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Pass4sure.ITIL-F.347.QA

Number: ITIL-FPassing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 19.1

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ITIL-F.EN.dat

ITIL® Foundation

Enjoy the real success with nicely written Questions with many corrections inside.You can get highest score by using this dump, which are prepared by top certified professionals.Guys I cleared with 95% score. This dump is perfectly valid still.Now Simulations Questions are pretty in depth.It's an Update version of this dump.

Sections1. Service Management as a practice2. The Service Lifecycle3. Generic concepts and definitions

4. Key Principles and Models5. Major Processes6. Minor Processes7. Functions8. Roles9. Technology and Architecture10.Mix Questions

Exam A

QUESTION 1Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

A. DoB. PerformC. ImplementD. Measure

Correct Answer: ASection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?

A. InternalB. ExternalC. Service deskD. Shared services unit

Correct Answer: CSection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 3Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?

1. The approach is pre-authorized2. The risk is usually low and well understood3. Details of the change will be recorded4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfillment process

A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above

Correct Answer: DSection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 4Which of the following BEST describes a problem?


A. An issue reported by a userB. The cause of two or more incidentsC. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the businessD. The cause of one or more incidents



QUESTION 5What are underpinning contracts used to document?

A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service provider

B. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliersC. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customerD. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams

Correct Answer: BSection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 6The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition ofwhat?

A. A changeB. A change modelC. A change requestD. A change advisory board



QUESTION 7Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

A. The Deming CycleB. The continual service improvement approachC. The seven-step improvement processD. The service lifecycle



QUESTION 8Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the implementation of a new service?

A. A service optionB. A service transition package (STP)C. A service design package (SDP)D. A service charter



QUESTION 9The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?

A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risksB. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to riskC. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capitalD. Training of all staff and investment of capital



QUESTION 10What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A. OutcomeB. IncidentC. Change

D. Problem



QUESTION 11Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?

A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilitiesB. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBAC. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBAD. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting



QUESTION 12The BEST description of an incident is:

A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that serviceB. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of serviceC. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplannedD. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not



QUESTION 13Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metricsB. Service design packageC. Service portfolio designD. Process definitions



QUESTION 14Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?1. A configuration item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the aboveD. Neither of the above



QUESTION 15Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?1. Enabling2. Core3. Enhancing4. Computer

A. 1, 3 and 4 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 16Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A. Change proposalB. Change policyC. Service requestD. Risk register


Explanation/Reference:Still valid.

QUESTION 17In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

A. The service level agreement (SLA)B. The problem recordC. The availability management information systemD. The IT service continuity plan



QUESTION 18Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?

A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each partyB. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organizationC. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplierD. An agreement between the service provider and their customer



QUESTION 19Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT serviceB. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT serviceC. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT serviceD. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem



QUESTION 20Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?

1. Financial arrangements related to the contract2. Description of the goods or service provided3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 21Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

A. FunctionsB. Maturity and costC. The end-to-end serviceD. Infrastructure availability

Correct Answer: CSection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 22Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement basedon a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

A. Where are we now?B. Where do we want to be?C. How do we get there?D. Did we get there?

Correct Answer: B

Section: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 23What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after:

1. What is the vision?2. Where are we now?3. Where do we want to be?4. How do we get there?5. Did we get there?6. ?

A. What is the return on investment (ROI)?B. How much did it cost?C. How do we keep the momentum going?D. What is the value on investment (VOI)?



QUESTION 24Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?1. The services2. The architectures3. The configuration items4. The processes


Correct Answer: DSection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 25Implementation of ITIL service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps".

What are these four Ps?

A. People, process, partners, performanceB. Performance, process, products, problemsC. People, process, products, partnersD. People, products, perspective, partners



QUESTION 26Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

A. Implementing service and process improvementsB. Reviewing measurements and metricsC. Creating a baselineD. Defining measurable targets



QUESTION 27What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?

A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), qualityB. Strategic, tactical and operationalC. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activitiesD. Technology, process and service



QUESTION 28Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs?

A. Availability managementB. Capacity managementC. Design coordinationD. Release management

Correct Answer: CSection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 29Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?


A. Demand managementB. Incident managementC. Release and deployment managementD. Request fulfilment

Correct Answer: DSection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 30Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?

1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet

A. Both of the aboveB. 1 onlyC. 2 onlyD. Neither of the above

Correct Answer: ASection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 31Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management?

A. To prevent problems and resultant incidentsB. To manage problems throughout their lifecycleC. To restore service to a userD. To eliminate recurring incidents



QUESTION 32Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?

A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreementB. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreementsC. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access itD. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available



QUESTION 33The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management?

A. DataB. InformationC. KnowledgeD. Governance



QUESTION 34Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?

A. The service level managementB. The IT service continuity managementC. The service catalogue managementD. The supplier management



QUESTION 35Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have replaced?

A. Availability managementB. Capacity managementC. Service portfolio managementD. Service catalogue management



QUESTION 36Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?

A. Service level managementB. Service portfolio managementC. Request fulfilmentD. Demand management



QUESTION 37Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesB. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of servicesC. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happeningD. To detect security events and make sense of them

Correct Answer: BSection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 38Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service designB. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service componentsC. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriateD. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service

Correct Answer: ASection: Major Processes

Explanation


QUESTION 39Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A. A service level agreement (SLA)B. A request for change (RFC)C. The service portfolioD. A service description



QUESTION 40Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernible trends?

A. Service level managementB. Problem managementC. Change managementD. Event management



QUESTION 41What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customers

B. Reporting intervals should be set by the service providerC. Reports should be produced weeklyD. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services



QUESTION 42Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

A. Only changes that introduce new servicesB. It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activityC. Only changes to business critical systemsD. Any change that the organization believes could benefit

Correct Answer: DSection: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 43Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

A. Request fulfilmentB. Service portfolio managementC. Service deskD. IT finance

Correct Answer: ASection: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 44Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?

1. Things that were done correctly2. Things that were done incorrectly3. How to prevent recurrence4. What could be done better in the future




QUESTION 45What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

A. Service catalogue managementB. Service portfolio managementC. Service deskD. Business relationship management



QUESTION 46Access management is closely related to which other process?

A. Capacity management onlyB. 3rd line supportC. Information security managementD. Change management

Correct Answer: CSection: Minor ProcessesExplanation

Explanation/Reference:The Correction is added.

QUESTION 47Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A. IT services and componentsB. IT services and business processesC. Components and business processesD. IT services, components and business processes



QUESTION 48Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A. Change managementB. Service portfolio managementC. Supplier managementD. Continual service improvement



QUESTION 49Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?

A. Service catalogue managementB. Service asset and configuration managementC. Change managementD. Information security management



QUESTION 50What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normalB. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergencyC. Informational, warning, exceptionD. Warning, reactive, proactive



QUESTION 51Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identityB. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service components

C. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, serviceD. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Correct Answer: BSection: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 52Which one of the following do major incidents require?

A. Separate proceduresB. Less urgencyC. Longer timescalesD. Less documentation



QUESTION 53Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?

A. Incidents can only be reported by usersB. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal serviceC. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidentsD. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems



QUESTION 54With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

A. Incident managementB. Service asset and configuration managementC. Capacity managementD. IT service continuity management



QUESTION 55Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in thelive environment?

A. Service level managementB. Service catalogue managementC. Demand managementD. Service transition



QUESTION 56Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request themB. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service deskC. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesD. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested



QUESTION 57Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resourcesB. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitionsC. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processesD. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes



QUESTION 58Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?

A. The service portfolio includes all services except those managed by third partiesB. It is an integral part of the service catalogueC. It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service deploymentsD. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle



QUESTION 59

Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changesB. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimizedD. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders



QUESTION 60Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

A. The availability of a service or componentB. The level of risk that affects a service or processC. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failingD. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order



QUESTION 61Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?

A. Service transition planning and supportB. Design coordinationC. Service level managementD. Change management

Correct Answer: B

Section: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 62Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?

A. Change managementB. Service catalogue managementC. Supplier managementD. Release and deployment management



QUESTION 63What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normalB. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergencyC. Informational, warning, exceptionD. Warning, reactive, proactive



QUESTION 64Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?

A. Budgeting and chargingB. Accounting and chargingC. Budgeting and accountingD. Costing and charging



QUESTION 65Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A. Capacity managementB. Incident managementC. Service level managementD. Financial management



QUESTION 66Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

A. Describes the topography of the hardwareB. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the servicesC. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardwareD. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release



QUESTION 67Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

A. Intrusion detectionB. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centreC. Recording service desk staff absenceD. Monitoring the status of configuration items



QUESTION 68Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?

A. Providing physical security for staff at data centres and other buildingsB. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locationsC. Managing access to the service deskD. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services



QUESTION 69Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?

1. Those planned to be delivered2. Those being delivered3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

A. 1 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only


Explanation/Reference:Accurate Answer.

QUESTION 70Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?1. Logging details of incidents and service requests2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis3. Restoring service4. Implementing all standard changes

A. All of the aboveB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: BSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 71Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

A. Technical managementB. IT operations managementC. Request fulfilmentD. Applications management



QUESTION 72Which of the following BEST describes technical management?

A. A function responsible for facilities management and building control systemsB. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customersC. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support functionD. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure

Correct Answer: DSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 73Which of the following is NOT a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?

A. LocalB. CentralizedC. OutsourcedD. Virtual

Correct Answer: CSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 74

Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?

A. Technical managementB. Service deskC. Application managementD. Facilities management



QUESTION 75Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?

1. Capacity management2. Request fulfilment3. Demand management4. Incident management

A. All of the aboveB. 3 and 4 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 2 only

Correct Answer: CSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 76How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

A. As many as necessary to complete the activityB. Only one - the process owner

C. Two - the process owner and the process enactorD. Only one - the process architect

Correct Answer: BSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 77A process owner is responsible for which of the following?

1. Defining the process strategy2. Assisting with process design3. Improving the process4. Performing all activities involved in a process

A. 2, 3 and 4 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: CSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 78A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activityB. Perform an activityC. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activityD. Manage an activity

Correct Answer: C

Section: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 79Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?

A. Process ownerB. Change managerC. Service managerD. Process practitioner

Correct Answer: DSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 80Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?

A. Process practitionerB. Process managerC. Service managerD. Change manager



QUESTION 81Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?


A. To identify patterns of business activityB. To ensure high levels of customer satisfactionC. To secure funding to manage the provision of servicesD. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist



QUESTION 82Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they requireB. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorizedC. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and trackedD. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail



QUESTION 83Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?

A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycleB. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into themC. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycleD. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment



QUESTION 84Where should the following information be stored?

1. The experience of staff2. Records of user behaviour3. Supplier's abilities and requirements4. User skill levels

A. The change scheduleB. The service portfolioC. A configuration management database (CMDB)D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)



QUESTION 85Which one of the following generates demand for services?

A. Infrastructure trendsB. Patterns of business activity (PBA)C. Cost of providing supportD. Service level agreements (SLA)



QUESTION 86What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?

A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organizationB. An agreement between the service provider and an external organizationC. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basisD. A document that describes business services to operational staff



QUESTION 87Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?

A. ActB. PlanC. DoD. Co-ordinate



QUESTION 88

Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needsB. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesC. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersD. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers

Correct Answer: BSection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation


QUESTION 89Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?

A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unitB. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersC. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure componentsD. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs

Correct Answer: DSection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation


QUESTION 90Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term ,,service management?

A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesB. A group of interrelated, interacting or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purposeC. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activitiesD. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Correct Answer: A

Section: Service Management as a practiceExplanation


QUESTION 91Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be preventedB. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happeningC. Eliminating recurring incidentsD. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible



QUESTION 92Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that serviceB. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they useC. An SLA that covers all customers for all servicesD. An SLA for a service with no customers



QUESTION 93Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

A. Knowledge managementB. Release and deployment managementC. Service asset and configuration managementD. Service level management



QUESTION 94Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?

A. Service level managementB. Financial managementC. Demand managementD. Risk management



QUESTION 95Which of the following are sources of best practice?

1. Academic research2. Internal experience3. Industry practices

A. All of the aboveB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: ASection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation

Explanation/Reference:Answer is updated.

QUESTION 96What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

A. Business servicesB. Component servicesC. Supporting servicesD. Customer services

Correct Answer: CSection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation


QUESTION 97Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

1. ITIL is vendor neutral2. It does not prescribe actions3. ITIL represents best practice




QUESTION 98Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

A. Service operationB. Service transitionC. Continual service improvementD. Service strategy

Correct Answer: CSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 99In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

A. Both of the aboveB. Neither of the aboveC. Option 1 onlyD. Option 2 only

Correct Answer: ASection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 100From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

A. User

B. CustomerC. SupplierD. Administrator



QUESTION 101Which of the following are the main objectives of incident Management? Select all that apply

A. To minimize adverse impacts on business operationsB. To automatically detect service affecting EventsC. The restore normal service operation as quickly as possible

Correct Answer: ASection: Mix QuestionsExplanation


QUESTION 102What are the categories of event described in the ITIL Service Operation book?

A. Informational, Scheduled, NormalB. Scheduled, Unscheduled, EmergencyC. Informational, Warning, ExceptionD. Warning, Reactive, Proactive

Correct Answer: CSection: Mix QuestionsExplanation


QUESTION 103Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?

A. Supplier Management and Service Level ManagementB. Supplier Management and Demand ManagementC. Demand Management and Service Level ManagementD. Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management



QUESTION 104Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A. Change ManagementB. Service Portfolio ManagementC. Supplier ManagementD. Continual Service Improvement



QUESTION 105Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service StrategyB. Continual Service ImprovementC. Service OperationD. Service Design

Correct Answer: BSection: Mix QuestionsExplanation


QUESTION 106Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

A. Demand ManagementB. Incident ManagementC. Release and Deployment ManagementD. Request Fulfillment

Correct Answer: DSection: Mix QuestionsExplanation


QUESTION 107Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metricsB. Service Design PackageC. Service Portfolio DesignD. Process definitions



QUESTION 108Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement resultsB. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processesC. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfactionD. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users



QUESTION 109Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?

1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the aboveD. None of the above



QUESTION 110Access Management is closely related to which other processes?

A. Availability Management onlyB. Information Security Management and 3rd line supportC. Information Security Management and Availability ManagementD. Information Security Management only



QUESTION 111Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernable trends?

A. Service Level ManagementB. Problem ManagementC. Change ManagementD. Event Management



QUESTION 112Which is the CORRECT list for the three levels of a multi level Service Level Agreement(SLA)?

A. Technology, Customer, UserB. Corporate, Customer, ServiceC. Corporate, Customer, TechnologyD. Service, User, IT



QUESTION 113Which of these is the correct set of steps for the Continual Service Improvement Model?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually ImproveB. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the

solutionD. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?


Explanation/Reference:Corrected.

QUESTION 114Match the following activities with the Deming Cycle stages

1. Monitor, Measure and Review2. Continual Improvement3. Implement Initiatives4. Plan for Improvement

A. 1 Plan, 2 Do, 3 Check, 4 ActB. 3 Plan, 2 Do, 4 Check, 1 ActC. 4 Plan, 3 Do, 1 Check, 2 ActD. 2 Plan, 3 Do, 4 Check, 1 Act



QUESTION 115A Know Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

A. YesB. No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created

C. No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implementedD. No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problem



QUESTION 116Which of the following is NOT a Service Desk type recognized in the Service Operation volume of ITIL?

A. LocalB. CentralizedC. HolisticD. Virtual



QUESTION 117Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A. The value of a serviceB. Customer satisfactionC. Total cost of ownershipD. Key performance indicators



QUESTION 118Service Design emphasises the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is theadditional "P"?

A. ProfitB. PreparationC. ProductsD. Potential



QUESTION 119Which stage of the Continuous Service Improvement (CSI) model stages is BEST described as 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement based ona deeper development of the principles defined in the vision?

A. Where are we now?B. Where do we want to be?C. How do we get there?D. Did we get there?



QUESTION 120Which of the following does the Availability Management process include?

1. Ensuring services are able to meet availability targets2. Monitoring and reporting actual availability3. Improvement activities, to ensure that services continue to meet or exceed their availability goals

A. 1 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 1 and 3 only



QUESTION 121In which of the following situations should a Problem Record be created?

A. An event indicates that a redundant network segment has failed but it has not impacted any usersB. An Incident is passed to second-level supportC. A Technical Management team identifies a permanent resolution to a number of recurring IncidentsD. Incident Management has found a workaround but needs some assistance in implementing it



QUESTION 122Understanding the level of risk during and after change and providing confidence in the degree of compliance with governance requirements during change areboth ways of adding business value through which part of the service lifecycle?


A. Service TransitionB. Risk ManagementC. IT Service Continuity ManagementD. Availability Management



QUESTION 123Which of the following defines the level of protection in Information Security Management?

A. The IT ExecutiveB. The ISO27001 StandardC. The BusinessD. The Service Level Manager



QUESTION 124Which of these would fall outside the scope of a typical service change management process

A. A change to a contract with a supplierB. A firmware upgrade to a server that is only used for IT Service Continuity purposesC. An urgent need to replace a CPU to restore a service during an incidentD. A change to a business process that depends on IT Services



QUESTION 125Hierarchic escalation is best described as?

A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an IncidentB. Passing an Incident to people with a greater level of technical skillC. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfactionD. Failing to meet the Incident resolution times specified in a Service Level Agreement



QUESTION 126Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Problem Management?

A. To prevent Problems and their resultant IncidentsB. To manage Problems throughout their lifecycleC. To restore service to a userD. To eliminate recurring Incidents



QUESTION 127There are four types of metrics that can be used to measure the capability and performance of processes. Which of the four metrics is missing from the list below?

1. Progress2. Effectiveness3. Efficiency

4. ?

A. CostB. ConformanceC. ComplianceD. Capacity



QUESTION 128The information that is passed to Service Transition to enable them to implement a new service is called:

A. A Service Level PackageB. A Service Transition PackageC. A Service Design PackageD. A New Service Package



QUESTION 129Which of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

A. Definitive Media Library (DML)B. Configuration Management System (CMS)C. Statement of Requirements (SOR)D. Standard Operating Procedures (SOP)

Correct Answer: B

Section: Mix QuestionsExplanation


QUESTION 130You are reviewing a presentation that will relay the value of adopting Service Design disciplines. Which statement would NOT be part of the value proposition?

A. Reduced Total Cost of OwnershipB. Improved quality of serviceC. Improved Service alignment with business goalsD. Better balance of technical skills to support live services



QUESTION 131Which of these are objectives of Service Level Management

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction4: Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 132What is the objective of Access Management?

A. To provide security staff for Data Centers and other buildingsB. To manage access to computer rooms and other secure locationsC. To manage access to the Service DeskD. To manage the right to use a service or group of services



QUESTION 133Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?

A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributedB. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quicklyC. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robustD. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language



QUESTION 134Which of the following should be available to the Service Desk?

1. Known Error Data2. Change Schedules3. Service Knowledge Management System4. The output from monitoring tools

A. 1,2 and 3 onlyB. 1,2 and4 onlyC. 2,3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 135Which of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in Service Asset and Configuration Management?

A. Describes the topography of the hardwareB. Describes how the Configuration Items (CIs) work together to deliver the servicesC. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardwareD. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release



QUESTION 136"Planning and managing the resources required to deploy a release into production" is a purpose of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service OperationB. Service StrategyC. Service TransitionD. Continual Service Improvement



QUESTION 137Which of the following statements about Service Asset and Configuration Management is/are CORRECT?

1. A Configuration Item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time2. Choosing the right CI level is a matter of achieving a balance between information availability and the right level of control




QUESTION 138Which of the following statements about the Service Portfolio and Service Catalogue is the MOST CORRECT?

A. The Service Catalogue only has information about services that are live, or being prepared for deployment; the Service Portfolio only has information aboutservices which are being considered for future development

B. The Service Catalogue has information about all services; the Service Portfolio only has information about services which are being considered for futuredevelopment

C. The Service Portfolio has information about all services; the Service Catalogue only has information about services which are live, or being prepared fordeployment

D. Service Catalogue and Service Portfolio are different names for the same thing



QUESTION 139Data used to support the capacity management process should be stored in:

A. A configuration management database (CMDB)B. A capacity database (CDB)C. A configuration management system (CMS)D. A capacity management information system (CMIS)



QUESTION 140A consultant has made two recommendations to you in a report:1. To include legal terminology in your Service Level Agreements (SLAs)2. It is not necessary to be able to measure all the targets in an SLA

Which of the recommendations conform to Service Level Management good practice?




QUESTION 141Availability Management is responsible for availability of the:

A. Services and ComponentsB. Services and Business Processes

C. Components and Business ProcessesD. Services, Components and Business Processes



QUESTION 142Which part of the service lifecycle is responsible for coordinating and carrying out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreedlevels to business users and customers?

A. Continual Service ImprovementB. Service TransitionC. Service DesignD. Service Operation



QUESTION 143Which statement about the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

A. The ECAB considers every high priority Request for ChangeB. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changesC. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CABD. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT Director



QUESTION 144Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?The Service Owner:

A. Is responsible for the day-to-day monitoring and operation of the service they ownB. Is responsible for continual improvement and the management of change affecting the service they ownC. Is a primary stakeholder in all of the underlying IT processes which support the service they ownD. Is accountable for a specific service within an organization



QUESTION 145Which of these statements about Resources and Capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of Service Asset and Capabilities are notB. Resources and Capabilities are both types of Service AssetC. Capabilities are types of Service Asset and Resources are notD. Neither Capabilities nor Resources are types of Service Asset



QUESTION 146The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Continual Service ImprovementB. Service StrategyC. Service Design

D. Service Transition



QUESTION 147What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customersB. Reporting intervals should be set by the Service ProviderC. Reports should be produced weeklyD. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services



QUESTION 148Which role or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT Infrastructure?

A. Service Level ManagementB. IT Operations ManagementC. Capacity ManagementD. Incident Management



QUESTION 149Which of the following BEST describes the goal of Access Management?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesB. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of servicesC. To prevent Problems and resulting Incidents from happeningD. To detect security events and make sense of them



QUESTION 150Identity and Rights are two major concepts involved in which one of the following processes?

A. Access ManagementB. Facilities ManagementC. Event ManagementD. Demand Management



QUESTION 151A risk is:

A. Something that won't happenB. Something that will happenC. Something that has happenedD. Something that might happen



QUESTION 152What are the publications that provide guidance specific to industry sectors and organization types known as?

A. The Service Strategy and Service Transition booksB. The ITIL Complementary GuidanceC. The Service Support and Service Delivery booksD. Pocket Guides



QUESTION 153A Process Owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which of the following would be expected of them?

A. Tell others about the progress of an activityB. Perform an activityC. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activityD. Manage an activity



QUESTION 154Which of the following statements correctly states the relationship between urgency, priority and impact?

A. Impact, priority and urgency are independent of each otherB. Urgency should be based on impact and priorityC. Impact should be based on urgency and priorityD. Priority should be based on impact and urgency


Explanation/Reference:100% Valid.

QUESTION 155Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release and Deployment Management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliverthe intended objectives

B. To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of related assets and service components that are compatible with eachother

C. To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested, verified and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriateD. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service



QUESTION 156Which of the following are goals of Service Operation?

1. To coordinate and carry out the activities and processes required to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to the business2. The successful release of services into the live environment

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above



QUESTION 157Which statement about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) is CORRECT?

A. They must contain legal wording because of their importanceB. There should always be a separate SLA for each specific customerC. The wording must be clear and concise to allow no room for ambiguityD. Changes to the SLA can only be requested by the customer



QUESTION 158Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items (CIs)?

1) Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems2) Assessing the impact of proposed Changes3) Planning and designing a Change to an existing service4) Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: BSection: Mix Questions

Explanation


QUESTION 159What does a service always deliver to customers?

A. ApplicationsB. InfrastructureC. ValueD. Resources



QUESTION 160Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow tools2. Measurement and reporting systems3. Release and deployment technology4. Process Design

A. 2, 3 and 4 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 161Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?

A. Processes and functionsB. Maturity and costC. The end to end serviceD. Infrastructure availability



QUESTION 162Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)?


A. An agreement with an individual customer group, covering all the services that they useB. An agreement that covers one service for a single customerC. An agreement that covers service specific issues in a multi-level SLA structureD. An agreement that covers one service for all users of that service



QUESTION 163

Which of the following statements about processes is CORRECT?

1. A process is always organized around a set of objectives2. A process should be documented




QUESTION 164Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organization?

A. The Service Level ManagerB. The Business Relationship ManagerC. The Service OwnerD. The Service Continuity Manager



QUESTION 165Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

1) Risk assessment2) Testing of resilience mechanisms3) Monitoring of component availability




QUESTION 166Which of the following is the BEST description of a Centralized Service Desk?

A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it servesB. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one placeC. The desk provides 24 hour global supportD. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization



QUESTION 167What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:

1. What is the vision?2. Where are we now?3. Where do we want to be?4. How do we get there?5. Did we get there?6. ?

A. What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?B. How much did it cost?

C. How do we keep the momentum going?D. What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?



QUESTION 168Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is unsuccessful?

A. Remediation PlanningB. CategorizationC. PrioritizationD. Review and Close



QUESTION 169Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supportedB. To provide training and certification in project managementC. To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment ManagementD. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release



QUESTION 170Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Operations Management function?

A. Swift application of skills to diagnose any IT Operations failures that occurB. Regular scrutiny and improvements to achieve improved service at reduced costsC. First line Incident investigation and diagnosis logged by usersD. Maintenance of status quo to achieve stability of day to day processes and activities



QUESTION 171Which of these is the BEST description of a release unit?

A. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released togetherB. The smallest part of a service or IT infrastructure that can be independently changedC. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is changed by a particular releaseD. A metric for measuring the effectiveness of the Release and Deployment Management process



QUESTION 172Which of the following BEST describes Technical Management?

A. A Function responsible for Facilities Management and building control systemsB. A Function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customersC. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support FunctionD. A Function that includes the groups, departments or teams that provide technical expertise and overal management of the IT Infrastructure



QUESTION 173IT Service Continuity strategy should be based on:

1) Design of the service technology2) Business continuity strategy3) Business Impact Analysis4) Risk assessment




QUESTION 174Which of these is a reason for categorizing incidents?

A. To establish trends for use in Problem Management and other IT Service Management (ITSM) activitiesB. To ensure that the correct priority is assigned to the incidentC. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiencyD. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service



QUESTION 175Which of the following activities are responsibilities of a Supplier Manager?

1) Negotiating and agreeing Contracts2) Updating the Supplier and Contract database3) Planning for possible closure, renewal or extension of contracts4) Managing relationships with internal suppliers

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. None of the above



QUESTION 176Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented process?

A. The IT DirectorB. The Process OwnerC. The Service OwnerD. The Customer



QUESTION 177When should tests for a new service be designed?

A. At the same time as the service is designedB. After the service has been designed, before the service is handed over to Service TransitionC. As part of Service TransitionD. Before the service is designed



QUESTION 178Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:

A. Service Design: Design the processesB. Service Strategy: Develop the offeringsC. Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deploymentD. Service Operation: IT Operations Management



QUESTION 179Reliability is a measure of:

A. The availability of a service or componentB. The level of risk that could impact a service or processC. How long a service or component can perform its function without failingD. A measure of how quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working

Correct Answer: CSection: Mix Questions

Explanation


QUESTION 180What is most likely to cause a loss of faith in the Service Level Management process?

A. Measurements that match the customer's perception of the serviceB. Clear, concise, unambiguous wording in the Service Level Agreements(SLAs)C. Inclusion of items in the SLA that cannot be effectively measuredD. Involving customers in drafting Service Level Requirements



QUESTION 181Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?

A. Network Management and Application ManagementB. Technical Management and Change ManagementC. IT Operations Control and Facilities ManagementD. Facilities Management and Release Management



QUESTION 182As a strategic tool for assessing the value of IT services, Financial Management applies to which of the following service provider types?

1) An internal service provider embedded within a business unit2) An internal service provider that provides shared IT services

3) An external service provider




QUESTION 183What type of improvement should be achieved by using the Deming Cycle?

A. Rapid, one-off improvementB. Return on investment within 12 monthsC. Quick winsD. Steady, ongoing improvement



QUESTION 184The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:

A. To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT servicesB. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of servicesC. To create and populate a Service CatalogueD. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services

Correct Answer: D



QUESTION 185Which process is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes and relationships relating to components of the IT infrastructure?

A. Service Level ManagementB. Change ManagementC. Incident ManagementD. Service Asset and Configuration Management



QUESTION 186What is the Service Pipeline?

A. All services that are at a conceptual or development stageB. All services except those that have been retiredC. All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)D. All complex multi-user services



QUESTION 187Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. IT Service Continuity Management can only take place once Business Continuity Management has been establishedB. Where Business Continuity Management is established, business continuity considerations should form the focus for IT Service Continuity ManagementC. Business Continuity Management and IT Service Continuity Management must be established at the same timeD. IT Service Continuity Management is not required when IT is outsourced to a third party provider



QUESTION 188Configuration Management Databases (CMDBs) and the Configuration Management System (CMS) are both elements of what larger entity?

A. The Asset RegisterB. The Service Knowledge Management SystemC. The Known Error DatabaseD. The Information Management System



QUESTION 189Where should details of a Workaround always be documented?

A. The Service Level Agreement (SLA)B. The Problem RecordC. The Availability Management Information SystemD. The IT Service Continuity Plan



QUESTION 190What are Request Models used for?

A. Capacity ManagementB. Modelling arrival rates and performance characteristics of service requestsC. Comparing the advantages and disadvantages of different Service Desk approaches such as local or remoteD. Identifying frequently received user requests and defining how they should be handled



QUESTION 191Consider the following list:

1) Change Authority2) Change Manager3) Change Advisory Board (CAB)

What are these BEST described as?

A. Job descriptionsB. FunctionsC. TeamsD. Roles, people or groups



QUESTION 192Which of the following is the BEST description of a Service-based Service Level Agreement (SLA)?

A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that serviceB. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they useC. An SLA that covers all customers for all servicesD. An SLA for a service with no customers



QUESTION 193In terms of adding value to the business, which of the following describes Service Operation's contribution?

A. The cost of the service is designed, predicted and validatedB. Measures for optimization are identifiedC. Service value is modelledD. Service value is actually seen by customers



QUESTION 194A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined within:

A. The RACI ModelB. A Release PackageC. A Request ModelD. The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle



QUESTION 195Why are public frameworks and standards (such as ITIL) attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A. Proprietary Knowledge is difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumentedB. Public standards are always cheaper to adoptC. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to doD. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments



QUESTION 196Which of the following are types of communication you could expect the functions within Service Operation to perform?

1) Communication between Data Centre shifts2) Communication related to changes3) Performance reporting4) Routine operational communication




QUESTION 197Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

A. Service OperationB. Service TransitionC. Continual Service ImprovementD. Service Strategy



QUESTION 198Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately availableB. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be loggedC. All incidents must be fully loggedD. The Service Desk decide which incidents to log



QUESTION 1991 is underpinned by which set ofIn the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there? activities?

A. Baseline assessmentsB. Service and process improvements

C. Taking measurements and recording metricsD. Setting measurement targets



QUESTION 200Who has the responsibility for review and risk analysis of all supplies and contracts on a regular basis?

A. The Service Level ManagerB. The IT Service Continuity ManagerC. The Service Catalogue ManagerD. The Supplier Manager



QUESTION 201Which of the following should NOT be a concern of Risk Management?


A. To ensure that the organization can continue to operate in the event of a major disruption or disasterB. To ensure that the workplace is a safe environment for its employees and customersC. To ensure that the organization assets, such as information, facilities and building are protected from threats, damage or loss

D. To ensure only the change requests with mitigated risks are approved for implementation



QUESTION 202Which of the following is the CORRECT definition of a Release Unit?

A. A measurement of costB. A function described within Service TransitionC. The team of people responsible for implementing a releaseD. The portion of a service or IT infrastructure that is normally released together



QUESTION 203Which process lists "Understanding patterns of business activity" as a major role?

A. Demand ManagementB. Supplier ManagementC. Service DeskD. Request Fulfillment




A. Process owners are more important to service management than service ownersB. Service owners are more important to service management than process ownersC. Service owners are as important to service management as process ownersD. Process owners and service owners are not required within the same organization



QUESTION 205Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A. A Service Level Agreement (SLA)B. A Request for Change (RFC)C. The Service PortfolioD. A Service Description



QUESTION 206The positive effect that customers perceive a service can have on their business outcomes is referred to as what?

A. The utility of a serviceB. The warranty of a serviceC. The economic value of a serviceD. Return on investment



QUESTION 207What are the two major processes in Problem Management?

A. Technical and ServiceB. Resource and ProactiveC. Reactive and TechnicalD. Proactive and Reactive



QUESTION 208Which of the following BEST describes a Change Authority?

A. The Change Advisory BoardB. A person that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.C. A role, person or a group of people that provides formal authorisation for a particular type of change.D. The Change Manager who provides formal authorisation for each change



QUESTION 209Ensuring that the confidentiality, integrity and availability of the services are maintained to the levels agreed on the Service Level Agreement (SLA) is the

responsibility of which role?

A. The Service Level ManagerB. The Configuration ManagerC. The Change ManagerD. The Information Security Manager



QUESTION 210Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A. Service DesignB. Service TransitionC. Service StrategyD. Service Operation



QUESTION 211Identify the input to the Problem Management process

A. Request for ChangeB. Problem ResolutionC. Incident RecordsD. New Known Errors

Correct Answer: C



QUESTION 212Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and support issues during Release and Deployment?

A. Early Life SupportB. Service Test ManagerC. EvaluationD. Release Packaging and Build Manager



QUESTION 213The Service Catalogue Manager has responsibility for producing and maintaining the Service Catalogue. One of their responsibilities would be?

A. Negotiating and agreeing Service Level AgreementB. Negotiating and agreeing Operational Level AgreementsC. Ensuring that the information within the Service Catalogue is adequately protected and backed-up.D. Only ensure that adequate technical resources are available.



QUESTION 214Customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define what?

A. The value of a serviceB. Customer satisfactionC. Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)D. Key Performance Indicators (KPIs)



QUESTION 215Which process contains the Business, Service and Component sub-processes?

A. Capacity ManagementB. Incident ManagementC. Service Level ManagementD. Financial Management



QUESTION 216Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?:

1. The services2. The architectures3. The configuration items4. The processes




QUESTION 217Service Design emphasises the importance of the Four Ps'. Which of the following is a correct list of these Four Ps?

A. People, Products, Partners, ProfitB. People, Process, Products, PartnersC. Potential, Preparation, Performance, ProfitD. People, Potential, Products, Performance



QUESTION 218With which process is Problem Management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

A. Incident ManagementB. Service Asset and Configuration ManagementC. Capacity ManagementD. IT Service Continuity



QUESTION 219

In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

A. Operational Level Agreement (OLA)B. Capacity PlanC. Service Level Agreement (SLA)D. SLA Monitoring Chart (SLAM)




A. The Configuration Management System is part of the Known Error Data BaseB. The Service Knowledge Management System is part of the Configuration Management SystemC. The Configuration Management System is part of the Service Knowledge Management systemD. The Configuration Management System is part of the Configuration Management Database



QUESTION 221Which part of ITIL provides guidance in adapting good practice for specific business environments and organizational strategies?

A. The ITIL Complementary GuidanceB. The Service Support bookC. Pocket GuidesD. The Service Strategy book

Correct Answer: A



QUESTION 222What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

A. Configuration BaselineB. Project BaselineC. Change BaselineD. Asset Baseline



QUESTION 223Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a service?

A. The Service ProviderB. The Service Level ManagerC. The CustomerD. The Finance department



QUESTION 224Which of the following would a Major Problem Review examine?

1. Things that were done correctly2. Those things that were done incorrectly3. How to prevent recurrence4. What could be done better in the future




QUESTION 225What is the name of the area where the definitive authorized versions of all media Configuration Items(Cls) are stored and protected?

A. Definitive Media LibraryB. Definitive Software StoreC. Service Knowledge Management SystemD. Software Secure Library



QUESTION 226Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in Knowledge Management?

A. Wisdom - Information - Data - KnowledgeB. Data - Information - Knowledge - WisdomC. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - DataD. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom



QUESTION 227Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management and Request Fulfillment are part of which stage of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service StrategyB. Service TransitionC. Service OperationD. Continual Service Improvement



QUESTION 228Which of the following are aspects of Service Design?

1. Architectures2. Technology3. Service Management processes4. Metrics




QUESTION 229Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?

A. An item of hardware or software registered in the asset databaseB. A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software itemC. An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration ManagementD. Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reported



QUESTION 230Which model delivers a view of the services, assets and infrastructure?

A. Incident ModelB. Problem ModelC. Configuration ModelD. Change Model



QUESTION 231The BEST processes to automate are those that are:

A. Carried out by Service OperationsB. Carried out by lots of people

C. Critical to the success of the business missionD. Simple and well understood



QUESTION 232Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to reactive?

1. Risk assessment2. Testing of resilience mechanisms3. Monitoring of component availability




QUESTION 233What is the BEST description of an Operational Level Agreement (OLA)?

A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organizationB. An agreement between the service provider and an external organizationC. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basisD. A document that describes business services to operational staff

Correct Answer: ASection: Mix Questions

Explanation


QUESTION 234How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

A. As many as necessary to complete the activityB. Only one - the process ownerC. Two - the process owner and the process enactorD. Only one - the process architect



QUESTION 235Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. They are units of organizations designed to perform certain types of workB. We must be able to measure them in a relevant mannerC. They deliver specific resultsD. They respond to specific events



QUESTION 236Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?

1. Roles2. Activities

3. Functions4. Responsibilities

A. 1 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only


Explanation/Reference:Modified.

QUESTION 237The Supplier Management process includes:

1: Service Design activities, to ensure that contracts will be able to support the service requirements2: Service Operation activities, to monitor and report supplier achievements3: Continual Improvement activities, to ensure that suppliers continue to meet or exceed the needs of the business

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 onlyC. All of the aboveD. 1 and 3 only



QUESTION 238Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or changed services?

A. Change ManagementB. Service Transition

C. Service StrategyD. Service Design



QUESTION 239Which Problem Management activity helps to ensure that the true nature of the problem can be easily traced and meaningful management information can beobtained?

A. CategorizationB. LoggingC. PrioritizationD. Closure



QUESTION 240Which of the following are Service Desk organizational structures?

1. Local Service Desk2. Virtual Service Desk3. IT Help Desk4. Follow the Sun

A. 1, 2 and 4 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 3 and4 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 241What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?

A. Return On Investment (ROI), Value On Investment (VOI), qualityB. Strategic, tactical and operationalC. Critical Success Factors (CSFs), Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), activitiesD. Technology, process and service



QUESTION 242Which of the following might be used to manage an Incident?

1. Incident Model2. Known Error Record


A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the above

D. Neither of the above



QUESTION 243Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A. Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)B. Customer and User satisfactionC. Understanding Service Requirements and WarrantyD. Utility and Warranty



QUESTION 244Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?




QUESTION 245Which process is primarily supported by the analysis of Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

A. Availability ManagementB. Demand ManagementC. Financial ManagementD. Service Level Management



QUESTION 246A change process model should include:

1 - The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined, including handling issues and unexpected events2 - Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation 3 - Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions4 - Complaints procedures

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only



QUESTION 247Effective Service Transition can significantly improve a service provider's ability to handle high volumes of what?

A. Service level requestsB. Changes and Releases

C. Password resetsD. Incidents and Problems


Explanation/Reference:Answer is valid.

QUESTION 248What should a service always deliver to customers?

A. ApplicationsB. InfrastructureC. ValueD. Resources



QUESTION 249Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A. It is measurableB. It delivers specific resultsC. It responds to specific eventsD. It structures an organization



QUESTION 250What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

A. Strategic customersB. External customersC. Valued customersD. Internal customers



QUESTION 251What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?

A. Service managementB. Incident managementC. Resource managementD. Service support



QUESTION 252Which of the following are sources of best practice?1. Academic research2. Internal experience3. Industry practices

A. All of the aboveB. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only


Explanation/Reference:Still Valid.

QUESTION 253Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. Both of the aboveB. 1 onlyC. Neither of the aboveD. 2 only



QUESTION 254Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term 'service management'?

A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesB. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purposeC. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activitiesD. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities


Explanation/Reference:Answer is valid.

QUESTION 255Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?

A. StandardsB. TechnologyC. Academic researchD. Internal experience



QUESTION 256Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

A. The five ITIL volumes are conciseB. It is not tied to any particular vendor platformC. It tells service providers exactly how to be successfulD. It is designed to be used to manage projects



QUESTION 257What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

A. Business servicesB. Component services

C. Supporting servicesD. Customer services



QUESTION 258Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement resultsB. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processesC. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfactionD. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Correct Answer: DSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 259Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service StrategyB. Continual Service ImprovementC. Service OperationD. Service Design

Correct Answer: BSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation

Explanation/Reference:Answer is Renovated.

QUESTION 260Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access managementB. Event management, incident management, change management, and access managementC. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event managementD. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management



QUESTION 261Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during designB. To design and develop capabilities for service managementC. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about servicesD. To plan the resources required to manage a release



QUESTION 262Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packagesB. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved servicesC. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are producedD. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes



QUESTION 263Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A. Service designB. Service transitionC. Continual service improvementD. Service operation



QUESTION 264Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services




QUESTION 265Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?

1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources2. Reduced cost to design new services3. Result in higher volume of successful changes

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. None of the above

Correct Answer: CSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 266In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

A. Service strategyB. Service designC. Service transitionD. Service operation



QUESTION 267Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?

1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider

3. Defining how value is created

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 268Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?

A. The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT serviceC. All the accumulated knowledge of the service providerD. All incidents reported to the service desk



QUESTION 269From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?

A. The userB. The customerC. The supplierD. The administrator

Correct Answer: B

Section: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 270Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?

A. Naming and numbering conventionsB. Entry and exit criteria of the release into testingC. Roles and responsibilities for the releaseD. The risk register for the release



QUESTION 271Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?

A. A capacity databaseB. A definitive media libraryC. A request for changeD. A known error database



QUESTION 272A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?

1. A new IT service2. A major change to an IT service3. An emergency change to an IT service4. An IT service retirement

A. 2, 3 and 4 onlyB. 1, 2 and 4 onlyC. None of the aboveD. All of the above



QUESTION 273Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?

1. Service pipeline2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)3. Service catalogue

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 274Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

A. Capacity managementB. GovernanceC. Service designD. Service level management



QUESTION 275Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

A. Service level agreements (SLAs)B. Third-party contractsC. The service portfolioD. Operational level agreements (OLAs)



QUESTION 276Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)B. Customer and user satisfactionC. Service requirements and warrantyD. Resources and capabilities



QUESTION 277What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

A. Configuration baselineB. Project baselineC. Change baselineD. Asset baseline


Explanation/Reference:Corrected.

QUESTION 278Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle.

Which is the fourth?




QUESTION 279Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are notB. Resources and capabilities are both types of service assetC. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are notD. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset



QUESTION 280What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is available?

A. A service objectB. An incidentC. A changeD. A known error



QUESTION 281Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is theadditional "P"?

A. ProfitB. PreparationC. ProductsD. Potential

Correct Answer: CSection: Key Principles and Models

Explanation


QUESTION 282Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improveB. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the

solutionD. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?



QUESTION 283The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four Ps?


A. People, process, partners, performanceB. Performance, process, products, plansC. People, process, products, partnersD. People, products, plans, partners

Correct Answer: CSection: Key Principles and Models

Explanation


QUESTION 284Which of the following BEST describes 'partners' in the phrase "people, processes, products and partners"?

A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendorsB. CustomersC. Internal departmentsD. The facilities management function

Correct Answer: ASection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 285At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?

A. Service design: Design the processesB. Service strategy: Develop the offeringsC. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deploymentD. Service operation: IT operations management



QUESTION 286Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A. Components

B. ProcessesC. The end-to-end serviceD. Customer satisfaction


Explanation/Reference:Answer is modified.

QUESTION 287The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Continual service improvementB. Service strategyC. Service designD. Service transition

Correct Answer: BSection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 288What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A. The change authorization boardB. The change advisory boardC. The change implementerD. The change manager



QUESTION 289Consider the following list:

1. Change authority2. Change manager3. Change advisory board (CAB)

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

A. Job descriptionsB. FunctionsC. TeamsD. Roles, people or groups



QUESTION 290Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

A. To prevent problems and their resultant IncidentsB. To manage problems throughout their lifecycleC. To restore service to a userD. To eliminate recurring incidents



QUESTION 291What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A. Technical managementB. Emergency change advisory boardC. Urgent change boardD. Urgent change authority



QUESTION 292When can a known error record be raised?

1. At any time it would be useful to do so2. After a workaround has been found

A. 2 onlyB. 1 onlyC. Neither of the aboveD. Both of the above



QUESTION 293Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT services to be provided2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 294Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for changeB. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changesC. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CABD. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT director


Explanation/Reference:Renovated.

QUESTION 295Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

A. Service level managementB. Problem managementC. Change managementD. Event management



QUESTION 296Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT servicesB. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of servicesC. To create and populate a service catalogueD. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services



QUESTION 297The 'multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?

A. Customer levelB. Service levelC. Corporate levelD. Configuration level



QUESTION 298Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?

A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incidentB. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skill

C. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfactionD. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement



QUESTION 299Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?

A. Planning how to recover the cost of a changeB. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessfulC. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed changeD. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change



QUESTION 300Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?

1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident




QUESTION 301Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?

A. CategorizationB. DetectionC. PrioritizationD. Escalation



QUESTION 302Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

A. Definitive media library (DML)B. Configuration management system (CMS)C. Statement of requirements (SOR)D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)



QUESTION 303In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

A. Operational level agreement (OLA)B. Capacity plan

C. Service level agreement (SLA)D. SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)



QUESTION 304Which of these should a change model include?

1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions4. Complaints procedures

A. 1,2 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 4 only



QUESTION 305Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?

A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately availableB. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be loggedC. All incidents must be fully loggedD. The service desk decide which incidents to log

Correct Answer: C

Section: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 306The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

A. Before the change is approvedB. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed outC. After implementation but before the post implementation reviewD. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change



QUESTION 307Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A. Incident and financial managementB. Change and release and deployment managementC. Incident and event managementD. Knowledge and service level management



QUESTION 308What is a RACI model used for?

A. Performance analysisB. Recording configuration itemsC. Monitoring servicesD. Defining roles and responsibilities

Correct Answer: DSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 309A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix.

Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activityB. Perform an activityC. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activityD. Manage an activity

Correct Answer: CSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 310Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

A. The IT directorB. The process ownerC. The service ownerD. The customer

Correct Answer: BSection: Roles

Explanation


QUESTION 311Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?

A. Wisdom - Information - Data - KnowledgeB. Data - Information - Knowledge - WisdomC. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - DataD. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

Correct Answer: BSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation


QUESTION 312Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A. KnowledgeB. InformationC. Wisdom


D. Data

Correct Answer: CSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation


QUESTION 313Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow2. Measurement and reporting3. Release and deployment4. Process design


Correct Answer: DSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation


QUESTION 314Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?1. Design and modeling2. Reporting3. Pattern recognition and analysis4. Detection and monitoring


Correct Answer: DSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation

Explanation/Reference:corrected.

QUESTION 315Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?1. Local service desk2. Virtual service desk3. IT help desk4. Follow the sun


Correct Answer: ASection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 316Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?

A. Service level managementB. IT operations managementC. Capacity managementD. Incident management



QUESTION 317Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be locatedB. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcomeC. Deciding who the vendor of storage devices will beD. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application



QUESTION 318Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it servesB. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one placeC. The desk provides 24 hour global supportD. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization



QUESTION 319Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?

A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogueB. The design of new or changed servicesC. The design of market spacesD. The design of the technology architectures



QUESTION 320What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A. The value of a serviceB. GovernanceC. Total cost of ownership (TCO)D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)



QUESTION 321Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activitiesB. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoidedC. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiencyD. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service



QUESTION 322Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

A. Incident managementB. Access management

C. Change managementD. Request fulfillment



QUESTION 323Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?

1. Customers2. Users3. Suppliers




QUESTION 324Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?

A. StandardsB. TechnologyC. Academic researchD. Internal experience

Correct Answer: BSection: Service Management as a practice

Explanation


QUESTION 325Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?

A. One which directly supports the business processes of customersB. A service that cannot be allowed to failC. One which is not covered by a service level agreementD. A service not directly used by the business



QUESTION 326What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. EmployersB. StakeholdersC. RegulatorsD. Accreditors


Explanation/Reference:The correction is added.

QUESTION 327Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented

B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adoptC. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to doD. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments



QUESTION 328A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do soB. No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is loggedC. No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raisedD. No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service



QUESTION 329Which of the following is best definition of IT service management?

A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unitB. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersC. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure componentsD. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs



QUESTION 330Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?

A. RolesB. Inputs and outputsC. FunctionsD. Metrics



QUESTION 331What are customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

A. Strategic customersB. External customersC. Valued customersD. Internal customers



QUESTION 332What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

A. Strategic serviceB. Delivered serviceC. Internal serviceD. External service



QUESTION 333Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

A. The change management process ownerB. The change advisory board (CAB)C. The service ownerD. The continual service improvement manager

Correct Answer: ASection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 334How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model

A. As many as necessary to complete the activityB. Only one - the process ownerC. Two - the process owner and the process enactorD. Only one - the process architect



QUESTION 335

Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?

A. RACI modelB. Incident modelC. Continual service improvement (CSI) approachD. The Deming Cycle



QUESTION 336Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?

1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance2. Identifying improvement opportunities3. Appointing people to required roles




QUESTION 337Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

A. Reduced total cost of ownershipB. Improved quality of serviceC. Improved Service alignment with business goals

D. Better balance of technical skills to support live services



QUESTION 338Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment managementB. Change management, capacity management event management, service request managementC. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration managementD. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfilment



QUESTION 339Which of the following BEST describes service strategies' value to the business?

A. Allows higher volumes of successful changeB. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outagesC. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outagesD. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful



QUESTION 340Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supportedB. To provide training and certification in project managementC. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assetsD. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release



QUESTION 341Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual service improvementB. Change managementC. Service level managementD. Availability management



QUESTION 342Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

1. To automatically detect service-affecting events2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 343Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

A. To ensure the impact of changes are understoodB. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluatedC. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users



QUESTION 344Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?

1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome

A. 1 onlyB. Both of the aboveC. 2 onlyD. Neither of the above



QUESTION 345The difference between a Service Level Agreement (SLA) and an Operional Level Agreement (OLA) is that:

A. An SLA is legally binding, an OLA is a best efforts agreementB. An SLA defines the service to be provided, an OLA defines internal support needed to deliver the serviceC. An SLA defines Service Level Requirements, an OLA defines Service Level TargetsD. An SLA is with an external customer, an OLA is with an internal customer



QUESTION 346Which of the following is one of the primary objectives of Service Strategy?

A. To design and build processes that will meet business needsB. To provide detailed specifications for the design of IT servicesC. To transform Service Management into a strategic assetD. To underscore the importance of services in the global economy



QUESTION 347Which of the following best describes a Service Request?

A. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a Self-Help web-based interfaceB. A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change

C. Any request for change that is low risk and can be approved by the Change Manager without a CAB meetingD. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for


Explanation/Reference:Explanation:Service Request (Service Operation) A request from a User for information or advice, or for a Standard Change or for Access to an IT Service. For example toreset a password, or to provide standard IT Services for a new User. Service Requests are usually handled by a Service Desk, and do not require an RFC to besubmitted. See also Request Fulfillment.


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