Question Answer F1

What is the main purpose of passage planning? to ensure positive control over safe navigation at all times

The main objective of a prudent mariner is: to ensure that his ship reaches destination safely and efficiently

The person directing the movement of the vessel by helm and engine orders is: Conning Officer

The vessel’s command responsibility lies on the ______ when the pilot takes over the ship’s maneuvering. Master

The result of a combined effort by a group of individuals towards a common goal is called: Teamwork

To optimize human performance and minimize the possibility of human error, we must have ______. all of these

Factor that affects decision making is: all of these

Factor that affects conning officer limitation in making a decision is ______. all of these

Factor that affects human performance is ______. all of these

An accurate perception of the operational and environmental conditions affecting the vessel during a specific period of time is called _____. situational awareness

Which is correct in order to eliminate the possibility of ‘ One Man Error ‘. all of these

Which of the following is not included in the Bridge Team Organization? Able Seaman

What resolution requires the OOW ensures that efficient lookout is maintained? IMO Resolution 285

The point at which helm must be applied to achieve a required course alteration is____. wheel over position

What scenario indicates that the ship is in very high risk situation? All of these

What is the limiting bearing of a mark to one side of which the ship will be safe? Clearing bearing

A useful method of monitoring cross track tendency in both poor and good visibility is ______. Parallel indexing

______ is used to ensure that a ship remains within a safe area or is not approaching a danger clearing mark

A lead between pack and fast ice is called ______. Fracture lead

Latitude of the observer is 7 deg N, declination of the sun is 7 deg S, which of the following occur? Sunrise before 0600 Hrs

A route often marked by center buoys is called _______. Recommended route

Water may boil up around the stern of a vessel in a channel due to ______. Shallow water

The proximity of ice is indicate by ______. Glare on clouds and horizon

_______ is accurately surveyed for sea bottom and submerged articles. deep water route

If your vessel is 18 knots, you change your course to the desired course after plotting a position exactly on the change course position, you will find yourself: outside the course line

The horizontal distance that an object can be seen by an unaided eye is called: visibility

Which of the following is NOT an area of open water in sea ice? Water gorge

Where sea ice and icebergs are present, which of the following are TRUE? Icebergs and sea ice travel in a different direction

You are running safely parallel to the coast with the current against you. In plotting a running fix for safety margin, you should use: minimum speed estimate

For the deepest water when negotiating a bend in a river, you should navigate your vessel: in the river’s center

The effect known as a bank cushion acts in which of the following ways on a single-screw vessel proceeding along a narrow channel: it forces the bow away from the bank

The pulling of the stern toward the bottom of a shallow channel by the lowering of pressure due to increase water velocity is called ______. Squat

An area where ships must navigate with caution within which direction of flow of traffic may be recommended is called _______. Precautionary area

The vessel’s direction pointed at anytime is called ______. Heading

A reliable sign in the approach of pack ice not yet in sight is: sky map

It is often marked by center buoys. This route is called ______. Recommended route

A bright white glare observed above a snow covered surface is called: snow blink

Approach crossing TSS shall be: almost perpendicular

Which of the following indicates that there is navigable waters all around this mark? safe water mark

This is used in conjunction with the compass to indicate where the mariner may find the best navigable water and the danger area. cardinal marks

On a chart, the characteristics of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a red sector. The red sector ______ indicates a danger area

A good chart can be distinguished from indifferent one by _______. date of correction

Tables of tidal stream information are given for certain reference denoted by: a diamond shape with a letter inside

In a number of coastal waters, measures on ship routing have been introduced EXCEPT: reduce the risk of overdraft

Recommendations and proposals for routing measures beyond the territorial sea, IMO should approve zones exceeding ______ meters 500

The chart lacks detail if: I. the coastline is shown as dotted line II. there are no large areas where no depths are given I only

Which gives information about the general current circulation in the North Atlantic Ocean? Pilot Chart

The Tide Tables tabulate sunrise and sunset from Latitudes: 76 degrees N to 60 degrees S

Ship’s routing main purpose is to _______. improve safety of navigation

What information does the outer ring of a compass rose on a nautical chart provide? true direction

The time interval in making a sea surface and weather reports to the ice patrol by the Master is: every 6 hours

The vertex of a great circle track is in Long. 109 degrees E. An eastbound vessel would cross the equator in Long. ______ 19 degrees E

The vertex along your GC course is 38º 15' S, 168º 24' E. Your vessel is on course 068º T. Which is your longitude at equator crossing? 78º 39 W

The difference of longitude between the intersection of the great circle and the equator to the lower vertex is: 90 degrees

The great circle distance from Lat 38º 17' N, Long 123º 16' W to Lat 35º 01 N, Long 142º 21' E is 4330 miles and the initial course is 300.9º T. Determine the position of the vertex. 47º 39'5 N, 167º 18'5 W

The navigational echo sounder should be expected to operate down to depth of at least ______. 200 meters

The bright spot which form the trace or timebase moves across the screen of radar at a speed equivalent to ______. half the speed of radar waves

In Lat 50 deg S, you obtained an RDF bearing on a vessel 400 miles due west of you. You expect the bearing from the: southwest quadrant

A line of position derived by radar range from an undetermined point on a coast will be a: arc

The sonic sound waves of modern fathometers are produced electrically by means of a: transducer

Loran-C operates on a single frequency centered on: 100 kHz

When fixing a vessel position by radar, a navigator: should use radar info from one object to fix the position

You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the BEST maneuver would be ______. full astern, hard left rudder

Loran-C is what type of system? hyperbolic radio navigation

Various radio signals may reinforce and cancel each other next. This is called: fading

In an unstabilized mode of a radar, fixes are determined most easily from: range

Vessels required to have an ARPA must have a device to indicate the ______. speed of vessel over ground

GPS offers commercial users with position accuracy of about 100

GPS transmit PRN radio frequencies, designated as L1 and L2 carrier. What is the wave length of the L1 carrier? 19 cm

Which of the following statements is TRUE? the ship’s receiver cannot begin processing data until the antenna locks onto the satellite and starts continuous tracking

In Long 144º E, Feb. 6, ZT 0800. What is the GMT and date? 2300, 5 February

In Lat 40º N, decl of sun 20º N, the sun will ______. cross the Prime Vertical twice

Latitude of the observer is 7º N, declination of the sun is 5º N, which would occur? sunrise after 0600 Hrs

Which of the following is true about Sidereal Hour Angle? angular distance of a star west of Aries

The Zone Time in your locality is 0700 Hrs, Feb. 24, 2007 with a Zone description of (-8). What is the date and time at Greenwich? Feb. 23, 2007 – 2300 Hrs

What line of position can you derive foremost during meridian passage? latitude line

The azimuth angle when prefixed South means that: I. the amplitude is East-South II. the true azimuth is taken from the South III. the latitude is South III only

The geographical longitude of the body will be East if: the GHA is more than 180 degrees

The radius of the almucantar is equal to the ______ co-altitude

Which of the following when subtracted to 90 degrees give the radius of the almucantar? altitude

The GHA of the sun at 1200 GMT was found in the daily pages of the Almanac to be 356 degrees 28.’4. What is the Equation of Time? 14m 06s

Any system of one or more routes or routeing measures aimed at reducing the risk of casualties; it includes traffic separation schemes two-way routes, recommended tracks, areas to be avoided, inshore traffic zones, roudabouts, precautionary areas and deep water routes. routeing system

What do you call the system that has been established to improve the safety in navigation in converging area and in areas where the density of traffic is great and other factor might hamper the safe passage of the vessel? ship's routeing

An example of gyroscopic inertia is _______. quoit

If polarization error occurs during sunrise or sunset, it is called _______. night effect

An accurate way of determining a gyro error is ______. azimuth of a celestial body compared to computed azimuth

Parameter P is what kind of component? fore and aft component

Which of the following could cause a gyro compass to develop an easterly error? voltage becomes too high

Above the earth’s surface, the magnetic field surrounding the earth is believed to be uniform and centered ______. two geographical poles

The vertical between the horizontal at any point of a line force, measured in angular unit is called: magnetic dip

The strength of magnetic field at any point, measured in a direction parallel to the field is called: total intensity

Coefficient B is ______. all of these

The directive force of a gyro compass _______. decreases with latitude, being maximum at geographical equator

If the locking devices of a gyro in operation is left unlocked, the gyro will cause: the compass to turn constantly

_______ is added to the vertical ring of the gyro compass to effect symmetrical distribution of weight about the vertical axis. compensator weights

The gyro compass recorder writer are attached to the arms that are controlled by the: indicator from the master gyro

The average number of severe tropical storm or cyclones per year in the North Pacific Ocean is: 4

What is the average number of severe hurricane per year in the coast of USA and West coast of Mexico? 4

What is the average number of severe cyclone per year in the Indian Ocean or Arabian Sea? 3

Fair weather will generally continue when: winter fog clears off before noon

Fair weather generally continue when: cloud bases above horizon increase in height

Weather will generally change for the worse when: wind shifts to the North and West

The greatest change of weather condition occurs when: wind shifts from East through Northto South

The weather condition will generally clear when: barometer falls rapidly

Rain or snow generally occurs or falls if: a warm front approaches

Temperature will generally fall when: a cold front approaches

Fog will generally form when: the sky is clear at midnight

In infrared imagery, everything with a temperature above absolute zero radiates: Solar energy

In infrared imagery, high-level clouds are somewhat cold, they appear: white

The albedo of large thunderstorms in satellite imagery is: 92 percent

In infrared imagery, mid-level clouds are somewhat warmer so they are: light grey

The albedo of large water surfaces in satellite imagery is: 9 percent

A line whose tangent at any point in a fluid is parallel to the intantenous velocity of the fluid at that point is: streamline

The albedo of white sands in satellite imagery is: 60 percent

The albedo of �thick� cirrostratus in satellite imagery is: 74 percent

This is a measure of the rate of net removal of mass out of a volume of air above a given point. This is to promote surface pressure and height falls: divergence

The albedo of new fresh snow in satellite imagery is: 88 percent

The albedo of thin cirrostratus in satellite imagery is: 32 percent

This term is used in relation with ice submarine navigation: ice canopy

This term is used in relation with ice navigation and surface shipping: water sky

This term is used in relation with ice to surface shipping and navigation: ice under pressure

This term is used in relation with ice to submarine navigation: friendly ice

This term is used in relation with ice to submarine navigation: hostile ice

This term is used in relation with ice to surface shipping and navigation: difficult area

This term is used in relation with ice to surface shipping and navigation: easy area

An example of floating ice is: pancake ice

One form of ice motion processes is: shearing

One form of floating ice is: floe

An example of ice drift is: ice cover

One form of ice driftï is: open water

The Philippine Weather system which normally starts from the 3rd week of May until late September, characterized by rainfall and thunderstorms with occasional passages of tropical storms is the ____. Southwest monsoon

The Philippine weather system characterized by prevailing northeasterly chilled wind from Siberia that normally occurs between November and late February or early March is the______ Northeast Monsoon

The Philippine weather system normally occurs during transition from SW Monsoon to Northeast Monsoon is the _____________ Pacific trades

In October to November and by NE Monsoon to SW , in March to May of the year Characterized by constant speed of wind _____________ Pacific trades

Philippine weather system characterized by the long line of thunderstorms and cumulus clouds and it moves with the season along the Tropic region of the Earth, from the Equator to 23.4 degrees North and back to 23.4 degrees South, moving and migrating with Sun�s declination_________ Inter-tropical Convergence Zone

Philippine weather system characterized by chilly temperature during evening and early morning at the northern part of the Philippines, particularly ISABELA, during winter months_________ Tail end of cold front

The Philippine Weather system which occurs in the early part of rainy season, with atmospheric pattern of Wind coming from the East at 10 degrees meridian apart , with strongest pressure at its lowest extreme of the wind wave________ Easterly waves

Solar radiation which is less than 0.001 micron are the following, EXCEPT______ Cosmic rays

Radio wave is a radiation with wavelength of _____________ 20 micron

Solar Radiation of 0.4 mm to 1 meter is ___________ microwave

Solar radiation which wavelength is between 0.8 micron to 400 micron: Infra-red

Ultra-violet rays has a radiated wavelength of __________ 300 micron

Visible band wavelength has a wavelength of _______ 0.4 micron to 0.8 micron

Micron is equivalent to _____________ One-thousandth of a meter

Speed of light is _________ 300,000,000 meters/second

A 1000 grams of air of which 12 grams are water vapor, has the specific humidity of ______. 1 g per one kg

Speed of light, denotes as C is derived by ________ subtracting wavelength from frequency of radiation

Man Overboard situation is a critical “life and death” scenario. The most critical variable to be considered is __________. The fastest and correct turn of execution

These are general professional knowledge which are essentials in ship handling and navigation, EXCEPT______________ Knowledge of own ship

It is a particular professional knowledge regarding own ship various methods available and how to change over to secondary from primary methods. It is the knowledge on_________ all of these

These are professional knowledge which illustrates own ship capabilities that are very essential to the Officer–on-Watch, EXCEPT___________ construction of the ship

When running into a fog, following are prudent measures, EXCEPT: Reduce to moderate speed

An execution by swinging out of the ship with maximum wheel either port or starboard, and subsequently reverse the wheel so that the ships head swings out to, but not beyond 60 from the original course; then continue to swing back with full wheel, finally steadying on the reciprocal course to the original. This execution is called __________. Williamson Turn

There are indications of running into ice, EXCEPT Absence of Sea or Swell

It is a propeller which is almost invariably right-handed. When the ship is driven ahead, the propeller revolves in a clockwise direction, when viewed from astern. To go astern the rotation of the propeller is reversed. It is: single screw

This propeller consists of screws that are out-turning, are right-handed on the starboard side and left-handed on the port side. This type of propeller is: Twin screw

This type of screw is principally used by fast coastal craft and some classes of aircraft carriers. The propeller revolve in the same direction, so as to facilitate engine installation. This propeller is ______. Triple screw

This propeller is in-turning but the shaft revolves always in the same direction, the astern power being obtained by reversing the pitch of the screws. Controllable pitch propeller

The acceleration or deceleration capability of the ship depends largely on horsepower available and the momentum of the ship. The most important aspect of comparing the ahead and astern power of the ship is to consider first the _________ full- ahead momentum

Normally a ship fitted with steam turbines has an astern power one-third of ahead power. If a ship is 7,000-ton deadweight with speed of 15 knots, what is the astern power? 35,000 knot-tons

If a ship of 15,000 tons deadweight fitted with steam turbine has an astern power of 60,000 knot-tons, what is the speed of the ship?___________ 12 knots

This occurs when the suction abaft the rudder reaches a value equal to the vapor pressure of the water, so that bubbles of water vapor formed. This causes the force from the rudder drops suddenly and the turn widens. This phenomenon is called _______ burbling

Maximum rudder angle of 35 degrees is most acceptable during turning. However, an angle of 45 degrees will give a tighter turn, but will reduce speed more. At higher speed during turning, the ship tends to reduce the force of the rudder and in greater angle will reduce speed. This phenomenon is called________________ burbling

This is the form of hull which produces large wake effect , making the speed of the water passing the rudder maybe as much as 35% less than that of the ship. This reduces the rudder efficiency. This form of hull is called: rounded sterns

When does it become evident that the ship has reached shallow water? when the depth of water is about one point five (1.5) times of the ships draft

In maneuvering the ship in a restricted area or in a narrow channel, which side would be easier to maneuver the ship using the backing and filling maneuver? starboard side

A ship is having a slow speed, by using the backing maneuver, the ship is considered to be dead on the water when the __________. quickwater reaches the amidships

In docking, when approaching the quay at one (1) knot, how many meters is ships advance in one (1) minute. 41 meters

The distance of the ship to its final berth is about 200 meters. Approximately how many minutes will it take the ship to be in position if the ship speed is two (2) knots 3.2 minutes

Your ship RPM is 120 and gives a maximum speed of 1 knot. How many RPM required if you need a two (2) knot speed in approaching the berth? 15 rpm

When going astern in a right-handed propeller ship and need to maintain the ship heading, the rudder would be place at __________. Rudder to starboard enough to compensate the swing

In principles of shiphandling which factor that a master or a pilot has no direct control of the ship shallow water factor

What is the main purpose of knowing the turning circle of own ship? to know the area of maneuverability of the ship

The best approach to an anchorage is ______. I. against the current or wind II. with the current or wind III. a turn either way to give momentum for the dropping of anchor chain I only

Ship handling in a channel, a Pilot should break a sheer in narrow channel by: increasing engine RPM

In ship handling, as the beam increases for a given length, it is apparent that the directional stability: I. is the same II. Increases III. Decreases III only

In ship handling, as the under keel clearance decreases, it is apparent that the directional stability: I. is the same/steady II. Decreases III. Increases III only

It is easier to dock a right, single-screw vessel _________. port side to wharf

Which characteristics is a disadvantage of a controllable-pitch propeller as compared to a fixed-pitch propeller? some unusual handling characteristic

You are approaching a wrecked vessel which is on fire in order to remove survivors. Your approach should be ______. To windward of the wrecked vessel

You are proceeding at a slow speed with your starboard side near the right bank of a channel. If your vessel suddenly sheers toward the opposite bank, the BEST maneuver would be ______. full astern, hard left rudder

On a single screw vessel, coming portside to pier and being set off the pier you should: make your approach at a greater angle than in calm water

As a general rule a VLCC should not have a speed in any direction greater than ______ when touching berth. 0.15 knots

As a general rule a ULCC should not have a speed in any direction greater than ______ when touching berth. 0.10 knots

Berth lights shall: be permanently mounted and wired without the use of portable cord

It is easier to dock a right hand single screw vessel: portside to the wharf

You are landing a single screw vessel with a right-handed propeller portside to the dock. When you have approached your desired position of the dock, you back down on your engines with rudder amidships, you expect the vessel to ______. turn its stern towards the dock

When mooring a vessel alongside a dock, you should if possible: go in against the current

Maneuver your vessel alongside for a given rudder load/rudder and engine speed. The rate of turn ______ as the depth of water decreases. decreases

You are docked portside to a lock. The best way to undock a vessel off with no wind is: cast off all lines aft, then all lines forward, left rudder, bow thruster to starboard, dead slow ahead

To berth with the wind offshore, on beam or bow, the wharf should be approached: with a big angle

Unberthing with stream ahead ______. the vessel is singled up to an aft backspring and a fore breast

To ensure the best result in Mediterranean moor, the chains should: tend forward 30 degrees on either bow

When using the anchor, steady the bow in a maneuvering situation, you have the proper scope cable when: bow is held in position with the engines coming ahead

Why is it necessary to veer a sufficient amount of chain when anchoring a vessel? to insure that the anchor flukes bite into the ocean bottom

When a small craft’s anchor fouls in a rocky bottom, the first attempt to clear it should be made: reversing the angle and direction of pull, with moderate scope

What does the term “Ground Tackle” mean? the anchor, the anchor rode and all connecting parts that anchor a vessel

If a VLCC is proceeding at 12 knots, her headway is reduced to _______ at the completion. Of a round turn even though the engine continues to run ahead of steerageway. 2 to 3 knots

Which rule in the COLREG allow vessels to depart from the rules if necessary to avoid immediate danger? rule 2

Rule 2 of the COLREGS allows vessels to: depart from the rules to avoid immediate danger

Does the COLREGS give any preference to ships equipped with ARPA? Yes

What is the main content of COLREG Rule No. 5? Proper lookout

COLREG Rule No.10 applies to vessels sailing in: Vessel�s sailing in separation schemes

COLREG Rule No 35 specifies? safe speed during reduced visibility

Does the COLREGS give any preference to ships equipped with ARPA? Yes

Two vessels are navigating in dense fog. Vessel A observes vessel B on her starboard side. Which vessel has the right of way? neither

The use traffic separation schemes in the territorial sea, particular ships like ___________ and other inherently dangerous or noxious substances or materials may be required to confine their passage to such lane. Tankers, nuclear powered ship

In case of any failure on machinery or irregularity on equipment which may lead to the propulsion speed or the steering of the vessel to be affected, what is the FIRST ACTION to be taken by the duty engineer? inform the bridge

The amount and condition/appearance of liquid collected in bilges is a clear sign of _______. specific system losses or flooding

What would be the best method to be followed if the ship is in port and there is an urgent need to pump out bilge water from the vessel? pump out only to shore tank or barge

What action shall be taken if you find more substantial amount of water than usual has collected in the bilge wells? ask permission to pump bilges via 15ppm oily water separator

Suppose you are told to store ship’s lubricants for one year and you estimate you will consume 480 liters in that time. You have an opened drum of 180 liters on board. What quantity will you order? 24 pails x 20 liters

During maneuvering periods with the main engine, what is the arrangement for starting air supply by the main air compressors on the control setting of the compressors? one compressor on AUTO CONTROL, the other on MANUAL

What is that force that tends to twist the material like the force on the shaft to twist it apart? torsional stress

Kinetic energy is the energy a body has due to its ______. motion

Phenolphthalein is used to test boiler for ______. alkalinity

What do you call the instrument that measures the radial position of the crankshaft or rotor shaft? bridge gauge

Too high alkalinity of boiler water may cause ______. scale

In which pipe line should you expect to find an illuminated sight glass (bull’s eye)? tank overflow piping

What are the four processes in a refrigeration process? Compression/Condensation/Expansion/Evaporation

What is the purpose of a dehydrator in a refrigeration system? to absorb moisture usually present in the refrigerant

In which machinery can you not add oil under running conditions? air compressors or refrigerant compressors

If the cooling water temperature exceeds over its recommended value, what can happen? a less effective lubricating oil film is formed on the cylinder walls

The temperature of the daily tank of 60 degrees C suggests which grade of Fuel in use? intermediate or heavy fuel oil

In which part of the alternator is the electric power produced? by the stator

What is the function of the Lub Oil Sump Tank? all of these

What is the purpose of the Main Engine Dirty Oil Tank? as collecting for dirty oil of main engine intended for purification

The main as well as the emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is, as well: fed into monitored and supplied to the consumers

By what means is the power output of an alternator controlled? by the excitation current in the rotor

The working principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current proportioned to _______. the output voltage as well as the output current of the alternator

According to regulations on board ships, it is required to have pump redundancy. What is understood by this? all essential pumps in the engine room have a back-up possibility

In case the auxiliary seawater pump fails, with which pump shall you cool the condensers? with the main seawater pump(s)

Below are some capacities of seawater pumps of a vessel listed. Which pump is the FIRE AND BALLAST pump? 110/410 cubic meter/hour x 70/35 meters

Following is a listing of water pumps on board. Which one is the Fresh Water Hydrophore pump? 5 cubic meter/hour x 50 meters

What liquid is used to clean a turbo charger? water

If you find it difficult to obtain suction while pumping the bilge well, which action shall you take? all of these

How does the change of flow direction in the filter helps in segregating water and dirt? due to centrifugal force

A pump can empty a tank in 12 hours, another pump can empty the same tank in 4 hours, and another can empty this tank in 9 hours. If all three pumps are set working together on this tank, how long would it take to empty it? 2 hours and 15 minutes

In a 4 cycle engine, the intake valve begins to open while the piston is on the: suction stroke

In a 4 cycle engine, the exhaust valve opens while the piston is on its ______. power stroke

What are the indications of excessive cylinder clearance in a small diesel engine? I. loss of power II. Misfiring III. White exhaust smoke IV. Excessive Consumption of lube oil I, III and IV

In four stroke cycle diesel engine, a four stroke of the piston is required to complete one cycle which must take place in regular order, and the second stroke indicates _______. compression of air

What is the compression system of a refrigeration? it is the absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and expansion

The last stroke of two-stroke cycle diesel engine is also called: power stroke

What is the source of energy used to convert salt water into fresh water inside a fresh water generator? the waste heat from the main engine

How is a vacuum created in the fresh water generator? by the vapor eductor driven to the ejector pump

What is the required ppm if boiler distillate water is produced to be used in water tube boilers of medium pressure by a fresh water generator? 2ppm

Reciprocating pumps are installed in circuits where liquids ______. have a high air content

If you are to replace a mechanical seal of a pump, which part will you dismantle/remove in order to access to the seal? remove pump casing half, shaft flange and take out pump assembly

It is noted after overhaul that pump bearings heat up, and is verified that o wrong assembly has taken place or no parts are touching. The reason is: misalignment of the shaft pump

What will happen to the level of the expansion tank if the engine slows down or stops from running condition? the level will decrease

What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are started at the same time? the generator may trip on overload

A ship's propeller is 4882 mm diameter with pitch of 4226 mm. The engine RPM is 122. What is the engine speed of this vessel? 16.70 knots

A vessel's main engine runs at 114 RPM. The slip that day was 7.4%. The ship?s speed that day was 13.82 knots. What is the pitch of the propeller? 4040 mm

A vessel has a propeller with 3828 mm pitch and makes 109 RPM. The nautical speed is 12.8 knots. What is the slip? 5.3%

Normally, fully automated vessels with UMS certificate carry smaller number of crew, a major reduction in the number of certified ratings and officers. On the other hand, ________? do officers/crew require a higher level of skill

What is the most important connection of the Chief Engineer with the Deck Department? knowledge of all sailing plans and cargo loading/discharging

What is the most important deck connection of watchkeeping engineers? executing orders from and issuing warnings to the bridge

Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into a current of air which provides clean air for the next compression stroke is ______. scavenging

Flashpoint of the oil is the temperature at which ______. fuel oil must be heated to allow flammable vapors to form on its surface

A unit of measure used to express the chloride content of boiler water is _____. PPM

What is the purpose of a counterbore in a cylinder? to distribute the oil film evenly over the cylinder surface

Thermal efficiency refers to heat engines and is the ratio of ______. output on the shaft/flywheel over internally produced power

What do you call the valve that prevent steam pressure from exceeding the allowable working pressure? safety valve

The basic type of reversing air starting system that can be used only on two stroke ported direct propulsion marine engine is _______. rotating camshaft

The heat used to change a liquid to vapor is called latent heat of ______. vaporation

A refrigerant gives up heat when it _______. condenses

The lowest temperature obtained in a refrigerator system is the temperature of the ______. liquid in the evaporator

The actual refrigerating or cooling effect is produced by ________. lowering pressure of refrigerant

The two main types of evaporators are: dry and flooded

The greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant is at the ______. condenser

A receiver in a refrigeration system is used to ______. store the refrigerant

Humidity is a measure of ______. water vapor content

Ambient temperature means ______. temperature of air in the surrounding space

Moisture in the refrigeration system will cause a ______. faulty expansion valve

What will happen if a brine in a refrigeration system has a high specific gravity? it will crystallize

Diesel engines are considered safer than gasoline engines because ___? The fuel used is less volatile

Generally speaking, the fuel injected into a diesel engine combustion chamber is ignited by? heat of compression

The quickest method to stop a small diesel engine whose throttle or governor has become stuck open is to __? close the fuel supply valve

Which of the following is an advantage of diesel over steam turbine propulsion? less fuel consumption per SHP

All diesel engines are classified as ___? compression ignition

Each cylinder in a two stroke cycle engine experience combustion __? once each crankshaft revolution

How would the exhaust of a properly operating diesel engine appear? perfectly clear

What does a pyrometer measure on a diesel engine? exhaust temperature

What monitoring device best indicates the load being carried by a diesel engine? tachometer

What is the effect of heated intake air on a diesel engine? increases efficiency

How does combustion air enter the cylinder of a two cycle diesel engine? cylinder head valves

Diesel engines obtain combustion air through turbo chargers, blowers or: air receiver

What is the purpose of the intake/exhaust valves in a diesel engine? They regulate the combustion cycle

The most serious effect of air in a diesel engine jacket water cooling system is that it? causes corrosion

What quality of a diesel fuel is most significant for efficient combustion? viscosity

Lubricating oil should be changed on a heavy duty diesel engine when___? it has been in use for a specified interval

How should you warm up a diesel engine that has not been run for some time? run it at minimum speed for a period of time

What would white exhaust smoke from a diesel engine probably mean? late fuel injection

The three conditions which cause engine shutdown are over speed, low lube oil pressure and__? high jacket water temperature

If an engine shuts down due to high jacket water temperature, what action should be taken? open crankcase explosion covers

What is the bets indication of the loading of diesel engine? exhaust gas temperature

Sudden unloading of a diesel engine can cause? black smoke

If you are unable to stop a diesel engine by any other means, you should__? secure the starting air supply valve

What is the one effect of running a diesel engine at too cool a temperature? severe heat stresses on mechanical parts

Most medium and slow speed diesels are started by what medium? compressed air

What are the three basic types of engine starters? air, hydraulic, electric

All marine low speed diesels are of what design? two stroke

One major disadvantage of a low speed diesel as compared to a steam main propulsion system is? a minimum speed for the engines that limits the minimum speed of the vessel

Which of the following exhausts should be carefully inspected at regular intervals? engine

The exhaust pipe shall be kept gas tight throughout its entire length because? the joint gaskets may be blown

Vessels required to be equipped with an approved backfire flame arrester are? those with diesel engines

Backfire flame arrestors are installed on ___? fuel tanks

A carburetor is placed on the engines to ___? mix the fuel and air

A carburetor is required to have a safety device called a (n)__? backfire flame arrestor

Which of the following devices is required to be installed under the carburetor of a gasoline engine? flame arrestor

The engine head block, and exhaust manifold shall be ___ (small passenger vessel regulations) water jacketed

If a gasoline engine falls to start, the procedure to find the cause is to? ventilate the space, then check the battery, spark plugs, carburetor and fuel line

If a gasoline engine turns over but is hard to start, the cause is generally__? defective ignition

Fuel system safety may best be achieved by? proper air/gasoline fuel mixture ratio

Gasoline fumes tend to__? disperse to atmosphere

Gasoline vapor is of such weight relative to air that it will tend to collect: above the carburetor level

Which statement is TRUE concerning fuel vapors on a vessel? fuel vapors can only be ignited by an open flame