enthusiast, leader & achiever course · 12. a ping-pong ball of mass m is floating in air by a...

Test Type : MAJOR [EX-ALLEN] Test Pattern : NEET

TEST DATE : 10 - 07 - 2016

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUS

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2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

3180720

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6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

1

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Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

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Form Number :

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)

ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSETARGET : NEET - II 2016

Paper Code : 0999DM610515006

Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in

1/360999DM610515006

Pre-Medical : ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER/NEET-II/10-07-2016

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. The dimensional formula [ML0T–3] is more

closely associated with :-

(1) power (2) energy

(3) intensity (4) velocity gradient

2. The length of a rod is (11.05 ± 0.05) cm. What

is the length of two rods ?

(1) (22.1 ± 0.05) cm

(2) (22.1 ± 0.1) cm

(3) (22.10 ± 0.05) cm

(4) (22.10 ± 0.10) cm

3. The displacement x of a particle varies with time

t as x = ae–t + bet, where a, b, and are positive

constants. The velocity of the particle will:-

(1) be independent of

(2) drop to zero when =

(3) go on decreasing with time

(4) go on increasing with time

4. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a

time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of

the particle from O is given by :-

x = 40 + 12t – t3

How long would the particle travel before coming

to rest ?

(1) 16 m (2) 24 m (3) 40 m (4) 56 m

5. Find the torque of a force ˆ ˆ ˆF 3i j 5k

acting

at the point ˆ ˆ ˆr 7i 3 j k

with respect to origin :-

(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ4i 4 j 6k

(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ21i 3 j 5k

6. A ball thrown by one player reaches the other in

2 sec. The maximum height attained by the ball

above the point of projection will be about :-

(1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m

7. Two stones are projected with the same speed but

making different angles with the horizontal. Their

ranges are equal. If the angle of projection of one

is /3 and its maximum height is h1, then the

maximum height of the other will be :-

(1) 3h1 (2) 2h1 (3) h1/2 (4) h1/3

1. [ML0T–3] (1) (2) (3) (4)

2. (11.05 ± 0.05) cm (1) (22.1 ± 0.05) cm

(2) (22.1 ± 0.1) cm

(3) (22.10 ± 0.05) cm

(4) (22.10 ± 0.10) cm

3. x t : x = ae–t + bet a, b, :-(1) (2) =

(3) (4)

4. OX t ( ) O

x () :-

x = 40 + 12t – t3

(1) 16 m (2) 24 m (3) 40 m (4) 56 m

5. ˆ ˆ ˆF 3i j 5k

ˆ ˆ ˆr 7i 3 j k

:-

(1) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ4i 4 j 6k

(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ14i 38 j 16k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ21i 3 j 5k

6. 2 sec :-(1) 2.5 m (2) 5 m (3) 7.5 m (4) 10 m

7.

/3 h1

:-

(1) 3h1

(2) 2h1

(3) h1/2 (4) h

1/3

2/36 0999DM610515006

Major for Target : NEET - II 2016/10-07-2016

8. An object of mass 5 kg is attached to the hook

of a spring balance and the balance is suspended

vertically from the roof of a lift. The reading on

the spring balance when the lift is going up with

an acceleration of 0.25 ms–2 is :-

(Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 51.25 N (2) 48.75 N

(3) 52.75 N (4) 47.25 N

9. Force required to move a mass of 1 kg at rest on

a horizontal rough plane (µ = 0.1 and g = 9.8 m/s2)

is :-

(1) 0.98 N (2) 0.49 N

(3) 9.8 N (4) 4.9 N

10. System shown in figure is released from rest.

Pulley and spring are massless and the friction is

absent everywhere. The speed of 5 kg block, when

2 kg block leaves the contact with ground is : (take

force constant of the spring K = 40 N/m and

g = 10 m/s2)

5kg

2kg

(1) 2 m / s (2) 2 2 m / s

(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 2 m / s

11. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg varies

with time as 23t

P2

watt. Here, t is in seconds.

If velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0, the velocity

of particle at time t = 2s will be :-

(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m / s

8. 5 kg (hook)

0.25 ms–2

:-

(g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 51.25 N (2) 48.75 N

(3) 52.75 N (4) 47.25 N

9. (µ = 0.1 g = 9.8 m/s2) 1 kg :-

(1) 0.98 N (2) 0.49 N

(3) 9.8 N (4) 4.9 N

10. 2 kg 5 kg : (K = 40 N/m g = 10 m/s2)

5kg

2kg

(1) 2 m / s (2) 2 2 m / s

(3) 2 m/s (4) 4 2 m / s

11. 2 kg t

; 23t

P2

watt, t

t = 0 t = 2 :-

(1) 1 m/s (2) 4 m/s

(3) 2 m/s (4) 2 2 m / s

3/360999DM610515006


12. A ping-pong ball of mass m is floating in air by

a jet of water emerging out of a nozzle. If the water

strikes the ping-pong ball with a speed v and just

after collision water falls dead, the rate of flow

(in kg/s) of water in the nozzle is equal to :-

(1) 2mg

v(2)

mv

g

(3) mg

v(4) none of these

13. A wheel is rotating about an axis through its

centre at 720 rpm. It is acted on by a constant

torque opposing its motion for 8 seconds to

bring it to rest finally. The value of torque

(in N-m) is :-

(Given 224I kg m

)

(1) 48 (2) 72 (3) 96 (4) 120

14. A uniform rod of length L is free to rotate in a

vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis

through B. The rod begins rotating from rest from

its unstable equilibrium position. When it has

turned through an angle its angular velocity

is given as :-

B B'

A

A'

L

(1) 6g

sinL

(2) 6g

sinL 2

(3) 6g

cosL 2

(4)

6gcos

L

15. Two wheels are connected by a belt. The radius

of larger wheel is three times that of the smaller

one. What is the ratio of the rotational inertia of

larger wheel to the smaller wheel, when both

wheels have same angular momentum ?

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12

12. m (ping-pong) (nozzle) (jet of water) v (falls dead) (kg/s ) :-

(1) 2mg

v(2)

mv

g

(3) mg

v(4)

13. 720 8 :-

( 224I kg m

)

(1) 48 (2) 72 (3) 96 (4) 120

14. L B :-

B B'

A

A'

L

(1) 6g

sinL

(2) 6g

sinL 2

(3) 6g

cosL 2

(4)

6gcos

L

15.

:-

(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 12

4/36 0999DM610515006


16. The maximum vertical distance through which a

fully dressed astronaut can jump on the earth is

0.5 m. If mean density of the moon is two-thirds

that of the earth and radius is one quarter that of

the earth, the maximum vertical distance through

which he can jump on the moon and the ratio of

time of duration of jump on the moon to that on

the earth are :-

(1) 3 m, 6 : 1 (2) 6 m, 3 : 1

(3) 3 m, 1 : 6 (4) 6 m, 1 : 6

17. Two equal masses m and m are hung from a

balance whose scale pans differ in vertical height

by 'h'. The error in weighing in terms of density

of the earth is :-

(1) Gmh (2) 1

G mh3

(3) 8

G mh3 (4)

4G mh

3

18. Force constant of a spring (K) is synonymous

to :-

(1) YA

L(2)

YL

A(3)

AL

Y(4) ALY

19. In a capillary rise experiment, the water level rises

to a height of 5 cm. If the same capillary tube is

placed in water such that only 3 cm of the tube

projects outside the water level, then :-

(1) water will begin to overflow through the capillary

(2) angle of contact decreases

(3) angle of contact increases

(4) the meniscus completely vanishes

20. Two circular discs A and B with equal radii

are blackend. They are heated to same

temperature and are cooled under identical

conditions. What inference do you draw from

their cooling curves ?

O( – ) 0

B

AR

(1) A and B have same specific heats

(2) Specific heat of A is less

(3) Specific heat of B is less

(4) Nothing can be said

16. 0.5 m (1) 3 m, 6 : 1 (2) 6 m, 3 : 1

(3) 3 m, 1 : 6 (4) 6 m, 1 : 6

17. m m 'h'

(1) Gmh (2) 1

G mh3

(3) 8

G mh3 (4)

4G mh

3

18. (K) (synonymous)

(1) YA

L(2)

YL

A(3)

AL

Y(4) ALY

19. (capillary rise) 5 cm 3 cm (level) :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (meniscus)

20. (discs) A B (cooling curves)

O( – ) 0

B

AR

(1) A B (2) A (3) B (4)

5/360999DM610515006


21. One mole of an ideal gas having initial volume

V, pressure 2P and temperature T undergoes a

cyclic process ABCDA as shown below :

A B

CD

2P

P

T 2T

Pre

ssur

e (P

)

Temperature (T)

The net work done in the complete cycle is :-

(1) zero (2) 1

2RT ln 2

(3) RT ln 2 (4) 3

2RT ln 2

22. A body executes simple harmonic motion under

the action of a force F1 with a time period (4/5) sec.

If the force is changed to F2 it executes SHM with

time period (3/5) sec. If both the forces F1 and

F2 act simultaneously in the same direction on the

body, its time period (in seconds) is :-

(1) 12/25 (2) 24/25 (3) 35/24 (4) 25/12

23. The equation of a wave on a string of linear mass

density 0.04 kgm–1 is given by :

y = 0.02 (m)sint x

20.04(s) 0.50(m)

. The

tension in the string is :-

(1) 4.0 N (2) 12.5 N (3) 0.5 N (4) 6.25 N

24. A light beam is travelling from Region I to Region

IV (refer figure). The refractive index in Region

I, II, III and IV are n0, 0 0n n,

2 6and 0n

8,

respectively. The angle of incidence for which

the beam just misses entering Region IV is :-

Region I Region II Region III Region IV

n0 n2

0—n6

0—n8

0—

0 0.2 m 0.6 m

(1) 1 3sin

4

(2) 1 1sin

8

(3) 1 1sin

4

(4) 1 1sin

3

21. V, 2P T ABCDA :

A B

CD

2P

P

T 2T

(P)

(T)

:-

(1) zero (2) 1

2RT ln 2

(3) RT ln 2 (4) 3

2RT ln 2

22. F1 (4/5) sec F

2 (3/5) sec

F1 F

2

:-(1) 12/25 (2) 24/25 (3) 35/24 (4) 25/12

23. (linear mass density)

0.04 kgm–1 :

y = 0.02 (m)sint x

20.04(s) 0.50(m)

:-(1) 4.0 N (2) 12.5 N (3) 0.5 N (4) 6.25 N

24. (a light beam) I IV

I, II, III IV n0, 0 0n n

,2 6

0n

8 , IV

:-

I II III IV

n0 n2

0—n6

0—n8

0—

0 0.2 m 0.6 m

(1) 1 3sin

4

(2) 1 1sin

8

(3) 1 1sin

4

(4) 1 1sin

3

6/36 0999DM610515006


25. A ray of light falls on a transparent glass slab with

refractive index (relative to air) of 1.62. The angle

of incidence for which the reflected and refracted

rays are mutually perpendicular is :-

(1) tan–1(1.62) (2) sin–1(1.62)

(3) cos–1(1.62) (4) none of these

26. The intensity ratio of the two interfering beams

of light is . What is the value of max. min .

max. min .

I I

I I

?

(1) 2 (2) 2

1

(3) 2

1(4)

1

2

27. A semi circular arc of radius a is charged

uniformly and the charge per unit length is . The

electric field at the centre is :-

(1) 02 a

(2)

202 a

(3) 2

04 a

(4)

2

02 a

28. Four charges equal to –Q are placed at the four

corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre.

If the system is in equilibrium, the value of q is:-

(1) (Q / 4)(1 2 2) (2) (Q / 4)(1 2 2)

(3) (Q / 2)(1 2 2) (4) (Q / 2)(1 2 2)

29. Four capacitors with capacitances C1 = 1µF,

C2 = 1.5 µF, C

3 = 2.5 µF and C

4 = 0.5 µF are

connected as shown and are connected to a 30 volt

source. The potential difference between points

B and A is :-

A

B

C2C1

C4C3

30V

(1) 5 V (2) 9 V (3) 10 V (4) 13 V

25. 1.62 ()

(1) tan–1(1.62) (2) sin–1(1.62)

(3) cos–1(1.62) (4)

26.

max. min .

max. min .

I I

I I

(1) 2 (2) 2

1

(3) 2

1(4)

1

2

27. a :-

(1) 02 a

(2)

202 a

(3) 2

04 a

(4)

2

02 a

28. –Q q q :-

(1) (Q / 4)(1 2 2) (2) (Q / 4)(1 2 2)

(3) (Q / 2)(1 2 2) (4) (Q / 2)(1 2 2)

29. C1 = 1µF, C2 = 1.5 µF, C3 = 2.5 µF C

4 = 0.5 µF 30 volt

B A :-

A

B

C2C1

C4C3

30V

(1) 5 V (2) 9 V (3) 10 V (4) 13 V

7/360999DM610515006


30. In the adjoining figure the emf of the cell is 2 V

and internal resistance is negligible. The

resistance of the voltmeter is 80 ohm. The reading

of voltmeter will be :-

2V+ –

V80

8020

(1) 2.00 volt (2) 1.33 volt

(3) 1.60 volt (4) 0.80 volt

31. In the adjoining circuit, the galvanometer G shows

zero deflection. If the batteries A and B have

negligible internal resistance, the value of the

resistor R will be :-

12V A

500

R

G

B 2V

I2I1

(1) 500 (2) 1000

(3) 200 (4) 100

32. In a metre bridge experiment, resistances are

connected as shown in the following figure. The

balancing length 1 is 55 cm. Now, an unknown

resistance x is connected in series with P and the

new balancing length is found to be 75 cm. The

value of x is :-

P Q

A B1

(100– )1

G

B

P=3

E

( )K

(1) 54

13 (2)

20

11

(3) 48

11 (4)

11

48

30. 2 V 80 :-

2V+ –

V80

8020

(1) 2.00 volt (2) 1.33 volt

(3) 1.60 volt (4) 0.80 volt

31. G A B R :-

12V A

500

R

G

B 2V

I2I1

(1) 500 (2) 1000

(3) 200 (4) 100

32.

1, 55 cm

x P 75 cm x :-

P Q

A B1

(100– )1

G

B

P=3

E

( )K

(1) 54

13 (2)

20

11

(3) 48

11 (4)

11

48

8/36 0999DM610515006


33. An electric kettle (rated accurately at 2.5 kW) is

used to heat 3 kg of water from 15°C to boiling

point. It takes 9.5 minute. Then, the amount of

heat that has been lost is :-

(1) 3.5 × 105 J (2) 7 × 106 J

(3) 3.5 × 104 J (4) 7 × 108 J

34. The magnetic induction at the centre O of the

current carrying bent wire shown in the adjoining

figure is :-

(1) 0

1

µ I

4 R

O

II

I

I

(2) 0

2

µ I

4 R

(3) 0

1 2

µ I 1 1

4 R R

(4) 0

1 2

µ I 1 1

4 R R

35. The cyclotron frequency of an electron gyrating

in a magnetic field of 1 T is approximately :-

(1) 28 MHz (2) 280 MHz

(3) 2.8 GHz (4) 28 GHz

36. A current of 3 amp is flowing in a plane circular

coil of radius 4 cm and number of turns 20. The

coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field of

magnetic induction 0.5 tesla. Then, the dipole

moment of the coil is :-

(1) 3000 A-m2 (2) 0.3 A-m2

(3) 75 A-m2 (4) 300 A-m2

37. If the coefficient of mutual induction of the primary

and secondary coils of an induction coil is 5 H and

a current of 10 A is cut off in 5 × 10–4 s, the emf

inducted (in volt) in the secondary coil is :-

(1) 5 × 104 (2) 1 × 105

(3) 25 × 105 (4) 5 × 106

38. A square loop of wire, side length 10 cm is placed

at an angle of 45° with a magnetic field that

changes uniformly from 0.1 T to zero in

0.7 seconds. The induced current in the loop

(its resistance is 1 ) is :-

(1) 1.0 mA (2) 2.5 mA

(3) 3.5 mA (4) 4.0 mA

33. ( 2.5 kW) 3 kg 15°C 9.5 :-

(1) 3.5 × 105 J (2) 7 × 106 J

(3) 3.5 × 104 J (4) 7 × 108 J

34. O :-

(1) 0

1

µ I

4 R

O

II

I

I

(2) 0

2

µ I

4 R

(3) 0

1 2

µ I 1 1

4 R R

(4) 0

1 2

µ I 1 1

4 R R

35. 1 :-

(1) 28 MHz (2) 280 MHz

(3) 2.8 GHz (4) 28 GHz

36. 4 cm 20 3 amp

0.5 tesla

:-

(1) 3000 A-m2 (2) 0.3 A-m2

(3) 75 A-m2 (4) 300 A-m2

37. 5 H 10 A 5 × 10–4 s ( )

(1) 5 × 104 (2) 1 × 105

(3) 25 × 105 (4) 5 × 106

38. 10 cm 45° 0.7 0.1 ( 1 ) :-

(1) 1.0 mA (2) 2.5 mA

(3) 3.5 mA (4) 4.0 mA

9/360999DM610515006


39. A generator at a utility company produces 100 A

of current at 4000 V. The voltage is stepped upto240000 V by a transformer before it is sent on

a high voltage transmission line. The current intransmission line is :-

(1) 3.67 A (2) 2.67 A(3) 1.67 A (4) 2.40 A

40. If 5 % of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiatedas visible light, how many quanta are emitted per

sec by a 100 watt lamp ? Assume wavelength ofvisible light as 5.6 × 10–5 cm.

(1) 1.4 × 1019 (2) 2.0 × 10–4

(3) 1.4 × 10–19 (4) 2.0 × 104

41. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength of moleculesof hydrogen and helium in two gas jars kept

separately at temperatures of 27° C and 127°Crespectively is :-

(1) 2 / 3 (2) 2/3 (3) 3 / 4 (4) 8 /3

42. The radius of the smallest electron orbit in

hydrogen-like ion is (0.51 × 10–10/4) metre; thenit is :-

(1) hydrogen atom (2) He+

(3) Li2+ (4) Be3+

43. The half-life of a radioactive substance against

-decay is 1.2 × 107 s. What is the decay rate for

4.0 × 1015 atoms of the substance ?

(1) 4.6 × 1012 atoms/s (2) 2.3 × 1011 atoms/s

(3) 4.6 × 1010 atoms/s (4) 2.3 × 108 atoms/s

44. A silicon diode has a forward voltage drop of

1.2 V for a forward DC current of 100 mA.

It has a reverse current of 1 × 10–6 A for a

reverse voltage of 10 V. The bulk and reverse

resistances of diode are :-

(1) 5 , 10 M (2) 6 , 6 M

(3) 7 , 70 M (4) 5 , 1 M

45. The circuit diagram shows a logic combination

with the states of outputs X, Y and Z given for

inputs P, Q, R and S all at state 1. When inputs

P and R change to state 0 with inputs Q and S

still at 1, the states of outputs X, Y and Z change

to :-

Z

X

Y

P(1)

Q(1)

R(1)

S(1)

(1) 1, 0, 0 (2) 1, 1, 1

(3) 0, 1, 0 (4) 0, 0, 1

39. 4000 V 100 A 240000 V :-

(1) 3.67 A (2) 2.67 A(3) 1.67 A (4) 2.40 A

40. 5 % 100 watt (5.6 × 10–5 cm ):-(1) 1.4 × 1019 (2) 2.0 × 10–4

(3) 1.4 × 10–19 (4) 2.0 × 104

41. ( 27° C 127°C ) :-

(1) 2 / 3 (2) 2/3 (3) 3 / 4 (4) 8 /3

42.

(0.51 × 10–10/4) ; :-

(1) (2) He+

(3) Li2+ (4) Be3+

43. -1.2 × 107 s 4.0 × 1015 (1) 4.6 × 1012 atoms/s (2) 2.3 × 1011 atoms/s

(3) 4.6 × 1010 atoms/s (4) 2.3 × 108 atoms/s

44. 100 mA 1.2 V 10 V 1 × 10–6 A

(bulk) (reverse)

:-

(1) 5 , 10 M (2) 6 , 6 M

(3) 7 , 70 M (4) 5 , 1 M

45. (inputs) P, Q, R S X, Y Z [(1) ] (logic combination) P R 0 Q S 1 X,

Y Z

Z

X

Y

P(1)

Q(1)

R(1)

S(1)

(1) 1, 0, 0 (2) 1, 1, 1

(3) 0, 1, 0 (4) 0, 0, 1

10/36 0999DM610515006


46. In which of the following process least energy

required :-

(1) ( g) (g)F F e (2)

(g) (g)P P e

(3) (g) (g)S S e (4)

(g) (g)Cl Cl e

47. Which of the following is not correctly matched:-

(1) KCl + H2O Dipole-Dipole attraction

(2)CH C CH3 3— —

O

+CH3–CNKessome attraction

(3) Xe + H2O Debye attraction

(4) CF4 + CF4 London force

48. Which of the following order is incorrect :-

(1) Ionic character MCl < MCl2 < MCl

3

(2) Polarizibility F– < Cl– < Br– < I–

(3) Polarising power Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al+3

(4) Covalent character LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

49. Select the incorrect order of solubility :-

(1) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

(2) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3

(3) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2

(4) BeF2 < MgF

2 < CaF

2 < SrF

2

50. The decomposition temperature is maximum for:-

(1) BeCO3(2) Na

2CO

3

(3) CaCO3

(4) Li2CO

3

51. Pick out the correct statement :-

(1) SiC is a covalent carbide, on hydrolysis it's

give Si(OH)4 & O

2

(2) Al4C

3 is a ionic carbide, on hydrolysis it's give

C3H

4

(3) Be2C is a ionic carbide, on hydrolysis it's give

methane gas

(4) (2) & (3) both

52. Which of the following form dimer by

H-bond :-

(1) CH3COOH (2) H2SO4

(3) AlCl3 (4) o-nitrophenol

53. Which of the following have same shape :-

(i) ICl2– (ii) SO2 (iii) SnCl2 (iv) XeF2

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)

(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)

54. Which of the following pair of species have same

no. of unpaired electron but bond order is different:-

(1) CO, CN– (2) O2+, O

2

(3) O2, B

2(4) NO+, N

2

46. :-

(1) ( g) (g)F F e (2)

(g) (g)P P e

(3) (g) (g)S S e (4)

(g) (g)Cl Cl e

47. :-(1) KCl + H

2O

(2)CH C CH3 3— —

O

+CH3–CN

(3) Xe + H2O (4) CF4 + CF4

48. :-(1) MCl < MCl

2 < MCl

3

(2) F– < Cl– < Br– < I–

(3) Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al+3

(4) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

49. :-(1) LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

(2) Li2CO3 < Na2CO3 < K2CO3 < Rb2CO3

(3) Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2

(4) BeF2 < MgF

2 < CaF

2 < SrF

2

50. :-(1) BeCO3

(2) Na2CO

3

(3) CaCO3

(4) Li2CO

3

51. :-(1) SiC

Si(OH)4 O2

(2) Al

4C

3

C3H

4

(3) Be2C

(4) (2) (3) 52. H-

:-

(1) CH3COOH (2) H2SO4

(3) AlCl3 (4) o-53. :-

(i) ICl2– (ii) SO2 (iii) SnCl2 (iv) XeF2

(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv)

(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)

54. :-(1) CO, CN– (2) O

2+, O

2

(3) O2, B

2(4) NO+, N

2

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55. Optical & geometrical isomerism exhibited by :-

(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2Br2]

(c) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]

(e) [Pt(NH3)2Cl

2]

(1) Only a, b, c, d (2) Only a, b, c

(3) Only a, b (4) Only a, b, c, d, e

56. Select incorrect match :-

(1) [Cu(CN)4]–3 Colourless, tetrahadral,

diamagnetic

(2) [Cu(NH3)4]+2 Coloured, square planar

(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] Diamagnetic, Square planar,

show geometrical isomer

(4) [Ni(dmg)2] Coloured, tetrahedral, H-bond

present

57. In which of the following reaction, product are

not correctly matched :-

(1) HNO3 + P4O10 N2O5

(2) P4(s)

+ SO2Cl

2 PCl

3

(3) Ca3P

2 + HCl PH

3

(4) NH4Cl + NaNO

2 N

2

58. What is true about H2S

nO

6 (Polythionic acid) :-

(1) Total s-s bond = n

(2) No. of 's' with zero O.S = n – 1

(3) No of 's' with + 5 O.S. = n – 1

(4) No of 's' with +5 O.S. = 2

59. The process of the extraction of copper from

copper pyrites involves:-

(I) Froth floatation (II) Calcination

(III) Roasting (IV) Self reduction

(V) Smelting (VI) Liquation

(VII) Electrorefining

(1) I, III, IV, V (2) I, III, IV, VII

(3) I, III, IV, V, VII (4) I, II, IV, V, VII

60. K2Cr2O7 + H2O2 H

:-

(1) K2CrO4 (2) CrO5

(3) Cr2(SO4)3 (4) None

61. Incorrect match is :-

(1) Br

2-Bromobut-3-ene

(2) OMe 1-methoxyprop-2-ene

(3) CH –C–OH3

CH3

CH3

1,1-Dimethylethanol

(4) All

55. :-(a) [Co(en)2Cl2]Br (b) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2Br2]

(c) [Co(en)3]Cl3 (d) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]

(e) [Pt(NH3)2Cl

2]

(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, c

(3) a, b (4) a, b, c, d, e

56. :-

(1) [Cu(CN)4]–3

(2) [Cu(NH3)4]+2

(3) [Pt(NH3)2Cl

2]

(4) [Ni(dmg)2] H-57.

:-(1) HNO3 + P4O10 N2O5

(2) P4(s) + SO2Cl2 PCl3

(3) Ca3P

2 + HCl PH

3

(4) NH4Cl + NaNO

2 N

2

58. H2S

nO

6 :-

(1) s-s = n

(2) s = n – 1

(3) + 5 's' = n – 1

(4) +5 's' = 2

59. :-(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V) (VI) (VII) (1) I, III, IV, V (2) I, III, IV, VII

(3) I, III, IV, V, VII (4) I, II, IV, V, VII

60. K2Cr2O7 + H2O2 H

:-

(1) K2CrO4 (2) CrO5

(3) Cr2(SO4)3 (4) 61. :-

(1) Br

2-Bromobut-3-ene

(2) OMe 1-methoxyprop-2-ene

(3) CH –C–OH3

CH3

CH3

1,1-Dimethylethanol

(4)

12/36 0999DM610515006


62. Which of the following polymer has strongest

intermolecular forces of attraction :-

(1) PVC (2) Decron

(3) Neoprene (4) Buna-N

63. Which has maximum dipole moment and can

show optical isomerism :-

(1) Cl O

(2) OH

(3)

O

OHMe

(4)

Cl

64.

O

O

NH(1) KOH

(2) Cl

(3) H O/2

XCHCl , KOH3

Y; Y is :-

(1) OH (2) NH2

(3) NC (4) CH=O

65. Which is least basic :-

(1) NH2

(2) O

NH2

(3)

Me

MeN

Me(4) CH

2 = CH–NH

2

66. Which of the following does not respond to

Fehling solution test and haloform reaction but

show Cannizzaro's reaction :-

(1) Cl3C–CH=O (2) H

2C=O

(3) C H –C–C H2 5 2 5

O

(4) C6H

5–CH=O

67.(1) O3

(2) H O/Zn2X + Y

(C H O)2 4 (C H O)3 6

(1) LiAlH4

(2) H O2

X P

(1) LiAlH4

(2) H O2

Y Q

Incorrect statement for X, Y, P and Q is :-

(1) X & Y give positve iodoform test

(2) P and Q can be distinguished by victor meyer

test

(3) P and Q are homologues

(4) X show cannizzaro's reaction but Y doesnot

62. (Intermolecular)

:-(1) PVC (2) Decron

(3) Neoprene (4) Buna-N

63. :-

(1) Cl O

(2) OH

(3)

O

OHMe

(4)

Cl

64.

O

O

NH(1) KOH

(2) Cl

(3) H O/2

XCHCl , KOH3

Y; Y :-

(1) OH (2) NH2

(3) NC (4) CH=O

65. :-

(1) NH2

(2) O

NH2

(3)

Me

MeN

Me(4) CH

2 = CH–NH

2

66. :-

(1) Cl3C–CH=O (2) H

2C=O

(3) C H –C–C H2 5 2 5

O

(4) C6H

5–CH=O

67.(1) O3

(2) H O/Zn2X + Y

(C H O)2 4 (C H O)3 6

(1) LiAlH4

(2) H O2

X P

(1) LiAlH4

(2) H O2

Y Q

X, Y, P Q :-(1) X Y (2) P Q

(3) P Q (4) X Y

13/360999DM610515006


68. Most reactive for SN

1 reaction is :-

(1)

Cl

(2)

Cl

(3)

Cl

(4)

Cl

69.

CH3

(1) CrO Cl2 2

(2) H O3

PR

CH3

P and R respectively are :-

(1)

COOH

and (P + HI)

(2)

CH=O

and (H2 + Pd)

(3)

COOH

and (H2 + Pd)

(4)

CH=O

and Zn-Hg/HCl

70. Which can show metamerism :-

(1) O

Et Et(2)

OEt Ph

(3) O

H OEt(4) All

71. But-1-yne and But-2-yne can be distinguished

by :-

(1) (AgNO3 + NH

4OH)

(2) Br2|CC

4

(3) Baeyer's reagent

(4) HCl

68. SN

1 :-

(1)

Cl

(2)

Cl

(3)

Cl

(4)

Cl

69.

CH3

(1) CrO Cl2 2

(2) H O3

PR

CH3

P R :-

(1)

COOH

and (P + HI)

(2)

CH=O

and (H2 + Pd)

(3)

COOH

and (H2 + Pd)

(4)

CH=O

and Zn-Hg/HCl

70. :-

(1) O

Et Et(2)

OEt Ph

(3) O

H OEt(4)

71. -1--2-

:-

(1) (AgNO3 + NH

4OH)

(2) Br2|CC

4

(3) Baeyer's reagent

(4) HCl

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72.

H COOK

H COOK(aq.)

electrolysis Product is :-

(1)

H H

H H

(2) H–CC–H

(3) (4)

H CH3

H CH3

73. MgBr + OH X; X is :-

(1) O

(2) O OH

(3)

(4)

74. Decarboxylation is observed to be fastest in :-

(1) O

OH

O

(2)

OOH

O

(3)

OOH

OH

(4) OH

OH

75. Strongest nucleophile is :-

(1) O

(2) S

(3) CH2

(4) CH –C–CH3 2

O

76. The number of moles of sodium sulphite

(Na2SO

3) needed to react with one mole of

KMnO4 in acidic solution :-

(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2 (3) 1 (4) 3/5

72.

H COOK

H COOK(aq.)

electrolysis :-

(1)

H H

H H

(2) H–CC–H

(3) (4)

H CH3

H CH3

73. MgBr + OH X; X :-

(1) O

(2) O OH

(3)

(4)

74. :-

(1) O

OH

O

(2)

OOH

O

(3)

OOH

OH

(4) OH

OH

75. :-

(1) O

(2) S

(3) CH2

(4) CH –C–CH3 2

O

76. 1 KMnO4 Na2SO3

:-

(1) 4/5 (2) 5/2 (3) 1 (4) 3/5

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77. The enthalpies of formation of N2O and NO are 28

and 90 kJ mol–1 respectively. The enthalpy of the

reaction, 2N2O(g) + O

2(g) 4NO(g) is equal to:

(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ

(3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ

78. 0.1 mole of CH3NH2 (Kb = 5 × 10–4) is mixed with

0.08 mole of HCl and diluted to one litre. The [H+]

in solution is :-

(1) 8 × 10–2 M

(2) 1.3 × 10–10 M

(3) 1.6 × 10–11M

(4) 8 × 10–5 M

79. Calculate the maximum work done in expanding

16 g of oxygen at 300 K and occupying a volume

of 5 dm3 isothermally until the volume becomes

25 dm3 :-

(1) 2010 J (2) –2010 J

(3) 20.10 J (4) –20.10 J

80. CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + CO2 + H2O ;

In this chemical reaction what will be the amountof calcium chloride when 10g calcium carbonate

and 400 mL 0.25 M HCl is used :-(1) 4.05 g (2) 5.55 g

(3) 11.1 g (4) 16.65 g

81. The difference in wavelength of first and second

spectral lines of lyman series in Li+2 ion spectrum

is :-

(1) 190 Å (2) 182.1 Å

(3) 27 Å (4) 21.1 Å

82. At equilibrium on increasing pressurre boiling

point of H2O :-

(1) Boiling point of water increases

(2) Boiling point of water decreases

(3) Boiling point of water remains unchanged

(4) Nothing can be assumed

83. An element has 2.03 × 1024 atoms in 135g. If the

element crystalises in face centred cubic lattice

structure with the arm length 150 pm then density

of element is :-

(1) 19.7 g cm–3 (2) 39.4 g cm–3

(3) 78.8 g cm–3 (4) 118.2 g cm–3

84. At which temperature average velocity of

ammonia molecules will be identical with average

velocity of nitric oxide molecules at 327°C

temperature :-

(1) 127°C (2) 340°C

(3) 67°C (4) 190.6°C

77. N2O NO 28

90 kJ mol–1 2N

2O(g) + O

2(g) 4NO(g) :-

(1) 8 kJ (2) 88 kJ

(3) –16 kJ (4) 304 kJ

78. 0.1 CH3NH2 (Kb = 5 × 10–4) 0.08 HCl

1 [H+] :-(1) 8 × 10–2 M

(2) 1.3 × 10–10 M

(3) 1.6 × 10–11M

(4) 8 × 10–5 M

79. 300 K 16 g O2 5 dm3 25 dm3 :-

(1) 2010 J (2) –2010 J

(3) 20.10 J (4) –20.10 J

80. CaCO3

+ 2HCl CaCl2

+ CO2

+ H2O ;

10 400 0.25 M HCl :-(1) 4.05 g (2) 5.55 g

(3) 11.1 g (4) 16.65 g

81. Li+2

:-

(1) 190 Å (2) 182.1 Å

(3) 27 Å (4) 21.1 Å

82. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

83. 1352.03 × 1024 150 pm :-(1) 19.7 g cm–3 (2) 39.4 g cm–3

(3) 78.8 g cm–3 (4) 118.2 g cm–3

84.

327°C

:-

(1) 127°C (2) 340°C

(3) 67°C (4) 190.6°C

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85. For the cell reaction, 2Ce4+ + Co 2Ce3+ + Co2+

E°cell

is 1.89V and 2

0

Co / CoE = +0.28. If 4 3

0

Ce / CeE

(1) – 1.61 V (2) + 1.61 V

(3) – 2.08 V (4) + 2.17 V

86. The decomposition of N2O5 is a first order

reaction represented by N2O

5 N

2O

4 +

1

2O

2.

After 15 minutes the volume of O2 produced is

9ml and at the end of the reaction 35ml. The rate

cosntant is equal to :-

(1) 1 35

n15 44

(2) 1 44

n15 26

(3) 1 44

n15 35

(4) 1 35

n15 26

87. Which of the following statements is incorrect

regarding physisorption ?

(1) It occurs because of vander Waal's forces

(2) More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed

readily.

(3) Under high pressure it results into multi

molecular layer on adsorbent surface

(4) Enthalpy of adsorption (Hadsorption) is low and

positive

88. In a first-order reaction of the type :

A(g) 2B(g), the initial and at time 't' pressures

are p1 and p respectively. The rate constant can

be expressed by -

(1) 1

1

p1k ln

t 2p p

(2) 1

1

p1k ln

t p p

(3) 1

1

p1k ln

t p p

(4) 1p1

k lnt p

89. The molality of the solution prepared by dissolving

125 mL of pure methanol (d = 0.8 gmL–1) in

375 g of ethanol is :

(1) 10.8 (2) 11.2 (3) 8.33 (4) 10.4

90. 17.4% (W/V) of potassium sulphate

(mol. wt. = 174) is isotonic with 4% (W/V)

aqueous solution of NaOH. If NaOH is 100%

ionised, the degree of ionisation of potassium

sulphate is

(1) 50% (2) 75%

(3) 40% (4) 60%

85. 2Ce4+ + Co 2Ce3+ + Co2+

E° 1.89V 2

0

Co / CoE = +0.28 4 3

0

Ce / CeE

(1) – 1.61 V (2) + 1.61 V

(3) – 2.08 V (4) + 2.17 V

86. N2O5

N2O

5 N

2O

4 +

1

2O

2,

15 O2 9

O2 35

:-

(1) 1 35

n15 44

(2) 1 44

n15 26

(3) 1 44

n15 35

(4) 1 35

n15 26

87. (1) (2)

(3)

(4) (H)

88. A(g) 2B(g)

tp1p

(1) 1

1

p1k ln

t 2p p

(2) 1

1

p1k ln

t p p

(3) 1

1

p1k ln

t p p

(4) 1

p1k ln

t p

89. 375 g (d = 0.8 gmL–1)

125 mL -

(1) 10.8 (2) 11.2 (3) 8.33 (4) 10.4

90. (= 174) 17.4% (W/V)

NaOH4% (W/V)

NaOH 100%

(1) 50% (2) 75%

(3) 40% (4) 60%

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91. Read the following statements. Find out which

one is incorrect ?

(1) Virus takes over the machinery of the host cell

to replicate themself

(2) Virus contains both RNA and DNA

(3) AIDS in human is caused by a virus

(4) Generally in plant viruses, ss RNA is present

92. Which of the following is not a function of

mesosome?

(1) Help in DNA replicaton

(2) Help in cell wall synthesis

(3) ATP synthesis

(4) Storage of food

93.(A)

(B)

(C)

In the labelled figure of Marchantia, what are A,

B and C?

(1) Archegoniophore, Gemma cup, Rhizoids

(2) Rhizoids, Archegoniophore, Gemma cup

(3) Gemma cup, Archegoniophore, Rhizoids

(4) Rhizoids, Antheridiophore, Gemma cup

94. Read the following statements & select the correct

option :

(A) Gymnosperms include all types of plants like

medium size tree, tall trees, shrubs and herbs.

(B) In Cycas coralloid roots are associated with

mycorrhiza

(C) In conifers needle like leaves reduce the

surface area.

(D) All gymnosperms are heterosporous

How many above statements are correct &

incorrect?

(1) 2 - correct, 2 - incorrect




91. ?(1)

(2) RNA DNA (3) AIDS(4) ss RNA

92. :-

(1) DNA

(2)

(3) ATP

(4)

93.(A)

(B)

(C)

A, B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 94.

:

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) 2 - , 2 - (2) 3 - , 1 -

(3) 1 - , 3 -

(4) 0 - , 4 -

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95. "" (1) (2) (3) (4)

96. :-(A) -(B) -(C) -(D) - (E) - :-(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D, E

(3) B, C, D (4) A, C, D, E

97. :-(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis

(2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy

(3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis

(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy

98. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

99. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 100. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

101. DNA :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

95. Who wrote "Systema Naturae" and provided a

basis for nomenclature of animals ?

(1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Charles Darwin

(3) Aristotle (4) Leeuwenhoek

96. Read the following pair :-

(A) Diatoms-haploid body

(B) Dinoflagellates-water bloom

(C) Slime moulds -decomposer nature

(D) Euglenoids-some time behave like predator

(E) Protozoa-Unicellular prokaryotes

Choose the correct option :-

(1) A, B, C, D (2) B, C, D, E

(3) B, C, D (4) A, C, D, E

97. Select the correct sequence of events with respect

to the fungal sexual cycle. :-

(1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis

(2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy

(3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meiosis

(4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmogamy

98. Choose the correct statement :-

(1) Algal cell wall is made up of cellulose,

galactans, mannans and minerals like calcium

carbonate.

(2) Most of gymnosperms are homosporous.

(3) Most of pteridophytes are heterosporous and

some are homosporous.

(4) Water is not required for fertilisation in seed

plants like, Selaginella and Salvinia.

99. Read the following statement and select out

wrong one :-

(1) RER is frequently observed in the cell, actively

involved in protein synthesis and secretion

(2) In animal cells lipid-like steroidal hormones

are synthesised in SER

(3) Chloroplast contains enzymes required for the

synthesis of only proteins

(4) Centriole form basal body of cilia or flagella

100. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex occurs in:-

(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene

(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene

101. An organelle which unless specifically stained, isnot easily visible under the microscope and

surrounded by double membrane structure containsmall circular DNA molecule, ribosome and also

having the site for oxidative phosphorylation is :-

(1) Chloroplast (2) Ribosome

(3) Mesosome (4) Mitochondria

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102. The following graphs (A and B) depicts changes

in DNA Content during cell cycle. Identify the

cell division from A and B :-

Cell cycle(A)

Cell cycle(B)

(1) A Meiosis–II, B Meiosis–I

(2) A Mitosis, B Meiosis–I

(3) A Meiosis–I, B Mitosis

(4) A Mitosis, B Meiosis

103. Which of the following pair of cellular structures

have similar number of membrane ?

(1) Ribosome, mitochondria

(2) Golgi body, centriole

(3) Nucleus, peroxisome

(4) Nucleus, chloroplast

104. In the given diagram identify the coelomic

condition in the animals :-

(A) (B)

(C)

(1) (A) Tapeworm

(B) Ascaris

(C) Earthworm

(2) (A) Cockroach

(B) Ascaris

(C) Tapeworm

(3) (A) Ascaris

(B) Tapeworm

(C) Earthworm

(4) (A) Earthworm

(B) Cockroach

(C) Ascaris

102. (A B) DNA

A B :-

Cell cycle(A)

Cell cycle(B)

(1) A II, B I(2) A , B I(3) A I B (4) A , B

103.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 104.

:-

(A) (B)

(C)

(1) (A) Tapeworm

(B) Ascaris

(C) Earthworm

(2) (A) Cockroach

(B) Ascaris

(C) Tapeworm

(3) (A) Ascaris

(B) Tapeworm

(C) Earthworm

(4) (A) Earthworm

(B) Cockroach

(C) Ascaris

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105. Here some informations are given about

Arthropoda :-

– Bilateral symmetry

– Incomplete digestive system

– Organ system level of organisation

– Coelomate

– Open type circulatory system

– Triploblastic

– Unsegmented

How many informations are correct ?

(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six (4) Seven

106. Which one of the statement hold true when we

discuss about Physalia?

(1) Member of ctenophora

(2) Have internal shell

(3) Body asymmetric

(4) Marine habitat

107. Identify the symmetry shown below as well as the

related explanation and select the right option for

the two together :-

Symmetry Explanation

(1) Asymmetrical Any plane that passesthrough the centre doesnot divide them equalhalves

(2) Radial The body can bedivided into identicalleft and right halves inonly one plane

(3) Bilateral Any plane pass throughthe central axis of thebody divides theorganism into twoidentical halves

(4) Bilateral The body can bedivided into identicalleft and right helves inonly one plane

105. :-– –

– – –

–

–

?(1) (2) (3) (4)

106. (1) (2) (3) (4)

107.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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108. The living differentiated cell which has lost the

capacity to divide, can regain capacity of division

under certain condition. This phenomenon is

called :-

(1) Dedifferentiation (2) Differentiation

(3) Redifferentiation (4) Maturation

109. If there is more than one tunica layers in the stem

apex, then which among the following is most

likely to happen :-

(1) All the layers will develop into cortical cells

(2) All the layers will develop into the epidermal

cells

(3) The outer layer will develop into epidermal

and cortical cells

(4) The outer most layer forms the epidermis and

remaining layers, form another type of tissues

with the association of corpus

110. Match of the following column-I and II, and

choose correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) Siliqua (i) Apple

(B) Drupe (ii) Pea

(C) Legume (iii) Mustard

(D) Pome (iv) Mango

A B C D

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

111. How many plant in the list given below axile

placentation?

Mustard, Gram, Tulip, Sunhemp, Chilli,

Colchicum, Tomato, Lemon, Argemone, China

rose, Dianthus, Sunflower.

(1) Six (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

112. Which of the following statement is not true?

(1) Tendril is a modified structure

(2) Stipule is lateral outgrowth of leaf base

(3) Arrangement of flowers in racemose

inflorescence is basipetal order

(4) In racemose inflorescence floral axis has

unlimited growth

108.

:-

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 109.

:-(1) (2) (3)

(4)

110. I II

-I -II

(A) (i)

(B) (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv)

A B C D

(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(3) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

111.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) 112.

(1) (2) (3)

(4)

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113. What is common to viola, oxalis and commelina

plants ?

(1) All are xerophytes

(2) All are aquatic plants

(3) All are polyploids

(4) All of them produced two types of flowers

chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers.

114. Development of a sporophyte directly from the

gametophytic tissue is called :-

(1) Apospory (2) Apogamy

(3) Parthenogenesis (4) Parthenocarpy

115. Choose the correct sequence in artificial

hybridisation/pollination

(1) Selection of parent plant, bagging,

emasculation, pollen dusting, rebagged

(2) Selection of parent plant, emasculation,

bagging, pollen dusting, rebagged

(3) Selection of parent plant, pollen dusting,

bagging, emasculation, rebagged

(4) Selection of parent plant, bagging,

emasculation, rebagged, pollen dusting

116. Which tissue is associated with filtration and

diffusion?

(1) Simple squamous epithelium

(2) Simple cuboidal epithelium

(3) Simple columnar epithelium

(4) Pseudostratified epithelium

117. Which of the following statements is/are

incorrect about the given diagram ?

(a) This epithelium is made up of a single thick

layer of flattened cells with irregular

boundaries.

(b) This epithelium is found in the walls of blood

vessels and air sacs of lungs.

(c) This epithelium is involved in forming a

diffusion boundary.

(d) Free surfaces are absent in this epithelium.

(1) a, d only

(2) b, d only

(3) a, b, c, d

(4) d only

113. (1) (2) (3) (4)

114. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

115. (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

116. (1) (2) (3) (4)

117.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a, d

(2) b, d (3) a, b, c, d

(4) d

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118. Read the following statements regarding

Periplaneta americana ?

(A) Head holds a bit of nervous system while the

rest is situated along the ventral part of its body

(B) The next to last nymphal stage has wing pads

but only adult cockroach have wings.

(C) Blood enters into heart chambers through ostia

during diastolic stage and is pumped anteriorly

during systolic stage

(D) Maximum digestion takes place in crop but

it gets completed in mesenteron.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(1) A and B only (2) B, C and D

(3) A, B and D only (4) A, B, C and D

119. How many compounds in the list given below are

hexose sugar ?

Glycerol, Glyceride, DHAP, Glucose, Rhamnose,

Galactose, Mannose, Ribose, PGAL,

Sedoheptalose, Ricin.

(1) Four (2) Three (3) Two (4) One

120. Identify the molecule (a) and (b) shown below and

select the right option giving their name and

occurrence :-

(a) R —C—O—CH2

CH —O—C—R2 1

CH —O—P—O2 —CH —CH2 2

H N+

CH3CH3

CH3

O

O

O

(b)

OHOH

HOCH2 uracil

(1) (a) = Lecithin Cell membrane

(2) (b) = Uridylic acid RNA

(3) (a) = Triglyceride DNA

(4) (b) = Uracil RNA

121. A nucleotide has three chemically distinct

components. One is a ......‘A’........ the second is

a ......‘B’....... and the third a phosphoric acid or

phosphate.

(1) A = nitrogen base, B = hexose sugar

(2) A = heterocyclic compound,

B = monosaccharide

(3) A = nucleic acid, B = pentose sugar

(4) A = nitrogen base, B = glucose

118. (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A B (2) B, C D(3) A, B, C E (4) A, B, C D

119. ?

DHAP

PGAL,

(1) (2) (3) (4)

120. (a) (b) :-

(a) R —C—O—CH2

CH —O—C—R2 1

CH —O—P—O2 —CH —CH2 2

H N+

CH3CH3

CH3

O

O

O

(b)

OHOH

HOCH2 uracil

(1) (a) =

(2) (b) = RNA

(3) (a) = DNA

(4) (b) = RNA

121.

......‘A’........ ......‘B’.......

(1) A = , B =

(2) A = , B =

(3) A = , B =

(4) A = , B =

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122. Which is possible for fully turgid cell?

(1) DPD = 10 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 5 atm

(2) DPD = 0.2 atm, OP = 0.7 atm, TP = 0.5 atm

(3) DPD = 0.0 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 15 atm


123. A wooden peg inserted in a rock cause its breaking

during the rainy season. It is due to development of:-

(1) TP

(2) OP

(3) Imbibition pressure

(4) Plasmolysis

124. The end product of oxidative phosphorylation is

(1) NADH

(2) Oxygen

(3) ADP

(4) ATP + H2O

125. Substrate level phosphorylation occur during

which step of kreb's cycle?

(1) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid

(2) Isocitric acid oxalo succinic acid

(3) Oxalosuccinic acid a-keto glutaric acid

(4) Malic acid OAA

126. Which phase of calvin cycle do not use any energy

rich compound?

(1) Carboxylation

(2) Carboxylation & Reduction

(3) Reduction

(4) Regeneration

127. How many turn of Calvin cycle yield one

molecule of sucrose?

(1) 6 (2) 12

(3) 24 (4) 28

128. The reaction given below is related to which

process?

R –C–COO + R –C–COO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2

– – – –

H

NH3

+ O O NH3

+

H H

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) Amino acid synthesis by reductive amination

(3) Nitrification

(4) Amino acid synthesis by transmination

129. Dieback and little leaf disease are caused due to

deficiency of ______ and ______ respectively :-

(1) Cu, Zn (2) Zn, Si

(3) Mo, Fe (4) N, K

122. (1) DPD = 10 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 5 atm

(2) DPD = 0.2 atm, OP = 0.7 atm, TP = 0.5 atm

(3) DPD = 0.0 atm, OP = 15 atm, TP = 15 atm


123. (1) TP

(2) OP

(3) (4)

124. (1) NADH

(2) (3) ADP

(4) ATP + H2O

125. (1) Succinyl CoA Succinic acid

(2) Isocitric acid oxalo succinic acid

(3) Oxalosuccinic acid a-keto glutaric acid

(4) Malic acid OAA

126. (1) (2) (3) (4)

127. (1) 6 (2) 12

(3) 24 (4) 28

128.

R –C–COO + R –C–COO R –C–COO + R –C–COO1 2 1 2

– – – –

H

NH3

+ O O NH3

+

H H

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 129. ______ ______

:-(1) Cu, Zn (2) Zn, Si

(3) Mo, Fe (4) N, K

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130. Read the following statement (a–d) and answer

as asked next to them :-

(a) The water we drink plays an important role in

metabolic processes and also prevents

dehydration of the body.

(b) Digestion is carried out by our digestive system

by mechanical and biochemical methods.

(c) Oral cavity has a number of teeth and a

muscular tongue

(d) Most mammals including human beings have

two set of teeth during their life.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four (2) Two (3) Three (4) One

131. Match the column I with column II, and choose

the correct option given below ?

Column-I Column-II

(A) Secretin (1) Stimulate the secretion

from gastric glands

(B) Gastrin (2) Stimulate the secretion

of water &

bicarbonates in

pancrentic Juice

(C) CCK (3) Inhibit gastric

secretion & motility

(D) GIP (4) stimulate the secretion

of pancreatic enzymes

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

132. In above figure which points are related with

excited stage

+30

0

–40–55

–70

–90

A C

D

E

B

Mem

bra

ne

po

tent

ial

(mv

)

Time (ms)

(1) A–B (2) B–C

(3) C–D (4) D–E

130. (a–d) :-(a)

(b)

(c) (d)

?(1) (2) (3) (4)

131. I II

?

-I -II

(A) (1)

(B) (2)

(C) CCK (3)

(D) GIP (4)

(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4(2) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3(3) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3(4) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

132.

+30

0

–40–55

–70

–90

A C

D

E

B

Mem

bra

ne

pote

ntia

l (m

v)

Time (ms)

(1) A–B (2) B–C

(3) C–D (4) D–E

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133. If we consider F as sympathetic nervous system

then B would be :-

CNS B

A C F

D E

(1) Para sympathetic nervous system

(2) Autonomic nervous system

(3) Peripheral nervous system

(4) Somatic nervous system

134. Find out the correct match from the following

table.

Hormone Sourceorgan

Function

(i) Calcitonin Thyroid Stimulatesmineralisation ofbones

(ii) Gonadotrophins Testis/ovary

Spermatogenesis/Folliculogenesis

(iii) Oxytocin Hypoth-alamus

Stimulatescontraction insmooth musclesof body

(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (iii)

(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)

135. Which of the following is correct ?

(a) Hypercalcemic hormone is thyrocalcitonin

(TCT)

(b) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the

Ca+2 levels in the blood

(c) Thymosins play a major role in the

differentiation of T-lymphocytes

(d) Parathyroid glands are present on back side

of the thyroid gland

(1) b, c, d (2) a, b, c

(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d

136. Read the following statements (A-D)

(A) Photoreceptor cells are not present at blind

spot

(B) The photopic vision is function of rods.

(C) Opsin is an aldehyde of vitamin A.

(D) Action potential is generated in ganglion cells

of retina

How many of the above statements are true?

(1)4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2

133. F B :-

CNS B

A C F

D E

(1) (2) (3) (4)

134.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1) (i) (2) (i) (iii)(3) (ii) (iii) (4) (i) (ii)

135. (a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) b, c, d (2) a, b, c

(3) a, c, d (4) a, b, c, d

136. (A-D)

(A)

(B) (C) A (D)

(1)4 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2

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137. Read the following statements :-

(A) It is a chronic disorder

(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking

(C) It is an Allergy

(D) Alveolar walls are damaged

(E) Respiratory surface is decreased

(F) It is due to inflammation of bronchi and

bronchioles.

How many of the above statements are correct

about Emphysema disorder?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) One

138. In which the following group blood is pumped by

heart passes through large vessels in to open

spaces or body cavities.

(1) Amphibia (2) Annelida

(3) Mollusca (4) Birds

139. Which statement is wrong about partial pressure

of oxygen?

(1) 2OP more in atmospheric air than alveoli

(2) 2OP more in alveoli than tissue

(3) 2OP more in oxygenated blood than

deoxygenated blood

(4) 2OP more in alveoli than expired air

140. The correct route through which impulse travel

in the heart is :-

(1) S.A. node Purkinje fibres Bundle of His

A.V. node Heart muscles

(2) A.V. Node S.A. Node Purkinje fibres

Bundle of His Heart muscles

(3) S.A. Node A.V. Node Bundle of His

Purkinje fibres Heart muscles

(4) A.V. Node Bundle of His S.A.Node

Purkinje fibres

141. Which one of the following options is incorrect?

(1) Hinge joint – between Humerus and

Pectoral girdle

(2) Pivot joint – between atlas and axis

(3) Gliding joint – between the carpals

(4) Saddle joint – between carpel and

metacarpals of thumb

137. (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (F)

(1) (2) (3) (4)

138.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

139. (1)

2OP

(2) 2OP

(3)

2OP

(4) 2OP expired air

140. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

141.

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –

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142. Cardiac muscle fibres are -

(1) Stariated and voluntary

(2) Unstariated and voluntary

(3) Stariated and involuntary

(4) Unstariated and involuntary

143. Which of the following are actively secreted into

filtrate by tubular cells of nephron?

(1) Na+, K, NH3

(2) K, NH3, H

(3) H, HCO3 , K (4) H, NH3, Na+

144. Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

(A) Glycosuria (i) Inflammation ofglomeruli of kidney

(B) Ketonuria (ii) Presence of glucosein urine

(C) Glmerulonephritis (iii) Excess of urea inblood

(D) Uremia (iv) Presence of ketonebodies of urine

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

145. Read the following statements about

hybridization technique of mendel and findout the

correct statement :-

(A) Emasculation of both male and female parents

is required.

(B) Emasculation of only male parent is required.

(C) Emasculation of female parent is required.

(D) Emasculation is not necessary.

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) All correct

146. Read the following statements and find out

incorrect one :-

(I) Flower colour in Mirabilis shows

overdominance.

(II) Coat colour in cattles shows codominance.

(III) Starch grain size in garden pea shown

incomplete dominanc.

(IV) Round shape is dominant over the wrinkled

shape in garden pea seeds.

(1) Only I (2) Only II

(3) Only III (4) I and IV both

142. (1) (2) (3) (4)

143.

(1) Na+, K, NH3

(2) K, NH3, H

(3) H, HCO3 , K (4) H, NH3, Na+

144.

-I -II

(A) Glycosuria (i) glomeruli

(B) Ketonuria (ii)

(C) Glmerulonephritis (iii)

(D) Uremia (iv)

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)

(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)

(4) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)

145.

:-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A (2) B

(3) C (4) 146. :-

(I)

(II)

(III)

(IV) (1) I (2) II

(3) III (4) I IV

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147. Match the following :-

I II

(A) Colourblindness (i) Autosomal recessive

(B) Haemophilia 'C' (ii) Nutritional deficiency

(C) Night blindness (iii) Point mutation

(D) Sickle cell anaemia (iv) X-linked recessive

(1) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii

(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii

(3) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii

(4) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii

148. Match the following.

(i) (A) Monozygotictwins

(B) Carrier for srecessive

disease

exlinked

(C) Carrier forautosomalrecessive disease

(D) Normal female

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D

(2) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B

(3) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A

(4) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A

149. Which statement is not true for base ratio of

DNA?

(1) Base ratio is constant for given species.

(2) Base ratio is variable for different species

(3) Base ratio does not depends on age of

organism

(4) Base ratio is different for different tissues of

an organism

150. Which of the following m–RNA contains

7–methyl guanosine at 5' end and polyadenine

base at the 3' end :-

(1) Prokaryotic mRNA (2) Eukaryotic mRNA

(3) Transfer RNA (4) Small nuclear RNA

151. Transcription begins when one of the following

enzyme binds to a promotor site :-

(1) Helicase (2) RNA polymerase

(3) Gyrase (4) Genetic code

147. :-

I II

(A) (i)

(B) 'C' (ii)

(C) (iii)

(D) (iv) X-

(1) A – i, B – iv, C – ii, D – iii

(2) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii

(3) A – iv, B – i, C – iii, D – ii

(4) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii

148.

(i) (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) – A, (ii) – B, (iii) – C, (iv) – D

(2) (i) – D, (ii) – C, (iii) – A, (iv) – B

(3) (i) – C, (ii) – D, (iii) – B, (iv) – A

(4) (i) – B, (ii) – C, (iii) – D, (iv) – A

149. DNA (1)

(2)

(3) (4)

150. m–RNA 5' 7–methyl

guanosine 3' :-(1) Prokaryotic mRNA (2) Eukaryotic mRNA

(3) Transfer RNA (4) Small nuclear RNA

151. :-(1) (2) RNA (3) (4)

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152. How many statements are correct for mutation?

(a) Mutations are discontinuous source for variations

(b) Smallest part of DNA which undergoes

mutation is called hot spot

(c) Muton is one nucleotide

(d) Mostly mutations are harmful

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

153. pBR322, which is frequently used as a vector for

cloning gene in E.coli is a/an :-

(1) Original bacterial plasmid

(2) Modified bacterial plasmid

(3) Viral genome

(4) Transposon

154. Recombinant DNA is forced to enter the

host cells by incubating the cells with rDNA first :-

(1) On ice followed by heat shock and then again

on ice

(2) In ethidium bromide followed by calcium

salts

(3) Into chilled ethanol followed by ice and then

into CsCl

(4) All of the above

155. What is true for Bt-toxin?

(1) Bt-toxin protein exist as active toxin in

bacterium

(2) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due

to acidic pH of gut of insect

(3) Bt-toxin is converted into an active toxin due

to alkaline pH of gut of insects

(4) Bt-toxin is formed by RNA interference

156. Name the blank space A, B, C and D given in the

following table ?

Microbe name Commercial product

A Lactic acid

B Cyclosporin–A

Monascus purpureus C

Penicillium notatum D

(1)A – Lactobacillus, B – Trichoderma,

C – Penicillin, D – Statins

(2)A – Trichoderma, B – Lactobacillus,

C – Statins, D – Penicillin

(3)A – Lactobacillus, B – Aspergillus,

C – TPA, D – Penicillin



152. :-(a) (b) DNA hot spot

(c) (d) (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

153. pBR322 :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

154. DNA rDNA :-(1)

(2)

(3) CsCl

(4) 155. Bt-

(1) Bt-

(2) pH Bt-

(3) pH Bt-

(4) Bt-156. A, B, C D

?

A Lactic acid

B Cyclosporin–A

Monascus purpureus C

Penicillium notatum D


C – Penicillin, D – Statins

(2)A – Trichoderma, B – Lactobacillus,


(3)A – Lactobacillus, B – Aspergillus,

C – TPA, D – Penicillin



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157. 'Marsupial mole' and Kangaroo are the

example of :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution

(3) Adaptive radiation

(4) Both (1) and (3)

158. The eyes of octopus and eyes of mammals show:-

(a) Convergent evolution

(b) Analogous structures

(c) Different structures evolving for the same

function

(d) Divergent evolution

(1) a and b (2) c and d

(3) a, b and c (4) a, c

159. Adaptive similarities in different animals living

in the same habitat is called :–

(1) Retrogressive evolution

(2) Parallel evolution

(3) Adaptive radiation

(4) Convergent evolution

160. Cleavage are repeated mitotic division which start

in zygote at :-

(1) Infundibulum (2) Isthmus

(3) Uterus (4) Fimbrae

161. Which of the following is correct match?

Column-I Column-II

(1) Tubectomy Ovarian changeswill occur bututerine changeswill not occur

(2) Hysterectomy Ovarian changeswill not occur butfertilization ispossible

(3) Both ovaryoophorectomy

Ovarian changeswill not occur bututerine changeswill occur

(4) One ovary oophorectomy(One ovary functional)

Fertilizationpossible but

initialy menstrualcycle will beirregular

157. ' ' :-(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (3)

158.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a b (2) c d

(3) a, b c (4) a, c

159. :–(1) (2) (3) (4)

160. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

161.

–I –II

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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162. The region outside the seminiferous tubule which

contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells and

immunologically competent cells is present

called:-

(1) Perivitelline space

(2) Peritesticular space

(3) Interstitial space

(4) Inguinal space

163. Functional characters of community, which

change during succession :-(a) Energy use efficiency

(b) Nutrient conservation(c) Complexity of food web

(d) species diversity(1) a, b and c (2) b, c and d

(3) only d (4) a and d only

164. Which of the following option give the correct

categorisation of examples according to the type

of species Interaction (A, B, C) :-

AMutualism

BParasitism

CCommensalism

1Barnacle &Whale

Loranthus &Mango

Yucca plant &Pronuba Moth

2Leech onCattle

Orchid &Bee

Pilot fish &shark

3Fig Tree &Wasp

Viscum &Oak

Clown fish &Sea Anemone

4Sucker fish &Shark

Lichen Ticks on Dog

165. K-selected species has :-

(1) High stability & low biotic potential

(2) Low stability & high biotic potential

(3) Short life time & high growth rate

(4) Long life time & high growth rate

166. The second stage of hydrosere is occupied by

plants like :

(1) Vallisneria (2) Typha

(3) Azolla (4) BGA

167. Which of the following is not a characteristics of

a community ?

(1) Dominance

(2) Species diversity

(3) Natality

(4) Stratification

162.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 163.

(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) a, b c (2) b, c d(3) d (4) a d

164. :-

A

B

C

1

2

3

Clown fish Sea Anemone

4

165. K-selected :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

166. (1) (2) (3) (4) BGA

167. (1) (2) (3) (4)

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168. Match the column I with column II :-

I II

(i) Water Act (a) 1986

(ii) Wild life Act (b) 1981

(iii) Air Act (c) 1972

(iv) NEPA (d) 1974

i ii iii iv

(1) c b a d

(2) d c b a

(3) a c b d

(4) a b c d

169. Most lethal ultra violet radiation is :

(1) U.V.-A (2) U.V.-B (3) U.V.-C (4) U.V.-D

170. Ecological apporaches to conservation biology

emphasize –

(1) Protection of particularly important species

(2) Protection of habitats with high species

diversity

(3) Creation of new kinds of species

(4) All the above

171. Which of the following is not recycled in an

ecosystem ?

(1) Water (2) Carbon (3) Energy (4) Nitrogen

172. What fraction of assimilated energy is used in

respiration by the herbivore ?

(1) 20 percent (2) 30 percent

(3) 40 percent (4) 60 Percent

173.

A

B

C

Which of the following option correctly represent

A, B and C about thermal stratification in Lakes?

A B C

(1) Littoral zone Limneticzone

Profundal zone

(2) Hypolimnion Metalimnion Epilimnion

(3) Limnetic zone Littoral zone Profundal zone

(4) Epilimnion Metalimnion Hypolimnion

168. I II :-

I II

(i) (a) 1986

(ii) (b) 1981

(iii) (c) 1972

(iv) NEPA (d) 1974

i ii iii iv

(1) c b a d

(2) d c b a

(3) a c b d

(4) a b c d

169. (1) U.V.-A (2) U.V.-B (3) U.V.-C (4) U.V.-D

170.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 171.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

172. (1) 20 percent (2) 30 percent

(3) 40 percent (4) 60 Percent

173.

A

B

C

A, B C ?

A B C

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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174.

(A) (B)

Choose the correct option about given above :-

(A) (B)

(1) Hallucinogen Bhang

(2) Morphine Datura

(3) Heroin Bhang

(4) Datura Morphine

175. Which of the following statement is false for the

structure labelled as "A" in the figure given

below?

A

(1) Here maturation of T-lymphocytes takes place

(2) Here immature lymphocytes differentiate into

antigen-sensitive lymphocytes

(3) Here lymphocytes interact with antigen and

become effector cells

(4) It is an example of primary lymphoid organ.

176. In full blown AIDS, oppurtunistic infections are

caused by :-

(1) Mycobacterium

(2) Toxoplasma

(3) Viruses and fungi

(4) All of these

174.

(A) (B)

:-

(A) (B)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 175. 'A"

:-

A

(1) T-

(2)

(3)

(4)

176.

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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177. Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular

junction leading to fatigue, weakening and

paralysis of skeletal muscle is -

(1) Muscular dystrophy

(2) Tetany

(3) Gout

(4) Myasthenia gravis

178. India's wheat yield was improved in the 1960, due

to :-

(1) Introduction of wild varieties

(2) Selection in between local varieties

(3) Eradication of weed plants

(4) Sowing the seeds of high yielding and disease

resistant varieties

179. Read the following statements carefully :-

(A) Genetic variability is the root of any breeding

programme

(B) Ginkgo biloba, a cultivated plant in U.S is the

example of in-situ conservation

(C) Cross-hybridization step in a breeding

programme is a very time consuming and

tedius process

(D) Sonalika and Kalyan Sona in high yielding

rice varieties

Which of the above statements are correct ?

(1) C and D

(2) A, B and C

(3) A, C and D

(4) A and C

180. Among the following how many are the milch

breed of the cattle ?

Gir, Sahiwal, Nageri, Haryana, Thaparkar, Deoni,

Malvi

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

177.

-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

178. 1960

:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

179. :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

?

(1) C D

(2) A, B C

(3) A, C D

(4) A C

180. ?

(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2

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