form number : paper code : 1001cm303115040 classroom … · 2016-03-17 · hindi. physics :...
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Form Number :
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(Academic Session : 2015 - 2016)
Corporate Office : CAREER INSTITUTE, “SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
+91-744-5156100 [email protected] www.allen.ac.in
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat
only. If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination
and shall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so
Important Instructions /
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL - 2016
LEADER COURSEPHASE : MLA,MLB,MLC, MLD & MLE
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Papercode and Your Form No.
Correction Paper code Form No. [email protected] mail
Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : AIPMT
TEST DATE : 15 - 03 - 2016
Paper Code : 1001CM303115040
TEST SYLLABUS : SYLLABUS - 04
Hin
di
PHYSICS : Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating current
Electromagnetic Waves
OPTICS :
(i) Ray optics & optical Instruments
(ii) Wave optics: Nature of Light, Interference, Diffraction &
Polarization)
Modern Physics (Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation, Atoms
and Nuclei)
Electronic Devices
CHEMISTRY : Redox Reactions
Electrochemistry
Chemical Kinetics
Surface Chemistry
General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
Coordination Compounds
Environmental Chemistry
Biomolecules
Polymers
Chemistry in Everyday Life
BIOLOGY : Biology in Human Welfare :
(i) Human Health and Disease
(ii) Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
(Domestication of Plants & Animals)
Ecology :
(i) Organisms and Populations
(ii) Ecosystem
(iii) Biodiversity and Conservation
(iv) Environmental Issues
ALLEN AIPMT TEST DATE : 15 - 03 - 2016
SYLLABUS – 4
LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD & MLE)
H-1/35
Leader Course/Phase/MLA+B+C+D +E/15-03-2016
1001CM303115040
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. Consider the following figure, a uniform magnetic
field of 0.2 T is directed along the positive x-axis.
What is the magnetic flux through top surface of
the figure
Y
60° 9 cm
Back
Front
10 cm
30°
X
Z
10 cm
4 cm
(1) Zero (2) 0.8 m-wb
(3) 1.0 m-wb (4) – 1.8 m-wb
2. Match the following
Currents r.m.s values
(A) x0 sint (i) x
0
(B) x0 sint cost (ii)
0x
2
(C) x0 sint + x
0 cost (iii)
0x
2 2
(1) (A i), (B ii), (C iii)
(2) (A ii), (B iii), (C i)
(3) (A i), (B iii), (C ii)
(4) None
3. A ray of light is incident at the glass-water
interface at an angle i, it emerges finally parallel
to the surface of water, then the value of g would
be -
Water
Glass
rw =4/3
r
i
(1) (4/3) sin i (2) 1/sin i
(3) 4/3 (4) 1
4. Diffraction effects are easier to notice in the case of
sound waves than in the case of light waves because
(1) sound waves are longitudinal
(2) sound is precived by the ear
(3) sound waves are mechanical waves
(4) sound waves are of longer wavelength
1. 0.2 T x- (top surface)
Y
60° 9 cm
Back
Front
10 cm
30°
X
Z
10 cm
4 cm
(1) (2) 0.8 m-wb
(3) 1.0 m-wb (4) – 1.8 m-wb
2. r.m.s (A) x
0 sint (i) x
0
(B) x0 sint cost (ii)
0x
2
(C) x0 sint + x
0 cost (iii)
0x
2 2
(1) (A i), (B ii), (C iii)
(2) (A ii), (B iii), (C i)
(3) (A i), (B iii), (C ii)
(4) None
3. i
g
Water
Glass
rw =4/3
r
i
(1) (4/3) sin i (2) 1/sin i
(3) 4/3 (4) 1
4. (1) (2) (3) (4)
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5. A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of
5 years. Thus for a nucleus in a sample of the
element, the probability of decay in ten years is
(1) 50% (2) 75%
(3) 100% (4) 60%
6. A square loop of side 1m is placed in a
perpendicular magnetic field. Half of the area of
the loop inside the magnetic field. A battery of
emf 10 V and negligible internal resistance is
connected in the loop. The magnetic field changes
with time according to relation
B = (0.01 – 2t) Tesla. The resultant emf in the
loop will be
10V
A
B
C
(1) 1 V (2) 11 V (3) 10 V (4) 9 V
7. The instantaneous values of current and potential
difference in an alternating circuit are i = sin t
and E = 100 cos t respectively. r.m.s. value of
wattless current (in amp) in the circuit is :-
(1) 1 (2) 1
2(3) 100 (4) zero
8. A square card of side length 1 mm is being seen
through a magnifying lens of focal length 10 cm.
The card is placed at a distance of 9 cm from
the lens. Axis is perpendicular to the plane of card.
The apparent area of the card through the lens
is
(1) 1 cm2 (2) 0.81 cm2
(3) 0.27 cm2 (4) 0.60 cm2
9. The metallic surface is illuminated with
monochromatic light of wavelength and
stopping potential for photoelectric current is 5V0.
When the same metallic surface is illuminated
with a light of wavelength , the stopping
potentials is V0. What is the threshold wavelength
for the surface ?
(1) 8
3 (2) 8
(3) 5 (4) 4
5. 5 10 (1) 50% (2) 75%
(3) 100% (4) 60%
6. 1m 10 V B = (0.01 – 2t) Tesla
10V
A
B
C
(1) 1 V (2) 11 V
(3) 10 V (4) 9 V
7.
i = sin t E = 100 cos t
r.m.s.
(1) 1 (2) 1
2(3) 100 (4) zero
8. 1 mm 10 cm
9 cm
(1) 1 cm2 (2) 0.81 cm2
(3) 0.27 cm2 (4) 0.60 cm2
9.
5V0
V0
?
(1) 8
3 (2) 8
(3) 5 (4) 4
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Leader Course/Phase/MLA+B+C+D +E/15-03-2016
1001CM303115040
10. A gamma ray photon creates an electron positron
pair. If the rest mass energy of an electron is 0.5
MeV and the total kinetic energy of the electron
positron of pair is 0.78 MeV, then the energy of
the gamma ray photon must be :
(1) 0.78 MeV (2) 1.78 MeV
(3) 1.28 MeV (4) 0.28 MeV
11. A conducting rod PQ of length L = 1.0 m is
moving with a uniform speed v = 2 m/s in a
uniform magnetic field B 4.0T directed into
the paper. A capacitor of capacity C = 10 F is
connected as shown in figure. Then
P
Q
A v
× × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
B
(1) qA = + 80 C and q
B = – 80 C
(2) qA = – 80 C and q
B = + 80 C
(3) qA = 0 = q
B
(4) Charge stored in the capacitor increases
exponentially with time
12. The self inductance of a choke coil is 10 mH.
When it is connected with a 10V dc source, then
the loss of power is 20 watt. When it is connected
with 10 volt ac source, then loss of power is 10
watt. The frequency of ac source will be
(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz
(3) 80 Hz (4) 100 Hz
13. The resolving power of an astronomical telescope
is 0.2 sec. If the central half portion of the objective
lens is covered, the resolving power will be
(1) 0.1 sec (2) 0.2 sec
(3) 1.0 sec (4) 0.6 sec
14. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed
such that the work function changes from W1 to
W2 (W
2 > W
1). if the current before and after
change are I1 and I
2, all other conditions remaining
unchanged, then (assuming hv > W2)
(1) I1 = I
2(2) I
1 < I
2
(3) I1 > I
2(4) I
1 < I
2 < 2I
1
10.
0.5 MeV
0.78 MeV ,
:
(1) 0.78 MeV (2) 1.78 MeV
(3) 1.28 MeV (4) 0.28 MeV
11. PQ L = 1.0 m
v = 2 m/s
B 4.0T
C = 10 F
P
Q
A v
× × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
B
(1) qA = + 80 C q
B = – 80 C
(2) qA = – 80 C q
B = + 80 C
(3) qA = 0 = q
B
(4)
12. 10 mH 10V
dc 20 watt
10 volt ac
10 watt ac
(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz
(3) 80 Hz (4) 100 Hz
13. 0.2 sec
(1) 0.1 sec (2) 0.2 sec
(3) 1.0 sec (4) 0.6 sec
14. W
1 W
2 (W
2 > W
1)
I1 I
2
( hv > W2)
(1) I1 = I
2(2) I
1 < I
2
(3) I1 > I
2(4) I
1 < I
2 < 2I
1
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15. In the given circuit
D3
D2
D1
5
10 5 20
10V
The current through the battery is
(1) 0.5A (2) 1 A (3) 1.5 A (4) 2 A
16. Flux (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance
10 ohm varies with time t (in sec) according to
the equation 26t 5t 1 . What is the
magnitude of the induced current at t = 0.25 s ?
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.6 S (4) 0.2 A
17. Which of the following electro magnetic waves
are used in telecommunication ?
(1) X - rays (2) Infra red
(3) Micro waves (4) Ultra violet
18. An astronomical telescope has an angular
magnification of magnitude 5 for distant objects.
The separation between the objective and the
eye-piece is 36 cm. The final image is formed
at infinity. The focal length fo of the objective
and fe of the eye-piece are
(1) 45 cm and -9 cm (2) 50 cm and 10 cm
(3) 7.2 cm and 5 cm (4) 30 cm and 6 cm
19. When a monochromatic point source of light is
at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell,
the cut-off voltage and the saturation current are
respectively 0.6 volt and 18.0 mA. If the same
source is placed 0.6 m away from the
photoelectric cell, then
(1) the stopping potential will be 0.2 volt
(2) the stopping potential will be 0.6 volt
(3) the saturation current will be 0.6 mA
(4) the saturation current will be 3.0 mA.
20. The current gain of a transistor is 50. The input
resistance of the transistor when used in the
common emitter mode is 1 k . the peak value
of the collector current for an input peak voltage
of 0.01 volt is
(1) 0.01 A (2) 0.25 A
(3) 100 A (4) 500 A
15.
D3
D2
D1
5
10 5 20
10V
(1) 0.5A (2) 1 A (3) 1.5 A (4) 2 A
16. 10 t ()
26t 5t 1
t = 0.25 sec ?
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.8 A
(3) 0.6 S (4) 0.2 A
17. (1) X - (2) (3) (4)
18. 5
36 cm
(f0)
(fe) :-
(1) 45 cm and -9 cm (2) 50 cm and 10 cm
(3) 7.2 cm and 5 cm (4) 30 cm and 6 cm
19. 0.2 m
0.6V
18.0 mA
0.6 m
(1) 0.2V
(2) 0.6 V
(3) 0.6 mA
(4) 3.0 mA 20. 50
1 k
0.01
:-
(1) 0.01 A (2) 0.25 A
(3) 100 A (4) 500 A
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21. A current carrying solenoid is approaching a
conducting loop as shown in the figure. The
direction of induced current as observed by an
observer on the other side of the loop will be
v
Observer
(1) Anticlockwise (2) Clockwise
(3) East (4) West
22. At what rate the potential difference between the
plates of a capacitor be changed to set up a
displacement current of 1 A in a capacitor of F?
(1) 10+6 V/s (2) 0.5 × 10+6 V/s
(3) 106 V/s (4) 0.5 × 106 V/s
23. Three waves of equal frequency having amplitudes
10 m, 4 m, 7 m arrive at a given point with
successive phase difference of /2, the amplitude
the resulting wave in m is given by
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
24. A freshy prepared radioactive source of half-life
2 hours emits radiation of intensity which is 64
times the permissible safe level. The minimum
time after which it would be possible to work
safely with the source is :
(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours
(3) 24 hours (4) 128 hours
25. In a semiconductor,
(i) there are no free electrons at 0 K
(ii) there are no free electrons at any temperature
(iii)the number of free electrons increases with
temperature
(iv) the number of free electrons is less than that
in a conductor
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iv)
26. Three inductances are connected as shown below.
Assuming no coupling, the resultant inductance
will be
L2 = 0.50 H
L3 = 0.50 H
L1 = 0.75
(1) 0.25 H (2) 0.75 H (3) 0.01 H (4) 1 H
21.
v
Observer
(1) (2) (3) (4)
22. 1A F
(1) 10+6 V/s (2) 0.5 × 10+6 V/s
(3) 106 V/s (4) 0.5 × 106 V/s
23. 10 m, 4 m 7 m
/2 (m) (1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 7
24. 2 hours
64
:
(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours
(3) 24 hours (4) 128 hours
25. ,(i) 0 K (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (i), (ii) (2) (i), (iii), (iv)
(3) (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iv)
26.
L2 = 0.50 H
L3 = 0.50 H
L1 = 0.75
(1) 0.25 H (2) 0.75 H (3) 0.01 H (4) 1 H
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27. Two transparent slabs have the same thickness.
One is made of material X of refractive index
1.5. The other is made of two material Y and Z
having thickness in the ratio 1 : 2. The refractive
index of Z is 1.6. If a monochromatic parallel
beam passing through the slabs has the same
number of wavelengths inside both, the refractive
of Y is -
t/3
Y Z
x
n = 1.6
n = 1.5
2t/3
t
(1) 1.1 (2) 1.2
(3) 1.3 (4) 1.4
28. The graph showing the dependence of intensity
of transmitted light on the angle between polariser
and analyser is (I0 is intensity of plane polarised light)
(1) I0
45° 90° 135° 180°
I
(2) I0
90°135° 270°
I
45°
180°
(3) I0
45° 90° 135° 180°
I
(4) I0
45° 90° 135° 180°
I
29. When a radioactive isotope 88
Ra228 decays in
series by the emission of 3 alpha particles and
a beta particle, the isotope finally formed is
(1) 84
X228 (2) 86
X222
(3) 83
X216 (4) 83
X215
27.
X 1.5 Y
Z 1 : 2 Z
1.6
Y
t/3
Y Z
x
n = 1.6
n = 1.5
2t/3
t
(1) 1.1 (2) 1.2
(3) 1.3 (4) 1.4
28.
(I0 )
(1) I0
45° 90° 135° 180°
I
(2) I0
90°135° 270°
I
45°
180°
(3) I0
45° 90° 135° 180°
I
(4) I0
45° 90° 135° 180°
I
29. 88
Ra228 3
(1) 84
X228 (2) 86
X222
(3) 83
X216 (4) 83
X215
Key Filling
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1001CM303115040
30. The input and the output wave form of a logic
gate is shown in diagram, then identify the logic
gate :-
T1
T1
T1
T2
T2
T2
T3
T3
T3
T4 t
t
t
T4
T4
O
O
O
(A)
(B)
(Y)
(1) AND gate (2) OR gate
(3) NAND gate (4) NOT gate
31. An inductor, L a resistance R and two identical bulbs,
1B and 2B are connected to a battery through a
switch S as shown in the fig. The resistance R is the
same as that of the coil that makes L. Which of the
following statements gives the correct description
of the happenings when the switch S is closed
S
L
R B2
B1
B
(1) The bulb B2 lights up earlier than B
1 and
finally both the bulbs shine equally bright
(2) B1 light up earlier and finally both the bulbs
acquire equal brightness
(3) B2
lights up earlier and finally B1
shines
brighter than B2
(4) B1
and B2 light up together with equal
brightness all the time
32. Bob of a pendulum is left from position P, velocity
of image on mirror M of bob at position Qwr to
bob is -
<
O P
Q
(1) 2 2g (2) 2g (3) 3g (4) 4 g
30. (gate) :-
T1
T1
T1
T2
T2
T2
T3
T3
T3
T4 t
t
t
T4
T4
O
O
O
(A)
(B)
(Y)
(1) AND gate (2) OR gate
(3) NAND gate (4) NOT gate
31. L R 1B
2B S R
L S
S
L
R B2
B1
B
(1) 2B 1B
(2) B1
(3) B2 B
1 B
2
(4) B1 B
2
32. P
Q
<
O P
Q
(1) 2 2g (2) 2g (3) 3g (4) 4 g
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33. A diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam
of red light. If the red light is replaced by the
blue light, then
(1) the diffraction pattern remains changed
(2) diffraction bands become narrower and
crowded together
(3) bands become broader and farther apart
(4) bands disappear
34. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom
correspond to increasing values of energy
i.e., EA < E
B < E
C. If
1,
2,
3 are the wavelengths
of radiation corresponding to the transition C to
B, B to A and C to A respectively, which of the
following relation is correct ?
(1) 3 =
1 +
2
(2) 1 23
1 2
(3) 1 +
2 +
3 = 0
(4) 32 =
12 +
22
35. The energy band diagrams for three
semiconductor samples of silicon are as shown.
We can then assert that
X Y Z
(1) sample X is undoped while samples Y and
Z have been doped with a third group and
a fifth group impurity respectively
(2) sample X is undoped while both samplesY
and Z have been doped with a fifth group
impurity
(3) sample X has been doped with equal amounts
of third and fifth group impurities while
samples Y and Z are undoped
(4) sample X is undoped while samples Y and
Z have been doped with a fifth group and a
third group impurity respectively
33.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 34. A, B C
EA < E
B < E
C
1,
2,
3
C B, B A C A
?
(1) 3 =
1 +
2
(2) 1 23
1 2
(3) 1 +
2 +
3 = 0
(4) 32 =
12 +
22
35.
X Y Z
(1) X Y Z
(2) X Y Z
(3) X
YZ
(4) X Y
Z
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
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Leader Course/Phase/MLA+B+C+D +E/15-03-2016
1001CM303115040
36. What will be the impedance of the circuit shown
below
75 V iC = 2A
iL = 5A
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 25 (4) 75
37. For a small angled prism, angle of prism A, the
angle of minimum deviation () varies with
the refractive index of the prism as shown in the
graph.
O P
Q
(1) Point P corresponds to = 1/2
(2) Slope of the line PQ = A/2
(3) Slope = A
(4) None of the above statements is true
38. The distance between two coherent sources is
0.1 mm. The fringe-width on a screen 1.2 m away
from the source is 6.0 mm. The wavelength of
light used is
(1) 4000 Å (2) 5000 Å
(3) 6000 Å (4) 7200 Å
39. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is
0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding energy per
nucleon for helium in MeV ?
(1) 28 (2) 7
(3) 4 (4) 1
40. A 100m long antenna is mounted on a 500m tall
building. The complex can become a transmission
tower for waves with (aprox) -
(1) 400 m (2) 25 m
(3) 150 m (4) 2400 m
36.
75 V iC = 2A
iL = 5A
(1) 5 (2) 10
(3) 25 (4) 75
37. A
O P
Q
(1) P = 1/2
(2) PQ = A/2
(3) = A
(4)
38. 0.1 mm
1.2 m 6.0 mm
(1) 4000 Å (2) 5000 Å
(3) 6000 Å (4) 7200 Å
39. He 0.0303 a.m.u.
(MeV)
?
(1) 28 (2) 7
(3) 4 (4) 1
40. 100m 500m
(1) 400 m (2) 25 m
(3) 150 m (4) 2400 m
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41. An ac voltage source of E = 150 sin 100 t is used
to run a device which offers a resistance of 20
and restricts the flow of current in one directiion
only. The r.m.s. value of current in the circuit
will be
(1) 1.58 A (2) 0.98 A
(3) 3.75 A (4) 2.38 A
42. A concave mirror of focal length 'f1' is placedat
a distance of 'd' from a convex lens of focal length
'f2'. A beam of light coming from infinity and
falling on this convex lens concave mirror
combination returns to infinity. The distance 'd'
must equal
(1) f1 + f
2(2) f
1 + f
2
(3) 2f1 + f
2(4) 2f
1 + f
2
43. In Young's double-slit experiment intensity at a
point is 1/4th of the maximum intensity. Angular
position of this point is
(1) 1sin / 2
(2) 1sin / 2d
(3) 1sin / 3d
(4) 1sin / 4d
44. The mass density of a nucleus varies with mass
number A as
(1) A2 (2) A
(3) constant (4) 1/A
45. A basic communication system consists of
(A) transmitter
(B) information source
(C) user of information
(D) channel
(E) receiver
Choose the correct sequence in which these are
arranged in a basic communication system :
(1) ABCDE
(2) BADEC
(3) BDACE
(4) BEADC
41. E = 150 sin 100 t
20
r.m.s.
(1) 1.58 A (2) 0.98 A
(3) 3.75 A (4) 2.38 A
42. 'f1' 'd'
'f2'
'd'
(1) f1 + f
2(2) f
1 + f
2
(3) 2f1 + f
2(4) 2f
1 + f
2
43.
1/4th
(1) 1sin / 2
(2) 1sin / 2d
(3) 1sin / 3d
(4) 1sin / 4d
44. 'A'
(1) A2 (2) A
(3) (4) 1/A
45.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
:
(1) ABCDE
(2) BADEC
(3) BDACE
(4) BEADC
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46. Formaldehyde is not present as one monomer
in :-
(1) Bakelite (2) Novolac
(3) Orlon (4) Melamine resin
47. Tincture of iodine is :
(1) aqueous solution of I2
(2) alcoholic solution of I2
(3) solution of I2 in aqueous KI
(4) aqueous solution of KI
48. During extraction of copper from copper pyrite,
the flux used for removal of ferrous oxide is.
(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) Coke (4) SiO2
49. Poling process is used when metal contains :-
(1) Impurities have low melting point.
(2) Easily reducible impurities.
(3) Volatile impurities.
(4) Impurity of metal oxide.
50. In which of the following reactions is there a
change in the oxidation number of nitrogen atom ?
(1) 2 NO2 N2 O4
(2) NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH–
(3) N2O5 + H2O 2HNO3
(4) 2 2 3N 3H 2NH
51. During vulcanization of rubber, natural rubber is
heated with sulphur and some other additive to
(1) Increase cross linking
(2) Decrease cross linking
(3) Induce hydrogen bonding
(4) Sulphur is used as monomer
52. The correct structure of the drug paracetamol is–
(1)
OH
CONH2
(2)
OH
NHCOCH3
(3)
Cl
CONH2
(4)
Cl
NHCOCH3
46. (1) (2) (3) (4)
47. (1) I
2
(2) I2
(3) KI I2
(4) KI 48.
(1) NaOH (2) Na2CO3 (3) Coke (4) SiO2
49. (1) (2) (3) (4)
50.
(1) 2 NO2 N2 O4
(2) NH3 + H2O NH4+ + OH–
(3) N2O5 + H2O 2HNO3
(4) 2 2 3N 3H 2NH
51. (1) (2) (3) (4)
52.
(1)
OH
CONH2
(2)
OH
NHCOCH3
(3)
Cl
CONH2
(4)
Cl
NHCOCH3
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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53. The geometry possessed by [Ni(CO)4] is
(1) tetrahedral (2) square planar
(3) linear (4) octahedral
54. Adsorption is accompained by
(1) decrease in entropy
(2) decrease in enthalpy
(3) TS for the process is negative
(4) (1), (2) and (3) are correct
55. In the reaction
X – + XO3
– + H+ X2 + H2O, the molar
ratio in which X – and XO3
– react is :
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
56. Polymer which has amide linkage is
(1) Nylon-6,6 (2) Terylene
(3) Teflon (4) Bakelite
57. Which of the following represents soap ?
(1) C17H35COOK (2) C17H35COOH
(3) C15H31COOH (4) (C17H35COO)2Ca
58. Ammonia acts as a ligand but ammonium ion does
not form complexes because
(1) NH3 is a gas while NH4+ is in liquid form
(2) NH3 undergoes sp3 hybridisation while NH4+
undergoes sp3d hybridisation
(3) NH4+ ion does not have any lone pair of
electrons
(4) NH4+ ion has one unpaired electron while NH3
has two unpaired electrons.
59. Which of the following ionic substances will be
most effective in precipitating negatively charge
sulphur sol. (All compounds are 100% ionized)?
(1) KCl (2) CaCl2
(3) Na3PO
4(4) Fe
2(SO
4)
3
60. The ratio of equivalent weights of C2H
5OH in the
following reactions is:
(i) 2 5 3C H OH CH CHO
(ii) 2 5 2 5C H OH C H ONa
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3
61. Monomers are converted to polymers by
(1) Hydrolysis of monomer
(2) Condensation between monomers
(3) Combustion of monomers
(4) Hydration of monomers
53. [Ni(CO)4] (1) (2) (3) (4)
54. (1) (2) (3) TS (4) (1), (2) (3)
55. X – + XO3
– + H+ X2 + H2O X
– XO3–
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
56. (1) -6,6 (2) (3) (4)
57. (1) C17H35COOK (2) C17H35COOH
(3) C15H31COOH (4) (C17H35COO)2Ca
58. (1) NH3 NH4
+ (2) NH3 sp3 NH4
+ sp3d
(3) NH4
+
(4) NH4+
NH3
59. (negatively charged sulphur sol.)
( 100%
)(1) KCl (2) CaCl
2
(3) Na3PO
4(4) Fe
2(SO
4)
3
60. C2H
5OH
(i) 2 5 3C H OH CH CHO
(ii) 2 5 2 5C H OH C H ONa
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 1 : 3
61. (1) (2) (3) (4)
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62. Glucose and fructose are ......................... of each
other
(1) homologus
(2) functional group isomers
(3) mirror image isomers
(4) nonisomers
63. The magnitude of magnetic moment (spin only)
of [NiCl4]2– will be
(1) 2.82 B.M. (2) 0
(3) 1.23 B.M. (4) 5.64 B.M.
64. In the hydrolysis of an organic chloride in
presence of large excess of water
2RCl H O ROH HCl
(1) Molecularity and order of reaction both are 2.
(2) Molecularity is 2 but order reaction is 1.
(3) Molecularity is 1 but order of reacion is 2.
(4) Molecularity and order of reaction both are 1.
65. The e.m.f. of the following galvanic cells are
represented by E1, E2, E3 and E4. Which of the
following statement is true–
(i) Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu
(ii) Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu
(iii)Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
(iv)Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4
(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2 (4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3
66. Indiscriminate use of DDT is undesirable because –
(1) It is harmful
(2) It is degradable
(3) It causes mutation
(4) It is accumulated in food chain
67. Which of the following is not possible in glucose?
(1) (+)-form (2) (–)-form
(3) racemic-form (4) meso form
68. [Co(NH3)Cl(en)2]2+ shows two geometrical
isomers cis and trans. Which of the following
statements is correct ?
(1) trans-isomer will show optical isomerism.
(2) cis-isomer will show optical isomerism.
(3) Both trans and cis-isomers will show optical
isomerism.
(4) Neither cis nor trans-isomer will show optical
isomerism.
62. ...............................(1) (2) (3) (4)
63. [NiCl4]2– (1) 2.82 B.M. (2) 0
(3) 1.23 B.M. (4) 5.64 B.M.
64.
2RCl H O ROH HCl
(1) 2 (2) 2 1 (3) 1 2 (4) 1
65. e.m.f. E1, E2, E3 E4
(i) Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu
(ii) Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(1M)|Cu
(iii)Zn|Zn2+(1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
(iv)Zn|Zn2+(0.1M)||Cu2+(0.1M)|Cu
(1) E1 > E2 > E3 > E4 (2) E3 > E2 > E1 > E4
(3) E3 > E1 = E4 > E2 (4) E2 > E1 = E4 > E3
66. DDT –(1) (2) (3) (4)
67. (1) (+)- (2) (–)-(3) (4)
68. [Co(NH3)Cl(en)2]2+
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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69. Radioactive sample (Z = 22) decreases 90% after
10 years. What will be the half life of sample
(1) 5 years (2) 2 years
(3) 3 years (4) 10 years
70. Based on the following information arrange four
metals, A, B, C and D in order of increasing ability
to act as reducing agents–
(I) Only C react with 0.10 M HCl to give H2(g)
(II) When A is added to solution of the other metal
ions, metallic D is formed but not B or C
(1) D < A < C < B (2) A < D < C < B
(3) B < D < A < C (4) D < A < B < C
71. Green house effect is related to –
(1) Cultivation of green plants
(2) Cultivation of vegetables in houses
(3) Global warming
(4) Global green algae
72. Which reagent is used to form glucosazone :-
(1) NH2–NH2 (2) C6H5NH–NH2
(3) NH2–OH (4) NH2NHCONH2
73. [Fe(CN)6]4– and [Fe(H2O)6]2+ show different
colours in dilute solution because
(1) CN– is a strong field ligand and H2O is a weak
ligand hence magnitude of CFSE is different
(2) both CN– and H2O absorb same wavelength
of energy
(3) complexes of weak field ligands are generally
colourless
(4) the sizes of CN– and H2O are different hence
their colours are also different.
74. A reaction
2NO + 2H2 N2 + 2H2O
has following mechanism
Step-I : 2NO N2O2
Step-II : N2O2 + H2N2O + H2O
Step-III : N2O + H2N2 + H2O
Which of the following substance is a reaction
intermediate
(1) H2 (2) NO
(3) H2O (4) N2O
69. (Z = 22) 10 90%
(1) 5 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 10
70. A, B, C D (I) C, 0.10 M HCl H2(g) (II) A D B C
(1) D < A < C < B (2) A < D < C < B
(3) B < D < A < C (4) D < A < B < C
71. –
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
72.
(1) NH2–NH2 (2) C6H5NH–NH2
(3) NH2–OH (4) NH2NHCONH2
73. [Fe(CN)6]4– [Fe(H2O)6]
2+
(1) CN– H2O
CFSE
(2) CN– H2O
(3)
(4) CN– H2O 74.
2NO + 2H2 N2 + 2H2O
Step-I : 2NO N2O2
Step-II : N2O2 + H2N2O + H2O
Step-III : N2O + H2N2 + H2O
(1) H2 (2) NO
(3) H2O (4) N2O
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75. If x is specific resistance (in S–1cm) of the
electrolyte solution and y is the molarity of the
solution, then m (in S cm2 mol–1) is given by–
(1)1000x
y(2)
y1000
x
(3)1000
xy(4)
xy
1000
76. Photochemical smog is related to the pollution
of –
(1) Soil (2) Water
(3) Noise (4) Air
77. Which of the followings is not a fat soluble vitamin :-
(1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin C (4) Vitamin E
78. Which of the following shows half filled
configuration :-
(1) Cr+3(aq) (2) Mn+2(aq)
(3) Fe+3(aq) (4) All
79. A2 + 2 B 2 AB
[A2] [B] {–d[A2]/dt}
0.1 0.2 1 × 10–2 Ms–1
0.2 0.2 2 × 10–2 Ms–1
0.2 0.4 8 × 10–2 Ms–1
Order of reaction w.r.t. A2 and B are respectively :
(1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2
80. Ionisation constant of a weak acid (HA) in terms
of m and m is–
(1)m
am
CK
( )
(2)
2m
am m m
CK
( )
(3)
2m
am m m
C( )K
( )
(4) None of these
81. When huge amount of sevage is dumped into a
river, the BOD will –
(1) Increase (2) Remain unchanged
(3) Slightly decrease (4) Decrease
75. x (S–1cm ) y
m (S cm2 mol–1 )
(1)1000x
y(2)
y1000
x
(3)1000
xy(4)
xy
1000
76. (1) (2) (3) (4)
77. :-(1) A (2) D(3) C (4) E
78.
(1) Cr+3(aq) (2) Mn+2(aq)
(3) Fe+3(aq) (4)
79. A2 + 2 B 2 AB
[A2] [B] {–d[A2]/dt}
0.1 0.2 1 × 10–2 Ms–1
0.2 0.2 2 × 10–2 Ms–1
0.2 0.4 8 × 10–2 Ms–1
A2 B (1) 1, 2 (2) 2, 1
(3) 1, 1 (4) 2, 2
80. (HA) m m
(1)m
am
CK
( )
(2)
2m
am m m
CK
( )
(3)
2m
am m m
C( )K
( )
(4) None of these
81. BOD (1) (2) (3) (4)
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82. Biuret test is not given by :-
(1) Proteins (2) Carbohydrates
(3) Polypeptides (3) Urea
83. How many EDTA molecules are required to make
an octahedral complex with a Ca2+ ion?
(1) Six (2) Three
(3) One (4) Two
84. The rate constant for a zero order reaction is
2 × 10–2 mol L–1 sec–1. If the concentration of the
reactant after 25 sec is 0.5 M, the initial
concentration must have been :
(1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M (3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M
85. The conductivity of a strong electrolytes–
(1) Increases on dilution
(2) Decreases on dilution
(3) Does not change with dilution
(4) None of these
86. In Lassaigne’s test the organic compound is fused
with Na followed by extraction with distilled
water. Which of the following is not the product
of this fusion reaction
(1) NaX (2) NaCN
(3) NaNC (4) Na2S
87. In the concentration of PbS containing ZnS as
impurity the depressant used is–
(1) NaCN (2) ZnSO4
(3) PbSO4 (4) aniline
88. Mg is obtained by
(1) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of MgCl2.
(2) Electrolysis of aqueous solution of MgCl2
taking Hg as cathode.
(3) Electrolysis of molten state of MgCl2.
(4) Electrolysis of alcoholic solution of MgCl2.
89. Mathematical repressentation for t1/4 life for first
order reaction is given by :-
(1) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 4
(2) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 3
(3) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (4/3)
(4) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (3/4)
90. Rusting of iron is catalyzed by which of the
following?
(1) Fe (2) Zn
(3) O2 (4) H+
82. :-(1) (2) (3) (3)
83. Ca2+ EDTA ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
84. 2 × 10–2 mol L–1 sec–1 25 sec 0.5 M (1) 0.5 M (2) 1.25 M
(3) 12.5 M (4) 1.0 M
85. (1) (2) (3) (4)
86. Na (1) NaX (2) NaCN
(3) NaNC (4) Na2S
87. PbS ZnS (1) NaCN (2) ZnSO4
(3) PbSO4 (4) 88. Mg
(1) MgCl2
(2) MgCl2 Hg
(3) MgCl
2
(4) MgCl2
89. t1/4
(1) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 4
(2) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log 3
(3) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (4/3)
(4) t1/4 = [(2.303)/(K)] log (3/4)
90.
(1) Fe (2) Zn
(3) O2 (4) H+
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91. Hepatitis B-vaccine
(1) Produced from yeast with the help of
recombinant-DNA technology
(2) Produced from bacteria with the helps of
recombinant-DNA technology
(3) Produced from viruses, with the help of
biotechnology
(4) Obtained from hepatitis B-virus naturally.
92. Select the correct statement related to allergic
response :
(A) Allergens stimulate formation of IgE
antibody.
(B) Histamine is secreted from mast cells.
(C) Treatment involves use of steroids and
antihistaminic.
(D) Immune system becomes hyposensitive.
(1) Only A, B, D (2) Only A, B, C
(3) Only B, C, D (4) All of these
93. Illustrated below are three diagrams A, B and C
A. B.
C.
Morphine a very effective sedative and painkiller
is extracted from the latex of _______ Papaver
somniferum. ________ is Datura a plant with
hallucinogenic properties. Cannabinoids are
obtained from _______ plant Cannabis sativa
Select the option which correctly fills in the blanks
respectively :-
(1) A, C and B (2) A, B and C
(3) C, B and A (4) C, A and B
91. B-:-
(1)
(2) DNA
(3)
(4) B-
92.
(A)IgE
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A, B, D (2) A, B, C
(3) B, C, D (4)
93. A, B C
A. B.
C.
_______ ________ _______ :-(1) A, C B (2) A, B C(3) C, B A (4) C, A B
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94. Which one of the following crop varieties
correctly matches with its resistance to a
disease?
Variety Resistance to diseases
(1) Pusa Komal – Bacterial blight
(2) Pusa Sadabahar – White rust
(3) Pusa Swarnim – Tobacco mosaic virus
(4) Pusa Shubhra – Chilli mosaic virus
95. Which of the following is incorrect ?
(1) Thermoregulation is energetically
expensive for many organisms.
(2) Bears goes into hibernation during summer.
(3) Homeostasis is the mechanism of thermo
and osmoregulation.
(4) 99 percent of animals and nearly all plants
cannot maintain a constant internal
environment.
96. Electrostatic precepitators are used for
removing .....(i).........and scrubber can remove
.......(ii).....
(1) (i) SPM; (ii) NO2
(2) (i) Particular matter; (ii) CO
(3) (i) Particulate matter; (ii) SO2
(4) (i) SO2; (ii) Particulate matter
97. The aggregate of processes that determine the
size and composition of any population is known
as
(1) Population dynamics
(2) Population dispersal
(3) Population explosion
(4) Population density
98. The correct sequence of plant community in a
hydrosere is :
(1) Pistia Volvox Scirpus Hydrilla
Oak Lantana
(2) Oak Lantana Volvox Hydrilla
Pistia Scirpus
(3) Oak Lantana Scirpus Pistia
Hydrilla Volvox
(4) Volvox Hydrilla Pistia Scirpus
Lantana Oak
94.
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
95.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 99 %
96. ....(i).............(ii).....(1) (i) SPM; (ii) NO
2
(2) (i) ; (ii) CO
(3) (i) ; (ii) SO2
(4) (i) SO2; (ii)
97.
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
98. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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99. Sedimentary cycle having a small gaseous
component is found in–
(1) Phosphorus (2) Nitrogen
(3) Carbon (4) Sulphur
100. A place was rocky and barren but now there
is a green forest, the sequence of origin is :-
(1) Lichen, Moss, herbs, Shrubs
(2) Moss, lichen, herbs, shrubs
(3) Lichen, Moss, Shrubs, herbs
(4) Shrubs, herbs, moss, lichen
101. What is the source of the following compound?
Options
(1) Papaver somniferum
(2) Claviceps purpurea
(3) Cannabis sativa
(4) Datura
102. Match the columns:
(With reference to innate immunity)
A. Physical i. Skin
B. Physiological ii. Interferons
C. Cytokines iii. Natural killer
cells
D. Cellular iv. Fever, Saliva
Type of barrier Name of barrier
A B C D
(1) i iii ii iv
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iv ii i iii
103. Which of the following is not a pair of
secondary lymphoid organs :-
(1) Peyer's patches and appendix
(2) Lymph nodes and spleen
(3) Bone marrow and thymus
(4) MALT and GALT
99. (1) (2) (3) (4)
100. (1) (2) (3) (4)
101.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
102. ()
A. i.
B. ii.
C. iii.
D. iv.
A B C D
(1) i iii ii iv
(2) i iv ii iii
(3) iv i ii iii
(4) iv ii i iii
103. :-(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) MALT GALT
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104. Jaya and Ratna are the semi-dwarf varieties of–
(1) Wheat (2) Rice
(3) Cowpea (4) Mustard
105. The process of mineralisation by micro
organisms helps in the release of -
(1) inorganic nutrients from humus.
(2) both organic and inorganic nutrients from
detritus.
(3) organic nutrients from humus.
(4) inorganic nutrients from detritus and
formation of humus.
106. What is B.O.D. ?
(1) The amount of O2 utilised by organisms in
water
(2) The amount of O2 utilised by micro-organisms
for decomposition of organic matter
(3) The total amount of O2 present in water
(4) O2, that is not utilized by fishes
107. exponential growth takes place whenver the
......(i)............ exceeds the ......(ii)....... over a
prolonged period of time.
(1) (i) Birth rate (ii) growth rate
(2) (i) Birth rate (ii) Death rate
(3) (i) Birth rate (ii) immigration
(4) (i) Death rate (ii) Birth rate
108. Biome having maximum rainfall is-
(1) Tropical forests (2) Conferous forests
(3) Deserts (4) Grasslands
109. Net primary productivity is equals to-
(1) NPP - GPP (2) NPP - R
(3) GSP - R (4) GPP - R
110. According to Tilman how species rich
biological community show more stability:-
(1) Plots with more species show less year to
year variation in total biomass
(2) Increased diversity contributed to higher
productivity
(3) Provide resistance to invasions by aline
species
(4) All of these
104. (1) (2)
(3) (4)
105. -
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
106. B.O.D. ?
(1) O2
(2) O2
(3) O2
(4) O2
107. (exponential) ......(i)............ , ......(ii).......
(1) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii)
(3) (i) (ii)
(4) (i) (ii)
108.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
109.
(1) NPP - GPP (2) NPP - R
(3) GSP - R (4) GPP - R
110. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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111. Property of contact inhibition is appeared to be
lost in :-
(1) Cancer (2) Malaria
(3) AIDS (4) Dysentery
112. Choose a mismatched option :
(1) Common cold : One of the most infectious
viral disease
(2) Pneumonia : Haemophilus influenzae
infects alveoli of the lungs.
(3) Filariasis : Internal bleeding, muscular
pain, fever and anaemia
(4) Ascariasis : A healthy person acquires
infection through contaminated water,
vegetables and fruits.
113. Match the column
A Inbreeding i.
Mating between genetically
unrelated animals of same
breed
B Outcrossing ii.
Mating between genetically
related animals of same
breed
CCross
breedingiii.
Mating between different
breeds
DInterspecific
hybridisationiv.
Mating between different
species
Breeding type Breeding method
A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) ii i iv iii
114. Match Column-I (crop) with Column-II
(corresponding disease resistant variety) and
select the correct option from the codes given
below–
Column-I Column-II
A. Cowpea (i) Himgiri
B. Wheat (ii) Pusa Komal
C. Chilli (iii) Pusa Sadabahar
D. Brassica (iv) Pusa swarnim
(1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
111. :-
(1) (2)
(3) AIDS (4)
112.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
113.
A i.
B ii.
C iii.
D
iv.
A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) i ii iv iii
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) ii i iv iii
114. -I-II -I -II
A. (i) B. (ii) C. (iii) D. (iv) (1) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(3) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(iii)
(4) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii)
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115. Standing crop is -
(i) Biomass in a unit area
(ii) Number of living organism in unit area
(iii) Amount of nutrient such as carbon,
nitrogen, calcium in unit area
(iv) Amount of Detritus in unit area
(1) only (i) (2) (i) & (ii)
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)
116. Which of the following is considered as hotspot
of biodiversity of India ?
(1) Aravali hills (2) Eastern ghats
(3) Western ghats (4) Gangetic plain
117. In a comparative study of grassland ecosystem
and pond ecosystem it may be observed that
(1) The abiotic components are almost similar.
(2) The biotic components are almost similar.
(3) Both biotic and abiotic components are different.
(4) Primary and secondary consumers are similar.
118. Organisms which can survive in the wide range
of temperature are known as-
(1) Stenothermal (2) Eurythermal
(3) Stenohaline (4) Euryhaline
119. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living
material at a particular time called as the–
(1) Standing crop (2) Standing state
(3) Detritus (4) Humus
120. Select the reason that account for greater
biological diversity in tropics?
(i) Tropical latitudes have remained
undistrubed for millions of years.
(ii) Less seasonal environments variations in
tropical area.
(iii) Availability of more solar radiations.
Options
(1) Only i (2) i and ii
(3) i and iii (4) i, ii and iii
121. Biological response modifiers destroy _____
and are _____
(1) Normal cells, nicotine compounds
(2) Neoplastic cells, -interleukins
(3) Neoplastic cells, -interferons
(4) Contact inhibition, non ionising radiations
115. -
(i) (ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1) (i) (2) (i) (ii)(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)
116. hotspots ?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
117. (1)
(2) (3) (4)
118.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
119. (1) (2) (3) (4)
120. (i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1) i (2) i ii
(3) i iii (4) i, ii iii121. _____
_____
(1) (2) -
(3) -
(4)
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122. Various diseases can spread through inhaling
droplets/aerosols released by infected person.
From the option given below choose the
diseases that are acquired by this method:-
a. Diphtheria b. Pneumonia
c. Dengue d. Malaria
e. Dysentery f. Chikungunya
(1) d, e, f (2) a, b, c
(3) a & b (4) c & f
123. Which of the following component is
maximum in honey ?
(1) Glucose (2) Sucrose
(3) Fructose (4) Wax
124. Single cell protein can be obtained from–
(1) Bacteria (2) Algae
(3) Fungi (4) All of these
125. Transition zone between two ecosystems or
vegetational regions is termed :-
(1) Ecocline (2) Ecotone
(3) Ecad (4) Barrier
126. Which part of the world has a high density of
organisms :
(1) Deciduous forests (2) Grass lands
(3) Savannahs (4) Tropical rain forest
127. Select the true statement from the following
(a) Biodiversity varies from place to place.
(b) Plants are best conserved in situ, place
where they live naturally.
(c) Endemic species occurs in different
geographical area of the world.
(d) One most important factor in reduction of
biodiversity is population explosion.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (b), (c), (d), (e) are correct
(3) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
(4) (a) and (b) are correct only
128. Mammals from colder climates generally have
shorter ears and limbs to minimize heat loss. It
is called-
(1) Allen's law
(2) Mac Arthur's law
(3) Darwin's law of natural selection
(4) Gause's competitive Exclusion Principle
122. :-
a. b. c. d. e. f. (1) d, e, f (2) a, b, c
(3) a b (4) c f123.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
124. (1) (2) (3) (4)
125. (1) (2) (3) (4)
126. :(1) (2) (3) (4)
127. (a) (b)
(c) Endemic
(d)
(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (b), (c), (d), (e) (3) (a), (b) (d) (4) (a) (b)
128.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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129. Decomposers are-
(1) Animals and Monera
(2) Protista and Animalia
(3) Fungi and Plantae
(4) Bacteria and Fungi
130. Read the following statement :-
(i) Maximum leaching effect
(ii) Maximum stratification
(iii) Nearly impossible reforestation
The above given statements is associated with
which of the following biome.
(1) Desert
(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Grassland
(4) Savana
131. Rheumatoid arthritis which affects many
people in our society is :-
(1) an allergic disorder caused by allergens
present in food
(2) a degenerative disorder, caused by decline
in efficiency of joints.
(3) an auto immune disease, usually occur in
mid age.
(4) an infective disease caused by viral
infection.
132. How many pairings are incorrect ?
A. Antibodies - Chemically glyco protein
B Graft rejection
- Cell mediated immunity
C Gambusia - Feeds on mosquito larvae
D Aedes - Vector of malaria
E Acquired immunity
- Memory based
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) none of these
129.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
130. :-
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
131.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
132.
A –
B –
C –
D –
E –
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Time Management is Life Management
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133. How many statements are related to MOET :
A. Gonodotropins like hormones are used
B. 6 to 8 eggs are produced
C. Embryo transfer may occur at 4-celled stage
D. Used for improvement of quality of silk
E. Requirement of surrogate mothers
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5
134. Which of the following shows the correct
sequence of steps of plant tissue culture?
(1) Sterilization Hardening Selection of
explant Inoculation Regeneration
Plantlet transfer
(2) Selection of explant Inoculation
Regeneration Sterilization Hardening
Plantlet transfer
(3) Selection of explant Sterilization
Inoculation Regeneration Hardening
Plantlet transfer
(4) Hardening Sterilization Selection of
explant Inoculation Regeneration
Plantlet transfer
135. Population density of terrestrial organisms is
measured in terms of individual per
(1) Meter3 (2) Meter
(3) Meter4 (4) Meter2
136. Identify correct statements and select the
suitable option :
(a) Ecology is study of interaction among
organisms and between the organism and
its physical environment.
(b) The organism through natural selection
have evolved adaptation to optimise its
survival and reproduction in its habitat.
(c) Aquatic organisms living in oceans, lakes
and river should never face any water
related problems.
(d) The availability of light on land is closely
linked with that of temperature.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (c) and (d)
133. MOET
A.
B. 6 8
C. 4-
D.
E.
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 5
134.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
135.
(1) 3 (2)
(3) 4 (4) 2
136. :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) (a), (b) (c) (2) (a), (b) (d)
(3) (a) (b) (4) (a), (c) (d)
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137. Predators are important for a natural ecosystem
because they :
(I) Keep prey population under control.
(II) Helps in maintaining species diversity.
(III) Are used in biological control method.
(IV) Acts as conduits for energy transfer across
trophic level.
(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, IV
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, III
138. Read the following figure carefully.
PopulationDensity
(N)
(I)+
+ –
–
(B) (D)
(E)
Match the following.
I B E D
(1) Immigration Mortality Natality Emigration
(2) Emigration Natality Immigration Mortality
(3) Immigration Natality Emigration Mortality
(4) Natality Mortality Emigration Immigration
139. The natural ageing of a lake by biological
enrichment of its water is known as-
(1) Eutrophication (2) Biomagnification
(3) Algal bloom (4) Green house effect
140. Study the given below figure carefully and
choose the correct combination of biomes-
(1) A- Desert & B- Temperate forest
(2) D- Temperate forest & E- Coniferous forest
(3) C- Grassland & F- Arctic tundra
(4) B- Desert & D- Tropical forest
137. :(I)
(II)
(III)
(IV)
(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, IV
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, II, III
138.
(N)
(I)+
+ –
–
(B) (D)
(E)
I B E D
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
139. (1) (2) (3) (4)
140.
(1) A- & B- (2) D- & E- (3) C- & F- (4) B- & D-
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141. Match the column :
A. Filariasis i. Virus
B. Pneumonia ii. Bacteria
C. Common cold iii. Helminth
D. Malaria iv. Protozoan
Disease Pathogen
A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iii iv
(3) iii ii i iv
(4) iii i ii iv
142. Malignant malaria is caused by–
(1) Plasmodium vivax
(2) Plasmodium malariae
(3) Plasmodium falciparum
(4) Plasmodium ovale
143. How many fish are fresh water in the following:
Catla, Hilsa, Rohu, Sardine, Common carp,
Mackerel, Pomfret
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five
144. In virus-infected plants the apical meristematic
tissue is free of virus because–
(1) The dividing cells are virus resistant
(2) Meristems have anti viral compounds
(3) The cell division of meristems are faster
than the rate of viral multiplication
(4) Viruses cannot multiply within meristem
cell(s)
145. Barnacles growing on back of whale is an
example of :
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism
(3) Parasilism (4) Amensalism
146. Which of the following statement is not correct
about ecological niche of an organism ?
(1) It represents functional status of a species
in environment.
(2) One niche supports a single species.
(3) Each ecological niche is free from competition.
(4) It represent trophic position of a species.
141.
A. i.
B. ii.
C. iii.
D. iv.
A B C D
(1) i ii iii iv
(2) ii i iii iv
(3) iii ii i iv
(4) iii i ii iv
142.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
143. (1) (2) (3) (4)
144. (1) (2) (3)
(4)
145. :(1) (2) (3) (4)
146.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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147. Response of organism to abiotic stress is
represented by the diagram below. Identify the
statement which is not correct for the figure.
(1) A – Represent organisms which cannot
maintain a constant internal environment.
(2) B – Represent organisms which can maintai
a constant internal environment through
homeostasis.
(3) C – represent organism which have evolved
the ability to regulate, but only over a limited
range.
(4) B – represents organism which suspend
their activity.
148. If in a pond there were 200 plants last year and
through reproduction 80 new plants were
added, then the birth rate per plant per year is-
(1) 08 (2) 80 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.8
149. Level of sound which may damage ear drums-
(1) 10 dB (2) 30 dB
(3) 35 dB - 55 dB (4) 150 dB or More
150. Which group of organism are not constituents
of a food chain ?
(a) Grass, Lion, Rabbit, Wolf
(b) Plankton, Man, Fish, Grass hopper
(c) Wolf, Grass, Snake, Tiger
(d) Frog, Snake, Eagle, Grass, Grass hopper
(1) (a) and (c) (2) (c) and (d)
(3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
151. ELISA and Widal tests are used to detect,
respectively:
(1) Hepatitis B and Pneumonia
(2) Typhoid & AIDS
(3) AIDS & Penumonia
(4) AIDS & Typhoid
147.
(1) A –
(2) B – homeostasis
(3) C –
(4) B –
148. 200 80 (1) 08 (2) 80 (3) 0.4 (4) 0.8
149. (1) 10 dB (2) 30 dB
(3) 35 dB - 55 dB (4) 150 dB 150.
(a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (a) (c) (2) (c) (d)
(3) (b) (c) (4) (a) (d)
151. ELISA
(1) B
(2) AIDS
(3) AIDS
(4) AIDS
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152. Select the incorrect statement with respect to
cancerous cell
(1) In cancer cell, there is a breakdown of the
regulatory mechanism of cell growth and
differentiation
(2) Cancerous cells grow very rapidly,
invading and damaging the surrounding
normal tissues
(3) Cancerous cells are sloughed from tumors
and reach distant site through blood and
start a new tumor
(4) Cancerous cells never starve the normal
cells by competing for vital nutrients
153. Find out the incorrect statement–
(1) Poultry is the class of domesticated fowl
(birds) used for food or for their eggs.
(2) It is estimated that more than 70% of the
world live stock is found in India alone.
(3) The productivity of livestock in India per
unit is very low.
(4) In-breeding for many many generation may
reduces fertility and productivity.
154. A collection of all the alleles of all the genes
of a crop plant is called–
(1) Germplasm collection
(2) Protoplasm collection
(3) Herbarium
(4) Somaclonal collection
155. Percentage of energy transported from producer
to (primary consumer) herbivores in an ecosystem
is:
(1) 0% (2) 20% (3) 10% (4) 15%
156. Find the mismatch pair
(1) Coniferous forest – Taiga
(2) Tundra – Permafrost
(3) Pampas – Europe
(4) Prairies – Canada
152. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
153.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
154.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
155. :
(1) 0% (2) 20%
(3) 10% (4) 15%
156.
(1) –
(2) –
(3) –
(4) –
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157. Competition for food, light and space is most
severe between two.
(1) Distantly related species growing in
different habitat.
(2) Distantly related species growing in same
habitat.
(3) Closely related species growing in different
habitat.
(4) Closely related species growing in same
habitat.
158. Calotropis is adapted against herbivores due to
the presence of-
(1) Poisonous glycosides
(2) Thorns
(3) Nicotine
(4) Both (1) and (2)
159. Which one of the following age pyramids is
representing the increasing human population?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) Both (2) and (3)
160. Choose the correct labeling considering the
given below phosphorus cycle-
(1) C- Detritus; B-Consumers
(2) A-Consumers; C-Producers
(3) C-Rock minerals; E-Soil solution
(4) A-Detritus; D-Soil solution
157.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
158.
(1) (2) (3)
(4) (1) (2) 159.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) (2) (3)
160.
(1) C- ; B-
(2) A-; C-(3) C-; E-
(4) A-; D-
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161. Select the incorrect statement in reference to the
given structure
(a) It is produced by B lymphocytes and T
lymphocytes help in it.
(b) It provides active immunity when given
directly
(c) It maintains humoral immune response
(d) It is involved in graft rejection
(1) b, c and d (2) a and c
(3) a and b (4) b and d
162. How many statements are true related to HIV
infection ?
(a) It belongs to group of retro virus
(b) It contains single stranded DNA
(c) Entry into human cells requires CD4
receptor and CXCR4, CCR5 Co-receptors
(d) It reduces number of T-helper cells
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four
163. Somaclones are :-
(1) Somatic hybrids
(2) Genetically identical to the original plant
(3) Used to recover disease free plant
(4) Sterile plants
164. Biofortification refers to the development of
crop plants which are–
(1) Resistant to disease
(2) Resistant to insect pests
(3) Having improved nutritional quality
(4) Having improved iron content
161.
(a) B T
(b)
(c)
(d)
(1) b, c d (2) a c
(3) a b (4) b d
162. HIV
(a)
(b) DNA
(c) CD4 CXCR4,
CCR5
(d) T-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
163. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
164.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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165. Which of the following is true in case of pond
ecosystem :
(1) Pyramid of energy is always inverted
(2) Pyramid of biomass is always upright
(3) Pyramid of energy is always upright
(4) Pyramid of number is always inverted
166. Match the column and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II Column-III
A. Mutualism i. Epiphyte
orchid
a. Mango tree
B. Predation ii. Biological
control
b. Mycorrhizae
C. Competition iii. + , + c. Competitive
release
D. Commensalism iv. Barnacle d. Opuntia
(1) A-(ii)-a, B-(i)-c, C-(iii)-b, D-(iv)-d
(2) A-(iii)-b, B-(ii)-d, C-(iv)-c, D-(i)-a
(3) A-(i)-c, B-(iii)-a, C-(ii)-d, D-(iv)-b
(4) B-(iv)-d, B-(ii)-b, C-(i)-a, D-(iii)-c
167. Which of the following place have subzero
temperature :-
(A)High altitude place
(B) Hydrothermal vent
(C) Polar area
(D) Tropical desert
(1) A & C (2) A, B & C
(3) Only C (4) A, B, C & D
168. Green muffler is planting of tree to reduce noise
pollution it is done :-
(1) On waste lands
(2) Along roads
(3) Along canals
(4) On the slopes of hill
169. Tiger and Lion competing for the same
resources cannot co-exist indefinitely. It can be
best explained by-
(1) Allen's law
(2) Mac Arthur's law
(3) Darwin's law of natural selection
(4) Gause's competitive Exclusion Principle
165. :
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
166. :-
-I -II -III
A i a
B ii b
C iii +, + c
D iv d
(1) A-(ii)-a, B-(i)-c, C-(iii)-b, D-(iv)-d
(2) A-(iii)-b, B-(ii)-d, C-(iv)-c, D-(i)-a
(3) A-(i)-c, B-(iii)-a, C-(ii)-d, D-(iv)-b
(4) B-(iv)-d, B-(ii)-b, C-(i)-a, D-(iii)-c
167. :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A C (2) A, B C
(3) C (4) A, B, C D
168. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
169. (1) (2) (3) (4)
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170. Which of the following cannot cause biomagnification?
(1) CO2 (2) Hg
(3) Lead (4) DDT
171. Transmission of HIV-infection generally does
not occur by :-
(1) sexual contact with an infected person
(2) sharing needles to take intravenous drugs
(3) transfusion of contaminated blood and
blood products
(4) sharing towels with an infected person
172. Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
are causative agents of :–
(1) Ring worm (2) Elephantiasis
(3) Giardiasis (4) Dysentry
173. Meristem culture is the culture of :–
(1) Axillary or apical shoot meristems
(2) Anthers
(3) Plant seed
(4) Young embryos
174. Ecologically most relevant environmental
factor is :
(1) Temperature (2) Water
(3) Light (4) Soil
175. Keystone species in an ecosystem are those that
(1) Contributing to maximum effect on ecosystem
(2) Present in maximum number
(3) Are most frequent
(4) Having maximum biomass
176. Limnetic zone is –
(1) The shallow water zone around the edge of
lake which supports rooted vegetation
(2) The open water zone beyond the littoral zone
(3) The zone where light does not reach
(4) Both (1) and (2)
177. About succession, which of the following
statement is correct ?
(1) In xerosere, xeric conditions progress to
hydric conditions
(2) In hydrosere, mesic environment progress
to hydric conditions
(3) In hydrosere hydric environment progress
to mesic conditions
(4) Abandoned farm lands show primary
succession
170. (1) CO2 (2) Hg
(3) (4) DDT
171. HIV-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 172.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
173. (1) (2) (3) (4)
174. :(1) (2) (3) (4)
175. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
176. –(1)
(2) (3) (4) (1) (2)
177.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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178. Interactions between Sea anemone and Clownfish is-(1) +, 0 (2) 0, +(3) -, 0 (4) 0, –
179. Given below ecological pyramid can neverbelong to-
(1) Number (2) Biomass(3) Energy (4) Both(1) & (2)
180. Main cause of extinction of species fromtropical area is :-(1) Afforestation(2) Deforestation(3) Pollution(4) Soil erosin
178. leqnzh , sfueksu ,oa Dykmu eNyh dh ikjLifjd fØ;kgS&(1) +, 0 (2) 0, +(3) -, 0 (4) 0, –
179. fn;k x;k ikfjfLFkdh fijSfeM dHkh Hkh lEcfU/kr ugha gksldrk&
(1) la[;k ls (2) tSo Hkkj ls(3) ÅtkZ ls (4) (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa ls
180. m".k dfVcfU/k; {ks=ksa esa iztkfr;ksa ds foyqIr gksus dk dkj.kgS :-(1) oujksi.k(2) ouksa dh gkfu (Deforestation)(3) iznq"k.k(4) e`nk dVko
Your moral dutyis to prove that ALLEN is ALLEN
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2016
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /