DNS C. SNMP D. TCP Answer B. 57. Which of the following translate netbios names? A. Wins B. DNS C. SNMP D. TCP Answer A. Netbios names are the names of the computers specified in the identification tab in the network neighborhood properties. 58. Which of the following is not done by TCP? A. Subnetting B. Error checking C. Sequencing D. Flow control Answer A. 59. What does UDP and TCP have in common? Choose 2 A. flow control B. error checking C. checksum D. provide destination and source port numbers Answer C D. UDP doesn't check for errors. 60. Which of the following does the network layer do? Choose 2 A. Packet switching B. Translating C. Path determination D. Convert signals to bits Answer A C. 61. Which of the following about ARP is true? Choose 2 A. It is in the application layer B. It is in the network layer C. It maps mac addresses to ip addresses D. It maps ip addresses to mac addresses Answer B D. At the same layer are RARP, ICMP, and IP. RARP does what is in answer C. 62. What protocol in the transport layer does not guarantee packet delivery? A. TCP B. IP C. IPX D. UDP Answer D. It does a best effort delivery, but is faster than TCP. 63. Which of the following is a class A ip address?

A. 10.14.16.12 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212 Answer A. 64. Which of the following is a class B address? A. 10.14.16.12 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212 Answer C. 65. Which of the following is a loop back address? A. 10.14.16.12 B. 127.0.0.1 C. 172.15.42.34 D. 209.123.32.212 Answer B. This is used to test to see if IP is configured and working properly on your pc, 66. Which of the following is a non routable ip address? Choose 2 A. 10.10.0.0 B. 192.168.0.1 C. 10.14.12.12 D. 209.32.242 Answer A B. These are good ip addresses to use behind a fire wall because they will never be addresses that will be used on the internet. 67. Which of the following binary numbers represent 10.12.16.6 A. 00001010.00001100.00010000.00000110 B. 00011110.01010000.11001100.00110101 C. 01101010.11001010.01000101.01010011 D. 10001001.11010101.11111111.00000000 Answer A. D cannot be used at all because you can't have all 1's or 0's 68. What does the process of AND in do? A. It determines the value of an ip address B. It determines the port that TCP will use C. It determines if two ip addresses are on the same network D. It decides the ip address subnet Answer C. You do this by writing out all the ip addresses in binary and match them against their subnets. After you match up the 1's and 0's you can decide if they are on the same network by seeing if all the numbers match. Check the test info page for an example. 69. Which of the following is a class C address? A. 124.12.13.44 B. 210.24.56.76 C. 127.0.0.1 D. 10.14.12.16 Answer B. An address above 191 for the first octet shows a class C address. 70. Of the following address address 11000000.11000000.11110000.10000001, what is true? Choose 2 A. It is a class C address B. It has a host id of 192.224.128 C. It has a host id 128 D. It is a class B address.

Answer A B 71. Which layer is responsible for providing mechanisms for multiplexing upper-layer application, session establishment, and tear-down of virtual circuits? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Transport Answer D. 72. Which layer is responsible for coordinating communication between systems? A. Application B. Presentation C. Session D. Physical Answer C. 73. Which layer is responsible for negotiating data transfer syntax? A. application B. presentation C. session D. transport Answer B. 74. Which of the following is a characteristic of a switch, but not of a repeater? A. Switches forward packets based on the IPX or IP address in the frame. B. Switches forward packets based only on the IP address in the packet. C. Switches forward packets based on the IP address in the frame D. Switches forward packets based on the MAC address in the frame Answer D. Switches are network device that filters, forwards, and floods frames based on the destination address of each frame. The switch operates at the data link layer of the OSI model. Switches use layer 2 addresses to filter the network 75. How does the cut-through switching technique work? A. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface B. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets C. By using broadcast addresses as source addresses D. By using a Class II repeater in a collision domain Answer B. Packet switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet switching. 76. How do switches use store and forward? A. The switch waits only for the header to be received before it checks the destination address and starts forwarding the packets B. The LAN switch copies the entire frame into its buffers and then looks up the destination address in its forwarding, table and determines the outgoing interface C. By using a class II repeater in a collision domain D. By using broadcast addresses as source

addresses Answer B. Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message. Contrast with cut-through packet switching. 77. Choose all of the following that are needed to support full-duplex Ethernet. A. Multiple paths between multiple stations on a link B. Full-duplex NIC cards C. Loopback and collision detection disabled D. Automatic detection of full-duplex operation by all connected stations Answer B C. Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving station. 78. What two types of technology does 100BaseT use? A. Switching with 53-byte cells B. CSMA/CD C. IEEE 802.5 D. 802.3u Answer B D. 100-Mbps baseband Fast Ethernet specification using UTP wiring. Like the 10BaseT technology on which it is based, 100BaseT sends link pulses over the network segment when no traffic is present. However, these link pulses contain more information than those used in 10BaseT. Based on the IEEE 802.3 standard. 79. Choose all of the following that are advantages to segmenting with routers. A. Manageability B. Flow control C. Explicit packet lifetime control D. Multiple active paths Answers A, B, C, D. All of the above is correct. A router is a Network layer device that uses one or more metrics to determine the optimal path along which network traffic should be forwarded. Routers forward packets from one network to another based on network layer information 80. Some advantages to segmenting with Bridges are_____ A. Datagram filtering B. Manageability C. Reliability D. Scalability Answers B, C, D. Bridges do not do datagram (packet) filtering. A device that connects and passes packets between two network segments that use the same communications protocol. Bridges operate at the data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI reference model. In general, a bridge will filter, forward, or flood an incoming frame based on the MAC address of that frame 81. Which two of the following describe frame tagging? A. Examines particular info about each frame B. A unique ID placed in the header of each frame as it traverses the switch fabric C. A user-assigned ID defined to each frame D. The building of filter tables Answer B, C. Frame tagging is used within VLANs to uniquely identify each frame.

82. Which of the following describes a full-duplex transmission? A. Uses a single cable B. Uses a point-to-point connection from the transmitter of the transmitting station to the receiver of the receiving station C. Data transmission in both directions, but only one way at a time D. Data transmission in only one direction Answer B. Capability for simultaneous data transmission between a sending station and a receiving station. 83. If a frame is received at a switch and only the destination hardware address is read before the frame is forwarded, what type of switching method are you using? A. Cut-through B. Store-and-forward C. Store-and-cut D. FragmentFree Answer A. Packet switching approach that streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet switching 84. Which of the following switching types is the default for Cisco 5505s? A. Cut-through B. Store-and-forward C. Store-and-cut D. Fragment Free Answer B. Packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message. 85. What does the Spanning-Tree Algorithm (STA) do? A. STA is implemented by STP to prevent loops B. Forward packets through a switch C. Restores lost frames D. Prevents API duplication in bridged networks Answer A. Algorithm used by the Spanning-Tree Protocol to create a spanning tree. Sometimes abbreviated STA. 86. Which can be true regarding VLANs? (Choose all that apply) A. They are created by location B. They are created by function C. They are created by group D. They are created by department Answer A, B, C, D. Virtual LANs are a group of devices on one or more LANs that are configured (using management software) so that they can communicate as if they were attached to the same wire, when in fact they are located on a number of different LAN segments. Because VLANs are based on logical instead of physical connections, they are extremely flexible. 87. What is the IEEE specification for Spanning Tree? A. 802.2u B. 802.3q C. 802.1d D. 802.6

Answer C. SPT is a bridge protocol that utilizes the spanning-tree algorithm, enabling a learning bridge to dynamically work around loops in a network topology by creating a spanning tree. Bridges exchange BPDU messages with other bridges to detect loops, and then remove the loops by shutting down selected bridge interfaces. Refers to both the IEEE 802.1d Spanning-Tree Protocol standard and the earlier Digital Equipment Corporation Spanning-Tree Protocol upon which it is based. The IEEE version supports bridge domains and allows the bridge to construct a loop-free topology across an extended LAN. The IEEE version is generally preferred over the Digital version. Sometimes abbreviated STP 88. Of the three switching types, which one has the lowest latency? A. Cut-through B. FragmentFree C. Store-and-forward D. None Answer A. Cut-through packet switching streams data through a switch so that the leading edge of a packet exits the switch at the output port before the packet finishes entering the input port. A device using cut-through packet switching reads, processes, and forwards packets as soon as the destination address is looked up, and the outgoing port determined. Also known as on-the-fly packet switching. Since no error checking takes place, it has the lowest latency. 89. Of the three switching types, which one has the highest latency? A. Cut-through B. FragmentFree C. Store-and-forward D. None Answer C. Store-and-forward packet-switching technique in which frames are completely processed before being forwarded out the appropriate port. This processing includes calculating the CRC and checking the destination address. In addition, frames must be temporarily stored until network resources (such as an unused link) are available to forward the message. Since frame size can very in length, latency will then vary. 90. What is the port number for TCP? A. 6 B. 11 C. 17 D. 45 Answer A. The Network layer uses port 6h for identifying TCP as the upper layer protocol and port 17h to identify UDP as the upper layer protocol 91. User Datagram Protocol works at which layer of the DOD model? A. Transport B. Internet C. Host-to-Host D. Data Link Answer C. User Datagram Protocol. Connectionless Host-to-host layer protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack. UDP is a simple protocol that exchanges datagrams without acknowledgments or guaranteed delivery, requiring that error processing and retransmission be handled by other protocols. UDP is defined in RFC 768. 92. Which protocol works at the Internet layer and is responsible for making routing decisions? A. TCP B. UDP C. IP D. ARP Answer C. IP works at the Internet layer. It looks at the destination network address in the packet and forwards the packet, based on routing tables and what it determines to be the best route to

the destination 93. Which protocol will send a message to routers if a network outage or congestion occurs? A. IP B. ARP C. ICMP D. TCP Answer C. Internet Control Message Protocol alerts routers if a network outage or congestion occurs so they can make different routing decision based on that information. 94. Which port numbers are used by TCP and UDP to set up sessions with other hosts? A. 1-255 B. 256-1022 C. 1023 and above D. 6 and 10 respectively Answer C. In IP terminology, an upper-layer process that receives information from lower layers. Ports are numbered, and each numbered port is associated with a specific process. For example, SMTP is associated with port 25. A port number is also known as a well-known address. 95. Which of the following is true? A. TCP is connection-orientated; UDP uses acknowledgements only B. Both TCP and UDP are connection-oriented, but only TCP uses windowing C. TCP is connection-oriented, but UDP is connectionless D. TCP and UDP both have sequencing, but UDP is connectionless Answer C. TCP is a connection-oriented, reliable protocol that uses sequencing and acknowledgments to make sure packets are delivered properly. UDP is connectionless, unreliable, and doesn't use sequencing or acknowledgements 96. Which protocol is used to manage and monitor the network? A. FTP B. SMTP C. SNMP D. IP Answer C. Simple Network Management Protocol is a network management protocol used almost exclusively in TCP/IP networks. SNMP provides a means to monitor and control network devices, and to manage configurations, statistics collection, performance, and security 97. Which frame type use DSAPs and SSAPs to identify the upper-layer protocol? A. 802.3 B. 802.5 C. 802.2 D. Ethernet_II Answer C. 802.2 frame type is really an 802.3 frame type with LLC header information 98. Ping uses which Internet layer protocol (besides IP)? A. ARP B. RARP C. DCMP D. ICMP Answer D. packet internet groper. ICMP echo message and its reply. Often used in IP networks to test the reachability of a network device 99. Which protocol sends redirects back to an originating router?

A. ARP B. RARP C. ICMP D. BootP Answer C. Internet Control Message Protocol. Network layer Internet protocol that reports errors and provides other information relevant to IP packet processing. Documented in RFC 792 100. You have a network ID of 172.16.0.0 and you need to divide it into multiple subnets. You need 600 host IDs for each subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign that will allow for growth? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0 Answer D. 101. You have a network ID of 172.16.0.0 with eight subnets. You need to allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. 255.255.224.0 B. 255.255.240.0 C. 255.255.248.0 D. 255.255.252.0 Answer B. 224.0: 11100000.00000000: 224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 8190 hosts.240.0: 11110000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 4094 hosts.248.0: 11111000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with 2046 hosts.252.0: 11111100.00000000: 252 gives us six bits, or 62 subnets, each with 1022 hosts.By using only eight subnets, we can use 240.0 as a mask, giving us 14 subnets, each with 4094 hosts. 102. You have a Class A network address with 60 subnets. You need to add 40 new subnets in the next two years, but still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. 255.240.0.0 B. 255.248.0.0 C. 255.252.0.0 D. 255.254.0.0 Answer D. 240.0.0: 11110000.00000000.00000000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 1,048,574 hosts.248.0.0: 11111000.00000000.00000000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with 524,286 hosts.252.0.0: 11111100.00000000.00000000: 252 gives us six bits, or 62 subnets, each with 262,142 hosts.254.0.0: 11111110.00000000.00000000: 254 gives us seven bits, or 126 subnets, each with 131,070 hosts. Only mask 254.0.0 gives us the amount of subnets we need to allow for maximum growth. 103. You have a Class C network address of 192.168.19.0 with four subnets. You need the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.255.224 C. 255.255.255.240 D. 255.255.255.248 Answer B. 192: 11000000: 192 gives us 2 bits, or 2 subnets, each with 62 hosts.224: 11100000: 224 gives us three bits, or six subnets, each with 30 hosts.240: 11110000: 240 gives us four bits, or 14 subnets, each with 14 hosts.248: 11111000: 248 gives us five bits, or 30 subnets, each with six hosts.Only mask 224 gives us more than four subnets with the largest amount of hosts 104. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many network IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network?

A. One for each subnet B. One for each host ID C. One for each router interface D. One for each WAN connection Answer A D. Each host on the network must have a unique IP address. However, you are required to have only one network ID per network. Each set of hosts must share a common network ID, as well as connections between networks, which are the WAN connections. 105. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. Which two factors must you consider when you define the subnet mask for the network? A. The number of subnets on the network B. The number of host IDs on each subnet C. The volume of network traffic on each subnet D. The location of DNS servers E. The location of default gateways Answer A, B. When deciding on an IP scheme, you need to understand the amount of subnets and the amount of hosts per subnet. 106. You need to come up with a TCP/IP addressing scheme for your company. How many host IDs must you allow for when you define the subnet mask for the network? A. One for each subnet B. One for each router interface C. One for each WAN connection D. One for each network adapter installed on each host Answer B D. Host ID are not just PC's, MAC's and Unix stations. Anything that has an interface is host or network device. 107. You have an IP address of 172.16.13.5 with a 255.255.255.128 subnet mask. What is your class of address, subnet address, and broadcast address? A. Class A, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. B. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.255 C. Class B, Subnet 172.16.0.0, Broadcast address 172.16.255.255 D. Class B, Subnet 172.16.13.0, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127 Answer D. Class B, Subnet 13, Broadcast address 172.16.13.127. The valid range for hosts is 172.16.13.1 to 172.16.13.126. 108. If you have a 22-bit subnet mask, how many subnets and how many hosts do you have? A. 8190 subnets, 4096 hosts B. 4,194,302 subnets, 2 hosts C. 2,096,138 subnets 6 hosts D. 16,384 subnets, 2046 hosts Answer B. A 22-bit subnet mask would be 255.255.255.252. On the Cisco test, they do not count the default mask. The only class of address that could take a 22-bit mask is a class A. Start with 255 and add 22 bits. This gives you two bits for the hosts, or 2 hosts per subnet. P.S You know this is not the only dump site so if you would take the time to look around instead of bitching that there is no dumps on SASA's site. Enjoy Kevin

BC 640-507 870 Greetings all, I passed this test earlier this week and had mixed feelings. Around the 10th question, I was thinking... "damn, I'm gonna fail." But as I continued with the test I noticed that most of the questions were based on pretty general networking theory and common practices. For instance one question asked: "What is the maximum distance for a 100baseTx segment?". And I had the ever so famous router question: "What device provides the greatest security between two segments?" Then there were the OSI and Subnetting questions. No, you CANT use a calculator. Folks, I hate to sound cruel but you should know how to do this by heart. And you should know the OSI layers just as well. Finally there are the actual Cisco related questions.... CLI questions, Access lists, RIP, IGRP, CDP, etc.... which is essentially the other half of the test. I studied about 1 month for this test. I used the Cisco Prep Library for the 507, I had telnet access to my buddies 3 router lab, and I also had all 3 Boson tests (for the 507), Troytec, and Sybex Lammele. You can forget about Sybex, IMO, the Cisco books were far better. Troytec is an excellent point to point summary to use for last minute cramming. Boson was good for drilling questions... all 3 tests you can have about 600-700 questions... though many are duplicates. PLEASE DO NOT EMAIL ME ASKING FOR BOSON OR TROYTEC. I paid for these out of my pocket... please respect that decision. Now that brings me to another point. If you are taking Cisco exams, you should realize that it is a career move toward a more elite arena of the IT world. What I mean is.... If you are going to submit a dump. then that's fine. DUMP. But respect other people's decision to NOT DUMP. I'm sick and tire