Final Exam-Quarter 3

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Chemical reactions ____.a. occur only in living organisms c. only occur outside living organismsb. create and destroy atoms d. produce new substances

____ 2. Everyday equations describe ____.a. thermonuclear reactions c. chemical reactionsb. everyday processes d. biological chemistry

____ 3. What does the symbol in a chemical equation mean?a. Heat is supplied to the reaction. c. yieldsb. A catalyst is needed. d. precipitate

____ 4. Chemical equations ____.a. describe chemical reactionsb. show how to write chemical formulasc. give directions for naming chemical compoundsd. describe only biological changes

____ 5. A skeleton equation does NOT show which of the following?a. the correct formulas of the reactants and productsb. the reactants on the left, the products on the rightc. an arrow connecting the reactants to the productsd. the relative amounts of reactants and products

____ 6. Symbols used in equations, together with the explanations of the symbols, are shown below. Which set is correct?a. (g), grams c. (aq), dissolved in waterb. (l), liters d. s, solid product

____ 7. In the chemical equation H O (aq) H O(l) O (g), the is a ____.a. catalyst c. productb. solid d. reactant

____ 8. This symbol ( ) indicates that ____.a. heat must be appliedb. an incomplete combustion reaction has occurredc. a gas is formed by the reactiond. the reaction is reversible

____ 9. A catalyst is ____.a. the product of a combustion reactionb. not used up in a reactionc. one of the reactants in single-replacement reactionsd. a solid product of a reaction

____ 10. Which of the following is the correct skeleton equation for the reaction that takes place when solid phosphorus combines with oxygen gas to form diphosphorus pentoxide?a. P(s) O (g) PO (g) c. P(s) O2(g) P O (s)b. P(s) O(g) P O (g) d. P O (s) P (s) O (g)

____ 11. If you rewrite the following word equation as a balanced chemical equation, what will the coefficient and symbol for fluorine be? nitrogen trifluoride nitrogen fluorinea. 6F c. 6Fb. F d. 3F

____ 12. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?AlCl + NaOH Al(OH) NaCla. 1, 3, 1, 3 c. 1, 1, 1, 3

b. 3, 1, 3, 1 d. 1, 3, 3, 1____ 13. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below?

N + H NH

a. 1, 1, 2 c. 3, 1, 2b. 1, 3, 3 d. 1, 3, 2

____ 14. When the equation Fe Cl FeCl is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl ?a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 15. When the following equation is balanced, what is the coefficient for HCl? Mg(s) HCl(aq) MgCl (aq) H (g)a. 6 c. 1b. 3 d. 2

____ 16. Which of the following statements is NOT true about what happens in all chemical reactions?a. The ways in which atoms are joined together are changed.b. New atoms are formed as products.c. The starting substances are called reactants.d. The bonds of the reactants are broken and new bonds of the products are formed.

____ 17. Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy ____.a. the law of definite proportions c. the law of conservation of massb. the law of multiple proportions d. Avogadro’s principle

____ 18. When the equation KClO (s) KCl(s) + O (g) is balanced, the coefficient of KClO3 is ____.a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 19. In every balanced chemical equation, each side of the equation has the same number of ____.a. atoms of each element c. molesb. molecules d. coefficients

____ 20. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below?Cr(s) Fe(NO ) (aq) Fe(s) Cr(NO ) (aq)a. 4, 6, 6, 2 c. 2, 3, 3, 2b. 2, 3, 2, 3 d. 1, 3, 3, 1

____ 21. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below? Al (SO ) (aq) KOH(aq) Al(OH) (aq) K SO (aq)a. 1, 3, 2, 3 c. 4, 6, 2, 3b. 2, 12, 4, 6 d. 1, 6, 2, 3

____ 22. When potassium hydroxide and barium chloride react, potassium chloride and barium hydroxide are formed. The balanced equation for this reaction is ____.a. KH BaCl KCl BaH c. 2KOH BaCl 2KCl Ba(OH)b. KOH BaCl KCl BaOH d. KOH BaCl KCl BaOH

____ 23. The product of a combination reaction is Ba(OH) . If one of the reactants is H O, what is the other reactant?a. Ba O c. BaHb. BaO d. BaO

____ 24. In order to predict whether or not a single-replacement reaction takes place, you need to consult a chart that shows the ____.a. periodic tableb. activity series of metalsc. common polyatomic ionsd. ionic charges of representative elements

____ 25. In order for the reaction 2Al 6HCl 2AlCl 3H to occur, which of the following must be true?a. Al must be above Cl on the activity series.b. Al must be above H on the activity series.c. Heat must be supplied for the reaction.

d. A precipitate must be formed.

____ 26. In a combustion reaction, one of the reactants is ____.a. hydrogen c. oxygenb. nitrogen d. a metal

____ 27. The products of a combustion reaction do NOT include ____.a. water c. carbon monoxideb. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen

____ 28. The type of reaction that takes place when one element reacts with a compound to form a new compound and a different element is a ____.a. combination reaction c. single-replacement reactionb. decomposition reaction d. double-replacement reaction

____ 29. In a double-replacement reaction, the ____.a. products are always molecularb. reactants are two ionic compoundsc. reactants are two elementsd. products are a new element and a new compound

____ 30. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?a. The only way to determine the products of a reaction is to carry out the reaction.b. All chemical reactions can be classified as one of five general types.c. Complete combustion has occurred when all the carbon in the product is in the form of

carbon dioxide.d. A single reactant is the identifying characteristic of a decomposition reaction.

____ 31. Which of the following is a balanced equation representing the decomposition of lead(IV) oxide?a. PbO Pb 2O c. Pb O 2Pb Ob. PbO Pb O d. PbO Pb O

____ 32. What are the correct formulas and coefficients for the products of the following double-replacement reaction?RbOH H PO a. Rb(PO ) H O c. Rb PO 3H Ob. RbPO 2H O d. H Rb PO OH

____ 33. When the equation for the complete combustion of one mole of C H OH is balanced, the coefficient for oxygen is ____.a. 13

2c. 7

2b. 11

2d. 9

2____ 34. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the decomposition of a simple binary compound?

a. The products are unpredictable.b. The products are the constituent elements.c. The reactant is a single substance.d. The reactant could be an ionic or a molecular compound.

____ 35. Which of the following statements is true about single-replacement reactions?a. They are restricted to metals. c. Two reactants produce two products.b. They involve a single product. d. Any metal replaces any other metal.

____ 36. In the activity series of metals, which metal(s) will displace hydrogen from an acid?a. only metals above hydrogen c. any metalb. only metals below hydrogen d. only metals from Li to Na

____ 37. Use the activity series of metals to complete a balanced chemical equation for the following single replacement reaction. Ags KNO aq a. AgNO K

b. AgK NOc. AgKNOd. No reaction takes place because silver is less reactive than potassium.

____ 38. Which of the following statements is NOT true about double-replacement reactions?a. The product may precipitate from solution.b. The product may be a gas.c. The product may be a molecular compound.d. The reactant may be a solid metal.

____ 39. In a double-replacement reaction, ____.a. the reactants are usually a metal and a nonmetalb. one of the reactants is often waterc. the reactants are generally two ionic compounds in aqueous solutiond. energy in the form of heat or light is often produced

____ 40. A double-replacement reaction takes place when aqueous Na CO reacts with aqueous Sn(NO ) . You would expect one of the products of this reaction to be ____.a. NaNO c. Sn(CO )b. NaSn d. CNO

____ 41. The complete combustion of which of the following substances produces carbon dioxide and water?a. C H c. CaHCOb. K CO d. NO

____ 42. Which of the following is the correctly balanced equation for the incomplete combustion of heptene, C H ?a. C H 14O 7CO 7H O c. 2C H 21O 14CO 14H Ob. C H 7O 7CO 7H O d. C H O C O 7H

____ 43. The reaction 2Fe 3Cl 2FeCl is an example of which type of reaction?a. combustion reaction c. combination reactionb. single-replacement reaction d. decomposition reaction

____ 44. The equation Mg(s) 2HCl(aq) MgCl (aq) H g is an example of which type of reaction?a. combination reaction c. decomposition reactionb. single-replacement reaction d. double-replacement reaction

____ 45. The equation H PO 3KOH K PO 3H O is an example of which type of reaction?a. double-replacement reaction c. decomposition reactionb. combination reaction d. single-replacement reaction

____ 46. The equation 2C H OH 9O 6CO 8H O is an example of which type of reaction?a. combustion reaction c. double-replacement reactionb. single-replacement reaction d. decomposition reaction

____ 47. A double-replacement reaction takes place when aqueous cobalt(III) chloride reacts with aqueous lithium hydroxide. One of the products of this reaction is ____.a. Co(OH) c. LiCob. Co(OH) d. LiCl

____ 48. If a combination reaction takes place between rubidium and bromine, the chemical formula for the product is ____.a. RuBr c. RbBrb. Rb Br d. RbBr

____ 49. What is the balanced chemical equation for the reaction that takes place between bromine and sodium iodide?a. Br NaI NaBr I c. Br NaI NaBrIb. Br 2NaI 2NaBr I d. Br NaI NaBr I

____ 50. What is the driving force in the following reaction?

Ni(NO ) (aq) K S(aq) NiSs 2KNO (aq)a. A gas is formed. c. Ionic compounds are reactants.b. A precipitate is formed. d. Ionic compounds are products.

____ 51. The calculation of quantities in chemical equations is called ____.a. stoichiometry c. percent compositionb. dimensional analysis d. percent yield

____ 52. If 1 egg and 1/3 cup of oil are needed for each bag of brownie mix, how many bags of brownie mix do you need if you want to use up all 3 eggs and 1 cup of oil?a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 53. What is conserved in the reaction shown below?H (g) + Cl (g) 2HCl(g)a. mass only c. mass, moles, and molecules onlyb. mass and moles only d. mass, moles, molecules, and volume

____ 54. What is conserved in the reaction shown below?N (g) + 3F (g) 2NF (g)a. atoms only c. mass and atoms onlyb. mass only d. moles only

____ 55. In every chemical reaction, ____.a. mass and molecules are conserved c. mass and atoms are conservedb. moles and liters are conserved d. moles and molecules are conserved

____ 56. In a chemical reaction, the mass of the products ____.a. is less than the mass of the reactantsb. is greater than the mass of the reactantsc. is equal to the mass of the reactantsd. has no relationship to the mass of the reactants

____ 57. In any chemical reaction, the quantities that are preserved are ____.a. the number of moles and the volumesb. the number of molecules and the volumesc. mass and number of atomsd. mass and moles

____ 58. The first step in most stoichiometry problems is to ____.a. add the coefficients of the reagents c. convert given quantities to volumesb. convert given quantities to moles d. convert given quantities to masses

____ 59. In the reaction 2CO(g) + O (g) 2CO (g), what is the ratio of moles of oxygen used to moles of CO produced?a. 1:1 c. 1:2b. 2:1 d. 2:2

____ 60. Which of the following is true about the total number of reactants and the total number of products in the reaction shown below?C H (l) + 8O (g) 5CO (g) + 6H O(g)a. 9 moles of reactants chemically change into 11 moles of product.b. 9 grams of reactants chemically change into 11 grams of product.c. 9 liters of reactants chemically change into 11 liters of product.d. 9 atoms of reactants chemically change into 11 atoms of product.

____ 61. Which of the following is an INCORRECT interpretation of the balanced equation shown below?2S(s) + 3O (g) 2SO (g)a. 2 atoms S + 3 molecules O 2 molecules SOb. 2 g S + 3 g O 2 g SOc. 2 mol S + 3 mol O 2 mol SOd. none of the above

____ 62. How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO?2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) 3Fe(s) + Al O (s)a. 1.2 mol c. 1.6 molb. 0.8 mol d. 2.4 mol

_

___ 63. Calculate the number of moles of Al O that are produced when 0.60 mol of Fe is produced in the following reaction.2Al(s) + 3FeO(s) 3Fe(s) + Al O (s)a. 0.20 mol c. 0.60 molb. 0.40 mol d. 0.90 mol

____ 64. How many moles of glucose, C H O , can be "burned" biologically when 10.0 mol of oxygen is available?C H O (s) + 6O (g) 6CO (g) + 6H O(l)a. 0.938 mol c. 53.3 molb. 1.67 mol d. 60.0 mol

____ 65. Hydrogen gas can be produced by reacting aluminum with sulfuric acid. How many moles of sulfuric acid are needed to completely react with 15.0 mol of aluminum?2Al(s) + 3H SO (aq) Al (SO ) (aq) + 3H (g)a. 0.100 mol c. 15.0 molb. 10.0 mol d. 22.5 mol

____ 66. When iron rusts in air, iron(III) oxide is produced. How many moles of oxygen react with 2.4 mol of iron in the rusting reaction?4Fe(s) + 3O (g) 2Fe2O (s)a. 1.2 mol c. 2.4 molb. 1.8 mol d. 3.2 mol

____ 67. At STP, how many liters of oxygen are required to react completely with 3.6 liters of hydrogen to form water?2H (g) + O (g) 2H O(g)a. 1.8 L c. 2.0 Lb. 3.6 L d. 2.4 L

____ 68. Which type of stoichiometric calculation does not require the use of the molar mass?a. mass-mass problems c. mass-particle problemsb. mass-volume problems d. volume-volume problems

____ 69. The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when 11.5 g NO is formed?

a. 1.00 g c. 2.88 gb. 2.00 g d. 32.0 g

____ 70. Iron(III) oxide is formed when iron combines with oxygen in the air. How many grams of Fe O are formed when 16.7 g of Fe reacts completely with oxygen?

a. 12.0 g c. 47.8 gb. 23.9 g d. 95.6 g

____ 71. When glucose is consumed, it reacts with oxygen in the body to produce carbon dioxide, water, and energy. How many grams of carbon dioxide would be produced if 45 g of C H O completely reacted with oxygen?a. 1.5 g c. 11 gb. 1.8 g d. 66 g

____ 72. Aluminum reacts with sulfuric acid to produce aluminum sulfate and hydrogen gas. How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250 g H SO completely reacted with aluminum?

a. 0.85 g c. 450 gb. 290 g d. 870 g

____ 73. Mercury can be obtained by reacting mercury(II) sulfide with calcium oxide. How many grams of calcium oxide are needed to produce 36.0 g of Hg?4HgS(s) + 4CaO(s) 4Hg(l) + 3CaS(s) + CaSO4a. 1.80 g c. 10.1 gb. 7.56 g d. 13.4 g

____ 74. How many moles of H PO are produced when 71.0 g P O reacts completely to form H PO ?

a. 0.063 5 mol c. 4.00 molb. 1.00 mol d. 16.0 mol

____ 75. How many grams of H PO are produced when 10.0 moles of water react with an excess of P O ?

a. 1.22 g c. 147 gb. 6.7 g d. 653 g

____ 76. How many liters of hydrogen gas are needed to react with CS to produce 2.50 L of CH at STP?

a. 2.50 L c. 7.50 Lb. 5.00 L d. 10.0 L

____ 77. Which conversion factor do you use first to calculate the number of grams of CO produced by the reaction of 50.6 g of CH with O ? The equation for the complete combustion of methane is:

a. 1 mol CH /16.0 g CH c. 16.0 g CH /1 mol COb. 2 mol O /1 mol CO d. 44.0 g CO /2 mol CO

____ 78. Which of the following statements is true about the following reaction?3NaHCO (aq) + C H O (aq) 3CO (g) + 3H O(s) +Na C H O (aq)a. 22.4 L of CO (g) are produced for every liter of C H O (aq) reacted.b. 1 mole of water is produced for every mole of carbon dioxide produced.c. 6.02 10 molecules of Na C H O (aq) are produced for every mole of NaHCO (aq)

used.d. 54 g of water are produced for every mole of NaHCO (aq) produced.

____ 79. How many liters of NH are needed to react completely with 30.0 L of NO (at STP)?4NH (g) + 6NO(g) 5N (g) + 6H O(g)a. 5.0 L c. 7.5 Lb. 20.0 L d. 120.0 L

____ 80. When 0.1 mol of calcium reacts with 880 g of water, 2.24 L of hydrogen gas form (at STP). How would the amount of hydrogen produced change if the volume of water was decreased to 440 mL (440 g)?a. Only one half the volume of hydrogen would be produced.b. The volume of hydrogen produced would be the same.c. The volume of hydrogen produced would double.d. No hydrogen would be produced.

____ 81. Glucose, C H O , is a good source of food energy. When it reacts with oxygen, carbon dioxide and water are formed. How many liters of CO are produced when 126 g of glucose completely react with oxygen?C H O (s) + 6O (g) 6CO (g) + 6H O(l) + 673 kcala. 4.21 L c. 15.7 Lb. 5.33 L d. 94.1 L

____ 82. Calcium oxide, or lime, is produced by the thermal decomposition of limestone in the reaction CaCO (s) CaO(s) + CO (g). What mass of lime can be produced from 1.5 10 kg of limestone?

a. 8.4 10 kg c. 8.4 kgb. 8.4 10 kg d. none of the above

____ 83. When two substances react to form products, the reactant which is used up is called the ____.a. determining reagent c. excess reagentb. limiting reagent d. catalytic reagent

____ 84. Which of the following is NOT true about limiting and excess reagents?a. The amount of product obtained is determined by the limiting reagent.b. A balanced equation is necessary to determine which reactant is the limiting reagent.c. Some of the excess reagent is left over after the reaction is complete.d. The reactant that has the smallest given mass is the limiting reagent.

____ 85. How many grams of chromium are needed to react with an excess of CuSO to produce 27.0 g Cu?2Cr(s) + 3CuSO (aq) Cr (SO ) (aq) + 3Cu(s)a. 14.7 g c. 33.2 gb. 18.0 g d. 81.5 g

____ 86. How many grams of beryllium are needed to produce 36.0 g of hydrogen? (Assume an excess of water.)Be(s) + 2H O(l) Be(OH) (aq) + H (g)a. 4.00 g c. 162 gb. 36.0 g d. 324 g

____ 87. How many liters of NH , at STP, will react with 5.3 g O to form NO and water?4NH (g) + 7O (g) 4NO + 6H O(g)a. 0.004 23 L c. 3.03 Lb. 2.12 L d. 6.49 L

____ 88. How many liters of chlorine gas can be produced when 0.98 L of HCl react with excess O at STP?4HCl(g) + O (g) 2Cl (g) + 2H O(g)a. 0.98 L c. 3.9 Lb. 0.49 L d. 2.0 L

____ 89. Identify the limiting reagent and the volume of CO formed when 11 L CS reacts with 18 L O to produce

CO gas and SO gas at STP.CS (g) + 3O (g) CO (g) + 2SO (g)a. CS ; 5.5 L CO c. CS ; 11 L COb. O ; 6.0 L CO d. O ; 27 L CO

____ 90. What is the maximum number of grams of PH that can be formed when 6.2 g of phosphorus reacts with 4.0 g of hydrogen to form PH ?P (g) + 6H (g) 4PH (g)a. 0.43 g c. 270 gb. 6.8 g d. 45 g

____ 91. Methane and hydrogen sulfide form when hydrogen reacts with carbon disulfide. Identify the excess reagent and calculate how much remains after 36 L of H reacts with 12 L of CS .4H (g) + CS (g) CH (g) + 2H S(g)a. 3 L CS c. 9 L CSb. 6 L CS d. 12 L H

____ 92. Metallic copper is formed when aluminum reacts with copper(II) sulfate. How many grams of metallic copper can be obtained when 54.0 g of Al react with 319 g of CuSO ?Al + 3CuSO Al (SO ) + 3Cua. 21.2 g c. 162 gb. 127 g d. 381 g

____ 93. Which statement is true if 12 mol CO and 12 mol Fe O are allowed to react?3CO(g) + Fe O (s) 2Fe(s) + 3CO (g)a. The limiting reagent is CO and 8.0 mol Fe will be formed.b. The limiting reagent is CO and 3.0 mol CO will be formed.c. The limiting reagent is Fe O and 24 mol Fe will be formed.d. The limiting reagent is Fe O and 36 mol CO will be formed.

____ 94. Which of the following would be the limiting reagent in the reaction shown below?2H (g) + O (g) 2H O(g)a. 50 molecules of Hb. 50 molecules of Oc. Neither a nor b is limiting.d. Both a and b are considered limiting reagents.

____ 95. When an equation is used to calculate the amount of product that will form during a reaction, then the value obtained is called the ____.a. actual yield c. theoretical yieldb. percent yield d. minimum yield

____ 96. Which of the following is NOT true about "yield"?a. The value of the actual yield must be given in order for the percent yield to be calculated.b. The percent yield is the ratio of the actual yield to the theoretical yield.c. The actual yield may be different from the theoretical yield because reactions do not

always go to completion.d. The actual yield may be different from the theoretical yield because insufficient limiting

reagent was used.____ 97. Which of the following is NOT a reason why actual yield is less than theoretical yield?

a. impure reactants present c. loss of product during purificationb. competing side reactions d. conservation of mass

____ 98. Lead nitrate can be decomposed by heating. What is the percent yield of the decomposition reaction if 9.9 g Pb(NO ) are heated to give 5.5 g of PbO?2Pb(NO ) (s) 2PbO(s) + 4NO (g) + O (g)a. 44% c. 67%b. 56% d. 82%

____ 99. Hydrogen gas is produced when zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid. If the actual yield of this reaction is 85%, how many grams of zinc are needed to produce 112 L of H at STP?Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) ZnCl (s) + H (g)a. 95 g c. 280 gb. 180 g d. 380 g

____ 100. In a particular reaction between copper metal and silver nitrate, 12.7 g Cu produced 38.1 g Ag. What is the percent yield of silver in this reaction?Cu + 2AgNO Cu(NO ) + 2Aga. 56.7% c. 88.2%b. 77.3% d. 176%

____ 101. According to the kinetic theory, collisions between molecules in a gas ____.a. are perfectly elastic c. never occurb. are inelastic d. cause a loss of total kinetic energy

____ 102. Which of the following statements is part of the kinetic theory?a. The particles of a gas move independently of each other.b. The particles in a gas move rapidly.c. The particles in a gas are relatively far apart.d. all of the above

____ 103. The average speed of oxygen molecules in air is about ____.

a. 0 km/h c. 1700 km/hb. 170 km/h d. 17,000 km/h

____ 104. Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the kinetic theory?a. There is no attraction between particles of a gas.b. Only particles of matter in the gaseous state are in constant motion.c. The particles of a gas collide with each other and with other objects.d. All of the statements are true.

____ 105. Particles in a gas are best described as ____.a. slow-moving, kinetic, hard spheresb. spheres that are in fixed positions when trapped in a containerc. small, hard spheres with insignificant volumesd. hard spheres influenced by repulsive forces from other spheres

____ 106. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the movement of particles in a gas?a. Particles travel in straight-line paths until they collide with other objects.b. Particles usually travel uninterrupted indefinitely.c. Particles fill their containers regardless of the shape or volume of the container.d. The aimless path taken by particles is known as a random walk.

____ 107. What instrument is normally used to measure atmospheric pressure?a. thermometer c. vacuumb. barometer d. manometer

____ 108. What is the SI unit of pressure?a. candela c. pascalb. mole d. newton

____ 109. What is one standard atmosphere of pressure in kilopascals?a. 0 kPa c. 101.3 kPab. 760 kPa d. 1 kPa

____ 110. Standard conditions when working with gases are defined as ____.a. 0 K and 101.3 kPa c. 0 C and 101.3 kPab. 0 K and 1 kPa d. 0 C and 1 kPa

____ 111. How does the atmospheric pressure at altitudes below sea level compare with atmospheric pressure at sea level?a. The atmospheric pressure below sea level is higher.b. The atmospheric pressure below sea level is lower.c. The pressures are the same.d. Differences in pressures cannot be determined.

____ 112. What causes gas pressure in a container such as a helium balloon?a. the walls of the containerb. the vacuum maintained in the containerc. the simultaneous collisions of fast-moving particles in the containerd. atmospheric pressure acting on the outside walls of the container

____ 113. The pressure of a gas in a container is 152 mm Hg. This is equivalent to ____.a. 0.2 atm c. 0.3 atmb. 2 atm d. 0.4 atm

____ 114. The temperature at which the motion of particles theoretically ceases is ____.a. –273 K c. 0 Cb. 0 K d. 273 C

____ 115. What happens to the average kinetic energy of the particles in a sample of matter as the temperature of the sample is increased?a. The average kinetic energy decreases.b. The average kinetic energy increases.c. The average kinetic energy does not change.d. The change in average kinetic energy cannot be determined.

____ 116. With which temperature scale is temperature directly proportional to average kinetic energy?a. Celsius c. Kelvinb. Fahrenheit d. centigrade

____ 117. What happens to the range of energies of the particles in matter when the temperature is increased?

a. The range of energies becomes narrower.b. The range of energies becomes broader.c. The range of energies does not change.d. The range of energies cannot be determined.

____ 118. The average kinetic energy of the particles of a substance ____.a. is not affected by the temperature of the substanceb. increases as the temperature of the substance is loweredc. is directly proportional to the temperature of the substanced. is equal to the total energy absorbed by the substance

____ 119. When a gas is heated, ____.a. all of the absorbed energy is converted to kinetic energyb. some of the absorbed energy is converted to potential energy, and some is converted to

kinetic energyc. all of the absorbed energy is converted to potential energyd. none of the energy is converted to kinetic energy

____ 120. Consider an iron cube and an aluminum cube. If the two cubes were at the same temperature, how would the average kinetic energy of the particles in iron compare with the average kinetic energy of the particles in aluminum?a. The average kinetic energy of the iron particles would be greater.b. The average kinetic energy of the aluminum particles would be greater.c. There would be no difference in the average kinetic energies.d. No determination can be made based on the information given.

____ 121. The average kinetic energy of water molecules is greatest in ____.a. steam at 100 C c. liquid water at 373 Kb. liquid water at 90 C d. ice at 0 C

____ 122. What is the key difference between a liquid and a gas?a. intermolecular attractions c. average kinetic energyb. the ability to flow d. the motion of their particles

____ 123. Which states of matter can flow?a. gases only c. gases and liquids onlyb. liquids only d. gases, liquids, and solids

____ 124. What happens to the temperature of a liquid as it evaporates?a. It increases. c. It does not change.b. It decreases. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 125. Which are the first particles to evaporate from a liquid?a. particles with the lowest kinetic energyb. particles with the highest kinetic energyc. particles below the surface of the liquidd. All particles evaporate at the same rate.

____ 126. What happens to the rate of evaporation of a liquid as the liquid is cooled?a. It increases. c. It does not change.b. It decreases. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 127. Why does a liquid's rate of evaporation increase when the liquid is heated?a. More molecules have enough energy to overcome the attractive forces holding them in the

liquid.b. The average kinetic energy of the liquid decreases.c. The surface area of the liquid is reduced.d. The potential energy of the liquid increases.

____ 128. Which of the following will evaporate the fastest?a. water at 0 Cb. water at 20 Cc. water at 40 Cd. All samples will evaporate at the same rate.

____ 129. In a dynamic equilibrium between the liquid state and the gas state, what is true about the rate of evaporation?a. It is greater than the rate of condensation.b. It is less than the rate of condensation.

c. It is equal to the rate of condensation.d. The rate of evaporation cannot be determined.

____ 130. If a liquid is sealed in a container and kept at constant temperature, how does its vapor pressure change over time?a. It continues to steadily increase.b. It increases at first, then remains constant.c. It increases at first, then decreases.d. It continues to steadily decrease.

____ 131. An increase in the temperature of a contained liquid ____.a. has no effect on the kinetic energy of the liquidb. causes the vapor pressure above the liquid to decreasec. causes fewer particles to escape from the surface of the liquidd. causes the vapor pressure above the liquid to increase

____ 132. If energy is added to a boiling liquid, what happens to the temperature of the liquid?a. It increases. c. It does not change.b. It decreases. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 133. When the vapor pressure of a liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure, the liquid ____.a. has no observable changes. c. evaporates.b. boils vigorously. d. begins to boil.

____ 134. What is the pressure when a liquid is boiling at its normal boiling point?a. 0 kPa c. 202 kPab. 101.3 kPa d. 505 kPa

____ 135. Water could be made to boil at 105 C instead of 100 C by ____.a. adding a lot of energy to the water c. decreasing the external pressureb. increasing the external pressure d. taking the sample to a higher altitude

____ 136. When the external pressure is 505 kPa, what is the vapor pressure of water at its boiling point?a. 0 kPa c. 505 kPab. 101.3 kPa d. 1010 kPa

____ 137. The normal boiling point of chloroform, which has a higher vapor pressure than water at 100 C, is ____.a. higher than the normal boiling point of waterb. lower than the normal boiling point of waterc. the same as the normal boiling point of waterd. unable to be measured

____ 138. Which of the following best describes the motion of the particles in a piece of steel?a. None are moving. c. All are moving.b. A few are moving. d. Most are moving.

____ 139. Compared to the melting points of ionic compounds, the melting points of molecular solids tend to be ____.a. similar c. lowerb. unpredictable d. higher

____ 140. Most solids ____.a. are dense and difficult to compress c. are amorphousb. are able to flow d. have a disorderly structure

____ 141. Crystals are classified into how many different crystal systems?a. 4 c. 6b. 5 d. 7

____ 142. Crystals are characterized by particular patterns that repeat in how many dimensions?a. one dimension only c. three dimensions onlyb. two dimensions only d. The patterns do not repeat.

____ 143. The smallest group of particles in a crystal that retains the shape of the crystal is called the ____.a. cube c. cageb. unit cell d. crystal lattice

____ 144. How do crystal systems differ?a. in the angles between faces only

b. in the number of edges of equal length onlyc. in the angles between faces and the number of edges of equal lengthd. Crystal systems do not differ.

____ 145. The escape of molecules from the surface of a liquid is known as ____.a. condensation c. evaporationb. boiling d. sublimation

____ 146. Which of the following elements has the ability to undergo sublimation?a. oxygen c. sodiumb. carbon d. iodine

____ 147. The direct change of a substance from a solid to a gas is called ____.a. evaporation c. condensationb. sublimation d. solidification

____ 148. Which of the following is an example of a phase?a. pressure c. temperatureb. water vapor d. triple point

____ 149. How are conditions of pressure and temperature, at which two phases coexist in equilibrium, shown on a phase diagram?a. by a line separating the phasesb. by the endpoints of the line segment separating the phasesc. by the planar regions between lines in the diagramd. by a triple point on the diagram

____ 150. How does the surface tension of water compare with the surface tensions of most other liquids?a. It is lower.b. It is about the same.c. It is higher.d. It is higher when a surfactant is added.

____ 151. What causes water's low vapor pressure?a. dispersion forces c. hydrogen bondingb. covalent bonding d. ionic attractions

____ 152. What is the shape of the water molecule?a. linear c. trigonal planarb. tetrahedral d. bent

____ 153. Which of the following is primarily responsible for holding water molecules together in the liquid state?a. dispersion forces c. ionic bondsb. hydrogen bonds d. polar covalent bonds

____ 154. Which atom in a water molecule has the greatest electronegativity?a. one of the hydrogen atomsb. both hydrogen atomsc. the oxygen atomd. There is no difference in the electronegativities of the atoms in a water molecule.

____ 155. The bonds between adjacent water molecules are called ____.a. hydrogen bonds c. nonpolar covalent bondsb. ionic bonds d. polar covalent bonds

____ 156. What is primarily responsible for the surface tension of water?a. dispersion forces c. ionic attractionsb. hydrogen bonding d. covalent bonding

____ 157. Which of the following is NOT a result of surface tension in water?a. Surface area is maximized.b. Water has an unusually low vapor pressure.c. Surface appears to have a "skin."d. Drops tend to become spherical.

____ 158. Surface tension ____.a. is the inward force which tends to minimize the surface area of a liquidb. may be increased by detergentsc. is decreased by hydrogen bondingd. causes beads of water to spread out

____ 159. The bonds between the hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a water molecule are ____.a. hydrogen bonds c. nonpolar covalent bondsb. ionic bonds d. polar covalent bonds

____ 160. How much heat is absorbed when 6.30 g of water melts?a. 21 kJ c. 2.10 kJb. 0.210 kJ d. 21.0 J

____ 161. The fact that ice is less dense than water is related to the fact that ____.a. the molecular structure of ice is much less orderly than that of waterb. the molecules of ice are held to each other by covalent bondingc. ice has a molecular structure in which water molecules are arranged randomlyd. ice has a molecular structure that is an open framework held together by hydrogen bonds

____ 162. Which is responsible for the high thermal energy required to melt ice?a. covalent bonding c. hydrogen bondingb. dispersion forces d. ionic attractions

____ 163. What is the term for the dissolving medium in a solution?a. solvent c. solvatorb. solute d. emulsifier

____ 164. A solution has which of the following properties?a. Gravity separates its parts.b. The top layer is different in composition than the bottom layer.c. The average diameter of its solute particles usually is less than 1 nm.d. A filter can remove the solute.

____ 165. Which of the following substances is the most soluble in water?a. sodium chloride c. bromineb. methane d. carbon

____ 166. What occurs in solvation?a. Solute ions separate from solvent molecules.b. Solvent molecules surround solute ions.c. Solvent molecules bind covalently to solute molecules.d. Ionic compounds are formed.

____ 167. Which of the following substances dissolves most readily in gasoline?a. CH c. NHb. HCl d. NaBr

____ 168. A solution is a mixture ____.a. from which the solute can be filteredb. that has the same properties throughoutc. that is heterogeneousd. in which a solid solute is always dissolved in a liquid solvent

____ 169. Predict which one of the following compounds would be insoluble in water.a. NaCl c. CFb. HCl d. CuSO

____ 170. Why are two nonpolar substances able to dissolve in each other?a. They have similar attractive forces in their molecules.b. They combine to produce a polar substance.c. There is no attractive force between them.d. Nonpolar substances cannot dissolve in each other.

____ 171. Which of these would you expect to be soluble in the nonpolar solvent carbon disulfide, CS ?a. c. NaClb. CI d. SnS

____ 172. Which of the following substances dissolves most readily in water?a. BaSO c. NHb. CaCO d. CH

____ 173. What type of compound is always an electrolyte?a. polar covalent c. ionicb. nonpolar covalent d. network solid

____ 174. An electric current can be conducted by ____.a. methane gas c. a salt solutionb. a sugar solution d. rubbing alcohol

____ 175. Which of the following compounds conducts electricity only in the molten state?a. sodium bromide c. calcium hydroxideb. magnesium sulfate d. barium sulfate

____ 176. Which of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte?a. sodium bromide c. copper chlorideb. magnesium sulfate d. carbon tetrachloride

____ 177. Which of the following compounds is an electrolyte?a. rubbing alcohol c. carbon tetrachlorideb. sugar d. sodium hydroxide

____ 178. Which of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte when pure, but an electrolyte when dissolved in water?a. rubbing alcohol c. carbon tetrachlorideb. sugar d. ammonia

____ 179. Which of the following are weak electrolytes in water?a. ionic compounds that partially dissociate in waterb. ionic compounds that are solublec. polar compounds that ionized. nonpolar compounds that do not ionize

____ 180. Which of the following compounds is a weak electrolyte?a. NaBr c. KOHb. HBr d. NH

____ 181. Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?a. ammonia c. sugarb. acetic acid d. potassium sulfate

____ 182. Which of the following substances is NOT an electrolyte?a. KCl c. LiClb. CCl d.

____ 183. Which of the following is NOT a common hydrate?a. Epsom salt c. sugarb. borax d. alum

____ 184. Which symbol is used to connect the formula of the compound with the number of water molecules in a hydrate?a. a parenthesis c. a multiplication symbolb. an asterisk d. a dot

____ 185. What is another term for the water of hydration?a. water of solvation c. water of sublimationb. water of crystallization d. water of efflorescence

____ 186. Which compound changes color when it becomes a hydrate?a. silicon dioxide c. copper(II) sulfateb. sodium chloride d. potassium chloride

____ 187. A hydrated crystal that has a water vapor pressure greater than the water vapor pressure of air is called ____.a. a desiccant c. hygroscopicb. deliquescent d. efflorescent

____ 188. A crystal that absorbs water vapor from the air is ____.a. aqueous c. hygroscopicb. deliquescent d. efflorescent

____ 189. Which of the following mixture types is characterized by the settling of particles?a. solution c. colloidb. suspension d. hydrate

____ 190. Which of the following mixture types can be filtered to remove solute?a. suspensions only c. suspensions and colloidsb. colloids only d. suspensions and solutions

____ 191. Which of the following materials is NOT a colloid?a. glue c. smokeb. alloy d. muddy water

____ 192. Which of the following mixtures is NOT a colloid?a. fog c. paintb. milk d. sugar water

____ 193. An emulsion is which type of mixture?a. suspension c. solutionb. colloid d. gaseous

____ 194. The solute in a colloidal suspension is called the ____.a. dissolving phase c. dispensing phaseb. dispersed phase d. dispersion medium

____ 195. What is the size range of particles in a colloid?a. more than 1000 nm c. between 1 nm and 1000 nmb. between 100 nm and 1000 nm d. between 1 nm and 10 nm

____ 196. Which of the following types of mixtures exhibit the Tyndall effect?a. suspensions and colloids c. colloids and solutionsb. suspensions and solutions d. colloids only

____ 197. Which of these statements is correct?a. Particles can be filtered from a suspension.b. A solution is heterogeneous.c. A colloidal system does not exhibit the Tyndall effect.d. The particles in a colloidal system are affected by gravity.

____ 198. An emulsion is a colloidal dispersion of a ____.a. solid in a liquid c. gas in a liquidb. liquid in a liquid d. liquid in a gas

____ 199. An emulsifying agent is typically characterized by having ____.a. one polar end c. two polar endsb. one nonpolar end d. one polar end and one nonpolar end

____ 200. What causes Brownian motion in colloids?a. molecules of the dispersion medium colliding with dispersed phase particlesb. coagulation of particles of the dispersed phasec. erratic flashes of lightd. There is no Brownian motion in colloids.

____ 201. Which of the following usually makes a substance dissolve faster in a solvent?a. agitating the solutionb. increasing the particle size of the solutec. lowering the temperatured. decreasing the number of particles

____ 202. What is the maximum amount of KCl that can dissolve in 200 g of water?(The solubility of KCl is 34 g/100 g H2O at 20 C.)a. 17 g c. 68 gb. 34 g d. 6800 g

____ 203. What is the solubility of silver nitrate if only 11.1 g can dissolve in 5.0 g of water at 20 C?a.

at 20 Cc.

at 20 C

b. at 20 C

d. at 20 C

____ 204. Which of the following expressions is generally used for solubility?a. grams of solute per 100 grams of solventb. grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solvent

c. grams of solute per 100 grams of solutiond. grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solution

____ 205. Which of the following pairs of factors affects the solubility of a particular substance?a. temperature and the nature of solute and solventb. temperature and degree of mixingc. particle size and degree of mixingd. particle size and temperature

____ 206. If a crystal added to an aqueous solution causes many particles to come out of the solution, the original solution was ____.a. unsaturated c. an emulsionb. saturated d. supersaturated

____ 207. Which of the following substances is less soluble in hot water than in cold water?a. CO c. NaNOb. NaCl d. KBr

____ 208. Which of the following occurs as temperature increases?a. Solubility decreases. c. Solubility remains the same.b. Solubility increases. d. Molarity doubles.

____ 209. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is ____.a. proportional to the square root of the pressure of the gas above the liquidb. directly proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquidc. inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquidd. unrelated to the pressure of the gas above the liquid

____ 210. If the solubility of a particular solute is at 20 C, which of the following solution concentrations

would represent a supersaturated aqueous solution of that solute?a.

at 25 Cc.

at 20 C

b. at 15 C

d.at 20 C

____ 211. What happens to the solubility of a gas, in a liquid, if the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid decreases?a. The solubility decreases. c. The solubility remains the same.b. The solubility increases. d. The solubility cannot be determined.

____ 212. To increase the solubility of a gas at constant temperature from 1.20 g/L, at 1.4 atm, to 2.3 g/L, the pressure would have to be increased to ____.a. 0.37 atm c. 1.37 atmb. 0.7 atm d. 2.7 atm

____ 213. If the solubility of a gas in water is 4.0 g/L when the pressure of the gas above the water is 3.0 atm, what is the pressure of the gas above the water when the solubility of the gas is 1.0 g/L?a. 0.75 atm c. 4.0 atmb. 1.3 atm d. 12 atm

____ 214. In a concentrated solution there is ____.a. no solvent c. a small amount of soluteb. a large amount of solute d. no solute

____ 215. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 6 moles of solute in 2 liters of solution?a. 6M c. 7Mb. 12M d. 3M

____ 216. In which of the following is the solution concentration expressed in terms of molarity?a. c.

b. d.

____ 217. Which of the following operations yields the number of moles of solute?a. molarity moles of solution c. molarity mass of solutionb. molarity liters of solution d. moles of solution volume of solution

____ 218. What is the molarity of a solution containing 7.0 moles of solute in 569 mL of solution?a. 81M c. 12Mb. 0.081M d. 4.0M

____ 219. What is the molarity of 200 mL of solution in which 2.0 moles of sodium bromide is dissolved?a. 2.0M c. 0.40Mb. 10M d. 4.0M

____ 220. What is the number of moles of solute in 250 mL of a 0.4M solution?a. 0.1 mol c. 0.62 molb. 0.16 mol d. 1.6 mol

____ 221. What is the molarity of a solution containing 56 grams of solute in 959 mL of solution? (molar mass of solute = 26 g/mol)a. 1.5M c. 2.1Mb. 2.2M d. 0.0022M

____ 222. What mass of sucrose, C H O , is needed to make 500.0 mL of a 0.200M solution?a. 34.2 g c. 17.1 gb. 100 g d. 68.4 g

____ 223. What mass of Na SO is needed to make 2.5 L of 2.0M solution? (Na = 23 g; S = 32 g; O = 16 g)a. 178 g c. 356 gb. 284 g d. 710 g

____ 224. What does NOT change when a solution is diluted by the addition of solvent?a. volume of solvent c. number of moles of soluteb. mass of solvent d. molarity of solution

____ 225. How many mL of a 2.0M NaBr solution are needed to make 200.0 mL of 0.50M NaBr?a. 25 mL c. 100 mLb. 50 mL d. 150 mL

____ 226. The volume of 6.00M HCl needed to make 319 mL of 6.80M HCl is ____.a. 0.128 mL c. 281 mLb. 7.8 mL d. 362 mL

____ 227. If 2.0 mL of 6.0M HCl is used to make a 500.0-mL aqueous solution, what is the molarity of the dilute solution?a. 0.024M c. 0.30Mb. 0.24M d. 0.83M

____ 228. To 225 mL of a 0.80M solution of KI, a student adds enough water to make 1.0 L of a more dilute KI solution. What is the molarity of the new solution?a. 180M c. 0.35Mb. 2.8M d. 0.18M

____ 229. If the percent by volume is 2.0% and the volume of solution is 250 mL, what is the volume of solute in solution?a. 0.5 mL c. 5.0 mLb. 1.25 mL d. 12.5 mL

____ 230. In which of the following is concentration expressed in percent by volume?a. 10% (v/v) c. 10% (m/m)b. 10% (m/v) d. 10%

____ 231. If the percent (mass/mass) for a solute is 4% and the mass of the solution is 200 g, what is the mass of solute in solution?a. 8.0 g c. 80 gb. 50 g d. 800 g

____ 232. The volume of alcohol present in 620 mL of a 40.0% (v/v) solution of alcohol is ____.a. 372 mL c. 248 mLb. 40.0 mL d. 580 mL

____ 233. How many milliliters of alcohol are in 167 mL of an 85.0% (v/v) alcohol solution?a. 252 mL c. 145 mLb. 228 mL d. 142 mL

____ 234. In which of the following is concentration expressed in percent by volume?a.

100%c.

100%

b. 100%

d. 100%

____ 235. Which of the following is NOT a colligative property of a solution?a. boiling point elevation c. vapor pressure loweringb. supersaturation d. freezing point depression

____ 236. Colligative properties depend upon the ____.a. nature of the solute c. number of solute particles in a solutionb. nature of the solvent d. freezing point of a solute

____ 237. A solute depresses the freezing point because the solute ____.a. is colder than the solventb. disrupts crystal formation of the solventc. tends to sink to the bottom of the solutiond. has bigger molecules than the solvent

____ 238. The molality of a solution containing 8.1 moles of solute in 4847 g of solvent is ____.a. 39m c. 0.17mb. 1.7m d. 598m

____ 239. Which of the following is an expression of molality?a. c.

b. d.

____ 240. What is the mole fraction of ethanol in a solution of 3.00 moles of ethanol and 5.00 moles of water?a. 0.375 c. 1.67b. 0.6 d. 15

____ 241. What is the molality of a solution containing 8.0 grams of solute in 0.50 kg of solvent? (molar mass of solute = 24 g)a. 0.67m c. 1.67mb. 4m d. 0.17m

____ 242. What is the number of kilograms of solvent in a 0.70 molal solution containing 5.0 grams of solute? (molar mass of solute = 30 g)a. 0.24 kg c. 0.11 kgb. 2.4 kg d. 1.1 kg

____ 243. To which of the following variables is change in boiling point directly proportional?a. molarity of solution c. percent by volume of solutionb. molality of solution d. percent (mass/mass) of solution

____ 244. What is the freezing point of a solution of 0.5 mol of LiBr in 500 mL of water? (K = 1.86 C/m)a. –1.86 C c. –5.58 Cb. –3.72 C d. –7.44 C

____ 245. The freezing point of a solution that contains 0.550 moles of NaI in 615 g of water is ____. (K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)a. 1.66 C c. 3.33 Cb. –1.66 C d. –3.33 C

____ 246. What is the boiling point of a solution that contains 3 moles of KBr in 2000 g of water? (K = 0.512 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)a. 97 C c. 101.4 Cb. 99.7 C d. 103 C

____ 247. What is the molality of a solution of water and KCl if the freezing point of the solution is –3 C? (K = 1.86C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)a. 0.6m c. 0.8mb. 1.2m d. 6m

____ 248. What is the boiling point of a solution of 0.1 mole of glucose in 200 mL of water? (K = 0.512 C/m)a. 100.06 C c. 100.26 Cb. 100.13 C d. 100.5 C

____ 249. What is the approximate molar mass of a molecular solute if 300 g of the solute in 1000 g of water causes the solution to have a boiling point of 101 C? (K = 0.512 C/m; K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)a. 15 amu c. 150 amub. 30 amu d. 300 amu

Final Exam Review- Quarter 4

Multiple ChoiceIdentify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Why is a gas easier to compress than a liquid or a solid?a. Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of liquid does.b. Its volume increases more under pressure than an equal volume of solid does.c. The space between gas particles is much less than the space between liquid or solid

particles.d. The volume of a gas’s particles is small compared to the overall volume of the gas.

____ 2. Why does the pressure inside a container of gas increase if more gas is added to the container?a. There is an increase in the number of collisions between particles and the walls of the

container.b. There is an increase in the temperature of the gas.c. There is a decrease in the volume of the gas.d. There is an increase in the force of the collisions between the particles and the walls of the

container.____ 3. How does the gas propellant move when an aerosol can is used?

a. from a region of high pressure to a region of lower pressureb. from a region of high pressure to a region of equally high pressurec. from a region of low pressure to a region of higher pressured. from a region of low pressure to a region of equally low pressure

____ 4. If the volume of a container of gas is reduced, what will happen to the pressure inside the container?a. The pressure will increase.b. The pressure will not change.c. The pressure will decrease.d. The pressure depends on the type of gas.

____ 5. If a balloon is squeezed, what happens to the pressure of the gas inside the balloon?a. It increases.b. It stays the same.c. It decreases.d. The pressure depends on the type of gas in the balloon.

____ 6. What happens to the temperature of a gas when it is compressed?a. The temperature increases.b. The temperature does not change.c. The temperature decreases.d. The temperature becomes unpredictable.

____ 7. As the temperature of the gas in a balloon decreases, which of the following occurs?a. The volume of the balloon increases.b. The average kinetic energy of the gas decreases.c. The gas pressure inside the balloon increases.d. all of the above

____ 8. What happens to the pressure of a gas inside a container if the temperature of the gas decreases?a. The pressure increases. c. The pressure decreases.b. The pressure does not change. d. The pressure cannot be predicted.

____ 9. If 4 moles of gas are added to a container that already holds 1 mole of gas, how will the pressure change inside the container?a. The pressure will be five times higher.b. The pressure will double.c. The pressure will be four times higher.d. The pressure will not change.

____ 10. Why does air escape from a tire when the tire valve is opened?a. The pressure outside the tire is lower than the pressure inside the tire.b. The pressure outside the tire is greater than the pressure inside the tire.c. The temperature is higher outside the tire than inside the tire.d. There are more particles of air outside the tire than inside the tire.

____ 11. Which of these changes would NOT cause an increase in the pressure of a contained gas?a. The volume of the container is increased.b. More of the gas is added to the container.c. The temperature is increased.d. The average kinetic energy of the gas in increased.

____ 12. When the Kelvin temperature of an enclosed gas doubles, the particles of the gas ____.a. move fasterb. strike the walls of the container with less forcec. decrease in average kinetic energyd. decrease in volume

____ 13. The volume of a gas is doubled while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change?a. It is reduced by one half.b. It does not change.c. It is doubled.d. It varies depending on the type of gas.

____ 14. The volume of a gas is reduced from 4 L to 0.5 L while the temperature is held constant. How does the gas pressure change?a. It increases by a factor of four. c. It increases by a factor of eight.b. It decreases by a factor of eight. d. It increases by a factor of two.

____ 15. Boyle's law states that ____.a. the volume of a gas varies inversely with pressureb. the volume of a gas varies directly with pressurec. the temperature of a gas varies inversely with pressured. the temperature of a gas varies directly with pressure

____ 16. When the temperature and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?a. the sum of the pressure and volumeb. the difference of the pressure and volumec. the product of the pressure and volumed. the ratio of the pressure and volume

____ 17. Charles's law states that ____.a. the pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvinsb. the volume of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvinsc. the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvinsd. the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvins

____ 18. If a balloon is heated, what happens to the volume of the air in the balloon if the pressure is constant?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be predicted.

____ 19. When the pressure and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?a. the sum of the volume and temperature in kelvinsb. the difference of the volume and temperature in kelvinsc. the product of the volume and temperature in kelvinsd. the ratio of the volume and temperature in kelvins

____ 20. If a balloon is heated, what happens to the pressure of the air inside the balloon if the volume remains constant?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be predicted.

____ 21. When the volume and number of particles of a gas are constant, which of the following is also constant?a. the sum of the pressure and temperature in kelvinsb. the difference of the pressure and temperature in kelvinsc. the product of the pressure and temperature in kelvinsd. the ratio of the pressure and temperature in kelvins

____ 22. As the temperature of a fixed volume of a gas increases, the pressure will ____.a. vary inversely c. not changeb. decrease d. increase

____ 23. If a sealed syringe is plunged into cold water, in which direction will the syringe piston slide?a. in c. No movement will occur.b. out d. The direction cannot be predicted.

____ 24. What happens when a piston is used to decrease the volume of a contained gas?a. Fewer gas particles exert a force on the piston.b. The piston’s pressure on the gas becomes greater than the pressure exerted by the gas on

the piston.c. Gas particles become compressed.d. Gas particles leak out of the container.

____ 25. A gas occupies a volume of 2.4 L at 14.1 kPa. What volume will the gas occupy at 84.6 kPa?a. 497 L c. 14 Lb. 2.5 L d. 0.40 L

____ 26. If a sealed syringe is heated, in which direction will the syringe plunger move?a. out c. The plunger will not move.b. in d. The direction cannot be predicted.

____ 27. A sample of gas occupies 17 mL at –112 C. What volume does the sample occupy at 70 C?a. 10.6 mL c. 36mLb. 27 mL d. 8.0mL

____ 28. In general, for a gas at a constant volume, ____.a. the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvinsb. the volume of the gas is inversely proportional to its temperature in kelvinsc. the volume of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvinsd. the pressure of the gas is directly proportional to its temperature in kelvins

____ 29. The combined gas law relates which of the following?a. pressure and volume only c. volume and temperature onlyb. temperature and pressure only d. temperature, pressure, and volume

____ 30. If a balloon containing 3000 L of gas at 39 C and 99 kPa rises to an altitude where the pressure is 45.5 kPa and the temperature is 16 C, the volume of the balloon under these new conditions would be calculated using the following conversion factor ratios: ____.a.

3000 L c.

3000 L

b.3000 L

d.3000 L

____ 31. What does the ideal gas law allow a scientist to calculate that the other gas laws do not?a. number of moles c. volumeb. pressure d. temperature

____ 32. At a certain temperature and pressure, 0.20 mol of carbon dioxide has a volume of 3.1 L. A 3.1-L sample of hydrogen at the same temperature and pressure ____.a. has the same massb. contains the same number of atomsc. has a higher densityd. contains the same number of molecules

____ 33. How is the ideal gas law usually written?

a. = R

c. PV = nRT

b. = nR

d.P =

____ 34. Which law can be used to calculate the number of moles of a contained gas?a. Boyle’s law c. ideal gas lawb. combined gas law d. Charles’s law

____ 35. Which of the following is constant for 1 mole of any ideal gas?a. PVT c.

b. d.

____ 36. At high pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions?a. It is much greater. c. There is no difference.b. It is much less. d. It depends on the type of gas.

____ 37. At low temperatures and pressures, how does the volume of a real gas compare with the volume of an ideal gas under the same conditions?a. It is greater. c. There is no difference.b. It is less. d. It depends on the type of gas.

____ 38. An ideal gas CANNOT be ____.a. condensed c. heatedb. cooled d. compressed

____ 39. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure is the behavior of real gases most like that of ideal gases?a. low temperature and low pressure c. high temperature and low pressureb. low temperature and high pressure d. high temperature and high pressure

____ 40. If the atmospheric pressure on Mt. Everest is one-third the atmospheric pressure at sea level, the partial pressure of oxygen on Everest is ____.a. one-sixth its pressure at sea level c. one-half its pressure at sea levelb. one-third its pressure at sea level d. equal to its pressure at sea level

____ 41. What happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in a sample of air if the temperature is increased?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 42. If oxygen is removed from a sample of air as iron rusts, what happens to the partial pressure of oxygen in the air?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 43. If oxygen is removed from a sample of air as iron rusts, what happens to the total pressure of the air?a. It increases. c. It decreases.b. It stays the same. d. The change cannot be determined.

____ 44. A breathing mixture used by deep-sea divers contains helium, oxygen, and carbon dioxide. What is the partial pressure of oxygen at 101.4 kPa if = 82.5 kPa and = 0.4 kPa?a. 82.9 kPa c. 18.5 kPab. 19.3 kPa d. 101.0 kPa

____ 45. When a container is filled with 3.00 moles of H , 2.00 moles of O , and 1.00 mole of N , the pressure in the container is 768 kPa. What is the partial pressure of O ?a. 256 kPa c. 128 kPab. 128 kPa d. 192 kPa

____ 46. A box with a volume of 22.4 L contains 1.0 mol of nitrogen and 2.0 mol of hydrogen at 0 C. Which of the following statements is true?a. The total pressure in the box is 101 kPa.b. The partial pressures of N and H are equal.

c. The total pressure is 202 kPad. The partial pressure of N is 101 kPa.

____ 47. If the volume of a container of air is reduced by one-half, what happens to the partial pressure of oxygen within the container?a. It is reduced by one-half. c. It is doubled.b. It does not change. d. It is reduced by one-fourth.

____ 48. The tendency of molecules to move toward areas of lower concentration is called ____.a. suffusion c. effusionb. suspension d. diffusion

____ 49. Which of the following gases will effuse the most rapidly?a. bromine c. ammoniab. chlorine d. hydrogen

____ 50. Which of the following atoms would have the greatest velocity if each atom had the same kinetic energy?a. bromine c. ammoniab. chlorine d. hydrogen

____ 51. Which of the following gases is the best choice for inflating a balloon that must remain inflated for a long period of time?a. argon c. hydrogenb. oxygen d. neon

____ 52. How does the surface tension of water compare with the surface tensions of most other liquids?a. It is lower.b. It is about the same.c. It is higher.d. It is higher when a surfactant is added.

____ 53. What causes water's low vapor pressure?a. dispersion forces c. hydrogen bondingb. covalent bonding d. ionic attractions

____ 54. What is the shape of the water molecule?a. linear c. trigonal planarb. tetrahedral d. bent

____ 55. Which of the following is primarily responsible for holding water molecules together in the liquid state?a. dispersion forces c. ionic bondsb. hydrogen bonds d. polar covalent bonds

____ 56. Which atom in a water molecule has the greatest electronegativity?a. one of the hydrogen atomsb. both hydrogen atomsc. the oxygen atomd. There is no difference in the electronegativities of the atoms in a water molecule.

____ 57. The bonds between adjacent water molecules are called ____.a. hydrogen bonds c. nonpolar covalent bondsb. ionic bonds d. polar covalent bonds

____ 58. What is primarily responsible for the surface tension of water?a. dispersion forces c. ionic attractionsb. hydrogen bonding d. covalent bonding

____ 59. Which of the following is NOT a result of surface tension in water?a. Surface area is maximized.b. Water has an unusually low vapor pressure.c. Surface appears to have a "skin."d. Drops tend to become spherical.

____ 60. Surface tension ____.a. is the inward force which tends to minimize the surface area of a liquidb. may be increased by detergentsc. is decreased by hydrogen bonding

d. causes beads of water to spread out____ 61. The bonds between the hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a water molecule are ____.

a. hydrogen bonds c. nonpolar covalent bondsb. ionic bonds d. polar covalent bonds

____ 62. How much heat is absorbed when 6.30 g of water melts?a. 21 kJ c. 2.10 kJb. 0.210 kJ d. 21.0 J

____ 63. The fact that ice is less dense than water is related to the fact that ____.a. the molecular structure of ice is much less orderly than that of waterb. the molecules of ice are held to each other by covalent bondingc. ice has a molecular structure in which water molecules are arranged randomlyd. ice has a molecular structure that is an open framework held together by hydrogen bonds

____ 64. Which is responsible for the high thermal energy required to melt ice?a. covalent bonding c. hydrogen bondingb. dispersion forces d. ionic attractions

____ 65. What is the term for the dissolving medium in a solution?a. solvent c. solvatorb. solute d. emulsifier

____ 66. A solution has which of the following properties?a. Gravity separates its parts.b. The top layer is different in composition than the bottom layer.c. The average diameter of its solute particles usually is less than 1 nm.d. A filter can remove the solute.

____ 67. Which of the following substances is the most soluble in water?a. sodium chloride c. bromineb. methane d. carbon

____ 68. What occurs in solvation?a. Solute ions separate from solvent molecules.b. Solvent molecules surround solute ions.c. Solvent molecules bind covalently to solute molecules.d. Ionic compounds are formed.

____ 69. Which of the following substances dissolves most readily in gasoline?a. CH c. NHb. HCl d. NaBr

____ 70. A solution is a mixture ____.a. from which the solute can be filteredb. that has the same properties throughoutc. that is heterogeneousd. in which a solid solute is always dissolved in a liquid solvent

____ 71. Predict which one of the following compounds would be insoluble in water.a. NaCl c. CFb. HCl d. CuSO

____ 72. Why are two nonpolar substances able to dissolve in each other?a. They have similar attractive forces in their molecules.b. They combine to produce a polar substance.c. There is no attractive force between them.d. Nonpolar substances cannot dissolve in each other.

____ 73. Which of these would you expect to be soluble in the nonpolar solvent carbon disulfide, CS ?a. c. NaClb. CI d. SnS

____ 74. Which of the following substances dissolves most readily in water?a. BaSO c. NHb. CaCO d. CH

____ 75. What type of compound is always an electrolyte?a. polar covalent c. ionicb. nonpolar covalent d. network solid

____ 76. An electric current can be conducted by ____.a. methane gas c. a salt solutionb. a sugar solution d. rubbing alcohol

____ 77. Which of the following compounds conducts electricity only in the molten state?a. sodium bromide c. calcium hydroxideb. magnesium sulfate d. barium sulfate

____ 78. Which of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte?a. sodium bromide c. copper chlorideb. magnesium sulfate d. carbon tetrachloride

____ 79. Which of the following compounds is an electrolyte?a. rubbing alcohol c. carbon tetrachlorideb. sugar d. sodium hydroxide

____ 80. Which of the following compounds is a nonelectrolyte when pure, but an electrolyte when dissolved in water?a. rubbing alcohol c. carbon tetrachlorideb. sugar d. ammonia

____ 81. Which of the following are weak electrolytes in water?a. ionic compounds that partially dissociate in waterb. ionic compounds that are solublec. polar compounds that ionized. nonpolar compounds that do not ionize

____ 82. Which of the following compounds is a weak electrolyte?a. NaBr c. KOHb. HBr d. NH

____ 83. Which of the following compounds is a strong electrolyte?a. ammonia c. sugarb. acetic acid d. potassium sulfate

____ 84. Which of the following substances is NOT an electrolyte?a. KCl c. LiClb. CCl d.

____ 85. Which of the following is NOT a common hydrate?a. Epsom salt c. sugarb. borax d. alum

____ 86. Which symbol is used to connect the formula of the compound with the number of water molecules in a hydrate?a. a parenthesis c. a multiplication symbolb. an asterisk d. a dot

____ 87. What is another term for the water of hydration?a. water of solvation c. water of sublimationb. water of crystallization d. water of efflorescence

____ 88. Which compound changes color when it becomes a hydrate?a. silicon dioxide c. copper(II) sulfateb. sodium chloride d. potassium chloride

____ 89. A hydrated crystal that has a water vapor pressure greater than the water vapor pressure of air is called ____.a. a desiccant c. hygroscopicb. deliquescent d. efflorescent

____ 90. A crystal that absorbs water vapor from the air is ____.a. aqueous c. hygroscopicb. deliquescent d. efflorescent

____ 91. Which of the following mixture types is characterized by the settling of particles?a. solution c. colloidb. suspension d. hydrate

____ 92. Which of the following mixture types can be filtered to remove solute?a. suspensions only c. suspensions and colloidsb. colloids only d. suspensions and solutions

____ 93. Which of the following materials is NOT a colloid?a. glue c. smokeb. alloy d. muddy water

____ 94. Which of the following mixtures is NOT a colloid?a. fog c. paintb. milk d. sugar water

____ 95. An emulsion is which type of mixture?a. suspension c. solutionb. colloid d. gaseous

____ 96. The solute in a colloidal suspension is called the ____.a. dissolving phase c. dispensing phaseb. dispersed phase d. dispersion medium

____ 97. What is the size range of particles in a colloid?a. more than 1000 nm c. between 1 nm and 1000 nmb. between 100 nm and 1000 nm d. between 1 nm and 10 nm

____ 98. Which of the following types of mixtures exhibit the Tyndall effect?a. suspensions and colloids c. colloids and solutionsb. suspensions and solutions d. colloids only

____ 99. Which of these statements is correct?a. Particles can be filtered from a suspension.b. A solution is heterogeneous.c. A colloidal system does not exhibit the Tyndall effect.d. The particles in a colloidal system are affected by gravity.

____ 100. An emulsion is a colloidal dispersion of a ____.a. solid in a liquid c. gas in a liquidb. liquid in a liquid d. liquid in a gas

____ 101. An emulsifying agent is typically characterized by having ____.a. one polar end c. two polar endsb. one nonpolar end d. one polar end and one nonpolar end

____ 102. What causes Brownian motion in colloids?a. molecules of the dispersion medium colliding with dispersed phase particlesb. coagulation of particles of the dispersed phasec. erratic flashes of lightd. There is no Brownian motion in colloids.

____ 103. Which of the following usually makes a substance dissolve faster in a solvent?a. agitating the solutionb. increasing the particle size of the solutec. lowering the temperatured. decreasing the number of particles

____ 104. What is the maximum amount of KCl that can dissolve in 200 g of water?(The solubility of KCl is 34 g/100 g H2O at 20 C.)a. 17 g c. 68 gb. 34 g d. 6800 g

____ 105. What is the solubility of silver nitrate if only 11.1 g can dissolve in 5.0 g of water at 20 C?a.

at 20 Cc.

at 20 C

b. at 20 C

d. at 20 C

____ 106. Which of the following expressions is generally used for solubility?a. grams of solute per 100 grams of solventb. grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solvent

c. grams of solute per 100 grams of solutiond. grams of solute per 100 milliliters of solution

____ 107. Which of the following pairs of factors affects the solubility of a particular substance?a. temperature and the nature of solute and solventb. temperature and degree of mixingc. particle size and degree of mixingd. particle size and temperature

____ 108. If a crystal added to an aqueous solution causes many particles to come out of the solution, the original solution was ____.a. unsaturated c. an emulsionb. saturated d. supersaturated

____ 109. Which of the following substances is less soluble in hot water than in cold water?a. CO c. NaNOb. NaCl d. KBr

____ 110. Which of the following occurs as temperature increases?a. Solubility decreases. c. Solubility remains the same.b. Solubility increases. d. Molarity doubles.

____ 111. The solubility of a gas in a liquid is ____.a. proportional to the square root of the pressure of the gas above the liquidb. directly proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquidc. inversely proportional to the pressure of the gas above the liquidd. unrelated to the pressure of the gas above the liquid

____ 112. If the solubility of a particular solute is at 20 C, which of the following solution concentrations

would represent a supersaturated aqueous solution of that solute?a.

at 25 Cc.

at 20 C

b. at 15 C

d.at 20 C

____ 113. What happens to the solubility of a gas, in a liquid, if the partial pressure of the gas above the liquid decreases?a. The solubility decreases. c. The solubility remains the same.b. The solubility increases. d. The solubility cannot be determined.

____ 114. To increase the solubility of a gas at constant temperature from 1.20 g/L, at 1.4 atm, to 2.3 g/L, the pressure would have to be increased to ____.a. 0.37 atm c. 1.37 atmb. 0.7 atm d. 2.7 atm

____ 115. If the solubility of a gas in water is 4.0 g/L when the pressure of the gas above the water is 3.0 atm, what is the pressure of the gas above the water when the solubility of the gas is 1.0 g/L?a. 0.75 atm c. 4.0 atmb. 1.3 atm d. 12 atm

____ 116. In a concentrated solution there is ____.a. no solvent c. a small amount of soluteb. a large amount of solute d. no solute

____ 117. What is the molarity of a solution that contains 6 moles of solute in 2 liters of solution?a. 6M c. 7Mb. 12M d. 3M

____ 118. In which of the following is the solution concentration expressed in terms of molarity?a. c.

b. d.

____ 119. Which of the following operations yields the number of moles of solute?a. molarity moles of solution c. molarity mass of solutionb. molarity liters of solution d. moles of solution volume of solution

____ 120. What is the molarity of a solution containing 7.0 moles of solute in 569 mL of solution?a. 81M c. 12Mb. 0.081M d. 4.0M

____ 121. What is the molarity of 200 mL of solution in which 2.0 moles of sodium bromide is dissolved?a. 2.0M c. 0.40Mb. 10M d. 4.0M

____ 122. What is the number of moles of solute in 250 mL of a 0.4M solution?a. 0.1 mol c. 0.62 molb. 0.16 mol d. 1.6 mol

____ 123. What is the molarity of a solution containing 56 grams of solute in 959 mL of solution? (molar mass of solute = 26 g/mol)a. 1.5M c. 2.1Mb. 2.2M d. 0.0022M

____ 124. What mass of sucrose, C H O , is needed to make 500.0 mL of a 0.200M solution?a. 34.2 g c. 17.1 gb. 100 g d. 68.4 g

____ 125. What mass of Na SO is needed to make 2.5 L of 2.0M solution? (Na = 23 g; S = 32 g; O = 16 g)a. 178 g c. 356 gb. 284 g d. 710 g

____ 126. What does NOT change when a solution is diluted by the addition of solvent?a. volume of solvent c. number of moles of soluteb. mass of solvent d. molarity of solution

____ 127. How many mL of a 2.0M NaBr solution are needed to make 200.0 mL of 0.50M NaBr?a. 25 mL c. 100 mLb. 50 mL d. 150 mL

____ 128. The volume of 6.00M HCl needed to make 319 mL of 6.80M HCl is ____.a. 0.128 mL c. 281 mLb. 7.8 mL d. 362 mL

____ 129. If 2.0 mL of 6.0M HCl is used to make a 500.0-mL aqueous solution, what is the molarity of the dilute solution?a. 0.024M c. 0.30Mb. 0.24M d. 0.83M

____ 130. To 225 mL of a 0.80M solution of KI, a student adds enough water to make 1.0 L of a more dilute KI solution. What is the molarity of the new solution?a. 180M c. 0.35Mb. 2.8M d. 0.18M

____ 131. If the percent by volume is 2.0% and the volume of solution is 250 mL, what is the volume of solute in solution?a. 0.5 mL c. 5.0 mLb. 1.25 mL d. 12.5 mL

____ 132. In which of the following is concentration expressed in percent by volume?a. 10% (v/v) c. 10% (m/m)b. 10% (m/v) d. 10%

____ 133. If the percent (mass/mass) for a solute is 4% and the mass of the solution is 200 g, what is the mass of solute in solution?a. 8.0 g c. 80 gb. 50 g d. 800 g

____ 134. The volume of alcohol present in 620 mL of a 40.0% (v/v) solution of alcohol is ____.a. 372 mL c. 248 mLb. 40.0 mL d. 580 mL

____ 135. How many milliliters of alcohol are in 167 mL of an 85.0% (v/v) alcohol solution?a. 252 mL c. 145 mLb. 228 mL d. 142 mL

____ 136. In which of the following is concentration expressed in percent by volume?a.

100%c.

100%

b. 100%

d. 100%

____ 137. Which of the following is NOT a colligative property of a solution?a. boiling point elevation c. vapor pressure loweringb. supersaturation d. freezing point depression

____ 138. Colligative properties depend upon the ____.a. nature of the solute c. number of solute particles in a solutionb. nature of the solvent d. freezing point of a solute

____ 139. A solute depresses the freezing point because the solute ____.a. is colder than the solventb. disrupts crystal formation of the solventc. tends to sink to the bottom of the solutiond. has bigger molecules than the solvent

____ 140. The molality of a solution containing 8.1 moles of solute in 4847 g of solvent is ____.a. 39m c. 0.17mb. 1.7m d. 598m

____ 141. Which of the following is an expression of molality?a. c.

b. d.

____ 142. What is the mole fraction of ethanol in a solution of 3.00 moles of ethanol and 5.00 moles of water?a. 0.375 c. 1.67b. 0.6 d. 15

____ 143. What is the molality of a solution containing 8.0 grams of solute in 0.50 kg of solvent? (molar mass of solute = 24 g)a. 0.67m c. 1.67mb. 4m d. 0.17m

____ 144. What is the number of kilograms of solvent in a 0.70 molal solution containing 5.0 grams of solute? (molar mass of solute = 30 g)a. 0.24 kg c. 0.11 kgb. 2.4 kg d. 1.1 kg

____ 145. To which of the following variables is change in boiling point directly proportional?a. molarity of solution c. percent by volume of solutionb. molality of solution d. percent (mass/mass) of solution

____ 146. What is the freezing point of a solution of 0.5 mol of LiBr in 500 mL of water? (K = 1.86 C/m)a. –1.86 C c. –5.58 Cb. –3.72 C d. –7.44 C

____ 147. The freezing point of a solution that contains 0.550 moles of NaI in 615 g of water is ____. (K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)a. 1.66 C c. 3.33 Cb. –1.66 C d. –3.33 C

____ 148. What is the boiling point of a solution that contains 3 moles of KBr in 2000 g of water? (K = 0.512 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)

a. 97 C c. 101.4 Cb. 99.7 C d. 103 C

____ 149. What is the molality of a solution of water and KCl if the freezing point of the solution is –3 C? (K = 1.86C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)a. 0.6m c. 0.8mb. 1.2m d. 6m

____ 150. What is the boiling point of a solution of 0.1 mole of glucose in 200 mL of water? (K = 0.512 C/m)a. 100.06 C c. 100.26 Cb. 100.13 C d. 100.5 C

____ 151. What is the approximate molar mass of a molecular solute if 300 g of the solute in 1000 g of water causes the solution to have a boiling point of 101 C? (K = 0.512 C/m; K = 1.86 C/m; molar mass of water = 18 g)a. 15 amu c. 150 amub. 30 amu d. 300 amu

____ 152. What happens to the energy produced by burning gasoline in a car engine?a. The energy is lost as heat in the exhaust.b. The energy is transformed into work to move the car.c. The energy heats the parts of the engine.d. all of the above

____ 153. A piece of metal is heated, then submerged in cool water. Which statement below describes what happens?a. The temperature of the metal will increase.b. The temperature of the water will increase.c. The temperature of the water will decrease.d. The temperature of the water will increase and the temperature of the metal will decrease.

____ 154. How does a calorie compare to a joule?a. A calorie is smaller than a joule. c. A calorie is equal to a joule.b. A calorie is larger than a joule. d. The relationship cannot be determined.

____ 155. What would likely happen if you were to touch the flask in which an endothermic reaction were occurring?a. The flask would probably feel cooler than before the reaction started.b. The flask would probably feel warmer than before the reaction started.c. The flask would feel the same as before the reaction started.d. none of the above

____ 156. Which of the following is NOT a form of energy?a. light c. heatb. pressure d. electricity

____ 157. When energy is changed from one form to another, ____.a. some of the energy is lost entirelyb. all of the energy can be accounted forc. a physical change occursd. all of the energy is changed to a useful form

____ 158. If heat is released by a chemical system, an equal amount of heat will be ____.a. absorbed by the surroundings c. released by the surroundingsb. absorbed by the universe d. released by the universe

____ 159. Which of the following is transferred due to a temperature difference?a. chemical energy c. electrical energyb. mechanical energy d. heat

____ 160. In an exothermic reaction, the energy stored in the chemical bonds of the reactants is ____.a. equal to the energy stored in the bonds of the productsb. greater than the energy stored in the bonds of the productsc. less than the energy stored in the bonds of the productsd. less than the heat released

____ 161. A process that absorbs heat is a(n) ____.a. endothermic process c. exothermic processb. polythermic process d. ectothermic process

____ 162. When your body breaks down sugar completely, how much heat is released compared to burning the same amount of sugar in a flame?a. The body releases more heat.b. The body releases less heat.c. The body releases the same amount of heat.d. The body releases no heat.

____ 163. The quantity of heat required to change the temperature of 1 g of a substance by 1 C is defined as ____.a. a joule c. a calorieb. specific heat d. density

____ 164. A piece of candy has 5 Calories (or 5000 calories). If it could be burned, leaving nothing but carbon dioxide and water, how much heat would it give off?a. 500 calories c. 5000 joulesb. 5 kilocalories d. Not enough information is given.

____ 165. How many joules are in 148 calories? (1 cal = 4.18 J)a. 6.61 J c. 148 Jb. 35.4 J d. 619 J

____ 166. What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 200.0 g of aluminum by 10 C? (specific heat

of aluminum = 0.21 )

a. 420 cal c. 42,000 calb. 4200 cal d. 420,000 cal

____ 167. What is the specific heat of a substance if 1560 cal are required to raise the temperature of a 312-g sample by 15 C?a.

0.033 c.

0.99

b.0.33

d.1.33

____ 168. How many kilocalories of heat are required to raise the temperature of 225 g of aluminum from 20 C to 100

C? (specific heat of aluminum = 0.21 )

a. 0.59 kcal c. 85 kcalb. 3.8 kcal d. none of the above

____ 169. The heat capacity of an object depends in part on its ____.a. mass c. shapeb. enthalpy d. potential energy

____ 170. Which of the following is a valid unit for specific heat?a. c.

b. cal d. C____ 171. When 45 g of an alloy, at 25 C, are dropped into 100.0 g of water, the alloy absorbs 956 J of heat. If the final

temperature of the alloy is 37 C, what is its specific heat?a.

0.423 c.

9.88

b.1.77

d.48.8

____ 172. How can you describe the specific heat of olive oil if it takes approximately 420 J of heat to raise the temperature of 7 g of olive oil by 30 C?a. greater than the specific heat of water c. equal to the specific heat of waterb. less than the specific heat of water d. Not enough information is given.

____ 173. The specific heat of silver is 0.24 . How many joules of energy are needed to warm 4.37 g of silver from

25.0 C to 27.5 C?

a. 2.62 J c. 45.5 Jb. 0.14 J d. 0.022 J

____ 174. Which of the following has the greatest heat capacity?a. 1000 g of water c. 1 g of waterb. 1000 g of steel d. 1 g of steel

____ 175. Which of the following substances has the highest specific heat?a. steel c. alcoholb. water d. chloroform

____ 176. By what quantity must the heat capacity of an object be divided to obtain the specific heat of that material?a. its mass c. its temperatureb. its volume d. its energy

____ 177. The amount of heat transferred from an object depends on which of the following?a. the specific heat of the object c. the mass of the objectb. the initial temperature of the object d. all of the above

____ 178. What does the symbol H stand for?a. the specific heat of a substanceb. the heat capacity of a substancec. the heat of reaction for a chemical reactiond. one Calorie given off by a reaction

____ 179. Standard conditions of temperature and pressure for a thermochemical equation are ____.a. 0 C and 101 kPa c. 0 C and 0 kPab. 25 C and 101 kPa d. 25 C and 22.4 kPa

____ 180. The heat content of a system is equal to the enthalpy only for a system that is at constant ____.a. temperature c. pressureb. volume d. mass

____ 181. On what principle does calorimetry depend?a. Hess's law c. law of enthalpyb. law of conservation of energy d. law of multiple proportions

____ 182. How can the enthalpy change be determined for a reaction in an aqueous solution?a. by knowing the specific heat of the reactantsb. by mixing the reactants in a calorimeter and measuring the temperature changec. by knowing the mass of the reactantsd. The enthalpy change for this type of reaction cannot be determined.

____ 183. A chunk of ice whose temperature is –20 C is added to an insulated cup filled with water at 0 C. What happens in the cup?a. The ice melts until it reaches the temperature of the water.b. The water cools until it reaches the temperature of the ice.c. Some of the water freezes, so the chunk of ice gets larger.d. none of the above

____ 184. The amount of heat released by the complete burning of 1 mole of a substance is the ____.a. specific heat c. heat capacityb. heat of combustion d. heat of fusion

____ 185. Calculate the energy required to produce 7.00 mol Cl O on the basis of the following balanced equation. 2Cl (g) + 7O (g) + 130 kcal 2Cl O (g)a. 7.00 kcal c. 130 kcalb. 65 kcal d. 455 kcal

____ 186. What is the standard heat of reaction for the following reaction?Zn(s) + Cu (aq) Zn (aq) + Cu(s)( H for Cu = +64.4 kJ/mol; H for Zn = –152.4 kJ/mol)a. 216.8 kJ released per mole c. 88.0 kJ absorbed per moleb. 88.0 kJ released per mole d. 216.8 kJ absorbed per mole

____ 187. Calculate H for the following reaction.C H (g) + H (g) C H (g)( H for C H (g) = 52.5 kJ/mol; H for C H (g) = –84.7 kJ/mol)

a. –137.2 kJ c. 32.2 kJb. –32.2 kJ d. 137.2 kJ

____ 188. Calculate the energy released when 24.8 g Na O reacts in the following reaction.Na O(s) + 2HI(g) 2NaI(s) + H O(l)

H = –120.00 kcala. 0.207 kcal c. 48.0 kcalb. 2.42 kcal d. 3.00 10 kcal

____ 189. The amount of heat needed to melt one mole of a solid at a constant temperature is called ____.a. molar heat of fusion c. heat of reactionb. molar heat of solidification d. enthalpy

____ 190. During a phase change, the temperature of a substance ____.a. increases c. remains constantb. decreases d. may increase or decrease

____ 191. To calculate the amount of heat absorbed as a substance melts, which of the following information is NOT needed?a. the mass of the substance c. the change in temperatureb. the specific heat of the substance d. the density of the sample

____ 192. What is the heat of solution?a. the amount of heat required to change a solid into a liquidb. the amount of heat absorbed or released when a solid dissolvesc. the amount of heat required to change a vapor into a liquidd. the amount of heat released when a vapor changes into a liquid

____ 193. The H is ____.a. always negativeb. always positivec. sometimes positive, sometimes negatived. always 0

____ 194. When 1.0 g of solid NaOH ( H = –445.1 kJ/mol) dissolves in 10 L of water, how much heat is released?a. 445.1 kJ c. 11.1 Jb. 405.1 kJ d. 11.1 kJ

____ 195. When 10 g of diethyl ether is converted to vapor at its boiling point, about how much heat is absorbed? (C HO, H = 15.7 kJ/mol, boiling point: 34.6 C)

a. 2 kJ c. 0.2 kJb. 2 J d. Not enough information is given.

____ 196. Hess's law ____.a. makes it possible to calculate H for complicated chemical reactionsb. states that when you reverse a chemical equation, you must change the sign of Hc. determines the way a calorimeter worksd. describes the vaporization of solids

____ 197. Using a table that lists standard heats of formation, you can calculate the change in enthalpy for a given chemical reaction. The change in enthalpy is equal to ____.a. H of products minus H of reactantsb. H of products plus H of reactantsc. H of reactants minus H of productsd. H of products divided by H of reactants

____ 198. The amount of heat involved in the synthesis of 1 mole of a compound from its elements, with all substances in their standard states at 25 C, is called ____.a. enthalpy c. standard heat of formationb. heat of reaction d. heat of solidification

____ 199. The symbol H stands for the ____.a. specific heat of a substanceb. heat capacity of a substance

c. heat of reaction for a chemical reactiond. standard heat of formation for a compound

____ 200. H for the formation of rust (Fe O ) is –826 kJ/mol. How much energy is involved in the formation of 5 grams of rust?a. 25.9 kJ c. 66 kJb. 25.9 J d. 66 J

____ 201. Calculate H for the reaction of sulfur dioxide with oxygen.2SO (g) + O (g) 2SO (g)( H SO (g) = –296.8 kJ/mol; H SO (g) = –395.7 kJ/mol)a. –98.9 kJ c. 197.8 kJb. –197.8 kJ d. Not enough information is given.

____ 202. How many valence electrons does a carbon atom have?a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 203. How many covalent bonds can each carbon atom form?a. 1 c. 3b. 2 d. 4

____ 204. How many double covalent bonds are in an alkane?a. 0 c. 2b. 1 d. 3

____ 205. Alkanes are hydrocarbons that contain what type of bonds?a. single covalent bonds only c. at least one triple bondb. at least one double bond d. ionic bonds

____ 206. What is the simplest alkane?a. butane c. methaneb. ethane d. pentane

____ 207. How many carbons are in a molecule of hexane?a. 3 c. 5b. 4 d. 6

____ 208. What is the simplest straight-chain alkane?a. graphite c. methaneb. ammonia d. ethane

____ 209. The names of the straight-chain alkanes all end with the suffix ____.a. -ene c. -aneb. -ine d. -ino

____ 210. The longest continuous carbon chain of a branched-chain hydrocarbon is called a(n) ____.a. isomer c. principle alkaneb. substituted alkane d. parent alkane

____ 211. What is the physical state of the smallest alkanes at room temperature?a. gas c. solidb. liquid d. gas or liquid

____ 212. What is the increment of change in a series of straight-chain alkanes?a. CH c. CHb. CH d. CH

____ 213. What is the condensed structural formula for 2,2-dimethylbutane?a. CH (CH ) CH c. (CH ) CCH CHb. CH CH CH CH CH d. C H (CH )

____ 214. What is the name of the compound CH CH(CH )C(CH ) ?a. 2,2,3-trimethylbutane c. 1,1,1,2-tetramethylpropaneb. tetramethylpropane d. isoheptane

____ 215. The condensed structural formula for 2,2,3-trimethylbutane is ____.a. CH CH (CH )CH(CH ) c. CH C(CH ) CH(CH )b. CH C(CH ) C(CH ) d. CH CH CH(CH )C(CH )

____ 216. In which of the following liquids is hexane most likely to dissolve?a. aqueous ammonium hydroxide c. rubbing alcoholb. vinegar d. octane

____ 217. Which of the following compounds is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?a. methane c. nonaneb. propyne d. methyl

____ 218. A saturated straight-chain hydrocarbon with two carbons is ____.a. ethene c. propaneb. decane d. ethane

____ 219. The general name for hydrocarbons with at least one triple covalent bond is ____.a. alkenes c. alkanesb. alkyls d. alkynes

____ 220. What is the name of the smallest alkyne?a. butyne c. methyneb. ethyne d. propyne

____ 221. An organic compound that contains only carbon and hydrogen and at least one carbon-carbon triple bond is classified as an ____.a. alkane c. alkyneb. alkene d. arene

____ 222. Which of the following compounds is a structural isomer of butane?a. 2-methylbutane c. 2-methylpropaneb. 2,2-dimethylbutane d. 2,2-diethylpropane

____ 223. Which of the following is true about structural isomers?a. Structural isomers have the same molecular formula.b. Structural isomers have different physical and chemical properties.c. Structural isomers have the same elemental composition.d. all of the above

____ 224. A structural isomer of hexane is ____.a. 2,2-dimethylbutane c. benzeneb. cyclohexane d. 2-methylpentene

____ 225. How many different atoms or groups are attached to an asymmetric carbon?a. 2 c. 6b. 4 d. 8

____ 226. Hydrocarbons containing a saturated carbon ring are called ____.a. cyclic hydrocarbons c. aliphatic hydrocarbonsb. aromatic hydrocarbons d. alkylated hydrocarbons

____ 227. Which hydrocarbon rings are most common in nature?a. rings with 3 or 4 carbon atoms c. rings with 5 or 6 carbon atomsb. rings with 4 or 5 carbon atoms d. rings with 6 or 7 carbon atoms

____ 228. What compound is the simplest aromatic compound?a. methane c. ethyneb. ethene d. benzene

____ 229. Which of the following molecules does NOT display resonance?a. benzene c. m-xyleneb. phenylethane d. cyclohexane

____ 230. What is the main hydrocarbon component of natural gas?a. benzene c. etheneb. ethane d. methane

____ 231. The controlled process by which hydrocarbons are broken down or rearranged into smaller, more useful molecules is called ____.a. vaporizing c. distillationb. cracking d. fractionating

____ 232. What is the first step in the refining of petroleum?

a. cracking c. coolingb. drilling d. distillation

____ 233. Which of the following is NOT a product obtained from the distillation of coal tar?a. benzene c. cokeb. phenol d. toluene

____ 234. What is the name of the functional group in the following compound?

a. halogen c. carbonylb. ester d. carboxylic acid

____ 235. The most important way to classify organic compounds is by ____.a. the number of carbon atoms in the longest chainb. functional groupc. the type of carbon—carbon bondsd. reactivity

____ 236. Which of the following compounds is trichloromethane?a. c.

b. d.

____ 237. What type of compound is CH OCH CH CH ?a. alcohol c. etherb. aldehyde d. ketone

____ 238. The functional group in CH OCH CH CH CH is a(n) ____.a. ester c. carbonylb. ether d. carboxyl

____ 239. Which carbon skeleton represents an ether?a.

CCCOCCCc.

b. d.none of the above

____ 240. What type of compound is the following?

a. alcohol c. etherb. aldehyde d. ketone

____ 241. Which carbon skeleton represents an aldehyde?a. c.

b. d.none of the above

____ 242. Which carbon skeleton represents a ketone?a. c.

b. d.

____ 243. Aldehydes have the general structure ____________.a. c.

b. d.

____ 244. A ketone has the general structure ____________.a.

RORc.

b. d.

____ 245. Which carbon skeleton contains a carboxyl group?a.

CCCOc.

b. d.

____ 246. Which of the following carbon skeletons represents a carboxylic acid?a.

CCCCCOc.

b. d.

____ 247. Which of the following compounds is known as acetic acid?a. c.

b.CH —CH OH

d.

____ 248. Which carbon skeleton represents an ester?a.

CCCCCOCCc.

b. d.

____ 249. What type of chemical bond links the monomers in a polymer?a. ionic bond c. metallic bondb. hydrogen bond d. covalent bond

____ 250. What happens in a condensation reaction?a. head-to-tail joining of monomersb. side-by-side joining of monomersc. cross-linking of monomersd. substitution of a halogen on monomers